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Question 341

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

The Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP) focuses on:

  1. AOption (a)

    Developing industrial clusters in backward regions

  2. BOption (b)

    Providing subsidies to small-scale industries

  3. COption (c)

    Improving governance in urban areas

  4. DOption (d)

    Enhancing development in underdeveloped districts

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Enhancing development in underdeveloped districts

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Enhancing development in underdeveloped districts.

Key Points

  • The Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP) was launched by the Government of India in January 2018 under the auspices of NITI Aayog.
  • It aims to rapidly transform 117 districts identified as the most underdeveloped in India across various socio-economic indicators.
  • The programme focuses on sectors such as health and nutrition, education, agriculture and water resources, financial inclusion, and skill development.
  • ADP emphasizes data-driven governance through real-time monitoring and ranking of districts based on their progress in key indicators.
  • Collaboration among central ministries, state governments, and district administrations ensures targeted interventions for accelerated development.

Additional Information

  • NITI Aayog's Role: NITI Aayog spearheads the Aspirational Districts Programme by providing technical support and monitoring the progress of districts using a dashboard system.
  • Delta Ranking: Districts are ranked based on their improvement in key indicators. The ranking system encourages competition and accountability among districts.
  • Focus Areas: The programme prioritizes development in areas such as maternal and child health, education outcomes, rural infrastructure, and skill development.
  • Convergence Model: ADP integrates efforts from various schemes like Poshan Abhiyaan, PM Awas Yojana, and Skill India Mission to ensure holistic development.
  • UNDP Collaboration: The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) supports the programme by identifying best practices and providing analytical assistance.

Question 342

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Given below are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read and mark the correct options:

Assertion (A):

The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, promotes e-filing and virtual trials to expedite the justice delivery system.

Reason (R):

The integration of technology aims to reduce case pendency and enhance accessibility to justice.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

  2. BOption (b)

    A is false, but R is true.

  3. COption (c)

    Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

  4. DOption (d)

    A is true, but R is false.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Key Points

  • The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, is part of the reforms aimed at modernizing the criminal justice delivery system in India.
  • The Sanhita promotes e-filing of cases and virtual trials to facilitate faster and more efficient legal proceedings.
  • Virtual trials aim to reduce logistical challenges and expedite the resolution of pending cases in the courts.
  • Technological integration under BNSS is designed to enhance accessibility to justice, especially for remote and marginalized communities.
  • The focus is on leveraging technology to address case backlogs and improve overall transparency in the justice system.

Additional Information

  • E-filing: Refers to the electronic submission of legal documents, enabling litigants and lawyers to file cases online without physical visits to the court.
  • Virtual Trials: These are court proceedings conducted via video conferencing or other digital platforms, ensuring continuity of justice even during emergencies like pandemics.
  • Case Pendency: India’s judicial system faces a significant backlog of cases, with millions of cases pending across various courts, making swift reforms necessary.
  • Accessibility to Justice: Leveraging technology makes the justice system more inclusive, reducing barriers for people in rural areas or those with limited resources.
  • Judicial Reforms: BNSS, 2023, is part of a series of legislative updates aimed at modernizing colonial-era laws, such as replacing the Indian Penal Code (IPC), Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC), and Evidence Act.

Question 343

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Consider the following statements regarding the Ghaghara River system:

1.The Ghaghara originates from the Mapchachungo glacier in the Himalayas.

2.It forms a deep gorge at Shishapani before entering the plains.

3.It merges with the Ganga at Allahabad after receiving the Sarda River.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    Only 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3 are correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only 1 and 2.

Key Points

  • The Ghaghara River originates from the Mapchachungo glacier, located in the Tibetan region of the Himalayas, making it one of the significant trans-Himalayan rivers.
  • Before entering the plains, the river forms a deep gorge at Shishapani, which is a notable geographical feature of its upper course.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect because the Ghaghara does not merge with the Ganga at Allahabad; instead, it joins the Ganga at Chhapra in Bihar after flowing through Uttar Pradesh.
  • The Ghaghara River, also known as the Karnali in Nepal, is a major tributary of the Ganga River system and contributes significantly to its water volume.

Additional Information

  • Ghaghara River System: The Ghaghara is the largest tributary of the Ganga by water volume and is known for its perennial flow sourced from glacial melts.
  • Karnali River in Nepal: In its upper course in Nepal, the Ghaghara is known as the Karnali, which is Nepal’s longest river and a crucial water resource.
  • Sharda River: One of the key tributaries of the Ghaghara, the Sharda River (also known as the Mahakali), originates from the Milam Glacier in the Himalayas.
  • Allahabad (Prayagraj): While Allahabad is the site where the Ganga, Yamuna, and Saraswati (mythical river) meet, the Ghaghara joins the Ganga at Chhapra, located further downstream in Bihar.
  • Economic Significance: The Ghaghara River supports extensive agriculture in the plains of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar due to its fertile alluvial deposits.

