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Question 111

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Which city is home to the cricket ground, Wankhede Stadium? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Chennai 

  2. BOption (b)

    Mumbai

  3. COption (c)

    Kolkata

  4. DOption (d)

    Delhi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mumbai

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mumbai.

Key Points

  • Wankhede Stadium is located in Mumbai, Maharashtra, and is one of India’s most iconic cricket venues.
  • It was established in 1974 and has hosted numerous international matches, including the 2011 ICC Cricket World Cup Final.
  • The stadium has a seating capacity of approximately 33,000 spectators.
  • It is the home ground of the Indian Premier League (IPL) team Mumbai Indians and the Mumbai cricket team.
  • Renovated in 2010, the stadium is equipped with modern facilities and offers panoramic views of the Arabian Sea.

Additional Information

  • History of the Wankhede Stadium:
  • The stadium was constructed after disputes between the Cricket Club of India (CCI) and the Mumbai Cricket Association (MCA) over Brabourne Stadium.
  • It was named after Sheshrao Wankhede, a politician and former president of the MCA.
  • Notable Matches:
  • The stadium hosted the historic 2011 ICC Cricket World Cup Final, where India defeated Sri Lanka to win the trophy.
  • It has also hosted Test matches, ODIs, and T20Is featuring some of the world’s best cricketers.
  • Renovation:
  • The stadium underwent extensive renovation in 2010 to prepare for the 2011 Cricket World Cup.
  • Upgrades included new seating arrangements, better drainage facilities, and improved player amenities.
  • Mumbai's Sporting Legacy:
  • Mumbai is considered the cradle of Indian cricket, having produced legendary players such as Sachin Tendulkar, Sunil Gavaskar, and Rohit Sharma.
  • The city has a rich cricketing heritage, with Wankhede Stadium playing a central role in its history.

Question 112

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

The Vice-President of India is part of which branch of the government? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Legislative only

  2. BOption (b)

    Executive only

  3. COption (c)

    Judicial only

  4. DOption (d)

    Both Executive and Legislative

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both Executive and Legislative

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both Executive and Legislative.

Key Points

  • The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha, thus playing a legislative role in the Parliament.
  • In the absence of the President, the Vice-President functions as the acting President of India, thereby assuming an executive role.
  • The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament through a process of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
  • As the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha, the Vice-President ensures the smooth functioning of the Upper House of Parliament.
  • The Vice-President's role is unique as it bridges the executive and legislative branches of the government, making the position integral to India's governance structure.

Additional Information

  • Constitutional Provisions:
  • The Vice-President's office is established under Article 63 of the Indian Constitution.
  • Articles 64 to 71 provide details regarding the election, qualifications, and removal of the Vice-President.
  • Election Process:
  • The Vice-President is not elected by the general public but by an electoral college comprising members of Parliament.
  • To be eligible, a candidate must be an Indian citizen, at least 35 years old, and qualified to be elected as a Rajya Sabha member.
  • Legislative Role:
  • As Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha, the Vice-President presides over its sessions, maintaining decorum and ensuring legislative procedures are followed.
  • In case of a tie in voting in Rajya Sabha, the Vice-President casts the decisive vote.
  • Executive Role:
  • The Vice-President assumes the role of acting President in case of the President's death, resignation, removal, or incapacity.
  • During this period, the Vice-President exercises all executive powers of the President.

Question 113

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Which of the following is the specific port facility within Chabahar Port that India is primarily developing and operating? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Jask Port

  2. BOption (b)

    Shahid Beheshti Port

  3. COption (c)

    Shahid Kalantari Port

  4. DOption (d)

    Bandar Abbas Port

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Shahid Beheshti Port

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Shahid Beheshti Port.

Key Points

  • India is primarily developing and operating the Shahid Beheshti Port, which is one of the two terminals at Chabahar Port, Iran.
  • The development of Shahid Beheshti Port is part of India's strategy to create a trade and transit corridor to Afghanistan and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan.
  • India Ports Global Limited (IPGL), a joint venture between the Shipping Corporation of India and Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust, is responsible for managing the Shahid Beheshti Port.
  • The port is critical for India's connectivity initiatives, including the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), which aims to reduce transportation time and costs between India, Iran, Russia, and Europe.
  • India has committed to investing in the modernization and expansion of the Shahid Beheshti Port, including the supply of equipment and financial resources for its operational efficiency.

