Search Previous Year Questions

Find real questions from previous competitive exam papers with answers and solutions.

Leave the keyword blank to browse saved questions for your selected exam, newest papers first. Add a keyword, year or topic to narrow the results.

Browse complete papers
Showing 10 question(s)
Clear

Question 211

SSC GD Constable 2026• Elementary Mathematics

A rectangular courtyard, 4.56 meters long and 7.68 meters wide is paved exactly with square tiles of same size. Find the size (in cm) of the largest tile that can be used for this purpose.

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    48

  3. COption (c)

    24

  4. DOption (d)

    96

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

24

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Convert dimensions to cm: 456 cm and 768 cm.

The largest tile size required to pave the floor is the HCF of its dimensions.

Successive subtraction: 768 − 456 = 312; 456 − 312 = 144; 312 − (144 × 2) = 24.

Since 24 divides 144 exactly, the HCF is 24.

∴ The correct answer is 24 cm.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of the courtyard = 4.56 m = 456 cm

Width of the courtyard = 7.68 m = 768 cm

Formula Used:

The side of the largest possible square tile = HCF (Length, Width)

Calculations:

⇒ To find the HCF of 456 and 768 using the division method:

⇒ 768 = 456 × 1 + 312

⇒ 456 = 312 × 1 + 144

⇒ 312 = 144 × 2 + 24

⇒ 144 = 24 × 6 + 0

⇒ The remainder is zero, so the HCF is the last divisor.

⇒ HCF = 24

∴ The correct answer is 24 cm.

Additional Information

Total Number of Tiles

The number of tiles required to cover the area is given by: (Area of floor) ÷ (Area of one tile) = (Length × Width) ÷ (Side)2.

Prime Factorization Method

HCF can also be found by writing prime factors: 456 = 23 × 3 × 19 and 768 = 28 × 3. The common factors are 23 × 3 = 24.

Fundamental Relation

For any two numbers, the product of their HCF and LCM is equal to the product of the two numbers itself (HCF × LCM = a × b).

Question 212

SSC GD Constable 2026• Elementary Mathematics

A is 5 times more than B. A is what percent more than B?

  1. AOption (a)

    450 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    500 percent

  3. COption (c)

    400 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    550 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

500 percent

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Assume B = 100.

A is 5 times more than B ⇒ A = 100 + (5 × 100) = 600.

Percentage more = (Difference ÷ Base) × 100.

Percentage more = (500 ÷ 100) × 100 = 500%.

∴ The correct answer is 500 percent.

Alternate Method

Given: A is 5 times more than B.

Formula: Percentage Increase = [(Final Value − Initial Value) ÷ Initial Value] × 100

⇒ Let the value of B be x.

⇒ A is 5 times more than B, so A = x + 5x = 6x.

⇒ The excess value of A over B = A − B = 6x − x = 5x.

⇒ Required percentage more = (Excess Value ÷ B) × 100.

⇒ Percentage more = (5x ÷ x) × 100.

⇒ Percentage more = 5 × 100 = 500%.

∴ The correct answer is 500 percent.

Additional Information

Times vs. Times More

If a value is n times of x, the value is nx. If it is n times more than x, the value is x + nx.

Percentage Comparison

When calculating X is what percent more than Y, the value Y is always the base (denominator). Formula: [(X − Y) ÷ Y] × 100.

Relationship Shortcut

If A = n × B, then A is (n − 1) × 100 percent more than B. Here A = 6B, so (6 − 1) × 100 = 500%.

Question 213

SSC GD Constable 2026• Elementary Mathematics

The cost price of 120 articles is same as the selling price of y articles. If there is a loss of 4 percent, then what is the value of y? (Cost price of all the articles is same. Selling price of all the articles is same)

  1. AOption (a)

    125

  2. BOption (b)

    100

  3. COption (c)

    130

  4. DOption (d)

    90

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

125

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Cost Price (CP) to Selling Price (SP) is inversely proportional to the number of articles.

CP of 120 = SP of y ⇒ CP ÷ SP = y ÷ 120

Given loss of 4%, SP = 96% of CP ⇒ CP ÷ SP = 100 ÷ 96

Equating the ratios: y ÷ 120 = 100 ÷ 96

y = (100 × 120) ÷ 96 = 125

∴ The correct answer is 125.

Alternate Method

Given:

Cost price of 120 articles = Selling price of y articles

Loss percentage = 4%

Formula Used:

SP = CP × (100 − Loss%) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ Let the cost price of one article be ₹1.

