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Question 501

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Which of the following statements best links a current conservation initiative for the Great Indian Bustard with its geographical location?

  1. AOption (a)

    National Avian Research Centre in Maharashtra conducted habitat simulation for GIB.

  2. BOption (b)

    Kalyan Sanctuary in Karnataka now houses the largest wild GIB population.

  3. COption (c)

    India's first successful artificial insemination of GIB took place in the National Breeding Centre in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan.

  4. DOption (d)

     A GIB conservation breeding centre was set up in Kutch, Gujarat for desert climate adaptation. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

India's first successful artificial insemination of GIB took place in the National Breeding Centre in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is India's first successful artificial insemination of GIB took place in the National Breeding Centre in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan..

Key Points

  • The Great Indian Bustard (GIB) is critically endangered and is primarily found in the Thar Desert region of Rajasthan.
  • The National Breeding Centre for GIB in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan, was established as part of a conservation program to prevent the species from extinction.
  • In 2020, India's first successful artificial insemination of a GIB was achieved at the breeding center, marking a significant milestone in the conservation of the species.
  • This initiative is part of a larger effort under the ‘Habitat Improvement and Conservation Breeding of Great Indian Bustard’ project funded by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
  • The breeding center aims to increase GIB population by ensuring successful reproduction under controlled conditions and eventual release into the wild.

Additional Information

  • Great Indian Bustard (GIB) Overview
  • The GIB is one of the heaviest flying birds in the world, listed as Critically Endangered by the IUCN Red List.
  • It is native to the Indian subcontinent, with its largest population in Rajasthan.
  • Key threats include habitat destruction, poaching, and collisions with power lines.
  • Conservation Breeding
  • Conservation breeding involves captive breeding of species to restore declining populations.
  • This approach is particularly useful for species like GIB that face high mortality in the wild.
  • Thar Desert Ecosystem
  • The Thar Desert, also known as the Great Indian Desert, is a key habitat for GIB.
  • It is characterized by arid conditions, sparse vegetation, and a unique ecosystem that supports several endemic species.
  • Government Initiatives for GIB Conservation
  • The National Wildlife Action Plan (2017-2031) includes specific actions for GIB conservation.
  • The ‘Project Great Indian Bustard’ was launched to mitigate threats like habitat loss and power line collisions.

Question 502

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Match the column:

column A (Conductor Type)Column B (Mobile Charge Carriers )
A.Metal1.Positive and negative ions
B.lonised gas2.Electrons and positively charged ions
C.Electrolyte3.Electrons
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 3, B - 2, C - 1

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 2, B - 3, C - 1

  3. COption (c)

    A - 1, B - 2, C - 3

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 3, B - 1, C - 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A - 3, B - 2, C - 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1) A - 3, B - 2, C - 1.

Key Points

  • Metals conduct electricity through free electrons, which move under the influence of an electric field, making them good conductors.
  • An ionised gas (plasma) conducts via electrons and positively charged ions, as both species act as mobile charge carriers.
  • Electrolytes such as acids, bases, and salts conduct current by movement of positive (cations) and negative (anions) ions in solution.
  • This classification shows how different materials rely on different mobile charge carriers for conduction: electrons, ions, or both.
  • The correct mapping is: A–3 (Metal–Electrons), B–2 (Ionised gas–Electrons & Positive Ions), C–1 (Electrolyte–Positive & Negative Ions).

Additional Information

  • Conduction in Metals
  • Follows the electron sea model, where delocalised electrons move freely.
  • Examples: copper, silver, and aluminium—excellent conductors due to high electron density.
  • Conduction in Ionised Gas (Plasma)
  • Plasma is called the fourth state of matter.
  • Electricity conduction occurs due to free electrons and ions created by ionisation.
  • Examples: fluorescent lamps, auroras, lightning.
  • Conduction in Electrolytes
  • Electrolytes dissociate into ions in solution (e.g., NaCl → Na⁺ + Cl⁻).
  • Used in batteries, electrolysis, and biological systems.
  • Key Concept
  • The type of mobile charge carrier determines the mechanism of current flow.
  • Solids (metals) → electrons, Liquids (electrolytes) → ions, Gases (plasma) → ions + electrons.

