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Question 21

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

During the 55th Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) meeting of RBI held in June 2025, what was the revised Loan-to-Value (LTV) ratio set for small-ticket gold loans (below Rs. 2.5 lakh) to enhance borrower credit access?

  1. AOption (a)

    75%

  2. BOption (b)

    80%

  3. COption (c)

    85%

  4. DOption (d)

    90%

  5. EOption (e)

    70%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

85%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 85%.

In News

  • RBI raised the LTV ratio for gold loans up to Rs. 2.5 lakh to 85% during the MPC meeting held in June 2025.

Key Points

  • The revision increases from the earlier 75% to 85% maximum LTV to enable more credit on small gold loans.
  • For gold loans between Rs. 2.5 lakh and Rs. 5 lakh, the LTV ratio was fixed at 80%, and for loans above Rs. 5 lakh at 75%.
  • Updated norms effective from April 1, 2026, to improve financial inclusion for retail borrowers.
  • RBI aims to balance risk management with borrower support, especially in rural and semi-urban markets.
  • Gold loans form a crucial component of informal credit especially during emergencies and festivals.
  • Relaxation is expected to boost lenders' portfolio quality by formalizing and expanding small-ticket loans.
  • The move aligns with the RBI’s accommodative monetary policy stance and rural credit expansion.

Additional Information

  • LTV ratio is the maximum loan amount as a percentage of the collateral value banks can lend.
  • Gold loan customers typically pledge physical gold ornaments or coins as collateral.
  • Smaller loans cater to low-income borrowers needing quick liquidity.
  • MPC adjusts policy rates and guidelines based on inflation and growth outlook.
  • RBI
  • Established in - 1935
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Governor - Sanjay Malhotra

Question 22

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

As per the Provisional Estimates released by the National Statistics Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) in May 2025, India's Real GDP growth rate for FY25 was estimated. What was the estimated growth rate for India's Real GDP in FY25 according to these estimates?

  1. AOption (a)

    7.4%

  2. BOption (b)

    6.2%

  3. COption (c)

    6.5%

  4. DOption (d)

    7.0%

  5. EOption (e)

    5.9%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

6.5%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 6.5%.

In News

  • India’s real GDP grew by 6.5% in FY25 according to the Provisional Estimates released by NSO (MoSPI) in May 2025.

Key Points

  • The real GDP growth for FY25 was slightly below the RBI’s earlier forecast of 6.6%.
  • India’s nominal GDP grew by 9.8% during FY25.
  • Q4 FY25 GDP recorded a growth rate of 7.4% indicating strong year-end economic activity.
  • Growth drivers included manufacturing, agriculture, and services sectors.
  • Data reflects a gradual post-pandemic economic recovery and government stimulus impacts.
  • The estimates are provisional and subject to revision with subsequent data.

Additional Information

  • NSO operates under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation and is responsible for GDP data compilation.
  • Real GDP accounts for inflation adjustment; nominal GDP is at current prices.
  • Indian economy is among the fastest-growing large economies globally with diverse growth profile.
  • GDP figures guide monetary, fiscal, and policy decisions across sectors.

Question 23

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

The first-ever Chess Esports World Cup, held in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia, in August 2025, marked a historic moment in the world of competitive chess, blending esports with traditional gameplay. Which player emerged victorious in this groundbreaking tournament?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hikaru Nakamura

  2. BOption (b)

    Magnus Carlsen

  3. COption (c)

    Alireza Firouzja

  4. DOption (d)

    Arjun Erigaisi

  5. EOption (e)

    Ian Nepomniachtchi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Magnus Carlsen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Magnus Carlsen.

In News

  • Magnus Carlsen became the first-ever Chess Esports World Cup champion by defeating Alireza Firouzja in the finals in Riyadh, August 2025.

Key Points

  • Carlsen won the final by winning two sets with a score of 3-1 in each.
  • The event was a best-of-three sets format where Carlsen wrapped results in two sets.
  • The $250,000 top prize was awarded to Carlsen along with Team Liquid clinching the overall championship.
  • Carlsen lost only one game during the tournament, demonstrating dominance.
  • GM Hikaru Nakamura took third place by defeating GM Arjun Erigaisi.
  • The tournament had a $1.5 million prize pool, highlighting esports' growing stature in chess.
  • Organized in collaboration with Chess.com and held offline in Saudi Arabia.