⇒ Total CP of 120 articles = 120 × 1 = ₹120.

⇒ According to the question, selling price of y articles = CP of 120 articles = ₹120.

⇒ SP of one article = 120 ÷ y.

⇒ Loss% = [(CP − SP) ÷ CP] × 100

⇒ 4 = [(1 − 120/y) ÷ 1] × 100

⇒ 4 ÷ 100 = 1 − 120/y

⇒ 0.04 = 1 − 120/y

⇒ 120 ÷ y = 1 − 0.04

⇒ 120 ÷ y = 0.96

⇒ y = 120 ÷ 0.96

⇒ y = 12000 ÷ 96

⇒ y = 125

∴ The correct answer is 125.

Additional Information

Profit and Loss on Article Quantity

If the cost price of 'x' articles is equal to the selling price of 'y' articles, then the Profit or Loss percentage is given by [(x − y) ÷ y] × 100. A positive result indicates profit, while a negative result indicates loss.

Relation between CP, SP and Profit/Loss

The Selling Price can be directly calculated from Cost Price using SP = CP × (100 ± P/L%) ÷ 100, where P/L is the profit or loss percentage.

Successive Discounts

When two successive discounts of a% and b% are given, the equivalent single discount is (a + b − ab ÷ 100)%.

Question 214

SSC GD Constable 2026• Elementary Mathematics

R alone can complete a work in 40 days. S alone can complete the same work in 50 days. They work together for 10 days. What part of total work is completed?

  1. AOption (a)

    8/20

  2. BOption (b)

    9/20

  3. COption (c)

    10/20

  4. DOption (d)

    11/20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

9/20

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Combined efficiency of R and S = (1/40 + 1/50) = 9/200 work/day.

Work completed in 10 days = 10 × (9/200) = 9/20 part.

∴ The correct answer is 9/20 part.

Alternate Method

Given: R alone completes work in 40 days and S alone in 50 days.

PersonDaysTotal Work (LCM)Efficiency
R40200200 ÷ 40 = 5
S50200 ÷ 50 = 4

⇒ Combined efficiency of R and S = 5 + 4 = 9 units/day

⇒ Work done in 10 days = 9 × 10 = 90 units

⇒ Part of total work completed = 90 / 200 = 9/20

∴ The correct answer is 9/20 part.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time Relation

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete a work. Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time.

Remaining Work Calculation

If a fraction 'x' of work is completed, the remaining work is calculated as (1 − x). For this question, it would be 1 − 9/20 = 11/20.

Combined Work Formula

If two people finish work in A and B days, they finish (A + B) / (A × B) part of the work in one day.

Question 215

SSC GD Constable 2026• Elementary Mathematics

M and R together can do a work in 8 days. R and P together can do the same work in 6 days. P and M together can do the same work in 12 days. In how many days can P alone do the same work?

  1. AOption (a)

    16

  2. BOption (b)

    18

  3. COption (c)

    24

  4. DOption (d)

    20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

16

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total Work = LCM(8, 6, 12) = 24 units.

Efficiencies: (M + R) = 3, (R + P) = 4, (P + M) = 2.

Sum of efficiencies: 2(M + R + P) = 3 + 4 + 2 = 9 ⇒ (M + R + P) = 4.5.

Efficiency of P = (M + R + P) − (M + R) = 4.5 − 3 = 1.5 units/day.

Time for P alone = 24 ÷ 1.5 = 16 days.

∴ The correct answer is 16 days.

Alternate Method

Given: Time taken by (M + R) = 8 days, (R + P) = 6 days, (P + M) = 12 days.

Formula Used: Efficiency = Total Work ÷ Time taken.

PersonDaysTotal Work (LCM)Efficiency
M + R82424 ÷ 8 = 3
R + P624 ÷ 6 = 4
P + M1224 ÷ 12 = 2

Calculations:

⇒ Total efficiency of the pairs = (M + R) + (R + P) + (P + M) = 3 + 4 + 2 = 9

⇒ 2(M + R + P) = 9

⇒ Efficiency of (M + R + P) = 9 ÷ 2 = 4.5

⇒ Efficiency of P = Efficiency of (M + R + P) − Efficiency of (M + R)

⇒ Efficiency of P = 4.5 − 3 = 1.5

⇒ Time taken by P alone = Total Work ÷ Efficiency of P

⇒ Time = 24 ÷ 1.5 = 16 days.

∴ The correct answer is 16 days.

Additional Information

Efficiency and Time Relation

Efficiency is inversely proportional to the time taken to complete the work (E ∝ 1/T).