Question 344

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

What was the role of the University Grants Commission (UGC), established in 1956?

  1. AOption (a)

    To regulate trade agreements

  2. BOption (b)

    To promote agricultural development

  3. COption (c)

    To manage industrial policies

  4. DOption (d)

    To oversee and fund higher education institutions in India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

To oversee and fund higher education institutions in India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To oversee and fund higher education institutions in India.

Key Points

  • The University Grants Commission (UGC) was established in 1956 under the UGC Act, 1956, to coordinate, determine, and maintain standards of higher education in India.
  • It is responsible for overseeing the allocation of funds to universities and colleges across India and ensuring their proper utilization.
  • UGC is tasked with ensuring quality standards in teaching, examination, and research in higher education institutions.
  • The commission also recognizes universities in India, granting them the authority to confer degrees.
  • UGC acts as a vital link between the Indian government and higher education institutions to promote the development of higher education in India.

Additional Information

  • Autonomy of UGC:
  • The UGC operates as an autonomous body under the Ministry of Education, Government of India.
  • It was established to ensure the independence of higher education institutions from political or external influences.
  • Key Functions of UGC:
  • Monitoring and promoting research and development in universities.
  • Providing fellowships and scholarships to students and researchers.
  • Advising the government on matters related to higher education.
  • Regional Offices:
  • UGC has seven regional offices across India to ensure efficient coordination and implementation of its policies.
  • These offices are located in cities like Hyderabad, Pune, Kolkata, and others.
  • National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC):
  • The UGC established NAAC in 1994 to assess and accredit institutions of higher education to ensure quality standards.
  • NAAC is an independent body under the aegis of UGC.
  • Revised Roles:
  • In recent years, UGC has emphasized skill-based education and the integration of technology in higher education through initiatives like SWAYAM and MOOCs.
  • It is actively contributing to the implementation of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.

Question 345

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Which level of the Panchayati Raj system operates at the village level?

  1. AOption (a)

    Panchayat Samiti

  2. BOption (b)

    Zila Parishad

  3. COption (c)

    Gram Panchayat

  4. DOption (d)

    Gram Sabha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Gram Panchayat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Gram Panchayat.

Key Points

  • The Gram Panchayat is the foundational level of the Panchayati Raj system and operates at the village level.
  • It is responsible for local governance and addressing issues within a village or group of villages.
  • The Gram Panchayat is elected by the Gram Sabha, which consists of all the eligible voters in the village.
  • The head of the Gram Panchayat is known as the Sarpanch, who is elected directly by the villagers.
  • Key responsibilities include implementing rural development programs, maintaining village infrastructure, and ensuring the welfare of the residents.

Additional Information

  • Panchayati Raj System: It is a three-tier system of governance in India, consisting of Gram Panchayat (village level), Panchayat Samiti (block level), and Zila Parishad (district level).
  • Gram Sabha: The Gram Sabha is the assembly of all eligible voters in a village, and it serves as the decision-making body that oversees the functioning of the Gram Panchayat.
  • 73rd Constitutional Amendment: This amendment, passed in 1992, provided constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj institutions and ensured decentralized governance.
  • Functions of Gram Panchayat: These include maintaining water supply, sanitation, roads, and public health; executing development schemes; and resolving disputes at the village level.
  • Revenue Sources: Gram Panchayats generate revenue through taxes on property, markets, and local businesses, as well as grants from the state government.

Question 346

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Which body is responsible for resolving disputes related to the election of the President of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Election Commission

  2. BOption (b)

    Supreme Court

  3. COption (c)

    Lok Sabha

  4. DOption (d)

    Rajya Sabha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Supreme Court

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Supreme Court.

Key Points

  • Disputes related to the election of the President of India are resolved exclusively by the Supreme Court of India.
  • The authority of the Supreme Court in such matters is derived from Article 71 of the Indian Constitution.
  • In its adjudication, the Supreme Court has the power to declare an election void if it finds any malpractice or irregularities.
  • The decision of the Supreme Court in these disputes is final and binding.
  • The Election Commission conducts the election, but disputes arising from it fall under the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

Additional Information

  • Article 71 of the Indian Constitution:
  • It outlines the responsibility of the Supreme Court in handling disputes related to the election of the President and Vice-President of India.
  • The Supreme Court’s decision is considered final under this article.
  • Election Process:
  • The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of States and Union Territories.
  • The process is conducted by the Election Commission of India as per the provisions of the Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Act, 1952.
  • Role of the Election Commission:
  • The Election Commission of India oversees the conduct of Presidential elections.
  • However, it does not have the authority to resolve disputes arising from these elections.
  • Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court:
  • The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in disputes related to the election of the President and Vice-President of India.
  • This jurisdiction ensures the impartiality and fairness of the electoral process.