Additional Information

  • Chess esports combine traditional chess with online competitive gaming features.
  • Alireza Firouzja was a top contender without a loss before the finals.
  • Team Liquid led by Carlsen edged out other teams in overall esports standings.
  • Esports chess events are increasing in popularity, merging digital and classical skills.

Question 24

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

EarthCARE (Earth Cloud, Aerosol and Radiation Explorer) is a joint satellite mission designed to improve understanding of how clouds and aerosols influence Earth’s radiation budget and climate, using a combination of active and passive sensors including a cloud-profiling radar and lidar. It is a collaborative project between the European Space Agency (ESA) and which other space agency?

  1. AOption (a)

    German Aerospace Center

  2. BOption (b)

    Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency

  3. COption (c)

    National Aeronautics and Space Administration

  4. DOption (d)

    Indian Space Research Organisation

  5. EOption (e)

    Canadian Space Agency

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA).

In News

  • EarthCARE is a joint mission of the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) to study clouds, aerosols, and radiation.

Key Points

  • EarthCARE carries cloud profiling radar (CPR), atmospheric lidar, multispectral imager, and broadband radiometer instruments.
  • Mission aims to reduce uncertainty in climate models by quantifying cloud-aerosol-radiation interactions.
  • ESA leads mission development and operations, while JAXA provides key radar technology and scientific contributions.
  • Data will improve understanding of how clouds influence the heating and cooling of the atmosphere.
  • EarthCARE operates in sun-synchronous orbit providing global coverage of cloud and aerosol vertical structures.
  • The mission supports IPCC assessments and climate policy by refining radiative forcing estimates.
  • Launch is part of ESA’s Earth Explorer programme focused on scientific Earth observation missions.

Additional Information

  • ESA is Europe’s intergovernmental space agency with 22 member states.
  • JAXA is Japan’s national aerospace agency responsible for space and satellite missions.
  • Earth Explorer missions include SMOS, CryoSat, Aeolus, and Biomass.
  • Aerosols are tiny particles in the atmosphere that can scatter or absorb sunlight affecting the climate.
  • JAXA
  • Established in- 2003
  • HQ - Tokyo

Question 25

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

In June 2025, the World Health Organization announced a significant public health achievement in the fight against neglected tropical diseases, confirming that another African country had successfully eliminated human African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness) as a public health problem. This made it the 10th country globally to be recognized for eliminating this vector-borne parasitic disease. Which African nation received this WHO validation in 2025?

  1. AOption (a)

    Uganda

  2. BOption (b)

    Rwanda

  3. COption (c)

    Kenya

  4. DOption (d)

    Tanzania

  5. EOption (e)

    Malawi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kenya

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kenya.

In News

  • In June 2025, WHO validated Kenya as the 10th country globally to eliminate human African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness) as a public health problem.

Key Points

  • Kenya achieved WHO validation for eliminating sleeping sickness, a vector-borne parasitic disease transmitted by tsetse flies.
  • Sleeping sickness caused by Trypanosoma brucei gambiense and rhodesiense leads to fatal neurological conditions if untreated.
  • Elimination means the disease no longer poses a significant public health threat though continuous surveillance is vital.
  • Kenya implemented extensive vector control, active case detection, treatment, and health education programs over recent decades.
  • The achievement joins Kenya with nine other countries recognized by the WHO for control and elimination success of this neglected tropical disease.
  • Validation supports global targets aligned with WHO’s Roadmap for Neglected Tropical Diseases 2021-2030.
  • Continued focus on surveillance will prevent resurgence and sustain public health gains.

Additional Information

  • Human African trypanosomiasis also called sleeping sickness has two forms affecting different regions of Africa.
  • The disease is targeted for elimination by 2030 under the WHO’s neglected tropical diseases strategy.
  • Tsetse fly vectors inhabit rural sub-Saharan Africa where agriculture and livestock coexistence affect disease spread.
  • WHO collaborates with endemic countries and partners for diagnostics, treatment access, and vector control.
  • WHO
  • Established in - 1948
  • HQ - Geneva, Switzerland

Question 26

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

In the evolving global arms control landscape, one major nuclear power has progressively distanced itself from key bilateral treaties. As of September 2025, which country has officially withdrawn from the Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces (INF) Treaty and has suspended its participation in the New START Treaty, signalling a significant shift in nuclear arms control architecture?

  1. AOption (a)

    France

  2. BOption (b)

    Russia

  3. COption (c)

    United States

  4. DOption (d)

    China

  5. EOption (e)

    North Korea

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Russia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Russia.

