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Question 911

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Why does a skilled cricketer move his hands backwards while catching a fast-moving ball? 

  1. AOption (a)

    To apply a greater opposing force on the ball for a quick stop.

  2. BOption (b)

    To reduce the force by increasing the time over which momentum changes.

  3. COption (c)

    To increase the speed of the ball during impact. 

  4. DOption (d)

    To decrease the weight of the ball using gravity. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To reduce the force by increasing the time over which momentum changes.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To reduce the force by increasing the time over which momentum changes.

Key Points

  • When a cricketer moves his hands backward while catching a fast-moving ball, the time duration of the impact increases. This results in the momentum of the ball changing more gradually.
  • According to Newton's Second Law of Motion, force is inversely proportional to the time over which the change in momentum occurs. Increasing the time reduces the force applied on the hands.
  • Reducing the force during impact helps in minimizing the risk of injury to the cricketer's hands.
  • This technique utilizes the concept of "Impulse," which is the product of force and the time duration of its application.
  • The backward movement of hands ensures that the ball's momentum is brought to zero in a controlled manner, enhancing the efficiency and safety of the catch.

Additional Information

  • Newton's Laws of Motion:
  • Newton's Second Law states that Force (F) = Mass (m) × Acceleration (a). It also relates to momentum as F = Δp/Δt, where Δp is the change in momentum and Δt is the time interval.
  • The concept of impulse is derived from this law, where Impulse = Force × Time = Change in Momentum.
  • Momentum: Momentum (p) is the product of an object's mass and velocity (p = mv). It is a vector quantity and is conserved in the absence of external forces.
  • Impulse: Impulse is the measure of the change in momentum of an object when a force acts over a time interval. It explains the importance of increasing the time of impact to reduce the applied force.
  • Safety in Sports: Techniques like moving hands backward while catching are designed to minimize injuries by distributing the force over a longer time, aligning with the principles of physics.
  • Real-World Applications: The same principle is applied in car crash safety mechanisms like airbags and crumple zones, which increase the time of impact to reduce force and prevent severe injuries.

Question 912

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Given below are assertion and reason, read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion The Treaty of Paris (1763) limited French settlements in India to trading posts only.

Reason: The French could no longer station troops or fortify their factories after the treaty.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of Al

  3. COption (c)

    A is true, but R is false.

  4. DOption (d)

    A is false, but R is true.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of Al

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Key Points

  • The Treaty of Paris (1763) marked the end of the Seven Years' War and significantly reduced French influence in India.
  • The treaty allowed France to maintain only trading posts in India, such as Pondicherry, Karaikal, Mahe, and Chandernagore.
  • It explicitly restricted the French from stationing troops or fortifying their factories in India, thereby limiting their power.
  • This agreement ensured British dominance in India and sidelined French ambitions to establish a colonial empire in the region.
  • The Reason (R) correctly explains the Assertion (A) as the prohibition on troops and fortifications directly led to the restriction of French presence to mere trading posts.

Additional Information

  • Treaty of Paris (1763):
  • It ended the global conflict known as the Seven Years' War (1756–1763).
  • In the Indian context, it curtailed French political and military activities, favoring British supremacy.
  • French Settlements in India: The major French trading posts included Pondicherry, Karaikal, Mahe, Chandernagore, and Yanam.
  • Impact on British-French Rivalry: The treaty marked a significant step towards British domination in India, minimizing French interference in Indian affairs.
  • Colonial Conflicts in India: The Anglo-French rivalry in India, also known as the Carnatic Wars (1746–1763), was a key factor leading to the treaty's terms.
  • Seven Years' War: A global conflict involving major European powers, it had repercussions in their colonial territories, including India.

Question 913

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Which body has the power to amend the Union and State power distribution under the Indian Constitution?

  1. AOption (a)

    Supreme Court

  2. BOption (b)

    Lok Sabha

  3. COption (c)

    State Legislature

  4. DOption (d)

    Parliament

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Parliament

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Parliament.

Key Points

  • Under the Indian Constitution, the power to amend the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and State governments lies with the Parliament.
  • Such amendments are carried out under Article 368, which provides the procedure for amending the Constitution.
  • Any amendment related to the Union-State power distribution requires the approval of both houses of Parliament, followed by ratification by at least half of the state legislatures.
  • These amendments are considered "Constitutional Amendments" and typically require a two-thirds majority in both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
  • The process ensures that any change in the power distribution is conducted democratically and with extensive deliberation.

