Search Previous Year Questions

The correct answer is 3) 1 & 2 only.

Key Points

• Article 270 of the Indian Constitution governs the sharing of taxes between the Union and the States. After the 101^st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016, it was amended to include provisions for the sharing of revenue from Goods and Services Tax (GST). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The 101^st Constitutional Amendment added provisions in Article 270 to ensure that the revenue collected through GST is apportioned between the Union and the States based on the recommendations of the Finance Commission. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The GST Compensation Cess, however, is not shared between the Union and the States under Article 270. It is governed by the GST (Compensation to States) Act, 2017, which ensures compensation to States for any revenue loss due to the implementation of GST. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• The Finance Commission plays a key role in determining the sharing formula for taxes, including GST, under Article 270.
• It is important to note that the sharing mechanism under Article 270 does not include non-divisible taxes, such as surcharges and cesses, which remain with the Union Government.

Additional Information

• 101^st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016:
• This amendment introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India, effective from 1^st July 2017.
• It subsumed multiple indirect taxes levied by the Centre and the States, such as excise duty, VAT, and service tax, under a single tax regime.
• It led to the addition of Article 246A, empowering both the Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws on GST.
• It also introduced Article 269A, which deals with the apportionment of GST collected on inter-State trade.
• GST Compensation Cess:
• It is levied under the GST (Compensation to States) Act, 2017 to compensate States for revenue losses arising due to GST implementation.
• The compensation cess is levied on specific luxury and sin goods, such as tobacco, aerated drinks, and automobiles.
• The funds collected through the cess are not part of the divisible pool under Article 270 and are kept in a separate compensation fund.
• Finance Commission:
• It is constituted under Article 280 of the Constitution to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and the States.
• The Commission takes into account factors such as population, area, fiscal capacity, and governance when recommending the sharing formula.
• The 15^th Finance Commission, chaired by N.K. Singh, has been tasked with making recommendations for the period 2021-26.
• Key Features of GST:
• GST is a destination-based tax, meaning it is collected at the point of consumption.
• It is levied at multiple rates, categorized into 5%, 18%, and 40%, depending on the goods or services.
• It aims to create a unified tax structure, reducing cascading effects and improving tax compliance.

Important Points

• Revenue Distribution: Taxes collected under GST are distributed between the Centre and the States in a 50:50 ratio. For inter-State supplies, the tax collected is divided between the Centre and the destination State.
• GST Council: The GST Council, established under Article 279A, is responsible for making recommendations on GST rates, exemptions, and other related matters.
• Impact of GST: GST has simplified the tax structure, enhanced transparency, and contributed to the formalization of the economy. However, challenges such as compliance costs and revenue shortfalls for States persist.

The correct answer is Increase by approximately 2%.

Key Points

• The formula for gravitational acceleration (g) at the surface of the Earth is g = G × (M / R²), where G is the gravitational constant, M is the mass of the Earth, and R is the radius of the Earth.
• If the Earth's radius is reduced by 1%, the new radius becomes R' = 0.99 × R.
• Gravitational acceleration is inversely proportional to the square of the radius. Thus, a decrease in radius increases the value of g.
• The percentage change in g can be calculated using the formula: Percentage Change ≈ 2 × Percentage Change in Radius. Since the radius decreases by 1%, gravitational acceleration increases by approximately 2%.
• This phenomenon occurs because the mass remains constant while the radius decreases, concentrating the mass closer to the surface, thereby increasing the gravitational pull.

Additional Information

• Gravitational Constant (G): The universal gravitational constant is approximately 6.674 × 10⁻¹¹ N·m²/kg². It is a fundamental constant used to calculate gravitational forces.
• Mass of the Earth: The Earth's mass is approximately 5.972 × 10²⁴ kg. It remains unchanged regardless of changes in the radius.
• Effect of Radius: The radius of the Earth is approximately 6,371 km. If the radius is reduced, the gravitational pull at the surface increases due to the inverse square relationship.
• Applications: This principle is essential in understanding planetary physics, satellite mechanics, and designing space missions, where accurate calculations of gravity are required.
• Examples: Similar calculations are applied to study the gravitational acceleration on other planets or celestial bodies, such as the Moon or Mars, where the radius and mass differ significantly from Earth.