In News

  • Russia has withdrawn from the INF Treaty and suspended its participation in the New START Treaty, altering post-Cold War nuclear arms control arrangements.

Key Points

  • Intermediate-Range Nuclear Forces (INF) Treaty, signed in 1987, required the elimination of ground-launched ballistic and cruise missiles with ranges 500–5,500 km.
  • United States formally withdrew from the INF in 2019 citing Russian violations; Russia subsequently suspended and exited obligations.
  • In 2023, Russia announced the suspension of participation in New START, the last remaining US-Russia strategic arms reduction treaty.
  • New START, in force since 2011, caps deployed strategic nuclear warheads at 1,550 and delivery systems at 700 for each side.
  • Suspension affects on-site inspections and data exchanges, reducing transparency and predictability in nuclear arsenals.
  • These moves raise concerns about a renewed arms race and weakening of global non-proliferation regime.
  • Other nuclear-armed states are not party to these bilateral treaties, complicating future multilateral arrangements.

Additional Information

  • Nuclear-weapon states under NPT are the US, Russia, China, UK, and France.
  • INF was the first treaty to eliminate an entire class of nuclear delivery systems.
  • New START was extended in 2021 for five years, now facing an uncertain future.
  • Arms control remains key to strategic stability and crisis prevention among major powers.

Question 27

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

In December 2024, the Reserve Bank of India released a framework for the pilot phase of the Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) – Retail, known as e-Rupee (e₹-R), expanding its use among selected banks and customer segments. Under this framework, the digital rupee is designed to function as a sovereign legal tender similar to paper currency. What interest rate will the digital e-Rupee carry?

  1. AOption (a)

    0%

  2. BOption (b)

    3% per annum

  3. COption (c)

    4% per annum

  4. DOption (d)

    Linked to savings account rate

  5. EOption (e)

    Variable market-linked rate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

0%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 0% (no interest).

In News

  • RBI’s CBDC-retail (e₹-R) pilot framework specifies that digital rupee will not carry any interest, similar to physical cash.

Key Points

  • e₹-R is a digital form of central bank money intended primarily as a medium of exchange and store of value for retail users.
  • Like banknotes, CBDC units are non-interest-bearing, preventing disintermediation of bank deposits.
  • Pilot involves select banks issuing CBDC wallets to customers for P2P and P2M transactions via QR codes and mobile apps.
  • The objective is to test operational aspects, user experience, and impact on monetary and financial stability.
  • Design choices align with BIS recommendations that retail CBDC should mimic cash characteristics.
  • RBI launched its first retail CBDC pilot on December 1, 2022, gradually expanding cities and banks.
  • Interoperability with UPI and other digital payment systems is being explored to enhance adoption.

Additional Information

  • CBDC is a digital liability of the central bank, distinct from private cryptocurrencies.
  • Wholesale CBDC (e₹-W) is tested separately for interbank settlements.
  • Design dimensions include token vs account-based, degree of anonymity, and offline capability.
  • Many central banks globally are piloting or researching CBDC frameworks.
  • RBI
  • Established in - 1935
  • HQ - Mumbai
  • Governor - Sanjay Malhotra

Question 28

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

At the Global FinTech Fest held in Mumbai, NPCI showcased multiple innovations to strengthen India’s digital payment ecosystem, including the launch of UPI Circle, aimed at enabling closed user group payments, and a new Bharat BillPay B2B platform for digitising business-to-business collections. In which year were the UPI Circle and the Bharat BillPay B2B platform launched at the Global FinTech Fest?

  1. AOption (a)

    2023

  2. BOption (b)

    2024

  3. COption (c)

    2025

  4. DOption (d)

    2022

  5. EOption (e)

    2027

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2024

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2024.

In News

  • NPCI launched UPI Circle and a Bharat BillPay B2B platform during Global FinTech Fest 2024 to expand use cases in India’s digital payments.

Key Points

  • UPI Circle allows controlled payments within a defined group such as societies, clubs, or workplaces.
  • Bharat BillPay B2B platform digitises invoicing and collections between businesses using interoperable rails.
  • Launch at GFF 2024 aligns with NPCI’s vision to deepen UPI adoption beyond P2P and retail merchant payments.
  • Solutions showcased NPST’s efforts to cater to corporate collections, recurring payments, and closed-loop ecosystems.
  • Other products presented included RuPay credit on UPI and cross-border offerings via NPCI International.
  • Global FinTech Fest brings regulators, banks, fintechs, and investors together annually.
  • India’s UPI processes billions of transactions monthly, making it key testbed for such innovations.

