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Question 941

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Name the major coal producing region located in Telangana state?

  1. AOption (a)

    Singareni Coalfield

  2. BOption (b)

    Raniganj Coalfield

  3. COption (c)

    Talcher Coalfield

  4. DOption (d)

    Jharia Coalfield

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Singareni Coalfield

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Singareni Coalfield.

Key Points

  • Singareni Coalfield is one of the largest coal reserves in India, located in the state of Telangana.
  • The coalfield is operated by the Singareni Collieries Company Limited (SCCL), a public sector enterprise jointly owned by the Government of Telangana and the Government of India.
  • It spans across four districts in Telangana: Bhadradri Kothagudem, Khammam, Jayashankar Bhupalpally, and Peddapalli.
  • Singareni Coalfield is known for its high-quality non-coking coal, which is used primarily for thermal power generation.
  • Coal mining in the Singareni region dates back to the late 19th century, making it one of the oldest coal mining operations in India.

Additional Information

  • Coal Reserves in India: India has the fifth-largest coal reserves in the world, with significant deposits located in Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, and Telangana.
  • Singareni Collieries Company Limited (SCCL): Established in 1920, SCCL is a major coal producer and plays a pivotal role in meeting India's energy demands.
  • Types of Coal: Coal is classified into four types based on carbon content: anthracite, bituminous, sub-bituminous, and lignite. Singareni primarily produces bituminous coal.
  • Coal and Power Generation: Approximately 70% of India's electricity is generated from coal-based thermal power plants, emphasizing the strategic importance of coalfields like Singareni.
  • Environmental Concerns: Coal mining and usage contribute to greenhouse gas emissions, making sustainable mining practices and renewable energy alternatives critical for India’s future energy security.

Question 942

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Which of the following statements is correct in the context of constitutional interpretation and judicial doctrine?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Constitution of India clearly defines the term "basic structure" under Article 368.

  2. BOption (b)

    The Judiciary rejected the idea of spirit-based interpretation and strictly follows the written text.

  3. COption (c)

    The "basic structure" doctrine was brought into existence by the Supreme Court to protect the fundamental features of the Constitution

  4. DOption (d)

    The Parliament can propose amendments that repeal judicial principles without limitation.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The "basic structure" doctrine was brought into existence by the Supreme Court to protect the fundamental features of the Constitution

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The "basic structure" doctrine was brought into existence by the Supreme Court to protect the fundamental features of the Constitution.

Key Points

  • The "basic structure" doctrine is a judicial principle established by the Supreme Court of India in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala (1973) case.
  • This doctrine asserts that while the Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution under Article 368, it cannot alter or destroy its basic structure.
  • The basic structure includes fundamental aspects such as the supremacy of the Constitution, secularism, democracy, rule of law, and the independence of the judiciary.
  • The doctrine serves as a safeguard to ensure that constitutional amendments do not dilute the essence of the Constitution or violate its core principles.
  • It empowers the judiciary to review constitutional amendments and strike them down if they infringe upon the basic structure.

Additional Information

  • Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973): This landmark case established the basic structure doctrine, limiting Parliament's power to amend the Constitution.
  • Article 368: This article of the Indian Constitution provides the procedure for amending the Constitution. However, amendments are subject to the basic structure doctrine.
  • Judicial Review: The power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative acts, including amendments, is integral to maintaining the basic structure.
  • Independence of Judiciary: A fundamental feature of the Constitution, ensuring checks and balances between the legislative, executive, and judiciary branches.
  • Spirit-based Interpretation: The judiciary often interprets the Constitution by considering its overarching principles and values rather than solely relying on the literal text.

Question 943

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) is often viewed as a strategic counter-initiative to which other major global connectivity projects?

  1. AOption (a)

    Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP)

  2. BOption (b)

    Asia-Africa Growth Corridor (AAGC)

  3. COption (c)

    Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) 

  4. DOption (d)

    North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Belt and Road Initiative (BRI).