Additional Information

  • Chabahar Port:
  • Chabahar Port is located in southeastern Iran, along the Gulf of Oman, and consists of two terminals: Shahid Beheshti and Shahid Kalantari.
  • The port is strategically important as it provides Iran with direct access to the Indian Ocean and allows India to bypass Pakistan for trade with Afghanistan.
  • Chabahar is considered a gateway for regional cooperation among India, Iran, and Afghanistan.
  • International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC):
  • INSTC is a 7,200 km-long multimodal transportation network linking India with Russia and Europe through Iran.
  • It aims to reduce the cost and time of freight transport compared to the traditional Suez Canal route.
  • India Ports Global Limited (IPGL):
  • IPGL was established by the Indian government to enhance its overseas port operations and investments.
  • It plays a key role in India's involvement in the development of the Shahid Beheshti Port at Chabahar.
  • Geopolitical Importance:
  • Chabahar Port provides India with an alternative to the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) and Gwadar Port in Pakistan.
  • It is vital for India's energy security and trade diversification in the region.

Question 114

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Consider the following statements:

  1. Madhabi Puri Buch became the first woman to head SEBI in March 2022.

  2. Tuhin Kanta Pandey has been appointed as the new SEBI Chief for three years from February 28, 2025.

  3. Saudi Arabia has awarded PM Narendra Modi the Order of Mubarak Al-Kabeer.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2, and 3 all are correct 

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 2 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key Points

  • Statement 1: Madhabi Puri Buch became the first woman chairperson of SEBI on 2 March 2022. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • Statement 2: Tuhin Kanta Pandey was appointed as the Chairman of SEBI for a period of three years beginning 28 February 2025. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  • Statement 3: Prime Minister Narendra Modi was awarded "The Order of Mubarak Al-Kabeer" by Kuwait, not by Saudi Arabia. It is Kuwait's highest civilian honour bestowed on foreign heads of state and government. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Therefore, only Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Additional Information

  • SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India):
  • Established in 1988 and given statutory status in 1992.
  • Regulates the securities market in India.
  • Headquarters: Mumbai.
  • Madhabi Puri Buch:
  • First woman and first private-sector professional to head SEBI.
  • Order of Mubarak Al-Kabeer:
  • Highest honour of Kuwait awarded to foreign dignitaries.

Question 115

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Name the Indian port that is the largest exporter of iron ore? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Paradip Port

  2. BOption (b)

    Chennai Port

  3. COption (c)

    Visakhapatnam Port

  4. DOption (d)

    Mormugao Port

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mormugao Port

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Marmagao Port.

Key Points

  • Marmagao Port, located in the state of Goa, is one of the oldest and most significant ports in India.
  • It is the largest exporter of iron ore in India, handling a significant portion of the country’s iron ore exports, particularly to countries like Japan and China.
  • The port is strategically located near the iron ore mining regions of Goa and Karnataka, making it a key hub for iron ore shipment.
  • Marmagao Port is equipped with specialized berths and infrastructure for the efficient handling and storage of bulk cargo like iron ore.
  • It is managed by the Mormugao Port Trust (MPT), which oversees its operations and development.

Additional Information

  • Iron Ore in India
  • India is the fourth largest producer of iron ore globally, with significant reserves in states like Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Jharkhand, and Goa.
  • Iron ore is a critical raw material for the steel industry, which plays a vital role in India's industrial and economic development.
  • Major Indian Ports
  • India has 13 major ports, including Paradip Port, Chennai Port, and Visakhapatnam Port, which handle a variety of cargo.
  • Each port specializes in certain types of cargo based on its location and infrastructure.
  • Global Iron Ore Trade
  • Countries like China, Japan, and South Korea are the largest importers of Indian iron ore due to their significant steel production industries.
  • India competes with exporters like Australia and Brazil in the global iron ore trade.
  • Marmagao Port’s Economic Importance
  • The port contributes significantly to Goa's economy by facilitating trade and exports.
  • It also supports ancillary industries such as logistics, shipping, and warehousing in the region.

Question 116

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

What is the name of the writer of Tomb of Sand, the first Hindi book to be awarded the International Booker Prize 

  1. AOption (a)

    Geetanjali Shree

  2. BOption (b)

    Arundhati Roy

  3. COption (c)

    Kiran Desai

  4. DOption (d)

    Jhumpa Lahiri

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Geetanjali Shree

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Geetanjali Shree.

Key Points

  • Geetanjali Shree is the author of the Hindi novel Tomb of Sand, which became the first Hindi-language book to win the International Booker Prize in 2022.
  • The book Tomb of Sand, originally titled Ret Samadhi in Hindi, was translated into English by Daisy Rockwell.
  • The story explores themes such as loss, grief, and identity, centering on an 80-year-old woman who embarks on a journey to Pakistan following the death of her husband.
  • Tomb of Sand is recognized for its innovative narrative style and deep cultural insights, marking a milestone for Hindi literature on the global stage.
  • The International Booker Prize is awarded annually for a book translated into English, emphasizing the importance of translated literature worldwide.