Important Points

• Inverse Square Law: Gravitational acceleration (g) is inversely proportional to the square of the radius. A smaller radius results in a stronger gravitational force at the surface.
• Percentage Calculation: When radius decreases by a percentage, the gravitational acceleration increases approximately by twice that percentage.
• Impact on Weight: If g increases, the weight of objects on the Earth's surface will also increase proportionally because weight is calculated as W = mg.
• Practical Implications: Understanding changes in g is crucial for designing infrastructure and equipment that interact with gravity, such as bridges, airplanes, and space vehicles.

The correct answer is 15 days (for initial remand, extendable).

Key Points

• Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) governs various provisions related to criminal proceedings in India, replacing the earlier Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC).
• Under BNSS, a person can be held in police custody for an initial period of 15 days. This period can be extended periodically if the magistrate approves such extensions.
• The magistrate has the authority to grant extensions beyond the initial 15 days, but the cumulative period of police custody cannot exceed the prescribed limits.
• As per BNSS, police custody is limited to 15 days at a time, ensuring judicial oversight to prevent misuse of custodial provisions.
• This provision ensures that the rights of individuals are protected while allowing the police sufficient time to conduct investigations. Hence, option "15 days (for initial remand, extendable)" is correct.

Additional Information

• Police Custody under Indian Law:
• The concept of police custody refers to the detention of an accused by the police for questioning and investigation purposes.
• During police custody, the accused is under the direct supervision of the police and can be interrogated to gather evidence.
• As per Indian law, police custody cannot exceed 15 days without the approval of a magistrate.
• Magistrates have the discretion to extend custody if the police can justify the need for additional time for investigation.
• Judicial Custody:
• After the expiration of police custody, the accused may be moved to judicial custody, where they are detained in a jail or prison.
• Judicial custody does not involve police interrogation, and the accused is under the supervision of judicial authorities.
• The maximum period of judicial custody varies depending on the nature of the crime but cannot exceed 90 days for serious offenses and 60 days for other offenses unless charges are filed.
• Role of the Magistrate:
• The magistrate plays a crucial role in ensuring that the rights of the accused are upheld during police and judicial custody.
• The magistrate evaluates the justification provided by the police for extending custody and ensures that the process adheres to legal standards.
• Approval from the magistrate is mandatory for extending police custody beyond the initial 15-day period.
• Human Rights Considerations:
• The provision of limiting police custody to 15 days reflects the Indian judicial system's commitment to protecting individual rights and preventing abuse.
• International human rights principles also emphasize the need for judicial oversight during detention to safeguard against arbitrary actions.

Important Points

• BNSS and CrPC Differences: BNSS replaces certain provisions of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC) to modernize criminal law and make the process more efficient.
• Custodial Rights: The accused has the right to consult a lawyer and be informed of the reasons for their detention.
• Preventing Misuse: The limitation on police custody helps prevent potential misuse of power by law enforcement agencies.
• Judicial Oversight: Regular intervention by magistrates ensures that the detention process remains lawful and fair.

The correct answer is 18-40 years.

Key Points

• The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana (PM-KMY) is a government-backed pension scheme aimed specifically at providing social security to small and marginal farmers.
• The scheme is applicable to farmers in the age group of 18 to 40 years. This means individuals within this age range can enroll in the scheme and start contributing towards their pension.
• Under the scheme, farmers are required to contribute a specific amount monthly based on their age at the time of joining. The Government of India matches the farmer's contribution equally.
• Subscribers to the scheme will receive a monthly pension of Rs. 3000 after attaining the age of 60 years.
• The scheme primarily targets small and marginal farmers with landholding up to 2 hectares, ensuring financial security in their old age.

