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Question 1

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

In May 2025, NPCI issued new UPI guidelines to enhance efficiency and reliability, effective from August 1, 2025. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Guidelines mandate stronger real-time monitoring and failure reporting for technical declines by UPI apps and banks.
  2. Stricter timelines set for failed transaction reversals to ensure faster customer refunds.
  3. Unlimited daily UPI limits allowed without monitoring or bank responsibility for failures.
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1

  2. BOption (b)

    Both 1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    Both 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    Only 2

  5. EOption (e)

    All 1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

In News

  • NPCI issued new UPI guidelines in May 2025 to enhance efficiency and reliability, effective from August 1, 2025.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 - Correct: The revised guidelines mandated all UPI apps and payment service providers to strengthen real-time transaction monitoring and failure reporting systems, ensuring technical declines and reversals are tracked precisely to improve system reliability for customers and merchants.
  • Statement 2 - Correct: UPI participants must adhere to stricter turnaround times for resolving failed/pending transactions including auto-reversal timelines, enabling faster refunds for customers facing technical failures or routing issues within the UPI ecosystem.
  • Statement 3 - Incorrect: The circular did not allow unlimited transaction limits without monitoring; instead reinforced risk controls, banks' responsibility for failure analytics, and mandatory customer grievance redressal mechanisms across the ecosystem.
  • The guidelines focus on reducing technical decline rates through enhanced monitoring of high-failure corridors and specific bank-app combinations requiring coordinated remediation efforts.
  • NPCI provided transition period from May to August 1, 2025 for system upgrades, testing, and process alignment before mandatory compliance for all ecosystem participants.
  • Emphasis on operational discipline through detailed transaction performance metrics reporting to identify and systematically resolve recurring technical issues.
  • Customer-centric measures aim to build greater confidence in UPI for high-frequency small-value digital payments by minimizing fund blocking periods during failures.

Additional Information

  • Technical Decline vs Business Decline: Technical declines result from system/connectivity issues (focus of guidelines); business declines occur due to insufficient balance or limits.
  • Auto-Reversal Timeline: Automatic crediting of debited funds back when transactions fail post-debit; tightened timelines minimize customer fund blocking periods.
  • UPI Ecosystem Participants: Includes issuer banks, acquirer banks, third-party app providers (TPAPs), payment service providers, and merchants all aligned with NPCI standards.
  • NPCI
  • Established - 2008
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • UPI Transaction Monitoring: Real-time analytics track success rates, failure patterns, and performance across 300+ banks and 50+ apps in India's payment ecosystem.

Question 2

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

EEPC India is an apex trade promotion body sponsored by the Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of India. Established in 1955, it plays a crucial role in promoting Indian manufacturing in global markets through trade fairs, buyer–seller meets, and policy advocacy. EEPC primarily focuses on the export promotion of which category of goods?

  1. AOption (a)

    Agricultural commodities

  2. BOption (b)

    Engineering goods and services

  3. COption (c)

    Textile and apparel products

  4. DOption (d)

    Pharmaceutical formulations

  5. EOption (e)

    IT and IT-enabled services

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Engineering goods and services

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Engineering goods and services.

In News

  • EEPC India continues to function as the premier organisation for promoting exports of Indian engineering goods and services worldwide.

Key Points

  • The Engineering Export Promotion Council (EEPC) India was established in 1955 as a government-supported body to promote exports of engineering products and services.
  • EEPC's primary mandate is the promotion of engineering goods and services, including machinery, capital goods, industrial equipment, auto components, and other engineering items.
  • It acts as a bridge between Indian engineering exporters and global buyers, helping members access new markets through trade fairs, exhibitions, and buyer–seller meets such as the India Engineering Exhibition (INDEE).
  • EEPC also conducts market research, provides policy inputs to the government, and assists exporters in understanding international standards and regulatory requirements.
  • As of 2025, engineering goods constitute one of India's largest export baskets, with the US, EU, and ASEAN among key destinations; EEPC regularly reports trends and challenges in these markets.
  • The council plays an important role in supporting MSME engineering exporters by facilitating access to schemes like Market Access Initiative (MAI) and Trade Infrastructure for Export Scheme (TIES).