Question 347

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

What is the name of India's first reusable hybrid rocket launched by a Tamil Nadu-based startup?

  1. AOption (a)

    AGNI-V

  2. BOption (b)

    RAKSHA-1

  3. COption (c)

    VAYU-1

  4. DOption (d)

    RHUMI-1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

RHUMI-1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is RHUMI-1.

Key Points

  • India's first reusable hybrid rocket is named RHUMI-1, launched by the Tamil Nadu-based startup Space Zone India in collaboration with the Martin Group.

  • Launched in August 2024, the rocket uses a hybrid propulsion system combining solid fuel and liquid oxidizer for increased efficiency and reduced costs, with the goal of collecting atmospheric data for climate change research.

  • Key details about the RHUMI-1 mission:

  • Name: RHUMI-1

  • Developer: Space Zone India, a Tamil Nadu-based startup

  • Launch: August 24, 2024, from Thiruvidandhai, Tamil Nadu 

Technology:

  • Hybrid Rocket: Combines solid fuel and liquid oxidizer for a more efficient and safer propulsion system.
  • Reusable Design: Aims to lower costs and environmental impact by making components reusable.
  • Mobile Launch Pad: Allows for flexible launch locations and scenarios.
  • Payload: Carried three Cube satellites and 50 Pico satellites to collect data on atmospheric factors, radiation, and air quality to study global warming and climate change.
  • Environmental Aspect: It is pyrotechnic-free, using an electrically triggered parachute system for safe component recovery.

Additional Information

  • Hybrid Rockets
  • Hybrid rockets use a combination of solid fuel and liquid oxidizer, offering advantages such as better safety and controllability over traditional rocket systems.
  • Their design enables throttling, shutdown, and restart capabilities, making them versatile for various applications.
  • Reusable Rockets
  • Reusable rockets are designed to be launched multiple times, significantly reducing the cost of space missions.
  • Companies like SpaceX and Blue Origin have pioneered the development of reusable launch vehicles globally.
  • India’s Private Space Sector
  • India has opened up its space sector to private players under the "Atmanirbhar Bharat" initiative, fostering innovation and global competitiveness.
  • ISRO supports private startups through its commercial arm, NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), and incubators like IN-SPACe.

Question 348

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Which major reform was introduced in the National Education Policy (NEP), 2020? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Replacement of the 10+2 system with a 5 + 3 + 3 + 4 structure

  2. BOption (b)

    Elimination of private schools

  3. COption (c)

    Compulsory Sanskrit education

  4. DOption (d)

    Mandatory board exams for all grades

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Replacement of the 10+2 system with a 5 + 3 + 3 + 4 structure

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Replacement of the 10+2 system with a 5 + 3 + 3 + 4 structure.

Key Points

  • The National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 introduced a new structural framework for school education, replacing the 10+2 system with the 5+3+3+4 structure.
  • The 5+3+3+4 structure corresponds to the foundational stage (ages 3–8), preparatory stage (ages 8–11), middle stage (ages 11–14), and secondary stage (ages 14–18).
  • This reform emphasizes the importance of early childhood care and education (ECCE), integrating preschool education into the formal schooling system.
  • The new structure aims to align the Indian education system with global standards and emphasizes experiential, skill-based, and holistic learning.
  • It also focuses on reducing the rigid separations between academic streams, vocational education, and extracurricular activities.

Additional Information

  • Foundational Stage: Covers ages 3–8, including three years of preschool and two years of primary education. It focuses on play-based and activity-based learning.
  • Preparatory Stage: Covers ages 8–11 (grades 3–5) and emphasizes discovery-based and interactive classroom learning.
  • Middle Stage: Covers ages 11–14 (grades 6–8) and introduces subject-specific learning, including vocational education.
  • Secondary Stage: Covers ages 14–18 (grades 9–12) and allows students to choose subjects based on their interests, with a multidisciplinary approach.
  • Other Reforms under NEP 2020: Focus on mother tongue/local language as the medium of instruction, introduction of coding and computational thinking from an early stage, and flexibility for students to select subjects across streams.

Question 349

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

What is the role of the Foreigners' Tribunal in the NRC (National Register of Citizens) process?