Additional Information

  • NPCI (National Payments Corporation of India) is the umbrella organisation for retail payments in India.
  • UPI (Unified Payments Interface) enables instant transfers via mobile using virtual payment addresses.
  • Bharat BillPay is an RBI-regulated bill payment system for utilities, telecom, and other recurring payments.
  • GFF is co-organised by NPCI, Payments Council of India, and Fintech Convergence Council.
  • NPCI
  • Established in - 2008
  • HQ - Mumbai

Question 29

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

The Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI) signed a Memorandum of Understanding with the Department of Posts (DoP) to tap into India Post’s vast network of over 1.6 lakh post offices for mutual fund distribution, investor awareness, and financial literacy, particularly in rural and semi-urban areas. Until what date is this initial agreement between AMFI and DoP valid?

  1. AOption (a)

    21 August 2028

  2. BOption (b)

    31 March 2028

  3. COption (c)

    31 December 2026

  4. DOption (d)

    30 June 2028

  5. EOption (e)

    31 March 2026

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

21 August 2028

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 21 Aug 2028.

In News

  • AMFI and the Department of Posts signed MoU on August 21, 2025, valid until August 21, 2028, for mutual fund distribution through the post office network.

Key Points

  • The three-year MoU commencing August 21, 2025, enables empanelled AMCs to offer mutual fund schemes through 1.6 lakh post offices across India.
  • Department of Posts staff receive training as mutual fund facilitators to handle investor onboarding, KYC, and transaction support services.
  • The initial agreement valid till August 21, 2028, provides an evaluation period for scaling distribution volumes and investor acquisition metrics.
  • Focus targets Tier 2/3 cities and rural areas where post offices serve as trusted financial literacy and service delivery points.
  • Integration supports AMFI's "Mutual Funds Sahi Hai" campaign reaching underserved geographies beyond urban wealth centres.
  • Technology platforms of India Post Payments Bank enable digital mutual fund transactions alongside traditional paperwork options.
  • Partnership expected to onboard first-time investors into SIPs and market-linked products through familiar post office channels.

Additional Information

  • AMFI represents 45 Asset Management Companies managing over Rs 60 lakh crore AUM as of 2025.
  • India Post operates the largest postal network globally with 1.36 lakh post offices serving rural populations.
  • Mutual fund penetration remains low at 15% household coverage requiring distribution expansion strategies.
  • SEBI regulations mandate AMFI membership for mutual fund distributors ensuring investor protection standards.
  • AMFI
  • Established in - 1995
  • HQ - Mumbai

Question 30

SBI Probationary Officer (PO) 2025• General/ Economy/ Banking Awareness

The Reserve Bank of India compiles Basic Statistical Returns (BSR) to capture granular information on bank credit, deposits, and branch-level characteristics for policy and research. BSR-1 specifically relates to credit profiles of borrowers and is crucial for understanding the sectoral and regional distribution of lending. On what periodicity is the BSR-1 return on bank credit currently collected by the RBI?

  1. AOption (a)

    Quarterly

  2. BOption (b)

    Half-yearly

  3. COption (c)

    Annually

  4. DOption (d)

    Monthly

  5. EOption (e)

    Bi-monthly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Quarterly

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Quarterly.

In News

  • The Reserve Bank of India collects Basic Statistical Return on bank credit (BSR-1) from scheduled commercial banks on a quarterly basis.

Key Points

  • BSR-1 captures detailed borrower-wise credit information, enabling analysis of sectoral and geographical bank lending patterns.
  • Data are submitted by banks every quarter, facilitating timely and granular insights for monetary and credit policy formulation.
  • The quarterly frequency supports RBI’s assessment of credit flow and detection of emerging risks or concentrations.
  • Scheduled commercial banks report BSR data electronically under the regulatory framework.
  • RBI uses BSR-1 data for compiling banking sector statistics and macroprudential supervision.
  • Periodic submission enhances data accuracy and policy responsiveness to credit demand-supply dynamics.
  • The quarterly BSR-1 has replaced the earlier annual compilation improving efficiency and availability of credit data.

Additional Information

  • Basic Statistical Returns were introduced in 1972 for standardised data collection on banking sector performance.
  • BSR-1 returns include information on advances to individuals, businesses, priority sectors, and large borrowers.
  • Quarterly data publication supports transparency and market discipline in banking.
  • Other BSR returns such as BSR-2 cover deposits, while BSR-3 gives branch-level statistics.