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Question 401

RRB Technician 2026• General Awareness

Under the 2018 amendments in Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy approved by the Cabinet, the maximum Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) permitted under the automatic route in Single Brand Retail Trading (SBRT) is _____

  1. AOption (a)

    40%

  2. BOption (b)

    85%

  3. COption (c)

    100%

  4. DOption (d)

    60%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

100%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 100%.

Key Points

  • In January 2018, the Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister, approved several amendments in the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy to simplify and liberalize the regime for investors.
  • The most notable change was permitting 100% FDI under the automatic route for Single Brand Retail Trading (SBRT), which eliminated the need for Government approval for investments exceeding 49%.
  • Before this amendment, while 100% FDI was allowed in SBRT, only up to 49% could be brought in via the automatic route, and any stake beyond that required approval from the Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB) or its successor bodies.
  • The policy move was designed to improve the Ease of Doing Business in India, encouraging global brands like Apple, IKEA, and Nike to set up wholly-owned subsidiaries and retail stores directly.
  • Single Brand Retail Trading involves the sale of products that are sold under the same brand name globally and are branded during manufacturing, ensuring a uniform consumer experience.

 Additional Information

  • Local Sourcing Norms:
  • For entities with more than 51% FDI in SBRT, there is a mandatory requirement to source 30% of the value of goods from India, preferably from MSMEs and local artisans.
  • The 2018 policy allowed incremental sourcing for global operations by the brand entity to be set off against the 30% local sourcing requirement for a period of five years.
  • FDI Routes in India:
  • Automatic Route: The non-resident investor or the Indian company does not require any prior approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) or the Government of India.
  • Government Route: Prior approval is mandatory through the Foreign Investment Facilitation Portal (FIFP), managed by the DPIIT under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
  • Policy Impact:
  • These reforms aimed to boost domestic manufacturing, generate employment, and provide Indian consumers with access to a wider variety of global products and technologies.

Question 402

RRB Technician 2026• General Awareness

With reference to fluvial geomorphic processes in the Indian subcontinent, the Indo-Gangetic Plains have been formed predominantly due to the long-term accumulation of which specific type of deposits?

  1. AOption (a)

    Glacial till deposited directly by valley glaciers

  2. BOption (b)

    Aeolian sand deposits formed under arid climatic conditions

  3. COption (c)

    Marine sediments laid down by repeated sea transgressions

  4. DOption (d)

    Alluvial sediments deposited by Himalayan river systems

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Alluvial sediments deposited by Himalayan river systems

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Alluvial sediments deposited by Himalayan river systems.

Key Points

  • The Indo-Gangetic Plains, also known as the Great Plains of India, represent a massive aggradational surface located between the Himalayas in the north and the Peninsular Plateau in the south.
  • Geologically, these plains were formed within a vast foredeep or geosynclinal trough that was created during the Himalayan orogeny as the Indian plate collided with the Eurasian plate.
  • The formation is the result of continuous fluvial action by the three major perennial river systems: the Indus, the Ganga, and the Brahmaputra, along with their numerous tributaries.
  • Over millions of years, these rivers carried vast quantities of sediments from the eroding mountains and deposited them in the depression, eventually filling it to create a flat, fertile expanse.
  • Statistical data indicates that the depth of the alluvial deposits in this region is significant, generally ranging from 1,000 to 2,000 meters, making it one of the largest and deepest alluvial basins in the world.
  • The plains cover an area of approximately 7 lakh square kilometers, stretching about 2,400 kilometers from west to east, dominated by features like Bhabar, Terai, Bhangar, and Khadar.

 Additional Information

  • Alluvial Sediments:
  • These are unconsolidated materials including silt, clay, sand, and gravel transported by water.
  • The Khadar region represents newer alluvium deposited by annual floods, while Bhangar represents older, higher alluvium containing calcareous kankar nodules.
  • Himalayan River Systems:
  • These are perennial rivers fed by glacier melt and monsoon rainfall, ensuring a high sediment-carrying capacity.
  • They are responsible for creating extensive floodplains, natural levees, and the world's largest delta, the Sundarbans.
  • Other Deposition Types:
  • Glacial Till: Poorly sorted sediment deposited directly by glaciers, primarily found in high-altitude Himalayan valleys, not the plains.
  • Aeolian Deposits: Wind-blown sand and loess, dominant in the Thar Desert of Rajasthan.
  • Marine Sediments: Deposits formed in sea environments, found along the Indian coastline and the Rann of Kutch, rather than the continental interior.