Additional Information

• Eligibility Criteria:
• The farmer must be in the age group of 18-40 years at the time of enrollment.
• He/she should own landholding of up to 2 hectares as per land records of the concerned State/Union Territory.
• The farmer should not be covered under any other statutory social security schemes, such as the Employees' Provident Fund Organization (EPFO) or National Pension Scheme (NPS).
• Farmers paying income tax are not eligible for this scheme.
• Features of the Scheme:
• The scheme is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme.
• The monthly contribution ranges between Rs. 55 and Rs. 200, depending on the age of the subscriber at the time of joining.
• The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) is the pension fund manager for this scheme.
• In case the farmer dies while receiving the pension, the spouse will receive 50% of the pension amount as a family pension.
• Key Benefits:
• Ensures financial stability for small and marginal farmers post-retirement.
• Provides economic support to the farming community, which constitutes a significant portion of India’s workforce.
• The government’s equal contribution ensures better returns and reduces the burden on farmers.
• Implementation:
• The scheme is implemented through Common Service Centers (CSCs), making it accessible to farmers in rural areas.
• Farmers can also enroll through the official PM-KMY portal by providing their Aadhaar card and bank account details.

Important Points

• The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maandhan Yojana (PM-KMY) was launched by the Government of India in 2019.
• The scheme is part of the government’s broader efforts to improve the social and economic status of farmers, particularly those with limited resources.
• The Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare oversees the implementation of the scheme.
• The PM-KMY is a step towards addressing the challenges faced by farmers in their old age, ensuring financial security and dignity.

The correct answer is 1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A..

Key Points

• Assertion (A): UDAN Scheme improves regional air connectivity:
• The UDAN Scheme, known as Ude Desh Ka Aam Nagrik, is a flagship regional air connectivity scheme launched by the Government of India in 2016.
• Its primary aim is to make air travel affordable and accessible for common citizens, especially in tier-2 and tier-3 cities.
• By connecting underserved and remote regions of India, UDAN improves regional connectivity and fosters economic growth. Hence, the assertion is correct.
• Reason (R): It provides financial viability gap funding to airlines:
• Under the UDAN scheme, airlines operating on regional routes receive Viability Gap Funding (VGF) from the government.
• The VGF reduces the financial burden on airlines to operate flights on less profitable routes, ensuring sustained operations.
• This funding is critical to achieving the goals of UDAN by incentivizing airlines to cover underserved routes. Hence, the reason is correct.
• The reason (R) directly explains the assertion (A), as the financial VGF mechanism is integral to improving regional air connectivity through the UDAN scheme. Thus, both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Additional Information

• UDAN Scheme:
• The UDAN Scheme is jointly funded by the Central Government and the State Governments.
• It aims to reduce the cost of air travel by capping fares at Rs. 2,500 for an hour-long flight.
• The scheme also promotes the development of regional airports and infrastructure in remote areas.
• As of 2023, the scheme has connected several underserved regions, including cities like Darbhanga, Kanpur, and Jharsuguda.
• Viability Gap Funding (VGF):
• VGF is a financial support mechanism provided by the government to make projects commercially viable.
• Under UDAN, VGF is funded through a levy collected from airlines operating on metro routes.
• It ensures that airlines can operate on regional routes without incurring significant losses.
• Impact of UDAN:
• Boosts tourism and trade in remote and underserved areas.
• Generates employment opportunities in aviation and related sectors.
• Strengthens socioeconomic development by connecting regions with the rest of the country.
• Other Regional Connectivity Efforts:
• Development of regional airports under Regional Connectivity Infrastructure Investment.
• Promotion of private sector investments in aviation infrastructure.
• Collaboration with state governments to enhance last-mile connectivity.

