Search Previous Year Questions

The correct answer is 10 years.

Key Points

• India signed a long-term agreement with Iran for the operationalization of the Chabahar Port in May 2024.
• The duration of the agreement is 10 years, ensuring India's strategic and economic interests in the region.
• The Chabahar Port is India's gateway to Afghanistan and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan.
• This port plays a critical role in the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), enhancing regional connectivity.
• The agreement reflects India's commitment to strengthening its ties with Iran despite geopolitical challenges.

Additional Information

• Chabahar Port
• Located in southeastern Iran, Chabahar is the only Iranian port with direct access to the Indian Ocean.
• It consists of two terminals: Shahid Beheshti and Shahid Kalantari.
• The port is strategically important for India to bypass Pakistan for trade with Afghanistan and Central Asia.
• International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC)
• An international multimodal transportation project connecting India, Iran, and Russia.
• It aims to reduce the time and cost of freight transport compared to the Suez Canal route.
• Chabahar Port is a key node in this corridor.
• India-Iran Relations
• India and Iran share strong cultural, economic, and strategic ties.
• Chabahar Port is a cornerstone of these bilateral relations.
• Both countries cooperate on counterterrorism and regional stability initiatives.
• Geopolitical Significance
• Chabahar Port counters China's influence in the region, particularly the Gwadar Port in Pakistan under the CPEC.
• It enhances India's connectivity with resource-rich Central Asia.
• The port is vital for the economic development of landlocked Afghanistan.

The correct answer is Only 1.

Key Points

• Udayagiri and Khandagiri caves are a group of rock-cut caves located near Bhubaneswar in Odisha, India.
• The caves were primarily meant for Jain monks, serving as their dwellings and meditation spaces.
• These caves are believed to have been commissioned by King Kharavela of the Mahameghavahana dynasty in the 2^nd century BCE.
• The caves are not shaped like flowers or carved from independent boulders; they are instead excavated from the hillside.
• While primarily Jain in nature, the caves do not have multiple shrines dedicated to Buddhist deities, making statements 2 and 3 incorrect.

Additional Information

• Jain Influence:
• The Udayagiri and Khandagiri caves are among the earliest Jain rock-cut architecture in India.
• They reflect the ascetic practices and the art patronage of Jainism during the rule of King Kharavela.
• Architectural Highlights:
• The most notable caves include the Hathi Gumpha (Elephant Cave), which has inscriptions detailing King Kharavela's reign, and the Rani Gumpha (Queen's Cave), known for its elaborate carvings.
• The caves are adorned with sculptures of Jain Tirthankaras and scenes depicting Jain mythology.
• Historical Significance:
• The inscriptions in the caves provide valuable insights into the socio-political and religious landscape of ancient Odisha.
• They highlight the spread of Jainism and its integration into local culture during the early Common Era.
• Tourism and Preservation:
• The Udayagiri and Khandagiri caves are a protected monument under the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI).
• The site attracts tourists and scholars interested in ancient Indian art, history, and religion.

The correct answer is 2) 1 only.

Key Points

• Statement 1 is correct: A solar eclipse occurs when the Moon passes between the Sun and Earth, casting its shadow on Earth.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: A lunar eclipse occurs during the full moon phase, not the new moon phase, when the Moon passes through Earth's shadow.
• During a solar eclipse, the Sun appears partially or completely obscured as seen from Earth due to the Moon's shadow.
• Lunar eclipses happen only when the Sun, Earth, and Moon align perfectly in a straight line, with Earth in the middle.

Additional Information

• Solar Eclipse:
• Occurs during the new moon phase when the Moon blocks sunlight from reaching Earth.
• The three types of solar eclipses are total, partial, and annular.
• A total solar eclipse occurs when the Moon completely covers the Sun, casting a shadow on Earth.
• Lunar Eclipse:
• Occurs during the full moon phase when Earth casts its shadow on the Moon.
• The two types of lunar eclipses are total and partial, depending on the extent of the Earth's shadow covering the Moon.
• The reddish appearance of the Moon during a total lunar eclipse is due to Earth's atmosphere scattering sunlight, known as the "blood moon" effect.
• Phases of the Moon: The Moon goes through eight phases (new moon, waxing crescent, first quarter, waxing gibbous, full moon, waning gibbous, last quarter, waning crescent) in its monthly cycle.
• Alignment (Syzygy): A solar or lunar eclipse can only occur during syzygy, when the Sun, Moon, and Earth align in a straight line.
• Umbra and Penumbra:
• The umbra is the darkest part of the shadow where the Sun is completely blocked.
• The penumbra is the lighter shadow where the Sun is only partially obscured.

The correct answer is Increased gestational limit for termination to 24 weeks for special cases.

Key Points

• The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021 extended the permissible gestational limit for abortion from 20 weeks to 24 weeks for certain categories of women, such as survivors of rape, incest, minors, and other vulnerable women.
• The amendment introduced a provision where the opinion of two registered medical practitioners is required for termination of pregnancies between 20 and 24 weeks.
• The Act allows abortion at any time during the pregnancy if it is necessary to save the life of the pregnant woman or prevent grave physical or mental injury.
• A new provision was added for the establishment of a Medical Board in every state and union territory to decide on cases involving substantial fetal abnormalities after 24 weeks of gestation.
• The confidentiality of the woman seeking an abortion is protected under the Act, and her identity cannot be revealed except to a person authorized by law.