Additional Information

  • EEPC India functions under the Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of India, as a non-profit export promotion council.
  • Engineering exports from India include sectors such as electrical machinery, transport equipment, castings, forgings, and industrial machinery.
  • EEPC organises India pavilions at major global engineering events, helping Indian firms showcase products and build partnerships.
  • Regular EEPC reports track movements in engineering exports, including impacts of global demand cycles, freight costs, and trade policies.

Question 3

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

The Government of India has undertaken major digitisation initiatives in the livestock and dairy sector to capture real-time data on animals, farmers, and milk production. One such initiative is the Unified Livestock Information (ULI) system, which integrates field-level data on animals and farmers into a single digital platform. Which of the following parameters are typically included in ULI records for each animal or farmer household?

  1. AOption (a)

    PAN–Aadhaar seeding status for animals

  2. BOption (b)

    GST filing status and income tax refunds

  3. COption (c)

    Passport details and foreign travel history

  4. DOption (d)

    Milk pouring status, land holding, animal identification details, and productivity records

  5. EOption (e)

    Vehicle registration status and driver's licence details

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Milk pouring status, land holding, animal identification details, and productivity records

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Milk pouring status, land holding, animal identification details, and productivity records.

In News

  • The Unified Livestock Information (ULI) framework consolidates digital data such as milk pouring status, land holding, and animal productivity and health-related information for dairy farmers on a single platform.

Key Points

  • ULI-type databases are built over systems like the Information Network for Animal Productivity & Health (INAPH), which capture detailed records on animal productivity and health at the field level.
  • Key parameters include milk pouring status (quantity and frequency of milk supplied to cooperatives), enabling transparent payments and performance tracking for each farmer.
  • Land holding details of dairy households are mapped to understand resource availability, fodder planning, and farm-scale characteristics.
  • Each animal is tagged with a unique identification number, with records on breed, age, calving history, productivity, and health interventions (vaccination, treatment, AI, etc.).
  • The system also records feed management, reproductive status, and lactation stages, enabling better advisory services and policy planning.
  • ULI-style integration supports traceability of livestock products, helping access premium markets and improving price realisation for farmers.

Additional Information

  • Automatic Milk Collection Units (AMCU/DPMCU) and Bulk Milk Coolers (BMCs) at village-level centres are integrated with such databases to capture milk quantity and quality in real time.
  • Digital livestock databases help in designing insurance products, nutrition programmes, and breed improvement schemes scientifically.
  • Traceability systems are increasingly required for export of dairy and meat products to high-value international markets.
  • Unified databases also assist governments in monitoring disease outbreaks and planning vaccination and veterinary services effectively.

Question 4

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has been working to deepen India’s securities lending and borrowing (SLB) market by strengthening market infrastructure and improving liquidity. In this context, a dedicated entity called the National Bank for Securities Lending (NBSL) was set up to act as a central counterparty and facilitator in the securities lending ecosystem. In which year was the National Bank for Securities Lending (NBSL) launched?

  1. AOption (a)

    September 2019

  2. BOption (b)

    March 2021

  3. COption (c)

    August 2024

  4. DOption (d)

    January 2022

  5. EOption (e)

    June 2023

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

August 2024

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is August 2024.

In News

  • The National Bank for Securities Lending (NBSL) was launched in August 2024 as a specialised market institution to support India's securities lending and borrowing framework.

Key Points

  • NBSL was conceptualised to centralise and standardise the securities lending and borrowing (SLB) process, improving transparency and efficiency in the Indian capital market.
  • The launch in August 2024 aligned with SEBI's broader reforms to deepen market liquidity and support short-selling and hedging strategies in a regulated environment.
  • NBSL acts as an institutional platform where lenders (such as mutual funds, insurance firms, and other large investors) can lend securities to borrowers like traders and market participants for a specified fee and tenure.
  • The bank supports risk management by standardising contracts, collateral norms, and settlement procedures under SEBI and clearing corporation regulations.
  • By professionalising securities lending, NBSL helps reduce settlement failures, enhances price discovery, and improves overall secondary market depth.
  • NBSL coordinates closely with stock exchanges and clearing corporations to ensure seamless integration of lending and borrowing positions into the existing market infrastructure.