Question 403

RRB Technician 2026• General Awareness

The Constitution of India provided for how many types of emergencies in Part XVIII, from Articles 352 to 360?

  1. AOption (a)

    Six

  2. BOption (b)

    Five

  3. COption (c)

    Three

  4. DOption (d)

    Four

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Three

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Three.

Key Points

  • The Constitution of India delineates extraordinary provisions under Part XVIII, spanning from Articles 352 to 360, to deal with situations that threaten the security and stability of the nation.
  • The first type is a National Emergency, governed by Article 352, which can be declared by the President of India if there is a grave threat to the security of India or any part thereof due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
  • The second type is the State Emergency, popularly known as President's Rule, under Article 356. It is invoked when the constitutional machinery in a state fails, or under Article 365 if a state fails to comply with directions from the Union government.
  • The third type is a Financial Emergency, outlined in Article 360, which the President may proclaim if the financial stability or credit of India, or any part of its territory, is deemed to be in immediate danger.
  • These provisions effectively transform the federal structure of the Indian political system into a unitary one, allowing the Central Government to exercise supreme authority to manage the crisis.

 Additional Information

  • Procedural Characteristics and History
  • The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced significant safeguards, such as requiring a written recommendation from the Cabinet for a National Emergency and replacing the term 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion'.
  • While a National Emergency has been declared three times in India (1962, 1971, and 1975), a Financial Emergency under Article 360 has never been invoked since the inception of the Constitution.
  • Under Article 359, the President has the power to suspend the right to approach the courts for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, except those guaranteed under Articles 20 and 21.
  • The concept of emergency provisions in the Indian Constitution is heavily influenced by the Government of India Act, 1935, and the Weimar Constitution of Germany regarding the suspension of rights.

Question 404

RRB Technician 2026• General Awareness

The NAVYA (Nurturing Aspirations through Vocational Training for Young Adolescent Girls) initiative, launched on 24 June 2025, is for which age group?

  1. AOption (a)

    16 - 18 years

  2. BOption (b)

    12 - 14 years

  3. COption (c)

    18 - 20 years

  4. DOption (d)

    14 - 16 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

16 - 18 years

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 16 - 18 years.

Key Points

  • The NAVYA (Nurturing Aspirations through Vocational Training for Young Adolescent Girls) initiative was officially launched on 24 June 2025.
  • The program specifically targets adolescent girls in the age group of 16 - 18 years, a vital demographic that is often at risk of dropping out of the formal education system.
  • The primary goal of the initiative is to provide specialized vocational training and skill development to empower young women and enhance their future employability.
  • The scheme focuses on bridging the gap between academic learning and industry requirements, ensuring that girls are equipped with market-relevant skills before they enter the professional world.
  • By focusing on this specific age bracket, NAVYA aims to foster economic independence and provide a sense of direction to young girls during their formative years.

 Additional Information

  • Strategic Goals of the Initiative:
  • The program aligns with the Skill India Mission and the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao framework to improve gender parity in the labor force.
  • Training modules often include digital literacy, healthcare assistance, textiles, and Information Technology (IT) services.
  • Participants receive certification upon completion, which is recognized by various industrial sectors and government bodies.
  • Social and Economic Impact:
  • Focusing on the 16 - 18 years age group helps in delaying the age of marriage and reducing maternal mortality by keeping girls engaged in productive learning.
  • The initiative also includes life skills training, such as financial literacy, self-defense, and effective communication, to build overall confidence.
  • It targets rural and underprivileged urban areas to ensure that the benefits of vocational education reach the most vulnerable populations.