Question 503

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Which of the following statements are correct? 

(1) Birth rate measures the number of children born per 1000 people annually.

(2) Pull factors include opportunities that attract people to new regions.

(3) Death rate is always higher than birth rate.

(4) Push factors can include civil unrest and lack of jobs.

  1. AOption (a)

    All of the above 

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only 

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2, and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2, and 4 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 4 only.

Key Points

  • Birth rate refers to the number of live births per 1,000 people in a population per year. This is a key demographic indicator.
  • Pull factors are conditions or opportunities (e.g., jobs, better living standards, education) that attract individuals to migrate to a particular area.
  • The statement “Death rate is always higher than birth rate” is incorrect. In many cases, especially in developing countries, the birth rate is higher than the death rate.
  • Push factors are adverse conditions such as civil unrest, unemployment, or environmental disasters that drive people to leave their homes.

Additional Information

  • Demographic Indicators:
  • Demographic indicators like birth rate, death rate, and migration rates are essential for understanding population trends.
  • These indicators influence government policies on healthcare, education, housing, and employment.
  • Migration Push and Pull Factors:
  • Push factors: Include poverty, political instability, natural disasters, and lack of opportunities.
  • Pull factors: Include better employment opportunities, healthcare, education, and higher quality of life.
  • Population Growth Dynamics:
  • Population growth depends on the difference between birth and death rates, along with migration.
  • In developing countries, high birth rates are often coupled with declining death rates due to improved healthcare.
  • Global Trends:
  • Developed nations typically have low birth and death rates, leading to stable or declining populations.
  • Developing nations often experience high birth rates and declining death rates, leading to rapid population growth.

Question 504

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

What does the term ‘capital formation’ refer to in macroeconomics? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Growth in production capacity through investment

  2. BOption (b)

    Decrease in foreign direct investment 

  3. COption (c)

    Expansion of consumer credit  

  4. DOption (d)

    Increase in financial savings  

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Growth in production capacity through investment

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Growth in production capacity through investment.

Key Points

  • Capital formation in macroeconomics refers to the process of increasing the stock of physical and human capital in an economy through investment.
  • It involves the allocation of resources to create infrastructure, machinery, tools, and other assets that enhance production capacity.
  • Investment in capital formation is crucial for economic growth, as it raises productivity and facilitates the production of goods and services.
  • Capital formation can be categorized into physical capital (e.g., factories, equipment) and human capital (e.g., education, training).
  • This process is typically driven by savings, investments, and financial intermediation within the economy.

Additional Information

  • Physical Capital
  • Refers to tangible assets like machinery, buildings, and infrastructure that aid in production.
  • Physical capital is considered a key factor in increasing an economy's output and efficiency.
  • Human Capital
  • Refers to the skills, knowledge, and expertise of the workforce.
  • Investment in education and training improves human capital, leading to higher productivity.
  • Savings and Investment
  • Savings are essential for capital formation, as they provide the funds needed for investment.
  • Higher savings rates in an economy generally lead to increased levels of investment.
  • Role of Financial Institutions
  • Financial institutions like banks and capital markets play a critical role in channeling savings into investments.
  • They act as intermediaries, ensuring efficient allocation of funds for productive purposes.
  • Impact on Economic Growth
  • Capital formation boosts production and generates employment, leading to sustained economic growth.
  • It helps economies transition from lower-income to higher-income stages over time.

Question 505

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Which of the following North-Eastern states has areas governed under the Sixth Schedule? 

  1. AOption (a)

    ​Tripura

  2. BOption (b)

    Manipur

  3. COption (c)

    Nagaland

  4. DOption (d)

    Arunachal Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

​Tripura

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tripura.