Additional Information

  • International Booker Prize:
  • Formerly known as the Man Booker International Prize, this prestigious literary award recognizes works translated into English and published in the UK or Ireland.
  • The prize money of £50,000 is equally split between the author and the translator, highlighting the critical role of translation in global literature.
  • Geetanjali Shree:
  • A celebrated Hindi author, Geetanjali Shree has written several novels and short stories, including Mai, Hamara Shahar Us Baras, and Tirohit.
  • Her works are known for their exploration of gender, identity, and societal issues, often blending realism with imaginative storytelling.
  • Daisy Rockwell:
  • An accomplished translator, painter, and writer, Daisy Rockwell translated Ret Samadhi into Tomb of Sand, garnering global recognition for her efforts.
  • She has translated several other works of Hindi and Urdu literature into English, contributing significantly to the accessibility of South Asian literature worldwide.
  • Significance of Translated Literature:
  • Translated literature bridges cultural and linguistic gaps, offering readers an opportunity to engage with diverse perspectives and stories.
  • It plays a crucial role in promoting global literary heritage and fostering cross-cultural understanding.

Question 117

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

What was the role of the National Dairy Development Board (NDDin the Technology Mission on Oilseeds? 

  1. AOption (a)

    To promote milk production

  2. BOption (b)

    To regulate trade policies

  3. COption (c)

    To develop genetically modified crops

  4. DOption (d)

    To manage oilseed procurement and processing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

To manage oilseed procurement and processing

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To manage oilseed procurement and processing.

Key Points

  • The National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) played a significant role in the Technology Mission on Oilseeds (TMO), which was launched by the Indian government in 1986.
  • NDDB was involved in managing oilseed procurement, processing, and marketing to ensure fair prices for farmers and improve the domestic production of edible oils.
  • It facilitated the establishment of several oilseed cooperatives, modeled after the Anand Pattern, to empower farmers and streamline the supply chain.
  • The NDDB also helped in reducing India's dependency on imported edible oils by promoting self-sufficiency through technological and infrastructural support.
  • This initiative was part of the broader mission to increase oilseed production and reduce the gap between demand and supply in the edible oil sector.

Additional Information

  • Technology Mission on Oilseeds (TMO):
  • Launched in 1986 under the leadership of then-Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi to make India self-reliant in edible oil production.
  • It aimed at improving productivity and minimizing post-harvest losses through better technology and infrastructure.
  • The mission focused on key oilseeds such as groundnut, soybean, sunflower, rapeseed, and mustard.
  • Role of NDDB in Agriculture:
  • Established in 1965, NDDB is known for its pivotal contribution to the White Revolution in India.
  • It extended its expertise to other agricultural sectors, including oilseeds, to replicate the success of Operation Flood.
  • NDDB works towards strengthening rural economies by forming cooperatives and ensuring better returns for farmers.
  • Edible Oil Scenario in India:
  • India is one of the largest consumers and importers of edible oils in the world.
  • The high dependency on imports has been a concern, necessitating missions like TMO to boost domestic production.
  • Key imported edible oils include palm oil, soybean oil, and sunflower oil.
  • Current Initiatives in Edible Oil Sector:
  • The government has launched the National Mission on Edible Oils-Oil Palm (NMEO-OP) to promote oil palm cultivation.
  • This mission aims to reduce import dependency and ensure better returns for farmers.
  • It focuses on the northeastern states and Andaman & Nicobar Islands for oil palm cultivation.

Question 118

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched with respect to the Schedules of the Indian Constitution? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Eleventh Schedule - Powers and responsibilities of Panchayats

  2. BOption (b)

    Twelfth Schedule - Election of President and Vice-President

  3. COption (c)

    Tenth Schedule – Constitutionally recognized languages.

  4. DOption (d)

    Ninth Schedule Allocation of powers between Union and States

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Eleventh Schedule - Powers and responsibilities of Panchayats

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Eleventh Schedule - Powers and responsibilities of Panchayats.

Key Points

  • The Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution was added through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992.
  • It contains a list of 29 functional items related to the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats.
  • The schedule emphasizes the decentralization of governance by empowering Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) to manage local self-governance effectively.
  • Key areas include agriculture, rural development, water management, social forestry, education, health, and public distribution systems.
  • This initiative was a significant step to strengthen grassroots democracy and ensure effective participation of local bodies in governance.