Important Points

• UDAN Achievements:
• As of October 2023, the UDAN scheme has connected over 70 airports and initiated 425 routes in India.
• It has made air travel accessible to millions of citizens, especially in remote regions.
• Future Goals:
• The scheme aims to connect all regions of India, including the North-Eastern States and hilly terrains, by 2030.
• Plans to expand infrastructure and increase the number of operational airports to 100+.

The correct answer is London and New York.

Key Points

• The Global Cities Index, published by Oxford Economics, ranks cities based on their global influence, economic power, and connectivity. It evaluates cities across various metrics such as business activity, human capital, cultural experience, and political engagement.
• In the 2025 Global Cities Index, London and New York retained their top positions due to their significant contributions to global finance, international trade, and cultural influence.
• London is consistently ranked at the top due to its status as a leading financial center, housing major global corporations, and being a hub for international diplomacy and education.
• New York, often referred to as the "capital of the world," remains a major player in areas such as finance, media, and culture, hosting institutions like Wall Street and the United Nations Headquarters.
• The rankings reflect the resilience of these cities in maintaining their dominance despite challenges such as economic fluctuations, geopolitical tensions, and the COVID-19 pandemic.

Additional Information

• London's Key Features:
• London is home to institutions like the London Stock Exchange and the Bank of England, making it a critical global financial hub.
• The city is also a center for education and innovation, hosting world-renowned universities such as University College London (UCL) and Imperial College London.
• London’s cultural diversity and historical landmarks such as the British Museum and Tower of London further contribute to its global appeal.
• New York's Key Features:
• New York is a global leader in finance, with Wall Street serving as a symbol of economic power.
• The city hosts the United Nations Headquarters, emphasizing its importance in global diplomacy and international relations.
• As a cultural hub, New York is home to iconic institutions like the Metropolitan Museum of Art and Broadway.
• Global Cities Index:
• The index evaluates cities based on business activity, human capital, information exchange, cultural experience, and political engagement.
• It provides insights into the economic and social dynamics shaping global urban centers.
• Other cities frequently appearing in the top rankings include Tokyo, Singapore, and Paris.
• Impact of Rankings:
• High rankings attract foreign investment, talent migration, and tourism.
• They also influence urban planning and policy decisions aimed at sustaining global competitiveness.

The correct answer is Use light materials to make consumer goods.

Key Points

• Light industries primarily utilize lightweight materials such as plastics, fabrics, and smaller metals to produce consumer goods like clothes, electronics, furniture, and toys. This statement is correct.
• They are generally involved in the production of goods with higher value per unit weight, making transportation and logistics easier and cost-effective.
• Unlike heavy industries, light industries do not process heavy ores and minerals. Instead, they focus on finished goods rather than raw material processing. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• These industries are not involved in the creation of large-scale industrial machinery. Their primary focus is on small-scale, high-demand products. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Light industries do not require bulky and heavy raw materials for production. Their raw materials are often compact and lightweight. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Definition and Scope:
• Light industries are characterized by their focus on low capital investment and less resource-intensive production processes.
• They are typically located near urban areas to cater to consumer needs and to minimize transportation costs.
• Examples of Light Industries:
• Textile industry: Produces clothing and other fabric-based products.
• Electronics: Manufacturing of small consumer appliances like mobile phones, laptops, and televisions.
• Food processing: Packaging and production of processed foods, dairy products, and beverages.
• Furniture-making: Use of light materials like plywood and aluminum to create household furniture.
• Differences Between Light and Heavy Industries:
• Raw Materials: Heavy industries process large, bulky raw materials like coal and iron, while light industries use smaller, lightweight materials.
• Location: Heavy industries are often located near mines and resources, while light industries are near markets or urban centers.
• Pollution: Heavy industries are generally more pollution-intensive, whereas light industries have less environmental impact.
• Economic Importance:
• Light industries are significant contributors to employment generation and urban economic development.
• They play a pivotal role in the export economy by producing high-demand consumer goods.