Additional Information

  • Securities Lending and Borrowing (SLB) allows investors holding securities to lend them for a fee while retaining economic ownership, helping improve market liquidity.
  • In India, SLB transactions are executed through recognised stock exchanges and are cleared and settled by approved clearing corporations.
  • Typical participants in SLB include mutual funds, foreign portfolio investors (FPIs), proprietary traders, and retail investors acting through brokers.
  • Globally, centralised securities lending structures aid in efficient price discovery, short-covering, and arbitrage opportunities in equity markets.
  • SEBI
  • Established in - 1992 (Act)
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Chairman - Tuhin Kanta Pandey

Question 5

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

In June 2025, the Reserve Bank of India authorised select designated banks to facilitate gold imports amid rising demand and volatile global prices. These banks handle authorised import channels for refineries, exporters, and jewellery manufacturers under liberalised norms. Which banks were authorised for the import of gold with effect from June 25, 2025?

  1. AOption (a)

    State Bank of India and HDFC Bank

  2. BOption (b)

    ​Punjab National Bank and Union Bank of India

  3. COption (c)

    Axis Bank and ICICI Bank

  4. DOption (d)

    All of the above

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All of the above

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All of the above.

In News

  • RBI authorised State Bank of India, HDFC Bank, Axis Bank, ICICI Bank, Punjab National Bank, and Union Bank of India for gold imports effective June 25, 2025.

Key Points

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued authorisation to six banks including SBI, HDFC Bank, Axis Bank, ICICI Bank, PNB, and Union Bank effective June 25, 2025.
  • These Designated Authorised Banks facilitate gold/dore imports for refineries, exporters, and 100% export-oriented jewellery units under Free Sale norms.
  • Authorisation aligns with India's gold import policy liberalisation to support refining capacity addition to 1,000 tonnes annually by 2025.
  • Banks must ensure 100% export obligation for imported gold, reducing domestic supply pressures amid USD 12 billion annual import bill.
  • This expands the list of authorised agencies beyond nominated agencies/MMTC to streamline trade finance for the gems and jewellery sector.
  • India's gold demand projected at 800-900 tonnes in 2025, driven by festivals, weddings, and investment.

Additional Information

  • Gold imports are regulated under Foreign Trade Policy 2023 with export obligations.
  • Gems & Jewellery exports contribute 7% to India's total merchandise exports.
  • RBI mandates Letters of Credit (LC) through authorised banks for transparency.
  • Key refineries like MMTC-PAMP, India Gold Coin process imported dore bars.
  • RBI
  • Established in - 1935
  • HQ - Mumbai

Question 6

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

The United Nations Nelson Rolihlahla Mandela Prize, established by UNGA Resolution 67/295 in 2015, recognises individuals for outstanding achievement in fostering racial equality, human rights, and reconciliation. This biennial award highlights global contributions to humanity in Mandela's honour. This honorary award is presented once every ____ years to two individuals?

  1. AOption (a)

    Five

  2. BOption (b)

    Three

  3. COption (c)

    Two

  4. DOption (d)

    Four

  5. EOption (e)

    Ten

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Five

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Five.

In News

  • UN Nelson Rolihlahla Mandela Prize is awarded once every five years to two individuals for exceptional work in human rights, peace, and equality.

Key Points

  • The UN Nelson Rolihlahla Mandela Prize, instituted via UNGA Resolution 67/295 in 2015, honours Nelson Mandela's legacy every five years.
  • Awarded to two individuals biennially (once in five years), each receiving USD 125,000 for contributions to peace, reconciliation, and human rights.
  • Recipients are selected by a nine-member High-Level Advisory Committee appointed by the UN Secretary-General based on global nominations.
  • Past winners include Morissana Kouyaté (Guinea, 2019) for women's rights and Tawakkol Karman (Yemen, 2019) for democracy advocacy.
  • The prize ceremony occurs during UNGA sessions in New York, amplifying global recognition for grassroots humanitarians.
  • It promotes Mandela's values of racial equality, democracy, and social justice amid contemporary global challenges.

