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The correct answer is If a crime under the law is revealed upon a prima facie examination of the FIR, the granting of anticipatory bail is strictly prohibited..

Key Points

• The Supreme Court of India reiterated the absolute bar on granting anticipatory bail under Section 18 of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, provided the First Information Report (FIR) discloses a prima facie case.
• Under this legal framework, Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), or the corresponding Section 482 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), does not apply to offenses registered under the SC/ST Act.
• The prima facie standard implies that the court must only examine if the essential ingredients of the offense are mentioned in the complaint without a deep merit-based mini-trial at the bail stage.
• The judicial intent behind this restriction is to protect marginalized communities from intimidation and ensure that the accused do not evade the immediate legal process in serious cases of social discrimination and violence.

 Additional Information

• The SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989:
• Section 18A: This was inserted through a 2018 Amendment to nullify a previous judgment that had introduced requirements for preliminary inquiries and prior approvals for arrest.
• Judicial Precedents: In the landmark Prathvi Raj Chauhan vs. Union of India (2020) case, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of Section 18A, affirming that anticipatory bail can only be granted in exceptional cases where no prima facie case is established.
• Scope of Atrocities: The Act defines specific crimes against Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, including social boycott, forced labor, and assault on women, providing for Special Courts to ensure speedy justice.

The correct answer is The effects of Coronal Mass Ejections from the Sun on the Moon.

Key Points

• The Chandrayaan-2 orbiter, equipped with sophisticated instruments, recorded the first-ever observations of Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) impacting the lunar environment, providing critical data on space weather.
• The observation was made possible using the Solar X-ray Monitor (XSM) and the Chandrayaan-2 Large Area Soft X-ray Spectrometer (CLASS), which measured the increased flux of solar protons and heavy ions.
• Coronal Mass Ejections are large-scale eruptions of magnetized plasma from the Sun's corona that travel through space at high velocities, significantly disturbing the interplanetary medium.
• This study highlighted how the Moon's tenuous exosphere and plasma environment react when subjected to intense solar activity, marking a milestone in lunar science.
• The data collected helps scientists understand the interaction of solar wind with non-magnetized celestial bodies, which is essential for future long-term lunar explorations and human habitability.

 Additional Information

• Chandrayaan-2 Mission:
• Launched by ISRO on July 22, 2019, using the GSLV Mk-III launch vehicle from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre.
• The mission was designed to explore the Lunar South Pole and consists of an Orbiter, the Vikram Lander, and the Pragyan Rover.
• The Orbiter has a mission life of several years and continues to revolve around the Moon in a polar orbit at an altitude of approximately 100 km.
• Key Payload Functions:
• The XSM monitors the Solar X-ray spectrum to provide the primary source of illumination for the CLASS instrument, which maps the elemental abundance of the lunar surface.
• Other instruments like the IIRS (Imaging Infra-Red Spectrometer) are dedicated to the global mapping of minerals and water-ice signatures.

The correct answer is **C.

V. Chandrasekhar**.

Key Points

• **C.

V. Chandrasekhar** is a legendary figure in Indian Classical Dance, specifically celebrated for his mastery of the Bharatanatyam style.

• The Government of India honored him with the Padma Bhushan in 2011 for his exceptional and distinguished service in the field of Performing Arts.
• He is an alumnus of Kalakshetra, Chennai, where he trained under the iconic Rukmini Devi Arundale and later evolved into a prominent performer, teacher, and scholar.
• Throughout his career, he has made significant contributions as a composer and choreographer, creating numerous dance dramas that emphasize the spiritual and technical nuances of the Kalakshetra bani.
• He served as the Head of the Department of Dance and the Dean of the Faculty of Performing Arts at the Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda, contributing to the academic growth of Indian dance.
• Previously, he was also honored with the prestigious Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1993 for his contribution to Bharatanatyam.

 Additional Information

• Vempati Chinna Satyam:
• A renowned maestro of Kuchipudi, he is credited with refining the dance form and introducing it to a global audience.
• He founded the Kuchipudi Art Academy in 1963 and received the Padma Bhushan in 1998.
• Guru Bipin Singh:
• He was a distinguished director and teacher of Manipuri dance who worked towards systematizing the classical Meitei dance forms.
• He received the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1966 and was known for establishing the Govindji Nartanalaya.
• Kalamandalam Gopi:
• He is one of the most respected Kathakali dancers from Kerala, known for his excellence in the pacha (heroic) style of characters.
• He was awarded the Padma Shri in 2009 and the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1987.