Important Points

• Global Examples of Light Industries:
• Japan: Known for high-quality electronics and textiles.
• Italy: Renowned for its fashion and furniture industries.
• China: A global hub for consumer goods production, especially electronics and toys.
• Government Support:
• In India, the government promotes light industries through initiatives like Make in India and MSME (Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises) schemes.
• These industries are offered tax benefits, subsidized loans, and infrastructure support to encourage growth.

The correct answer is Three legislative lists.

Key Points

• Schedule VII of the Constitution of India deals with the division of powers between the Union and State governments. It contains three legislative lists: Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
• The Union List includes subjects of national importance, such as defense, foreign affairs, atomic energy, and banking. The Parliament of India has exclusive power to legislate on these matters.
• The State List contains subjects of state and local importance like police, public health, agriculture, and local government. Only the state legislatures can legislate on these matters.
• The Concurrent List covers subjects of common interest to both the Union and State governments, such as education, marriage, trade unions, and forests. Both the Parliament and state legislatures can make laws on these subjects, but in case of conflict, the law made by the Parliament prevails.
• Schedule VII ensures a clear demarcation of legislative powers to maintain harmony between the Union and State governments and avoid overlapping jurisdictions.

Additional Information

• Union List:
• It currently consists of 100 subjects (originally 97).
• Examples of subjects include defense, atomic energy, railways, and foreign affairs.
• Legislation on these matters is exclusively under the Parliament's jurisdiction, ensuring uniformity across the nation.
• State List:
• It currently contains 61 subjects (originally 66).
• Key subjects include police, public order, public health, and agriculture.
• The state legislatures enjoy exclusive authority to legislate on these matters, ensuring regional autonomy.
• Concurrent List:
• It comprises 52 subjects (originally 47).
• Examples include education, criminal law, forests, and marriage.
• Both the Union and State legislatures can legislate on these matters, but in case of conflict, the Union law prevails under Article 254 of the Constitution.
• Historical Context:
• The concept of the three lists was borrowed from the Government of India Act, 1935, which also categorized powers into federal, provincial, and concurrent lists.
• This division of powers was designed to ensure a balance between centralization and decentralization, catering to India's federal structure.
• Amendments and Changes:
• Over time, the distribution of subjects in these lists has been altered through constitutional amendments to reflect changing needs and priorities.
• For instance, the 42^nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred subjects like education and forests from the State List to the Concurrent List.

The correct answer is Climate Change Adaptation.

Key Points

• Climate Change Adaptation refers to measures taken to adjust to the current or expected effects of climate change in order to minimize harm or exploit beneficial opportunities.
• The construction of sea walls and elevation of buildings specifically addresses the impacts of rising sea levels, which are a direct consequence of climate change. These are preventive actions to safeguard infrastructure and human lives.
• Adaptation strategies are often localized and cater to the specific challenges posed by climate change, such as floods, droughts, or temperature increases.
• The goal of adaptation is to build resilience in communities, economies, and ecosystems, allowing them to cope with the adverse effects of climate change.
• This approach differs from mitigation, which focuses on reducing the causes of climate change, such as greenhouse gas emissions.

Additional Information

• Climate Change Mitigation:
• Mitigation involves efforts to reduce or prevent the emission of greenhouse gases (GHGs) that contribute to global warming.
• Examples include switching to renewable energy sources like solar or wind, increasing energy efficiency, and adopting sustainable transportation practices.
• This strategy aims to address the root cause of climate change rather than its effects.
• For instance, the Paris Agreement focuses on mitigation by setting targets for reducing global GHG emissions.
• Carbon Sequestration:
• It refers to the process of capturing and storing atmospheric carbon dioxide (CO2) to reduce its concentration in the atmosphere.
• Natural methods include afforestation, reforestation, and soil management, while technological solutions include carbon capture and storage (CCS).
• Carbon sequestration is a key component of climate change mitigation strategies, aimed at offsetting emissions from industrial processes.
• Geoengineering:
• Geoengineering involves large-scale interventions in Earth's natural systems to counteract climate change.
• Examples include solar radiation management (reflecting sunlight back into space) and ocean fertilization to enhance carbon capture by marine ecosystems.
• These methods are controversial due to their potential unintended consequences and ethical concerns.
• Examples of Climate Change Adaptation:
• Constructing flood barriers in coastal cities prone to rising sea levels.
• Implementing drought-resistant crops in regions experiencing water scarcity due to climate changes.
• Developing early warning systems for extreme weather events such as hurricanes or heatwaves.
• Retrofitting infrastructure to withstand extreme weather conditions, such as stronger buildings to resist cyclones.