Key Points

  • The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) is designed to enhance connectivity and promote economic integration between India, the Middle East, and Europe.
  • IMEC is widely regarded as a strategic counter-initiative to China's ambitious Belt and Road Initiative (BRI).
  • The BRI, launched by China in 2013, aims to build a global network of infrastructure and trade routes, connecting Asia, Africa, and Europe.
  • IMEC focuses on creating alternative trade routes and fostering partnerships that align with democratic values and transparent economic practices.
  • By emphasizing connectivity, IMEC seeks to reduce reliance on China's BRI and provide nations with a more diversified and competitive economic framework.

Additional Information

  • Belt and Road Initiative (BRI):
  • An infrastructure development and investment initiative launched by China in 2013.
  • Aims to create a network of trade routes connecting Asia, Europe, and Africa, often referred to as the "New Silk Road."
  • BRI includes projects like railways, highways, ports, and energy pipelines, funded by Chinese loans.
  • Critics often cite concerns about debt traps and lack of transparency in BRI projects.
  • India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC):
  • IMEC was unveiled during the G20 Summit in September 2023, involving India, the UAE, Saudi Arabia, the EU, and other partners.
  • Aims to connect India to Europe via the Middle East through rail and shipping networks.
  • Focuses on sustainable development, clean energy, and digital connectivity.
  • Seeks to offer an alternative to China's BRI for global infrastructure development.
  • Strategic Importance of IMEC:
  • Enhances geopolitical influence of participating nations by creating a new trade route.
  • Strengthens economic ties between India, the Middle East, and Europe.
  • Promotes transparent and inclusive economic practices compared to BRI.
  • Global Connectivity Initiatives:
  • Other notable initiatives include the Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP), Asia-Africa Growth Corridor (AAGC), and the Global Gateway by the EU.
  • These efforts aim to foster sustainable trade and development while reducing dependency on specific countries or regions.

Question 944

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Which of the following statements is / are true regarding India's rural and urban population trends from 1901 to 2011

(1) The rural population has consistently increased in absolute numbers.

(2) The percentage share of rural population in total population has steadily declined.

(3) Urban population first exceeded 100 million in 1981.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    All of the above

  3. COption (c)

    Only 1 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

All of the above

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All of the above.

Key Points

  • Rural population trends (1901-2011): The rural population of India has consistently increased in absolute numbers over the decades, despite the urbanization trend.
  • Decline in rural population share: While the absolute number of rural residents has grown, their percentage share in the total population has steadily declined due to rapid urbanization and industrialization.
  • Urban population milestone: India's urban population first exceeded 100 million in the census year 1981, marking a significant demographic shift towards urbanization.
  • Historical context: The trends reflect India's socio-economic transformation, including advancements in infrastructure, migration, and economic opportunities in urban centers.
  • Data source: The observations are based on census data collected every decade from 1901 to 2011.

Additional Information

  • Urbanization in India: Urbanization refers to the increasing population residing in urban areas, primarily driven by migration, industrialization, and better employment opportunities.
  • Census of India: Conducted every 10 years, the census provides valuable demographic data on population trends, literacy, employment, and urban-rural distribution.
  • Rural-to-urban migration: A significant factor in the declining rural population percentage is migration to urban areas for better living standards and job opportunities.
  • India's urban population in 2011: As per the 2011 Census, 31.16% of India’s population lived in urban areas, marking a substantial growth compared to previous decades.
  • Future projections: By 2030, it is projected that nearly 40% of India’s population will reside in urban areas, highlighting the ongoing trend of urbanization.

Question 945

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Where was the Khelo India University Games 2024 held?  

  1. AOption (a)

    Mumbai, Maharashtra

  2. BOption (b)

    Bhubaneswar, Odisha 

  3. COption (c)

    Guwahati, Assam

  4. DOption (d)

    anaji, Goa प

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bhubaneswar, Odisha 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bhubaneswar, Odisha.

Key Points

  • The Khelo India University Games 2024 were held in Bhubaneswar, Odisha, showcasing top university-level athletes from across India.
  • Odisha has emerged as a prominent hub for sports in India, hosting several high-profile events, including the Hockey World Cup.
  • The event aims to promote sports culture and identify young talent at the grassroots level, aligning with the Khelo India initiative.
  • State-of-the-art facilities in Bhubaneswar, such as the Kalinga Stadium, were utilized for the games.
  • The Khelo India University Games focus on fostering competitive spirit among university athletes and encouraging physical fitness.