Additional Information

  • Nelson Mandela served as South Africa's first post-apartheid President (1994-1999).
  • UNGA awards several prizes, like the UNESCO Félix Houphouët-Boigny Peace Prize.
  • Nominations open to UN Member States, UN entities, and accredited NGOs.
  • Prize underscores SDGs, particularly Goal 16 (Peace, Justice, Strong Institutions).

Question 7

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs), issued by the Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the Government of India since 2015, serve as a financial instrument for citizens to invest in gold without physical possession. These bonds are denominated in grams of gold of a specific purity and redeemed on maturity based on the prevailing gold price. Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs) are redeemed based on the price of gold with a ____ purity?

  1. AOption (a)

    916

  2. BOption (b)

    995

  3. COption (c)

    999

  4. DOption (d)

    875

  5. EOption (e)

    750

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

999

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 999.

In News

  • Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs) are issued and redeemed based on the simple average closing price of 999 purity gold published by India Bullion and Jewellers Association Ltd (IBJA).

Key Points

  • Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs) are government securities denominated in grams of gold of 999 purity, eliminating risks of physical gold storage.
  • Each bond represents 1 gram of 999 purity gold, with redemption value calculated using average IBJA prices for the last 3 business days before maturity.
  • Issued by RBI for an 8-year tenure with premature redemption after 5 years, offering 2.50% per annum interest paid semi-annually.
  • As of 2025, multiple SGB series remain active, with recent Tranche like SGB 2024-25 Series IV mobilising over Rs 4,700 crore.
  • Redemption ensures capital appreciation linked to the gold price plus interest, making SGBs tax-efficient with no capital gains tax on maturity held till term.
  • Available in denominations of 1g, 2g, 4g, 5g up to 4 kg for individuals, subscribed through banks, post offices, and stock exchanges.

Additional Information

  • 999 purity denotes 99.9% pure gold, standard for investment-grade bullion.
  • SGBs reduce India's gold import bill currently at USD 10-12 billion annually.
  • Eligible for KYC-compliant investors; nomination and trading on exchanges allowed after demat.
  • Alternative to physical gold, ETFs, and gold mutual funds with a sovereign guarantee.
  • RBI
  • Established in - 1935
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Governor - Sanjay Malhotra

Question 8

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

The PM Mega Integrated Textile Regions and Apparel (PM MITRA) Park scheme, launched in 2021, aims to create integrated large-scale textile value chains with world-class infrastructure. As of 2025, the scheme supports development across seven selected locations to boost employment and exports. What are the two types of sites, representing existing and new facilities, that are eligible for development under the PM MITRA Park scheme?

  1. AOption (a)

    Primary and Secondary

  2. BOption (b)

    Brownfield and Greenfield

  3. COption (c)

    Urban and Rural

  4. DOption (d)

    Industrial and Commercial

  5. EOption (e)

    Private and Public

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Brownfield and Greenfield

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Brownfield and Greenfield.

In News

  • PM MITRA Park scheme allows both Brownfield (existing textile clusters) and Greenfield (new greenfield sites) projects for development as of 2025.

Key Points

  • The PM Mega Integrated Textile Regions and Apparel (PM MITRA) Park scheme provides Rs 4,445 crore incentives for developing 7 PM MITRA Parks across states like Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, and Telangana.
  • Brownfield sites refer to existing textile clusters or facilities that can be upgraded, while Greenfield sites are new undeveloped lands for fresh parks.
  • Each PM MITRA Park spans at least 1,000 acres, integrating entire textile value chain from spinning to garmenting with common infrastructure like water, power, and effluent treatment.
  • As of 2025, SPVs (Special Purpose Vehicles) have been formed for parks in Virudhunagar (Tamil Nadu), Warangal (Telangana), and others, targeting 10 lakh jobs.
  • The scheme offers financial assistance up to Rs 500 crore per park for infrastructure, aiming to increase textile exports to USD 100 billion by 2030.
  • Brownfield projects leverage existing ecosystems for faster implementation, while Greenfield ensures planned sustainable development.