Important Points

• Rising Sea Levels:
• Sea levels have been rising globally due to melting ice caps and glaciers, as well as the thermal expansion of seawater caused by global warming.
• According to the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), global sea levels could rise by 0.3 to 1 meter by 2100.
• This poses threats to low-lying and coastal areas, leading to increased flooding, erosion, and loss of habitats.
• Global Adaptation Efforts:
• The UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) emphasizes the need for adaptation measures alongside mitigation strategies.
• Programs like the Global Environment Facility (GEF) and the Green Climate Fund (GCF) provide financial support for adaptation projects in developing countries.
• Several nations, including the Netherlands, have implemented large-scale adaptation projects such as flood management systems and sustainable urban planning.

The correct answer is Orbital velocity.

Key Points

• Orbital velocity is the speed required for a satellite to maintain its orbit around a celestial body, like Earth, without propulsion or falling back due to gravity.
• It is determined by the balance between the satellite's inertia (from its motion) and the gravitational pull of the planet it is orbiting. This ensures the satellite remains in a stable orbit.
• For a satellite to remain in orbit, its orbital velocity must match the gravitational force pulling it toward the planet. If the velocity is too high, the satellite will escape into space; if too low, it will fall back to Earth.
• The formula for orbital velocity is given by v = √(GM/r), where G is the gravitational constant, M is the mass of the celestial body, and r is the radius of the orbit.
• Atmospheric drag can influence orbital velocity in low Earth orbits, causing satellites to lose speed and eventually deorbit. However, in the absence of atmospheric drag in higher orbits, orbital velocity alone ensures stability.

Additional Information

• Mass: A satellite's mass does not directly determine its orbit. While mass affects gravitational attraction, the satellite's orbital velocity is independent of its weight.
• Gravitational pull: The gravitational pull of a planet provides the force that keeps the satellite in orbit. However, it needs to be balanced by the satellite's orbital velocity to ensure stable motion.
• Atmospheric drag: This factor is significant in low Earth orbits (LEO). Atmospheric particles can slow the satellite over time, causing it to lose altitude and eventually re-enter the atmosphere.
• Examples: Geostationary satellites, such as communication satellites, maintain their orbit by traveling at speeds matching the Earth's rotation, ensuring they appear stationary from the surface.
• Applications of Orbital Velocity: Orbital velocity is crucial for launching satellites, space exploration, and maintaining space stations like the International Space Station (ISS). It ensures that objects remain in their designated trajectories.

Important Points

• Low Earth Orbit (LEO): Satellites in LEO typically have orbital velocities of around 7.8 km/s. They are closer to Earth, making them more prone to atmospheric drag.
• Geostationary Orbit: Satellites in geostationary orbit (~36,000 km above Earth) travel at a speed of approximately 3.07 km/s. This ensures they remain fixed relative to Earth's surface.
• Escape Velocity: If a satellite's speed exceeds the escape velocity (~11.2 km/s for Earth), it will leave Earth's gravitational influence and move into interplanetary space.
• Space Missions: Missions like ISRO's Chandrayaan and NASA's Mars rovers calculate orbital and escape velocities accurately for successful launches and operations.
• Newton's Laws: Orbital velocity is derived using Newton's Laws of Motion and Universal Gravitation. These principles explain the relationship between force, mass, and motion in orbit.