Additional Information

  • Article 368: It provides the detailed procedure for amending the Constitution, including changes to Union-State power distribution.
  • Federal Structure: India follows a quasi-federal system where legislative, executive, and financial powers are divided between the Union and State governments under the Seventh Schedule.
  • Seventh Schedule: It categorizes subjects into three lists—Union List, State List, and Concurrent List—to delineate the powers of the Union and State governments.
  • Concurrent Amendments: Changes affecting both Union and State powers require ratification by at least 50% of state legislatures to ensure cooperation and consensus.
  • Judicial Review: The Supreme Court has the power to review Constitutional Amendments to ensure they do not violate the "Basic Structure Doctrine" of the Constitution.

Question 914

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Consider the following statements:

  1. All-India Services common to Union & states.
  2. Controlled by state governments only.

Which of the above statements is/are true?

  1. AOption (a)

    Both 1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2

  3. COption (c)

    Neither 1 nor 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

  • All-India Services, such as the IAS (Indian Administrative Service), IPS (Indian Police Service), and IFoS (Indian Forest Service), are common to both the Union and State governments.
  • These services are governed by the All-India Services Act, 1951, ensuring uniformity in administration.
  • Officers of All-India Services are recruited centrally by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), but their services are allocated to various states.
  • While they serve in states, their administrative control and career progression are jointly managed by the Union Government and the respective State Governments.
  • The second statement is incorrect because All-India Services are not controlled solely by state governments; they are under dual control.

Additional Information

  • All-India Services Act, 1951: This act provides the legal framework for managing All-India Services. It establishes the joint control of Union and States over these services.
  • Recruitment Process: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) conducts competitive examinations to recruit candidates for All-India Services.
  • Dual Control: Officers of All-India Services work in states but are also subject to central government rules regarding promotions, transfers, and disciplinary actions.
  • Role in Governance: Officers of All-India Services play a crucial role in implementing policies and maintaining law and order across states while ensuring national integration.
  • Examples: IAS officers handle administrative functions, IPS officers manage law enforcement, and IFoS officers oversee forest and environmental management.

Question 915

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

What is the role of the finance minister under the FRBM Act? 

  1. AOption (a)

    To regulate the stock market

  2. BOption (b)

    To oversee disinvestment strategies

  3. COption (c)

    To manage foreign trade policies 

  4. DOption (d)

    To present fiscal policy statements to Parliament

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

To present fiscal policy statements to Parliament

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To present fiscal policy statements to Parliament.

Key Points

  • The Finance Minister is mandated under the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003, to present fiscal policy statements to Parliament for ensuring transparency and accountability in fiscal management.
  • The key fiscal policy statements include the Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement, the Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement, and the Macro-Economic Framework Statement.
  • The objective of these statements is to provide a roadmap for fiscal consolidation, ensuring fiscal discipline and long-term economic stability.
  • The Finance Minister also reviews compliance with the targets set under the FRBM Act, such as fiscal deficit and revenue deficit, and reports deviations, if any, to Parliament.
  • These statements aim to keep fiscal management aligned with the principles of prudence, sustainability, and intergenerational equity.

Additional Information

  • Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act:
  • It was enacted in 2003 to institutionalize financial discipline and reduce fiscal deficits in India.
  • The Act sets limits on the fiscal deficit and public debt of the government, aiming to achieve a balanced budget over time.
  • It was amended in 2018 to include a fiscal deficit target of 3% of GDP by March 2021.
  • Fiscal Deficit:
  • It is the difference between total government expenditure and its total revenue (excluding borrowings).
  • High fiscal deficits can lead to inflationary pressures, whereas low deficits ensure fiscal sustainability.
  • Revenue Deficit:
  • The revenue deficit refers to the excess of the government's revenue expenditure over revenue receipts.
  • A high revenue deficit indicates that the government is borrowing to meet its operational expenses.
  • Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement:
  • It projects three-year rolling targets for key fiscal indicators like revenue deficit, fiscal deficit, and debt levels.
  • Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement:
  • It outlines the government's strategy to achieve fiscal objectives and manage public finances.

Question 916

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

What strategic rationale drives India's investment in Iran's Chabahar Port ?