Key Points

  • The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the administration of tribal areas in four North-Eastern states: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
  • Tripura has areas governed under the Sixth Schedule, specifically the Tripura Tribal Areas Autonomous District Council (TTAADC).
  • The Sixth Schedule provides for the creation of Autonomous District Councils (ADCs) to preserve the rights, customs, and identity of tribal communities.
  • The ADCs have legislative, judicial, and executive powers, including control over land, forests, and village administration in tribal areas.
  • Tripura's tribal areas constitute about 68% of the state's total geographical area, making the Sixth Schedule crucial for governance there.

Additional Information

  • Sixth Schedule:
  • Introduced to protect the cultural and economic interests of the tribal communities in select areas.
  • Applies to certain areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
  • Provides for decentralization through Autonomous District and Regional Councils.
  • Empowers these councils to make laws on land, forests, agriculture, customs, and other local matters.
  • Tripura Tribal Areas Autonomous District Council (TTAADC):
  • Established in 1985 under the Sixth Schedule.
  • Covers tribal-dominated areas of Tripura.
  • Ensures protection of tribal rights and self-governance.
  • Other North-Eastern States:
  • Manipur and Arunachal Pradesh are not governed under the Sixth Schedule.
  • Nagaland has special provisions under Article 371A, but not the Sixth Schedule.
  • Importance of Sixth Schedule:
  • Preserves tribal culture, traditions, and autonomy in governance.
  • Promotes development while ensuring tribal identity is not diluted.

Question 506

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

What is the punishment for abetment of an offense under the POCSO Act?

  1. AOption (a)

    Same punishment as the offense

  2. BOption (b)

    Half the punishment prescribed for the offense

  3. COption (c)

    No punishment

  4. DOption (d)

    Community service

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Same punishment as the offense

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Same punishment as the offense.

Key Points

  • Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offenses (POCSO) Act, abetment of an offense is treated with the same punishment as the offense itself.
  • The Act ensures stringent penalties for individuals who aid, encourage, or facilitate the commission of sexual offenses against children.
  • Abetment is broadly defined to include instigating, engaging in conspiracy, or intentionally aiding the offense, highlighting the comprehensive nature of the Act.
  • POCSO provides legal protection to children (individuals below 18 years of age) against a wide range of sexual offenses, including abetment.
  • These provisions aim to strengthen the deterrence against child abuse and ensure accountability for all parties involved.

Additional Information

  • POCSO Act Overview:
  • The POCSO Act was enacted in 2012 to address child sexual abuse comprehensively.
  • It defines offenses such as penetrative sexual assault, non-penetrative sexual assault, sexual harassment, and pornography involving children.
  • The Act makes it mandatory to report offenses and prescribes penalties for failure to do so.
  • Abetment Under Indian Penal Code (IPC):
  • In the IPC, abetment refers to instigating, conspiring, or aiding the commission of an offense.
  • The POCSO Act builds upon IPC provisions to ensure specific protections for children.
  • Child-Friendly Procedures:
  • The POCSO Act mandates child-friendly procedures during investigation and trial, such as avoiding direct confrontation with the accused.
  • It ensures the confidentiality of the victim and provides assistance through special educators or interpreters.
  • Judicial Interpretation:
  • Indian courts have consistently reinforced strict adherence to POCSO provisions, emphasizing punishment for abetment.
  • Judgments highlight the importance of protecting the vulnerable sections of society, especially children.

Question 507

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Which layer of the Earth's atmosphere is primarily responsible for absorbing ultraviolet radiation from the Sun? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Thermosphere

  2. BOption (b)

    Stratosphere

  3. COption (c)

    Mesosphere

  4. DOption (d)

    Troposphere

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Stratosphere

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Stratosphere.