Additional Information

  • Khelo India Initiative: Launched by the Government of India to promote sports at the grassroots level and provide financial assistance to promising athletes.
  • Kalinga Stadium: A world-class sports complex located in Bhubaneswar, known for hosting national and international tournaments.
  • Odisha's Sports Infrastructure: The state government has heavily invested in sports infrastructure, making Odisha a key destination for events like the Khelo India University Games.
  • University Games Objective: To provide a platform for young athletes to showcase their talents and prepare for higher levels of competition, including international events.
  • Previous Edition: The first Khelo India University Games were held in 2020 in Bhubaneswar, Odisha, and became a model for subsequent editions.

Question 946

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Which of the following correctly describes Mission Shakti?

  1. It is an integrated women empowerment programme launched in 2022.
  2. It is run by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.
  3. The scheme includes Samarthya and Sambal sub-schemes.
  1. AOption (a)

    All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1 and 3 are correct

  3. COption (c)

    Only 2 and 3 are correct

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 1 and 2 are correct 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

All 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

Key Points

  • Mission Shakti is an integrated women empowerment programme launched by the Government of India in 2022.
  • The programme is implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MoWCD).
  • It aims to promote gender equality and provide support for women's safety, security, and empowerment.
  • The scheme includes two key sub-schemes: Samarthya (focusing on women’s empowerment) and Sambal (focusing on women’s safety and security).
  • The scheme consolidates various existing initiatives and introduces new measures to address issues faced by women comprehensively.

Additional Information

  • Samarthya Sub-Scheme: Focuses on women’s empowerment through skill development, education, and livelihood opportunities.
  • Sambal Sub-Scheme: Aims to ensure safety and security for women through initiatives like One Stop Centres (OSCs), Women Helplines, and Beti Bachao Beti Padhao.
  • One Stop Centres (OSCs): Provide integrated support and assistance to women affected by violence in both private and public spaces.
  • Beti Bachao Beti Padhao: A component of Mission Shakti focused on addressing the declining child sex ratio and promoting the education of the girl child.
  • National Database on Women: A proposed initiative under Mission Shakti to improve data collection and monitoring related to women’s welfare schemes.

Question 947

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

How often is the World Happiness Report released? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Quarterly

  2. BOption (b)

    Annually

  3. COption (c)

    Triennially

  4. DOption (d)

    Biennially

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Annually

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Annually.

Key Points

  • The World Happiness Report is released once every year, making it an annual publication.
  • The report is published by the Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN) in partnership with other organizations.
  • It evaluates happiness levels in countries based on factors like social support, income, health, freedom, generosity, and trust.
  • The first World Happiness Report was released in 2012, and it has continued annually since then.
  • The report uses data from the Gallup World Poll and other official statistics to calculate the happiness rankings.

Additional Information

  • Key Components of the Report: The report examines subjective well-being through three main measures: life evaluations, positive emotions, and negative emotions.
  • Country Rankings: The rankings are based on a three-year rolling average of survey results, ensuring reliability and reducing anomalies.
  • Six Key Variables: The six factors used for rankings include GDP per capita, social support, healthy life expectancy, freedom, generosity, and corruption perception.
  • Purpose: The report aims to influence global policies by highlighting the importance of happiness as a measure of societal progress.
  • Global Impact: The World Happiness Report is widely cited and has become a key resource for understanding the social and economic well-being of countries.

Question 948

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

When focusing on a tree while on an anti-clockwise merry-go-round, from which side does it appear and exit?

  1. AOption (a)

    Right to Leff

  2. BOption (b)

    Always visible

  3. COption (c)

    Never visible

  4. DOption (d)

    Left to Right

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Right to Leff

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Right to Left.

Key Points

  • When you are on an anti-clockwise merry-go-round, your position is constantly changing relative to a stationary object such as a tree.
  • As the merry-go-round rotates anti-clockwise, the tree will first appear on your right side as you move toward it.
  • Due to the continuous rotation, the tree will seem to move from your right side to your left side as you pass it.
  • This apparent motion is a result of the relative positioning between the observer (you) and the stationary object (tree) during the anti-clockwise movement.
  • The correct interpretation of this phenomenon aligns with the principles of relative motion in physics.