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

• The Western Ghats, also known as the Sahyadri mountains, constitute a 1,600-kilometer long range that runs parallel to the western coast of the Indian peninsula, passing through six states.
• The state of Kerala hosts the highest elevation of the entire range at Anaimudi peak, which stands at an altitude of 2,695 meters (8,842 feet) above mean sea level.
• Located in the Idukki district, Anaimudi is famously known as the Everest of South India because it is the highest point in India south of the Himalayas.
• The peak is situated at the strategic junction of three mountain sub-ranges: the Annamalai Hills to the north, the Palani Hills to the northeast, and the Cardamom Hills to the south.
• Geographically, this region is part of the Eravikulam National Park, which serves as a critical conservation zone for the Nilgiri Tahr, an endangered mountain ungulate endemic to these hills.

 Additional Information

• Comparative Peaks in Other States:
• Tamil Nadu: The highest peak is Doddabetta in the Nilgiri Hills, reaching an elevation of 2,637 meters, making it the second-highest peak in the Western Ghats.
• Karnataka: The highest point is Mullayanagiri in the Chikkamagaluru district, standing at approximately 1,930 meters within the Chandra Dhrona Hill Range.
• Maharashtra: The highest elevation is the Kalsubai Shikhar, which reaches 1,646 meters and is a prominent trekking destination in the Sahyadri range.
• Ecological Importance:
• The Western Ghats are a recognized UNESCO World Heritage Site and represent one of the world's eight biodiversity hotspots.
• The range influences the Indian Monsoon by acting as an orographic barrier, forcing moisture-laden winds from the Arabian Sea to rise and release heavy rainfall on the windward side.

The correct answer is 1995.

Key Points

• The World Trade Organization (WTO) officially commenced its operations on January 1, 1995, following the conclusion of the Uruguay Round of negotiations that lasted from 1986 to 1994.
• India is a founding member of the WTO, having been one of the 123 nations that signed the Marrakesh Agreement on April 15, 1994, in Morocco.
• Before the WTO was established, India was an original signatory to the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) since 1947, which served as the predecessor to the WTO.
• The transition to the WTO in 1995 expanded the scope of international trade rules to include Trade in Services (GATS) and Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS), alongside trade in goods.
• By becoming a founding member in 1995, India gained a platform to negotiate multilateral trade agreements and access the Dispute Settlement Body to resolve international trade conflicts.

 Additional Information

• World Trade Organization (WTO):
• The organization is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, and functions as the primary body for supervising and liberalizing international trade.
• It operates on principles such as Most Favored Nation (MFN) status and National Treatment to ensure non-discriminatory trade between member countries.
• Significance of 1991:
• While India joined the WTO in 1995, the groundwork was laid in 1991 when the Indian government introduced LPG (Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization) reforms under the New Economic Policy.
• Uruguay Round:
• This was the 8^th round of multilateral trade negotiations conducted within the framework of GATT, leading to the largest reform of the world's trading system since 1947.

The correct answer is 86^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.

Key Points

• The Fundamental Duties were not part of the original Constitution of India; they were added based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• The 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, introduced Part IV-A and Article 51A, which originally listed 10 Fundamental Duties for Indian citizens.
• The 86^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, expanded this list by adding the 11^th Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k).
• This duty mandates that a parent or guardian must provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the ages of 6 and 14 years.
• The amendment serves as a bridge between the Fundamental Rights of the child and the moral obligations of the parents, ensuring the success of the Right to Education.

 Additional Information

• 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976:
• Often called the Mini-Constitution, it added the words Socialist, Secular, and Integrity to the Preamble and established the primary framework for Fundamental Duties.
• 44^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978:
• This amendment was passed to nullify several provisions of the 42^nd Amendment and is notable for removing the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights, making it a legal right under Article 300A.
• 61^st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988:
• This act amended Article 326 to lower the voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies from 21 years to 18 years.
• Article 21A:
• Concurrently introduced by the 86^th Amendment, it made Free and Compulsory Education a Fundamental Right for all children in the 6 to 14 age group.

The correct answer is Sidhu Murmu and Kanhu Murmu.

Key Points

• The Santhal Rebellion, also known as the Santhal Hool, was a major tribal revolt against the British East India Company and the Zamindari system that took place between 1855 and 1856.
• The movement was primarily led by four brothers of the Murmu clan: Sidhu, Kanhu, Chand, and Bhairav, from the village of Bhagnadih in present-day Jharkhand.
• Sidhu Murmu and Kanhu Murmu emerged as the top leaders, mobilizing approximately 60,000 Santhals to wage a guerilla war against the oppressive British administration and local Mahajans (moneylenders).
• The rebellion was triggered by the introduction of the Permanent Settlement of 1793, which led to the exploitation of the Santhals through high taxes, land alienation, and debt bondage.
• The leaders claimed a divine mandate, stating that Thakur Jiu (their supreme deity) had ordered them to end the rule of Dikus (outsiders) and establish a Santhal Raj.
• The uprising was characterized by its intensity, with Santhals using traditional weapons like bows and arrows against the sophisticated firearms of the British military.

