Search Previous Year Questions

The correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Key Points

• Justice Sanjiv Khanna became the 51^st Chief Justice of India (CJI). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• He succeeded Justice D.Y. Chandrachud, who demitted office after completing his tenure as the 50^th CJI. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• He did not serve as CJI from 2023. Justice D.Y. Chandrachud served as Chief Justice during 2022–2024. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Therefore, the correct option is 1 and 2 only.

Additional Information

• Chief Justice of India (CJI)
• Appointed under Article 124 of the Constitution of India.
• Appointed by the President of India following the convention of seniority.
• Retirement age: 65 years.
• Justice Sanjiv Khanna
• Elevated to the Supreme Court of India in January 2019.
• Previously served as a judge of the Delhi High Court.
• Belongs to a distinguished legal family; his uncle Justice H.R. Khanna was a renowned Supreme Court judge.
• Justice D.Y. Chandrachud
• Served as the 50^th Chief Justice of India.
• Known for landmark judgments related to constitutional law, fundamental rights, and digital privacy.

The correct answer is Only 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

Key Points

• The National Population Policy (NPP) 2000 was formulated with the objective of stabilizing the population of India while ensuring sustainable development and improving the quality of life of its citizens.
• One of the key goals of the policy is providing free and compulsory education up to 14 years of age, as outlined in the Directive Principles of State Policy under the Indian Constitution. This helps address population issues through better awareness and education.
• The policy aims to reduce the infant mortality rate (IMR) below 30 per 1000 live births by improving healthcare services, immunization programs, and maternal health facilities.
• Promoting delayed marriage for girls is another critical goal of the policy. Encouraging marriage at a later age not only helps in reducing fertility rates but also allows women to pursue education and professional opportunities.
• The policy focuses on several other measures such as addressing unmet needs for contraception, improving maternal healthcare, and achieving population stabilization by 2045.

Additional Information

• Incorrect Option: Increasing fertility rate to ensure demographic dividend
• This is incorrect as the National Population Policy (NPP) 2000 focuses on reducing the fertility rate, not increasing it.
• Reducing fertility rates helps to stabilize population growth and improve socioeconomic indicators.
• Achieving a stable Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is one of the major goals of the policy, aiming for a replacement-level TFR of 2.1.
• Importance of Infant Mortality Rate Reduction
• Reducing the infant mortality rate (IMR) is a key indicator of healthcare quality in a country.
• It reflects improvements in areas such as nutrition, immunization, sanitation, and access to healthcare services.

The Correct answer is Electron Transport Chain.

Key Points

• The electron transport chain (ETC) is a crucial pathway in cellular respiration that generates the most ATP (adenosine triphosphate).
• It occurs in the inner membrane of the mitochondria in eukaryotic cells.
• The ETC uses high-energy electrons from molecules like NADH and FADH₂, which are produced during earlier stages of respiration.
• Electrons are transferred through a series of protein complexes, including cytochromes, which pump protons (H⁺) across the mitochondrial membrane, creating a proton gradient.
• This proton gradient powers the enzyme ATP synthase to synthesize ATP via a process called oxidative phosphorylation.
• The ETC is responsible for producing approximately 34 ATP molecules per glucose molecule, making it the most efficient pathway in energy production.
• Oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor in the ETC, combining with protons and electrons to form water, which is essential to the process.

Additional Information

• Glycolysis
• Glycolysis is the first step in cellular respiration, occurring in the cytoplasm of the cell.
• It breaks down glucose into two molecules of pyruvate, producing a net gain of 2 ATP molecules and 2 NADH molecules.
• Though it is an essential step, it generates far less ATP compared to the ETC.
• Krebs Cycle
• The Krebs cycle, also known as the citric acid cycle, occurs in the mitochondrial matrix.
• It produces NADH and FADH₂, which are used in the electron transport chain.
• The cycle directly generates only 2 ATP molecules per glucose molecule.
• Fermentation
• Fermentation is an anaerobic process that occurs in the absence of oxygen.
• It produces ATP through glycolysis and regenerates NAD+ for continued glycolysis.
• However, it generates only 2 ATP molecules per glucose molecule, making it far less efficient than aerobic respiration.

The correct answer is b-c-a.