Additional Information

  • Relative Motion: The concept of relative motion describes how the position of an object changes with respect to an observer. In this case, the tree’s apparent motion is relative to the observer’s position on the rotating merry-go-round.
  • Anti-clockwise Rotation: A rotation is termed anti-clockwise when it proceeds in the opposite direction to the movement of clock hands. This impacts the observer’s perception of stationary objects.
  • Frame of Reference: The observer on the merry-go-round is in a non-inertial frame of reference. Stationary objects like the tree appear to move due to the observer’s rotational motion.
  • Perception of Motion: The apparent movement of the tree from right to left is a result of the observer’s changing position and orientation relative to the tree.
  • Practical Example: Similar observations can be made in other rotational systems, such as carousels or spinning platforms, where objects appear to move in a direction opposite to the rotation.

Question 949

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

What does the term "Duckworth-Lewis Method relate to in cricket ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fielding restrictions

  2. BOption (b)

    Player ranking system

  3. COption (c)

    Bowling speed calculation

  4. DOption (d)

    Calculating revised target in rain-affected matches

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Calculating revised target in rain-affected matches

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Calculating revised target in rain-affected matches.

Key Points

  • The Duckworth-Lewis Method is a mathematical formula used in cricket to calculate a revised target score in rain-affected matches where overs are lost.
  • It was introduced by statisticians Frank Duckworth and Tony Lewis in 1997 and is now officially known as the Duckworth-Lewis-Stern (DLS) method after updates by Professor Steven Stern.
  • The method takes into account the number of overs remaining and the number of wickets lost to produce a fair target for the chasing team.
  • It has been adopted by the International Cricket Council (ICC) for use in limited-overs matches, including One-Day Internationals (ODIs) and Twenty20 Internationals (T20Is).
  • The DLS method ensures fairness by considering both resources (overs and wickets) available to the batting team at any point during the match.

Additional Information

  • Frank Duckworth and Tony Lewis: The original developers of the method aimed to address the shortcomings of previous rain-rule systems in cricket, such as the "most productive overs" method.
  • Steven Stern's Contribution: Professor Steven Stern updated the Duckworth-Lewis method in 2015 to reflect modern cricket scoring patterns, leading to its renaming as the Duckworth-Lewis-Stern (DLS) method.
  • Key Principles: The method uses pre-determined tables based on historical data to estimate the resources (overs and wickets) a team has left in a match, providing a fair revised target.
  • Criticism: While widely used, the DLS method has faced criticism for its complexity and occasional perceived unfairness in scenarios of extreme weather interruptions.
  • Alternatives: Other rain rules, such as the "VJD Method" (used in domestic cricket in India), also exist but have not gained the same level of global acceptance as the DLS method.

Question 950

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Which Constitutional Amendment Act made the Right to Education a Fundamental Right in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    44th Amendment Act, 1978

  2. BOption (b)

    42nd Amendment Act, 1976

  3. COption (c)

    86th Amendment Act, 2002 

  4. DOption (d)

    97th Amendment Act, 2011

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

86th Amendment Act, 2002 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 86th Amendment Act, 2002.

Key Points

  • The 86th Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A into the Constitution, making the Right to Education a Fundamental Right.
  • It mandates free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 years in India.
  • This amendment led to the enactment of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009.
  • Article 21A ensures that education is provided as a fundamental right, emphasizing equal access for all children irrespective of background.
  • The amendment also modified Article 45 to prioritize early childhood care and education for children below six years.

Additional Information

  • Article 21A: It obligates the State to provide free and compulsory education to children aged 6-14 years.
  • RTE Act, 2009: Enacted to operationalize Article 21A, it specifies norms, standards, and rights related to education.
  • Changes to Article 45: It shifted focus from universal primary education to early childhood care and education.
  • Fundamental Rights: The Right to Education under Article 21A is categorized as a Fundamental Right, ensuring legal enforceability.
  • India's Education Policy: The amendment marked a significant milestone in India’s efforts to achieve universal education and literacy.