 Additional Information

• Birsa Munda:
• He was the central figure of the Munda Rebellion, known as Ulgulan (The Great Tumult), which occurred later between 1899 and 1900 in the Chotanagpur plateau.
• Tilka Manjhi:
• Recognized as one of the earliest tribal revolutionaries, he led an armed struggle against the British in 1784, nearly seven decades before the 1855 Santhal Rebellion.
• Administrative Aftermath:
• In response to the scale of the revolt, the British administration formed the Santhal Parganas as a separate district to ensure specialized governance for the tribes.
• The Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act was subsequently enacted to provide legal protection to the tribal people regarding their ancestral land rights and to prevent further exploitation by non-tribals.

The correct answer is To establish rules for recognizing and regulating sports bodies.

Key Points

• The National Sports Governance Bill, 2025, is designed to provide a statutory framework for the governance and regulation of sports in India, effectively codifying the National Sports Development Code of India into law.
• Its primary objective is to establish a Sports Regulatory Board of India, which will be responsible for granting recognition to National Sports Federations (NSFs) and the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) based on strict compliance with governance standards.
• The bill mandates transparency and accountability by requiring sports bodies to maintain audited financial statements and placing them under the purview of the Right to Information (RTI) Act.
• It aims to eliminate administrative monopolies by enforcing age and tenure restrictions for office-bearers, ensuring that no individual holds a leadership position indefinitely.
• The legislation introduces a structured process for the suspension or withdrawal of recognition if a sports body fails to meet the criteria for ethical management and fair elections.

 Additional Information

• Regulatory Mechanisms:
• Sports Regulatory Board: Acts as the primary oversight body to monitor NSF elections and financial disclosures.
• Appellate Sports Tribunal: A dedicated legal body established under the bill to settle sports-related disputes and grievances, reducing reliance on civil courts.
• Athletes Commission: Every recognized federation must establish a commission to ensure athlete representation in the decision-making process.
• Gender Equality: The bill promotes inclusivity by mandating a minimum 30 percent representation for women in the Executive Committees of sports bodies.
• Olympic Charter Compliance: The framework ensures that Indian domestic law remains aligned with the principles of the International Olympic Committee (IOC) and the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA).

The correct answer is 44^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978.

Key Points

• The 44^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 was enacted by the Janata Government to undo several changes made by the 42^nd Amendment and to provide safeguards against future misuse of emergency powers.
• Before this amendment, Article 352 allowed the declaration of a National Emergency on the grounds of war, external aggression, or internal disturbance.
• The term 'internal disturbance' was considered too vague and was replaced by 'armed rebellion' to ensure that a National Emergency could only be proclaimed in the event of a grave security threat involving physical violence.
• This amendment also introduced the requirement that the President can only issue a proclamation of emergency after receiving a written recommendation from the Union Cabinet.
• Furthermore, it provided that the proclamation must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month by a special majority.

 Additional Information

• 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976:
• Often called the Mini-Constitution, it added the words Socialist, Secular, and Integrity to the Preamble.
• It introduced Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A) and restricted the power of the Judiciary regarding constitutional validity.
• 61^st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988:
• This act amended Article 326 of the Constitution.
• It reduced the voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies from 21 years to 18 years.
• 86^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002:
• Inserted Article 21A, making Right to Education a Fundamental Right for children aged 6 to 14 years.
• It also added a new Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k) for parents and guardians.

The correct answer is Russia.

Key Points

• The ZAPAD (which translates to 'West') series of exercises represents a key component of the strategic training cycle for the Russian Armed Forces and the Armed Forces of Belarus.
• The ZAPAD 2025 military exercise is scheduled to take place from 10 to 16 September 2025, primarily involving the Western Military District of Russia.
• These exercises are designed to test the Joint Strategic Command and evaluate the interoperability between the forces of the Union State (Russia and Belarus) in a simulated high-intensity conflict scenario.
• The drills typically involve a massive mobilization of ground troops, paratroopers, naval assets from the Baltic Fleet, and aviation units to practice defensive and counter-offensive maneuvers.
• Historically, ZAPAD serves as a platform for Russia to demonstrate its military modernization, including new electronic warfare systems, unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs), and precision-guided munitions.

 Additional Information

• Russian Strategic Exercise Cycle:
• Russia conducts four major strategic exercises on a rotating basis: ZAPAD (West), VOSTOK (East), TSENTR (Center), and KAVKAZ (Caucasus).
• The ZAPAD exercise is specifically scrutinized by NATO due to its proximity to the borders of Poland and the Baltic states.
• Context of Other Nations:
• Germany and France are major NATO allies and participate in exercises such as Defender Europe or Air Defender, which are distinct from the Russian-led ZAPAD series.
• Japan focuses on regional security in the Indo-Pacific, frequently engaging in the Malabar exercise with India, the USA, and Australia.
• India's Role:
• In past iterations like ZAPAD 2021, a contingent from the Indian Army participated to enhance military-to-military cooperation and share best practices in counter-terrorism operations.