Key Points

• The States Reorganisation Act was passed in 1956. It restructured India's states and territories, marking a significant moment in the political and administrative history of the country.
• The First Central Zonal Council meeting was held after the creation of zonal councils, which were established following the States Reorganisation Act. These councils aimed to promote cooperation and coordination between states.
• The Eastern Zonal Council meeting in 2022 occurred significantly later and focused on contemporary issues related to the states in the eastern region of India.
• The chronological order of the events is therefore: States Reorganisation Act passed (b), followed by the First Central Zonal Council meeting (c), and finally the Eastern Zonal Council meeting in 2022 (a).

Additional Information

• States Reorganisation Act
• The States Reorganisation Act, 1956 was a major reform that reorganized the boundaries of Indian states and territories based on linguistic lines.
• It led to the creation of 14 states and 6 union territories.
• This Act also provided the basis for the establishment of Zonal Councils under the States Reorganisation Commission.
• Zonal Councils
• The Zonal Councils were set up to foster interstate cooperation and coordination, as recommended by the States Reorganisation Commission.
• They are statutory bodies, established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
• There are five Zonal Councils: Northern, Southern, Eastern, Western, and Central Zonal Councils.
• The Central Zonal Council includes states like Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Chhattisgarh.
• Eastern Zonal Council
• The Eastern Zonal Council comprises the states of West Bengal, Odisha, Bihar, and Jharkhand.
• It focuses on issues like economic and social development, border disputes, and security concerns specific to the eastern region of India.
• The 2022 meeting of the Eastern Zonal Council aimed at resolving issues related to connectivity, infrastructure, and law and order in the eastern states.

The Correct answer is It is a constitutional legal right that permits deprivation only by authority of law.

Key Points

• Under Article 300A of the Indian Constitution, the right to property is no longer a fundamental right. It was demoted to a constitutional legal right by the 44^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978.
• This article states that no person shall be deprived of their property except by the authority of law.
• This ensures that property can only be taken by the state through a legally established process, providing protection against arbitrary deprivation.
• As a constitutional legal right, this provision primarily ensures that property rights are safeguarded as long as the deprivation occurs through proper legislation.
• Unlike fundamental rights, violations of Article 300A cannot be directly challenged under Article 32 in the Supreme Court.
• However, if property is taken away without following the due process of law, remedies can be sought through the High Courts under Article 226 or other legal avenues.
• The transformation of the right to property from fundamental to constitutional legal right reflects the state's ability to regulate property for public welfare, subject to legal procedures.

Additional Information

• It is a fundamental right that guarantees compensation for all property acquisitions.
• Before the 44^th Amendment Act, the right to property was a fundamental right under Articles 19(1)(f) and 31. However, post-amendment, Article 300A does not guarantee compensation for all acquisitions, and the right to property is now a constitutional legal right.
• It allows the State to deprive a person of property by any law, even without due process.
• This statement is incorrect as Article 300A explicitly requires deprivation to occur through the authority of law. Arbitrary deprivation without legal procedures violates the article.
• It permits citizens to claim property protection under Article 32 before the Supreme Court.
• Property rights under Article 300A cannot be enforced through Article 32, as they are not fundamental rights. Remedies for violations must be sought through High Courts under Article 226 or other legal mechanisms.

The Correct answer is The same for all particles.

Key Points

• In a rigid body, all particles are fixed relative to each other and move collectively during rotation.
• The angular velocity is a measure of the rate of rotation of a body about a given axis and is denoted as ω (omega).
• For a rigid body, the angular velocity of all particles is the same because they rotate together about the same axis at the same rate.
• While the linear velocity of particles depends on their distance from the axis of rotation, the angular velocity remains constant for all particles of the rigid body.
• This uniformity of angular velocity ensures that the body remains rigid and its shape does not change during rotation.
• Angular velocity is a vector quantity, having both magnitude and direction, where the direction is determined by the right-hand rule.
• The concept of angular velocity is widely used in mechanics, engineering, and physics to study rotational motion.

Additional Information

• Proportional to its distance from the axis
• The linear velocity of a particle in a rigid body is proportional to its distance from the axis of rotation. However, angular velocity is the same for all particles.
• This is because linear velocity (v) is calculated as v = ω × r, where r is the distance from the axis, and ω is the angular velocity.
• Inversely proportional to its distance from the axis
• This statement is incorrect because angular velocity does not depend on the distance from the axis. However, other properties, like torque, can depend inversely on certain factors.
• Always zero
• For a rigid body in rotational motion, angular velocity is never zero unless the body is at rest.
• If angular velocity were zero, the body would not exhibit any rotational motion.