  1. AOption (a)

    To reach Afghanistan and Central Asia bypassing Pakistani

  2. BOption (b)

    To monitor US naval operations

  3. COption (c)

    To build naval bases in Iran

  4. DOption (d)

    To import natural gas from Saudi Arabia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

To reach Afghanistan and Central Asia bypassing Pakistani

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To reach Afghanistan and Central Asia bypassing Pakistan.

Key Points

  • India’s investment in Chabahar Port is strategically aimed at providing a trade route to Afghanistan and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan.
  • The port facilitates India's access to landlocked countries like Afghanistan and enhances connectivity to resource-rich Central Asian nations.
  • Chabahar Port plays a crucial role in India's International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), which aims to improve connectivity between India, Iran, and Russia.
  • It reduces logistical costs and time for trade with Central Asian countries compared to existing routes through Pakistan.
  • Chabahar is being developed as a counterbalance to Pakistan's Gwadar Port, which is a key project under China's Belt and Road Initiative.

Additional Information

  • Chabahar Port Location: It is located in southeastern Iran, along the Gulf of Oman, and serves as Iran's only oceanic port.
  • INSTC: The International North-South Transport Corridor is a 7,200 km long multimodal transportation network connecting India, Iran, and Russia, aimed at reducing transit time and costs.
  • Strategic Importance: Chabahar Port enables India to bypass Pakistan for trade with Afghanistan, especially given the strained India-Pakistan relations.
  • India-Iran Relations: India has invested heavily in the Chabahar Port and related infrastructure, strengthening its ties with Iran despite geopolitical challenges.
  • Geopolitical Context: The port counters China's strategic influence in the region through its investment in Pakistan's Gwadar Port under the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC).

Question 917

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Which of the following statements is / are correct regarding the regional features of Gujarat's medieval architecture ?

1.Architectural forms in Gujarat often incorporated elements from local temple traditions.

2.Structures such as mosques and tombs in Gujarat featured ornamental carvings like toranas and bell motifs.

3.Gujarat's architectural style strictly avoided any decorative influence from indigenous practices.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 Only

  3. COption (c)

    All 1, 2, and 3 are correct

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 2 Only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1 and 2 Only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 2 Only.

Key Points

  • Gujarat’s medieval architecture displayed a blend of Islamic and local Hindu traditions, integrating features from temple architecture.
  • Elements like toranas (arched gateways) and bell motifs, commonly found in Hindu temples, were adapted into mosques and tombs during the medieval period.
  • Regional architectural styles in Gujarat reflected a cultural synthesis rather than strict segregation, rejecting the notion of avoiding indigenous decorative influences.
  • Gujarat's architecture evolved through the adaptation of local craftsmanship and materials, ensuring a unique regional identity.

Additional Information

  • Toranas: These are intricately carved arch-like structures that are often associated with Hindu and Jain temples but were incorporated into Islamic architecture in Gujarat.
  • Bell Motifs: Decorative patterns resembling bells, commonly found in temple designs, were adapted in Islamic structures to harmonize aesthetics.
  • Cultural Synthesis: The coexistence of Hindu, Jain, and Islamic architectural elements in Gujarat showcases the region's pluralistic cultural history.
  • : Local architectural practices included the use of sandstone and marble, along with intricate carvings, reflecting the craftsmanship of Gujarat.
  • Solanki Style: This refers to the architectural style during the Solanki dynasty, which influenced later medieval structures in Gujarat.

Question 918

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Which of the following statements best captures the essence of Malthus' theory as outlined in the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    the natural imbalance between food supply and population growth leads to unavoidable hardships unless population is controlled

  2. BOption (b)

    Voluntary checks on population are more effective than natural calamities in curbing overpopulation.

  3. COption (c)

    Population grows in arithmetic progression, while food production grows geometrically

  4. DOption (d)

    Agricultural production can grow faster than population with technological advancement.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

the natural imbalance between food supply and population growth leads to unavoidable hardships unless population is controlled

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the natural imbalance between food supply and population growth leads to unavoidable hardships unless population is controlled.

Key Points

  • Thomas Malthus proposed that population growth tends to outstrip food supply, leading to resource scarcity and societal hardships.
  • He argued that population grows exponentially while food production grows only arithmetically, creating a natural imbalance.
  • Malthus emphasized the importance of controlling population growth through preventive measures like moral restraint.
  • Without such checks, he believed that natural calamities like famine, disease, and war would serve as corrective forces to reduce population size.
  • Malthus' theory underscores the critical need for sustainable population management to avoid societal collapse.