Additional Information

  • Twelfth Schedule
  • Added through the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, it lists 18 functional items related to the powers and responsibilities of Urban Local Bodies (Municipalities).
  • Focuses on areas like urban planning, slum improvement, public health, sanitation, and urban poverty alleviation.
  • Ninth Schedule
  • Introduced through the First Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951, it protects laws related to land reform and the abolition of the zamindari system from judicial review.
  • It aims to uphold social justice and equitable distribution of resources.
  • 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act
  • Enacted in 1992, it institutionalized Panchayati Raj in India by adding Part IX to the Constitution.
  • Mandated the establishment of a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj Institutions (village, intermediate, and district levels).
  • Introduced provisions for direct elections, reservation for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and women, and a fixed tenure of five years.
  • 74th Constitutional Amendment Act
  • Introduced in 1992, it institutionalized Urban Local Bodies (Municipalities) by adding Part IXA to the Constitution.
  • Strengthened the framework for decentralized governance in urban areas.

Question 119

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Which of the following powers granted under the Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022 extends beyond the scope of its predecessor, the Identification of Prisoners Act, 1920? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Permitting collection of biometric and biological data

  2. BOption (b)

    Restricting identification procedures only to convicts

  3. COption (c)

    Limiting law enforcement access to stored data

  4. DOption (d)

    Allowing only fingerprints for crime investigation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Permitting collection of biometric and biological data

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Permitting collection of biometric and biological data.

Key Points

  • The Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022 permits the collection of biometric and biological data, including retina scans and behavioral attributes, expanding the scope beyond fingerprints and photographs under the Identification of Prisoners Act, 1920.
  • The Act allows collection of data not only from convicted individuals but also from persons arrested or detained under any preventive detention law.
  • It provides for the use of modern technologies like iris and face recognition systems, ensuring more comprehensive identification methodologies.
  • Storage and analysis of the collected data are permitted for up to 75 years, ensuring long-term availability for law enforcement purposes.
  • The Act aims to enhance crime investigation efficiency and improve the criminal justice system by leveraging advanced identification techniques.

Additional Information

  • Identification of Prisoners Act, 1920:
  • Limited collection of data to fingerprints and photographs.
  • Applied only to convicted individuals and certain categories of suspects.
  • Did not include advanced biometric or biological data.
  • Biometric and Biological Data:
  • Includes fingerprints, iris scans, face recognition, and other physical identifiers.
  • Biological data includes DNA samples, blood samples, and other bodily substances.
  • These data points are crucial for establishing identity with high accuracy.
  • Preventive Detention Laws:
  • These laws allow authorities to detain individuals to prevent potential offenses.
  • Under the 2022 Act, biometric data collection extends to detainees under such laws.
  • Data Storage and Privacy:
  • The Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022 mandates secure storage of collected data.
  • Data can be retained for up to 75 years unless a court orders deletion.
  • Privacy concerns have been raised, emphasizing the need for robust safeguards.
  • Advancements in Identification Technology:
  • Modern tools like artificial intelligence are used for analyzing biometric data.
  • Enhanced accuracy in matching suspects to crime scenes.
  • These technologies aim to reduce errors and improve overall efficiency in criminal investigations.

Question 120

SSC Stenographer 2025• General Awareness

Under which article can the President declare a National Emergency? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 360

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 356

  3. COption (c)

    Article 352 

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 365

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Article 352 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 352.

Key Points

  • Article 352 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to proclaim a National Emergency if there is a threat to the security of India or any part thereof due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
  • This type of emergency is also known as a "National Emergency" and can be declared for the entire country or a specific part of it.
  • The proclamation of National Emergency requires written communication from the Union Cabinet to the President before it is issued.
  • Once declared, the fundamental rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended, and the central government gains overriding legislative and executive powers over the states.
  • The proclamation must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month and can remain in effect for six months, with subsequent extensions requiring parliamentary approval every six months.

Additional Information

  • Types of Emergencies in India:
  • National Emergency (Article 352): Declared due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
  • President's Rule (Article 356): Declared due to the failure of constitutional machinery in a state.
  • Financial Emergency (Article 360): Declared if the financial stability or credit of India is threatened.
  • Key Terminologies:
  • War: Armed conflict between nations or states.
  • External Aggression: Hostile actions by a foreign country against India.
  • Armed Rebellion: Organized armed resistance against the government within the country.
  • Effect on Federal Structure:
  • The central government assumes control over state subjects, temporarily altering the federal framework of governance.
  • State governments continue to function, but their powers are significantly curtailed.
  • Judicial Safeguards:
  • The 44th Amendment (1978) introduced safeguards, requiring the written recommendation of the Cabinet and parliamentary approval for declaring a National Emergency.
  • It also limited the suspension of fundamental rights during an emergency.