The correct answer is Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Key Points

• The One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC) scheme ensures the portability of food grains under the National Food Security Act (NFSA).
• Portability allows eligible beneficiaries to access their entitled food grains from any Fair Price Shop (FPS) in India, irrespective of their location.
• It particularly benefits migrant workers and their families who relocate to different states or regions for work or other reasons.
• The scheme uses Aadhaar-enabled biometric authentication to verify the identity of beneficiaries at FPS outlets. This ensures that food grains are delivered to the rightful beneficiaries.
• The integration of Aadhaar with the Public Distribution System (PDS) helps in preventing leakages, duplication, and fraud in the system.
• ONORC was introduced to support the vision of a unified India and address food security challenges faced by the migrant population.

Additional Information

• A is true, but R is false
• This option is incorrect because Reason (R) is true. The Aadhaar-enabled biometric authentication plays a crucial role in ensuring portability under the scheme.
• A is false, but R is true
• This option is incorrect because Assertion (A) is correct. The One Nation One Ration Card indeed ensures portability of food grains.
• Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
• This option is incorrect because Reason (R) directly supports Assertion (A). The Aadhaar-enabled system is a core component of ensuring portability.

The correct answer is Mizoram.

Key Points

• Cheraw, also known as the bamboo dance, is one of the most famous traditional dances of Mizoram.
• The dance involves the use of long bamboo sticks, which are held horizontally and tapped rhythmically on the ground by performers.
• The performers (usually women) move gracefully in and out of the bamboo sticks to the beat of the music without getting their feet caught.
• This dance holds cultural and religious significance for the Mizo community, as it is often performed during festivals and special occasions, such as weddings or harvest celebrations.
• The Cheraw dance reflects the rich heritage and traditions of the state of Mizoram.
• It symbolizes the harmony and coordination between nature and mankind through its intricate movements.
• Cheraw has gained international fame and is considered a symbol of Mizoram's cultural identity.

Additional Information

• Meghalaya
• Meghalaya is known for its rich tribal culture and several traditional dances, such as Wangala Dance, performed by the Garo tribe to celebrate the harvest festival.
• Another famous dance is the Shad Suk Mynsiem, performed by the Khasi tribe during the spring season.
• Arunachal Pradesh
• Arunachal Pradesh is famous for its diverse tribal dances such as Yak Dance, Buiya Dance, and Ajilamu Dance.
• These dances are often linked to religious rituals and seasonal celebrations.
• Sikkim
• Sikkim is known for its traditional dances like the Chu-Faat Dance and Mask Dance, performed during religious festivals.
• These dances are deeply rooted in Buddhist culture and depict various mythological stories and traditions.

The correct answer is Defense Budget.

Key Points

• The Global Firepower Military Strength Ranking evaluates the military capabilities of nations globally by analyzing several factors, including their defense budget.
• A country's defense budget directly impacts its ability to procure advanced weaponry, maintain military infrastructure, and invest in research and development for new technologies.
• The ranking considers the allocation of financial resources to defense-related activities as a critical element of a country's overall military strength.
• Countries with a larger and more consistent defense budget are typically better equipped to modernize their armed forces and maintain readiness.
• This factor is one of the most significant indicators of a nation's military might in terms of both quality and quantity of resources.
• Other elements of the ranking, such as manpower, equipment, and logistical capabilities, are often supported and enhanced by a robust defense budget.
• Leading nations like the United States, China, and India allocate substantial portions of their annual budgets to defense, which reflects their prioritization of national security.

Additional Information

• Economic Stability
• Economic stability refers to a country's ability to maintain a steady rate of economic growth and avoid inflation or deflation.
• Although related to national strength, it is not directly assessed in the Global Firepower Military Strength Ranking.
• Economic stability often indirectly supports military strength by ensuring the availability of resources for defense spending.
• Cultural Influence
• Cultural influence pertains to a nation's ability to impact others through its culture, values, and traditions.
• It is a component of soft power rather than military or hard power, making it irrelevant to the Global Firepower Military Strength Ranking.
• Healthcare Spending
• Healthcare spending involves a nation’s investment in the health and well-being of its citizens.
• While it contributes to a country's overall development and quality of life, it is not a parameter used in determining military strength.