Combined Work Rule for Pairs

When work is done in pairs (A+B, B+C, C+A), the sum of their efficiencies is always twice the combined efficiency of A, B, and C together.

Work and Wages

Wages are distributed in the direct ratio of the work done or the ratio of efficiencies when the duration of work is the same for all.

Question 216

SSC GD Constable 2026• Elementary Mathematics

The length of a train is 210 metres. Speed of the train is 25 m/s. How much time (in seconds) will it take to cross a bridge of length 590 metres?

  1. AOption (a)

    30

  2. BOption (b)

    32

  3. COption (c)

    35

  4. DOption (d)

    40

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

32

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total distance to be covered = Train Length + Bridge Length

Total Distance = 210 + 590 = 800 m

Time = Total Distance ÷ Speed = 800 ÷ 25

Time = 32 seconds

∴ The correct answer is 32 sec.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of the Train (L1) = 210 m

Length of the Bridge (L2) = 590 m

Speed of the train (S) = 25 m/s

Formula Used:

Time (T) = Total Distance ÷ Speed

Calculations:

⇒ Total Distance = L1 + L2

⇒ Total Distance = 210 + 590 = 800 m

⇒ Time = 800 ÷ 25

⇒ Time = 32 sec

∴ The correct answer is 32 sec.

Additional Information

Crossing Objects with Length

When a train crosses a platform, bridge, or another train, the distance covered is the sum of their lengths: Distance = Ltrain + Lobject.

Unit Conversion

To convert speed from km/hr to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Relative Speed

If two trains move in the same direction, relative speed is S1 − S2. In opposite directions, it is S1 + S2.

Question 217

SSC GD Constable 2026• Elementary Mathematics

A train having length 250 metres takes 12 seconds to cross a 350 metres long bridge. How much time (in seconds) will this train take to cross a 900 metres long bridge?

  1. AOption (a)

    12

  2. BOption (b)

    23

  3. COption (c)

    18

  4. DOption (d)

    15

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

23

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Since the Speed of the train is constant, Time is directly proportional to the Total Distance (Train + Bridge).

Total Distance 1 = 250 + 350 = 600 m

Total Distance 2 = 250 + 900 = 1150 m

Time Ratio = Distance Ratio = 600 : 1150 = 12 : 23

As 12 units = 12 sec, then 23 units = 23 sec.

∴ The correct answer is 23 sec.

Alternate Method

Given: Train Length = 250 m, Bridge 1 = 350 m, Time 1 = 12 sec, Bridge 2 = 900 m.

Formula Used: Speed = Total Distance ÷ Total Time

⇒ Case 1: Total Distance 1 = 250 + 350 = 600 m

⇒ Speed of the train = 600 ÷ 12 = 50 m/sec

⇒ Case 2: Total Distance 2 = 250 + 900 = 1150 m

⇒ Time to cross the second bridge = Total Distance 2 ÷ Speed

⇒ Time = 1150 ÷ 50 = 23 sec

∴ The correct answer is 23 sec.

Additional Information

Crossing a Stationary Point Object

When a train crosses a pole, tree, or a stationary man, the distance covered is equal to the Length of the Train itself.

Crossing an Object with Length

When a train crosses a bridge, platform, or another stationary train, the distance covered is (Length of Train + Length of Object).

Relative Speed

If two objects move in opposite directions, Relative Speed = S1 + S2. In the same direction, Relative Speed = S1 − S2.

Unit Conversion

To convert Speed from km/hr to m/sec, multiply by 5/18. To convert from m/sec to km/hr, multiply by 18/5.

Question 218

SSC GD Constable 2026• Elementary Mathematics

An article is sold for 30 percent profit. The value of discount given is equal to the (2/5) of the selling price. What is the cost price of the article?

  1. AOption (a)

    (91/50) of marked price

  2. BOption (b)

    (50/91) of marked price

  3. COption (c)

    (20/41) of marked price

  4. DOption (d)

    (41/20) of marked price

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(50/91) of marked price

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Cost Price (CP) to Selling Price (SP) at 30% profit is 10 : 13.

Given Discount = (2/5) SP ⇒ Ratio Discount : SP = 2 : 5.

Equating SP (LCM of 13 and 5 = 65) ⇒ CP : SP : Discount = 50 : 65 : 26.

Marked Price (MP) = SP + Discount = 65 + 26 = 91.

∴ The correct answer is (50/91) of marked price.