Additional Information

• Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971
• Initially, the Act permitted abortion up to 20 weeks of pregnancy under specific conditions, including risk to the woman’s life, physical or mental health, and substantial fetal abnormalities.
• This was one of the earlier laws in India that provided a legal framework for safe abortion services.
• Categories of Women Eligible for 24-Week Limit
• Survivors of sexual assault, rape, or incest.
• Minors and victims of human trafficking.
• Women with physical disabilities or mental illnesses.
• Women facing a substantial risk of fetal abnormalities.
• Medical Boards
• Each Medical Board is required to consist of a gynecologist, pediatrician, radiologist, and other relevant experts.
• These boards are tasked with deciding cases of abortion beyond 24 weeks in cases of fetal abnormalities.
• Confidentiality Clause
• The identity and details of the woman undergoing abortion must remain confidential.
• Violation of confidentiality is punishable under the Act.
• Global Context
• India’s updated abortion laws are considered progressive compared to many countries that have stricter regulations on gestational limits for abortion.
• However, access to safe and legal abortion services remains a challenge in rural and underserved areas.

The correct answer is Strategic innovation in both materials and process R&D.

Key Points

• Dr. Avesh Kumar Tyagi's contributions in Atomic Energy are distinct due to his strategic innovation in both materials and process research and development (R&D).
• His work focuses on designing advanced materials and innovative processes to enhance the efficiency and safety of atomic energy applications.
• Dr. Tyagi’s research bridges the gap between fundamental science and industrial-scale applications, which is vital for strategic atomic energy programs.
• His contributions align with India’s goals of achieving self-reliance in nuclear technology and advancing sustainable energy solutions.
• Such innovations have significant implications for nuclear fuel development, waste management, and high-performance reactor technologies.

Additional Information

• Atomic Energy:
• It refers to energy released during nuclear reactions such as fission, fusion, or radioactive decay.
• It is widely used for electricity generation, medical applications, and scientific research.
• Material Innovation in Atomic Energy:
• Advanced materials like zirconium alloys and high-temperature ceramics are critical for reactor performance.
• Materials research ensures safety, longevity, and efficiency in extreme conditions of nuclear reactors.
• Process R&D in Nuclear Technology:
• Process innovation includes advancements in fuel fabrication, reprocessing of spent fuel, and radioactive waste management.
• It also involves improving isotopic separation techniques for better utilization of nuclear fuel.
• Strategic Importance of R&D:
• Strategic R&D in atomic energy enhances energy security, reduces dependence on fossil fuels, and supports clean energy initiatives.
• It also plays a crucial role in national defense and space exploration programs.

The correct answer is To improve crop yield, pest resistance, and nutritional quality.

Key Points

• Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs) are developed with the aim of addressing challenges such as low crop yields, pest infestations, and poor nutritional quality.
• GMOs are engineered to have higher resistance to pests and diseases, reducing the need for chemical pesticides.
• They are modified to enhance nutritional profiles, such as adding vitamins or nutrients to crops like rice and maize.
• Improving crop yield through genetic modification ensures better food security for growing populations worldwide.
• GMOs contribute to sustainable farming practices by minimizing resource use and addressing environmental concerns.

Additional Information

• Genetic Engineering:
• Genetic engineering involves modifying the DNA of organisms to introduce desirable traits.
• It uses techniques such as CRISPR, gene splicing, and recombinant DNA technology.
• Golden Rice:
• A genetically modified variety of rice enriched with vitamin A to combat deficiencies in developing countries.
• It is an example of using GMOs to improve nutritional quality.
• Pest Resistance:
• Crops like Bt cotton and Bt corn are engineered with Bacillus thuringiensis genes to combat pests naturally.
• This reduces dependence on chemical pesticides, benefiting both farmers and the environment.
• Controversies Surrounding GMOs:
• GMOs face criticism over potential health impacts, environmental risks, and ethical concerns.
• Regulatory measures and scientific assessments are in place to ensure safety.
• Sustainable Agriculture:
• GMOs play a significant role in addressing challenges like climate change, soil degradation, and water scarcity.
• They are part of modern sustainable farming practices aimed at feeding growing populations efficiently.

The correct answer is Canada.

Key Points

• The first Commonwealth Games were held in Hamilton, Canada, from August 16 to August 23, 1930.
• The event was initially called the British Empire Games and later renamed to Commonwealth Games in 1950.
• A total of 11 nations participated in the inaugural games, featuring 6 sports and 59 events.
• The vision for the games was conceived by Melville Marks Robinson, a Canadian sports administrator.
• Hamilton, Canada, provided a $30,000 fund to cover travel expenses for competitors from participating countries.