  1. AOption (a)

    To conduct the Census

  2. BOption (b)

    To issue voter ID cards

  3. COption (c)

    To deport illegal immigrants

  4. DOption (d)

    To verify citizenship claims of individuals excluded from the NRC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

To verify citizenship claims of individuals excluded from the NRC

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To verify citizenship claims of individuals excluded from the NRC.

Key Points

  • The Foreigners' Tribunal (FT) is a quasi-judicial body in India tasked with determining the citizenship status of individuals excluded from the NRC.
  • It assesses cases where individuals are suspected or alleged to be illegal immigrants, particularly in the state of Assam, under the provisions of the Foreigners Act, 1946.
  • The tribunal provides an opportunity for individuals to present evidence and prove their citizenship as per the guidelines of the NRC.
  • It plays a critical role in ensuring that no genuine Indian citizen is wrongfully excluded from the NRC, while illegal immigrants are identified.
  • The tribunals operate under the supervision of the Ministry of Home Affairs and consist of lawyers or retired judicial officers as members.

Additional Information

  • National Register of Citizens (NRC):
  • The NRC is a register containing the names of all genuine Indian citizens in a specific region, primarily implemented in Assam to identify illegal immigrants.
  • The first NRC was prepared in 1951 following the Census of 1951.
  • The NRC process is governed by the Citizenship Act, 1955, and its associated rules.
  • Foreigners Act, 1946:
  • This act empowers the government to detect, detain, and deport illegal immigrants residing in the country.
  • Under this act, the burden of proving citizenship lies with the individual whose status is under question.
  • Illegal Immigrants:
  • An illegal immigrant is a person who enters or resides in a country without proper legal authorization.
  • In the context of the NRC, this includes individuals who entered India after the cut-off date of March 24, 1971, without valid documentation.
  • Quasi-Judicial Bodies:
  • These are institutions that have powers resembling judicial functions but are not part of the judiciary.
  • The Foreigners' Tribunal is an example of a quasi-judicial body, as it makes determinations on citizenship status.
  • Assam Accord (1985):
  • It was an agreement signed between the Government of India and the leaders of the Assam Movement to address the issue of illegal immigration.
  • The cut-off date for inclusion in the NRC was set as March 24, 1971, under this accord.

Question 350

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Which ISRO centers participate in International Geosphere-Biosphere programme?

  1. AOption (a)

    ISRO Headquarters, Space Applications Centre, National Remote Sensing Centre, Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre

  2. BOption (b)

    Space Physics Laboratory, National Remote Sensing Centre, Indian Institute of Remote Sensing, Physical Research Laboratory

  3. COption (c)

    Physical Research Laboratory, Space Applications Centre, Indian Institute of Remote Sensing, ISRO Satellite Centre

  4. DOption (d)

    Space Application Centre (SAC), Indian Institute of Remote Sensing, Space Applications Centre, National Remote Sensing Centre

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Space Application Centre (SAC), Indian Institute of Remote Sensing, Space Applications Centre, National Remote Sensing Centre

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Space Application Centre (SAC), Indian Institute of Remote Sensing, Space Applications Centre, National Remote Sensing Centre.

Key Points

  • The International Geosphere-Biosphere Programme (IGBP) is a global scientific initiative to study Earth’s environment and the impact of human activities.
  • Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) actively participates in IGBP through its dedicated research centers.
  • Space Applications Centre (SAC), Ahmedabad, contributes by providing satellite data for geosphere and biosphere studies.
  • Indian Institute of Remote Sensing (IIRS), Dehradun, specializes in remote sensing technology and its application in environmental studies.
  • National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC), Hyderabad, provides geospatial data for climate change and ecological research.

Additional Information

  • International Geosphere-Biosphere Programme (IGBP):
  • Launched in 1987, focuses on studying the interactions between the geosphere, biosphere, and human systems.
  • It provides critical insights into global environmental changes and sustainability.
  • Remote Sensing:
  • Remote sensing involves acquiring information about Earth’s surface using satellite or aerial platforms.
  • It is essential for monitoring environmental changes, deforestation, urbanization, and climate impacts.
  • Role of SAC:
  • SAC develops payloads and applications for Earth observation satellites that assist in environmental studies.
  • Its contributions include data on vegetation, land use, and atmospheric studies.
  • Indian Institute of Remote Sensing (IIRS):
  • IIRS focuses on capacity building in remote sensing and GIS technologies.
  • It offers training programs and conducts research on natural resource management.
  • National Remote Sensing Centre (NRSC):
  • NRSC operates under ISRO and provides satellite data for environmental and disaster management.
  • It plays a crucial role in national-level studies on climate change and sustainable development.