Additional Information

  • Malthusian Theory: Proposed in 1798 in his book "An Essay on the Principle of Population," Malthus suggested that unchecked population growth leads to poverty and social unrest.
  • Exponential vs Arithmetic Growth: Population grows exponentially (doubling over time), while food supply grows arithmetically (linear increase), creating an imbalance.
  • Preventive Checks: Measures like delayed marriage, celibacy, and family planning to control population growth.
  • Positive Checks: Natural disasters, famine, disease, and conflict that reduce population when preventive measures are ineffective.
  • Criticism: Advances in agricultural technology and economic development have challenged Malthus' predictions, making them less applicable in modern contexts.

Question 919

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Read the following statements:

Statement 1: The temperature in Troposphere decreases at the rate of 1°C for every 165 meters of height.

Statement 2: The temperature in mesosphere starts to decrease with the increase in altitude and reaches up to -100°C at around 80 km.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Only Statement 1 is correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Only Statement 2 is correct

  3. COption (c)

    Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

  4. DOption (d)

    Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 is correct: The temperature in the troposphere decreases at an approximate rate of 6.5ºC per kilometer, which is equivalent to 1ºC for every 165 meters of altitude. This phenomenon is called the environmental lapse rate.
  • Statement 2 is correct: In the mesosphere, the temperature decreases with altitude, reaching around -100ºC near its upper boundary at approximately 80 kilometers above the Earth's surface.
  • The troposphere is the lowest layer of Earth's atmosphere, where weather phenomena occur and temperature decreases due to reduced air density and pressure.
  • The mesosphere is the middle layer of the atmosphere, characterized by decreasing temperatures and is considered the coldest layer of Earth's atmosphere.

Additional Information

  • Troposphere:
  • The troposphere extends up to about 8-15 kilometers above the Earth's surface, depending on the geographical location (higher at the equator).
  • It contains approximately 75% of the atmosphere's mass and nearly all the water vapor.
  • Temperature decreases as altitude increases due to the adiabatic cooling of rising air.
  • Mesosphere:
  • The mesosphere lies above the stratosphere and extends from approximately 50 to 80 kilometers above the Earth's surface.
  • It is known for the presence of noctilucent clouds and meteors that burn up due to atmospheric friction.
  • Temperatures in the mesosphere drop significantly, reaching as low as -100ºC due to low air density.
  • Environmental Lapse Rate:
  • This refers to the rate at which air temperature decreases with altitude in the troposphere, averaging 6.5ºC per kilometer.
  • It varies based on local weather conditions, humidity, and geographical factors.
  • Atmospheric Layers:
  • Earth's atmosphere is divided into five layers: Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, and Exosphere.
  • Each layer has distinct temperature and pressure profiles.

Question 920

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Given below are assertion and reason, read the statements and choose the correct option.

Assertion: British capital accumulation in the 18th century was reinvested in industrial development.

Reason: The capital was largely controlled by merchants and industrialists instead of the feudal aristocracy.

  1. AOption (a)

    A is true, but R is false.

  2. BOption (b)

    Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.

  3. COption (c)

    Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. 

  4. DOption (d)

    A is false, but R is true.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A..

Key Points

  • During the 18th century, the British economy experienced rapid capital accumulation, leading to the Industrial Revolution.
  • This capital was reinvested primarily in industrial development, paving the way for advancements in machinery, production techniques, and infrastructure.
  • The assertion is supported by the fact that merchants and industrialists controlled the majority of capital, shifting economic power from the feudal aristocracy to the emerging capitalist class.
  • Merchants and industrialists prioritized reinvestment in industries such as textiles, iron production, and transportation, which were critical for economic growth.
  • The shift from feudal to industrial economic structures marked a significant turning point in British economic history, enabling sustained industrialization.

Additional Information

  • Industrial Revolution: A period of significant industrial growth in the late 18th and early 19th centuries, marked by advancements in technology, manufacturing, and economic structures.
  • Capital Accumulation: The process of amassing wealth or financial resources that can be reinvested into productive activities, such as industrial development.
  • Role of Merchants and Industrialists: Merchants and industrialists played a crucial role by channeling capital into industries rather than land-based feudal systems, driving innovation and expansion.
  • Decline of Feudal Aristocracy: The economic influence of feudal lords diminished as industrial capitalism gained prominence, reshaping societal hierarchies.
  • Textile Industry: One of the earliest and most significant industries to benefit from reinvested capital, leading to innovations such as the spinning jenny and power loom.