Additional Information

• Commonwealth Games Overview
• The Commonwealth Games is a multi-sport international event involving athletes from nations part of the Commonwealth of Nations.
• It is held every four years, with participation limited to Commonwealth member countries.
• The games promote friendship and cooperation among member nations through sports.
• Evolution of the Games
• The name transitioned from the British Empire Games (1930–1950) to the British Empire and Commonwealth Games (1954–1966), the British Commonwealth Games (1970–1974), and finally the Commonwealth Games (from 1978).
• Women’s participation expanded significantly over time, making the games more inclusive.
• Key Sports at the Commonwealth Games
• Some popular sports include athletics, swimming, badminton, boxing, cycling, hockey, and weightlifting.
• Para-sports have been integrated into the games since the 2002 edition in Manchester.
• Recent Commonwealth Games
• The 2022 Commonwealth Games were held in Birmingham, England.
• The games witnessed participation from 72 nations and territories$.

The correct answer is Justice delivery and citizen rights.

Key Points

• The new criminal laws in India aim to replace British-era laws with a focus on ensuring justice delivery and safeguarding citizen rights.
• These reforms emphasize modernizing the legal framework to address contemporary challenges and align with India’s democratic ethos.
• The laws aim to eliminate colonial legacies that were primarily designed to suppress dissent and control the population.
• Provisions are being introduced to ensure speedy trials, victim-centric justice, and a robust rights-based framework.
• The reforms are part of efforts to establish a justice system that reflects India’s constitutional values and promotes fairness, equality, and transparency.

Additional Information

• British-era criminal laws:
• The Indian Penal Code (IPC), Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), and Indian Evidence Act were introduced during colonial rule, primarily to serve the interests of the British Empire.
• The IPC was drafted in 1860 by Lord Macaulay, reflecting a colonial mindset.
• These laws were criticized for being outdated and not aligned with modern democratic principles.
• Citizen rights focus:
• The new laws aim to strengthen fundamental rights enshrined in the Indian Constitution, such as the right to equality, freedom, and life.
• They also emphasize victim protection and ensuring accountability of law enforcement agencies.
• Key objectives of reforms:
• Ensuring timely delivery of justice through simplified and efficient legal processes.
• Promoting fair trials and reducing delays in the judicial system.
• Victim-centric approach:
• Provisions for enhanced rights and compensation for victims of crimes.
• Special focus on crimes against women, children, and marginalized groups.
• Modernization of laws:
• Incorporating provisions to address emerging crimes, such as cybercrimes and financial frauds.
• Ensuring alignment with international human rights standards and treaties.

The correct answer is 6.75 meters.

Key Points

• The 3-point line in international basketball competitions is set at 6.75 meters (22.15 feet) from the basket.
• This distance is standardized by FIBA (International Basketball Federation), the governing body for basketball worldwide.
• The 3-point line was first introduced in international competitions in 1984.
• The purpose of the 3-point line is to reward players for making long-distance shots, enhancing the strategic element of the game.
• In comparison, the NBA 3-point line is slightly farther, ranging from 6.7 meters (22 feet) in the corners to 7.24 meters (23.75 feet) at the top of the arc.

Additional Information

• FIBA Rules:
• FIBA governs basketball rules for international competitions, including the dimensions of the court and the placement of the 3-point line.
• The FIBA court dimensions are slightly smaller than NBA courts, with a width of 15 meters and a length of 28 meters.
• 3-Point Line Evolution:
• The 3-point line was first used in the American Basketball League in the 1960s before being popularized by the ABA and later adopted by the NBA and FIBA.
• It has significantly influenced modern basketball strategies, emphasizing perimeter shooting.
• Comparison with Other Leagues:
• In college basketball (NCAA), the 3-point line is set at 6.32 meters (20.75 feet).
• High school basketball in the U.S. uses a 3-point line at 6.02 meters (19.75 feet).
• Impact on Gameplay:
• The 3-point line has transformed basketball, leading to an increase in long-range shooting attempts.
• Teams now design plays to create open 3-point opportunities, making sharpshooters a valuable asset.

The correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A..

Key Points

• Chambal River is famous for its badland topography, which is called the Chambal ravines.
• The Chambal ravines are formed due to years of soil erosion caused by water and weathering.
• The river flows through a deep gorge and rugged terrain, contributing to the formation of these ravines before it joins the Yamuna River.
• Badland topography is characterized by irregular and steep slopes, often unsuitable for agriculture or habitation.
• The statement correctly explains the connection between Chambal’s deep gorge and the formation of its ravines.

Additional Information

• Badland Topography:
• It refers to a type of terrain that is heavily eroded and unsuitable for agriculture due to poor soil quality.
• Badlands typically occur in arid or semi-arid regions where water erosion is the primary shaping force.
• Chambal River:
• It is a tributary of the Yamuna River and flows through Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.
• The river originates from the Janapav Hills in the Vindhya Range.
• Chambal Ravines:
• The Chambal ravines are a result of gully erosion, which occurs when surface water runoff carves narrow channels in the soil.
• This type of erosion is accelerated by deforestation, overgrazing, and poor land management practices.
• Ravine Rehabilitation:
• Efforts are being made to prevent further erosion in the Chambal ravines through afforestation and soil conservation measures.
• Ravine reclamation projects aim to make the land usable for agriculture and to prevent desertification.