Alternate Method

Given:

Profit Percentage = 30%

Discount = (2/5) × Selling Price

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = Cost Price (CP) + Profit

Marked Price (MP) = Selling Price (SP) + Discount

Calculations:

⇒ Let the Cost Price (CP) of the article be 100.

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = 100 + 30% of 100 = 130.

⇒ Discount = (2/5) × 130 = 2 × 26 = 52.

⇒ Marked Price (MP) = SP + Discount = 130 + 52 = 182.

⇒ To find CP in terms of MP: CP/MP = 100/182.

⇒ Dividing numerator and denominator by 2 ⇒ CP/MP = 50/91.

⇒ CP = (50/91) × MP.

∴ The correct answer is (50/91) of marked price.

Additional Information

Relationship between CP and MP

The ratio of Cost Price to Marked Price can be directly calculated as CP/MP = (100 − Discount%) / (100 + Profit%).

Discount Percentage

Discount% is always calculated on the Marked Price. Discount% = (Discount / MP) × 100.

Successive Discounts

If two discounts d1 and d2 are given, the equivalent single discount is (d1 + d2 − d1×d2/100)%.

Question 219

SSC GD Constable 2026• Elementary Mathematics

Which of the following will have selling price Rs. 3500?

  1. AOption (a)

    Marked price = Rs. 4000 and Discount = 15 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    Marked price = Rs. 4500 and Discount = 10 percent

  3. COption (c)

    Marked price = Rs. 5500 and Discount = 40 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    Marked price = Rs. 5000 and Discount = 30 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Marked price = Rs. 5000 and Discount = 30 percent

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

To find Selling Price (SP), apply the multiplier (100 − D%) / 100 to the Marked Price (MP).

For Option 4: MP = ₹5000 and Discount = 30%

SP = 5000 × 0.70 = ₹3500.

Check other options: 4000 × 0.85 = 3400; 4500 × 0.90 = 4050; 5500 × 0.60 = 3300.

∴ The correct answer is Marked price = ₹5000 and Discount = 30%.

Alternate Method

Given:

Marked Price (MP) = ₹5000

Discount Percentage = 30%

Formula Used:

Selling Price (SP) = MP − Discount Amount

Discount Amount = (Discount % / 100) × MP

Calculations:

⇒ Discount Amount = (30 / 100) × 5000

⇒ Discount Amount = 30 × 50 = ₹1500

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = 5000 − 1500

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = ₹3500

∴ The correct answer is Marked price = ₹5000 and Discount = 30%.

Additional Information

Relationship between MP, SP, and CP

Marked Price (MP) is the price printed on an item. Selling Price (SP) = MP × (100 − Discount%)/100. Also, SP = Cost Price (CP) × (100 + Profit%)/100.

Successive Discounts

If two successive discounts of a% and b% are given, the single equivalent discount is (a + b − ab/100)%.

Markup Percentage

Markup% = [(MP − CP) / CP] × 100. It represents how much the price is increased above the cost price before offering a discount.

Question 220

SSC GD Constable 2026• Elementary Mathematics

Marked price of an article is 20 percent more than its cost price. It is sold at a profit of 10 percent. Marked price of article is Rs. 1200. What is the selling price of the article?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 1200

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 1100

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 1500

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 1800

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs. 1100

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let Cost Price (CP) = 100%, then Marked Price (MP) = 120% and Selling Price (SP) = 110%.

Given MP = 120% = Rs. 1200 ⇒ 1% = Rs. 10.

∴ SP = 110% = 110 × 10 = Rs. 1100.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 1100.

Alternate Method

Given: Marked Price (MP) = Rs. 1200, Markup Percentage = 20%, Profit Percentage = 10%.

Formula Used: CP = MP ÷ (1 + Markup%) and SP = CP × (1 + Profit%)

⇒ Cost Price (CP) = 1200 ÷ (1 + 20/100)

⇒ CP = 1200 ÷ 1.2 = Rs. 1000

⇒ Selling Price (SP) = CP × (1 + 10/100)

⇒ SP = 1000 × 1.1 = Rs. 1100

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 1100.

Additional Information

CP, MP, Profit and Discount Relation

The direct ratio of Cost Price to Marked Price is given by CP / MP = (100 − Discount%) / (100 + Profit%).

Markup Percentage

Markup percentage is always calculated on the Cost Price: Markup% = [(MP − CP) / CP] × 100.

Discount Calculation

Discount is the reduction offered on the Marked Price: Discount = MP − SP. Discount% = (Discount / MP) × 100.