Key Points

  • The Stratosphere is the second layer of Earth's atmosphere, located above the Troposphere and below the Mesosphere.
  • It contains the ozone layer, which plays a vital role in absorbing the majority of the Sun's harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation.
  • The ozone layer is concentrated between 15 to 35 kilometers above Earth's surface within the Stratosphere.
  • Ultraviolet radiation absorption by ozone molecules prevents excessive UV exposure on Earth's surface, protecting living organisms from DNA damage.
  • Human activities, such as the release of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), have historically caused damage to the ozone layer, leading to international agreements like the Montreal Protocol to phase out ozone-depleting substances.

Additional Information

  • Ozone Layer:
  • Ozone is a molecule composed of three oxygen atoms (O3).
  • It is formed naturally through the interaction of ultraviolet light with oxygen molecules (O2) in the Stratosphere.
  • The ozone layer absorbs UV-B and UV-C radiation, while allowing UV-A radiation to pass through.
  • Atmospheric Layers:
  • The Earth's atmosphere is divided into five main layers: Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, and Exosphere.
  • The Troposphere is the lowest layer, where weather occurs, while the Stratosphere is above it and houses the ozone layer.
  • The Mesosphere is known for meteoroid burning, and the Thermosphere includes the ionosphere, crucial for radio communication.
  • Ultraviolet Radiation:
  • UV radiation is part of the electromagnetic spectrum emitted by the Sun.
  • It is classified into three types: UV-A, UV-B, and UV-C based on wavelength.
  • Excessive UV exposure can cause skin cancer, cataracts, and immune system suppression in humans.
  • Montreal Protocol:
  • Signed in 1987, this international treaty aims to phase out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances.
  • It has been highly successful in reducing chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other harmful chemicals, aiding in ozone layer recovery.
  • The protocol is considered one of the most effective environmental treaties globally.

Question 508

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

In the context of Mughal administration, who were referred to as Shaikhzadas or Hindustanis?

  1. AOption (a)

    Central Asian nobles of Turkic origin serving the Mughals

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajput converts elevated to noble ranks for loyalty

  3. COption (c)

    Persian-trained officers recruited from Safavid Iran

  4. DOption (d)

    Indigenous Muslims who held administrative posts under Mughal rule

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Indigenous Muslims who held administrative posts under Mughal rule

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Indigenous Muslims who held administrative posts under Mughal rule.

Key Points

  • Shaikhzadas or Hindustanis referred to indigenous Muslims, primarily those who were born in India and held administrative roles in the Mughal Empire.
  • They were distinct from the foreign-born nobles such as Persians, Afghans, or Central Asians who also served the Mughal court.
  • This group formed a significant part of the Mughal bureaucracy and contributed to the stability and governance of the empire.
  • The term "Hindustanis" emphasized their regional association with the Indian subcontinent, distinguishing them from immigrant elites.
  • Shaikhzadas often acted as a bridging community between the Mughal rulers and the local populace, facilitating smoother administration.

Additional Information

  • Nobility in Mughal Administration:
  • The Mughal nobility was a mix of ethnic groups, including Persians, Turks, Afghans, and Hindustanis.
  • They were ranked based on the mansabdari system, which determined their military and administrative responsibilities.
  • The mansabdars were categorized into zat (personal rank) and sawar (cavalry rank).
  • Central Asian Nobles:
  • These were elites of Turkic or Timurid origin who migrated from regions such as Uzbekistan and Turkmenistan.
  • They played a critical role in the early Mughal conquests and administration.
  • Persian Influence:
  • Persian culture and language heavily influenced the Mughal court.
  • Many Persian-trained officers were recruited due to their expertise in governance and military strategy.
  • Rajput and Hindu Nobles:
  • The Mughal emperors, especially Akbar, allied with Rajput rulers, integrating them into the Mughal nobility.
  • This policy helped in reducing resistance and strengthening the empire.
  • Role of Indigenous Muslims:
  • Indigenous Muslims or Shaikhzadas were crucial for local administration and revenue collection.
  • Their deep understanding of local conditions enhanced the efficiency of the Mughal governance system.