Additional Information

  • Textiles contribute 2% to India's GDP and employ over 45 million people.
  • PM MITRA aligns with PLI Scheme for Textiles offering production-linked incentives.
  • Seven parks: Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Telangana.
  • SPV model ensures collaborative governance between Centre, State, and Industry.

Question 9

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

The Border Infrastructure and Management (BIM) Scheme, approved by the Union Cabinet in 2021 with an outlay of Rs 43,686 crore for 2021-22 to 2025-26, focuses on developing border infrastructure along India's international borders. To which of the following States is the Border Infrastructure Development Scheme applicable?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jammu & Kashmir

  2. BOption (b)

    Arunachal Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Ladakh

  4. DOption (d)

    All of the above

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All of the above

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All of the above.

In News

  • Border Infrastructure and Management (BIM) Scheme covers states like Arunachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh, and others along India's international borders.

Key Points

  • The Border Infrastructure and Management (BIM) Scheme, approved in October 2021, has a total outlay of Rs 43,686 crore for the period 2021-22 to 2025-26 to strengthen border infrastructure.
  • It applies to 17 border states and Union Territories including Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Ladakh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Punjab, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tripura, Uttarakhand, and West Bengal.
  • The scheme focuses on constructing strategic roads, bridges, tunnels, and floodlights along borders with China, Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar, and Bangladesh to improve defence preparedness and civilian connectivity.
  • Key components include Border Roads Organisation (BRO) projects, Integrated Border Management System (IBMS), and floating bridges for flood-prone areas.
  • As of 2025, over 500 projects have been sanctioned under BIM, with significant progress in high-altitude regions like Ladakh and Arunachal Pradesh.
  • The scheme enhances economic development by promoting tourism, trade, and local employment in border villages through better infrastructure access.

Additional Information

  • BRO (Border Roads Organisation) is the nodal agency executing most road projects under BIM since 1960.
  • India shares 15,200 km land border with seven neighbours, necessitating robust infrastructure for national security.
  • The scheme integrates with the Vibrant Villages Programme for developing 2,967 border villages along China border.
  • Funding is 90:10 Centre-State for most states, fully central for UTs like Ladakh.

Question 10

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

In 2025, the QUAD nations conducted their first-ever ‘At Sea Observer Mission’ to enhance maritime domain awareness and interoperability in the Indo-Pacific region, focusing on joint surveillance and information-sharing. Which four countries constitute the QUAD grouping that participated in this ‘At Sea Observer Mission’?

  1. AOption (a)

    India, Japan, France, Australia

  2. BOption (b)

    India, United States, Japan, Australia

  3. COption (c)

    India, United States, Japan, France

  4. DOption (d)

    India, Australia, United Kingdom, Japan

  5. EOption (e)

    India, United States, Australia, South Korea

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

India, United States, Japan, Australia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is India, United States, Japan, Australia.

In News

  • The QUAD’s first ‘At Sea Observer Mission’ involved India, the United States, Japan and Australia conducting joint maritime activities in the Indo-Pacific.

Key Points

  • The mission focused on coordinated patrols, information sharing, and observation of maritime operations.
  • It aimed to strengthen interoperability and trust among QUAD navies in key sea lanes.
  • Activities highlighted commitment to a free, open, inclusive and rules-based Indo-Pacific.
  • It supplemented existing QUAD cooperation like Malabar naval exercises and HADR initiatives.
  • Observers monitored maritime traffic patterns, illegal activities, and security challenges.
  • Mission showcased QUAD’s growing security and defence cooperation dimension.

Additional Information

  • QUAD is an informal strategic forum among India, US, Japan and Australia.
  • Key areas of QUAD cooperation include vaccines, critical technologies, climate, and maritime security.
  • Indo-Pacific is a strategic maritime region connecting Indian and Pacific Oceans.
  • Maritime domain awareness is crucial for countering piracy, trafficking, and illegal fishing.
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