Question 509

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Which of the following bodies has the power to create new All-India Services common to both the Union and the States?

  1. AOption (a)

    The President of India by issuing an executive order.

  2. BOption (b)

    The Union Cabinet by a simple majority.

  3. COption (c)

    The Prime Minister with the consent of all Chief Ministers.

  4. DOption (d)

    The Parliament, provided the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a special majority.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The Parliament, provided the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a special majority.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The Parliament, provided the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a special majority.

Key Points

  • The creation of new All-India Services common to both the Union and the States requires a special resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha, as per Article 312 of the Indian Constitution.
  • Such a resolution must be supported by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting in the Rajya Sabha.
  • Once the resolution is passed, Parliament gains legislative authority to enact laws for the establishment of the new All-India Service.
  • All-India Services include existing services like the Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Police Service (IPS), and the Indian Forest Service (IFS).
  • The Rajya Sabha's special role reflects the federal structure of India, ensuring that states have representation in decisions affecting shared administrative services.

Additional Information

  • Article 312 of the Indian Constitution:
  • This article empowers the Parliament to create new All-India Services if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect.
  • It ensures coordination between the Union and the States in key administrative functions.
  • All-India Services:
  • The All-India Services are unique to India's federal structure, where officers serve both the Union and State governments.
  • These services ensure uniformity in administrative practices across the country.
  • Special Majority:
  • A special majority requires the support of at least two-thirds of the members present and voting.
  • This ensures that major decisions have widespread support in the legislative body.
  • Rajya Sabha's Role:
  • The Rajya Sabha (Council of States) represents the states in India's federal structure.
  • Its special role in creating All-India Services underscores the importance of states in the decision-making process.

Question 510

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Arrange the following RBI Governors in the correct chronological order of their tenure (from earliest to latest):

  1. Dr. Y. V. Reddy
  2. Dr. D. Subbarao
  3. Dr. Urjit R. Patel
  4. Shri Sanjay Malhotra
  1. AOption (a)

    1,3,2,4

  2. BOption (b)

    2, 3, 1, 4

  3. COption (c)

    2,1,3,4

  4. DOption (d)

    1,2,3,4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1,2,3,4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2, 3, 4.

Key Points

  • Dr. Y. V. Reddy served as the Governor of RBI from 6 September 2003 to 5 September 2008.
  • Dr. D. Subbarao succeeded Dr. Y. V. Reddy and held office from 5 September 2008 to 4 September 2013.
  • Dr. Urjit R. Patel served as the Governor of RBI from 4 September 2016 to 10 December 2018.
  • Shri Sanjay Malhotra is the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

Before becoming the Governor, he was a senior bureaucrat and served as the Secretary, Department of Financial Services (DFS) in the Government of India.

  • The chronological order of tenure based on the provided names is: 1 (Dr. Y. V. Reddy), 2 (Dr. D. Subbarao), 3 (Dr. Urjit R. Patel), 4 (Shri Sanjay Malhotra).

Additional Information

  • RBI Governors:
  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has had several Governors since its establishment in 1935.
  • The Governor is responsible for overseeing monetary policy, managing inflation, and ensuring financial stability in India.
  • RBI Governors are appointed by the Government of India for a term of 3 years (renewable).
  • Dr. Urjit Patel:
  • He succeeded Dr. Raghuram Rajan as the Governor of RBI.
  • Dr. Patel is known for his work on inflation targeting and the implementation of the Monetary Policy Framework Agreement.
  • Dr. D. Subbarao:
  • Dr. Subbarao implemented several measures to counter the effects of the global financial crisis during his tenure.
  • He introduced steps to increase transparency in monetary policy decisions.
  • Important Role of RBI Governors:
  • The RBI Governor plays a critical role in influencing India's economic growth and stability.
  • Key responsibilities include managing the country's currency, foreign exchange reserves, and banking regulations.