Question 405

RRB Technician 2026• General Awareness

Which country launched the first indigenous, Low-Cost Gene Therapy for Sickle Cell Disease, named "BIRSA 101"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Spain

  2. BOption (b)

    India

  3. COption (c)

    China

  4. DOption (d)

    Japan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

  • India has achieved a significant milestone in medical biotechnology by launching BIRSA 101, its first indigenous, low-cost gene therapy specifically designed to treat Sickle Cell Disease (SCD).
  • The therapy was developed through the collaborative efforts of premier institutions, including the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) and the Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology (IGIB), highlighting India’s growing capability in gene-editing technologies.
  • The name BIRSA is a tribute to the legendary tribal leader Birsa Munda, reflecting the primary target of this medical intervention, as Sickle Cell Disease disproportionately affects tribal communities across the Indian subcontinent.
  • This therapy utilizes CRISPR-Cas9 technology to correct the genetic mutation in hemoglobin, offering a potential one-time cure that is significantly more affordable than international alternatives which can cost upwards of 2 to 3 million dollars.
  • By localizing the production and clinical trial process, India aims to provide life-saving treatment to thousands of patients who previously had no access to advanced genomic medicine.

 Additional Information

  • Sickle Cell Disease (SCD):
  • It is a hereditary blood disorder where red blood cells assume an abnormal, rigid, sickle shape, leading to anemia, organ damage, and severe pain crises.
  • The Government of India launched the National Sickle Cell Anemia Elimination Mission in 2023, with the ambitious goal of eliminating the disease by the year 2047.
  • Gene Therapy Landscape:
  • Traditional treatments were limited to blood transfusions and bone marrow transplants, which are often risky or unavailable to the masses.
  • The BIRSA 101 initiative represents a shift toward personalized medicine and high-end molecular therapeutics within the Atmanirbhar Bharat (Self-Reliant India) framework.

Question 406

RRB Technician 2026• General Awareness

At which session of the Indian National Congress did the party formally split into the Moderates and the Extremists?

  1. AOption (a)

    Surat session 1907

  2. BOption (b)

    Bombay session 1910

  3. COption (c)

    Delhi session 1912

  4. DOption (d)

    Calcutta session 1906

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Surat session 1907

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Surat session 1907.

Key Points

  • The Indian National Congress (INC) formally split into two groups—the Moderates and the Extremists—during the Surat session held in 1907 on the banks of the Tapti River.
  • The session was presided over by Dr. Rash Behari Ghosh, whose candidacy was a major point of contention between the two factions.
  • The Moderates, led by leaders like Gopal Krishna Gokhale and Pherozeshah Mehta, believed in constitutional methods, petitions, and gradual reforms within the framework of British Rule.
  • The Extremists, led by the trio Lal-Bal-Pal (Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and Bipin Chandra Pal), advocated for a more radical approach involving Mass Agitation, Self-Reliance, and the extension of the Swadeshi Movement across India.
  • The disagreement reached a breaking point over the resolutions passed in the previous session; the Extremists wanted to emphasize Swaraj, while the Moderates were hesitant to adopt such aggressive terminology, leading to a chaotic session and a formal organizational separation.

 Additional Information

  • Calcutta Session 1906:
  • Presided over by Dadabhai Naoroji, the 'Grand Old Man of India'.
  • The session is historic because the goal of Swaraj (Self-government) was first publicly adopted by the Congress.
  • Four major resolutions on Boycott, Swadeshi, National Education, and Self-government were passed to pacify the rising tensions between factions.
  • Reunion at Lucknow (1916):
  • The split lasted for nearly nine years until the Lucknow Session in 1916, presided over by Ambica Charan Mazumdar.
  • Efforts by Annie Besant and Bal Gangadhar Tilak played a crucial role in bringing the two wings back together.
  • Other Sessions:
  • The Bombay Session 1910 was presided over by Sir William Wedderburn.
  • The Delhi Session 1912 was presided over by Raghunath Narasinha Mudholkar.

Question 407

RRB Technician 2026• General Awareness

Which bank joins the India Bullion Exchange as a special category client?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bank of India

  2. BOption (b)

    Punjab National Bank

  3. COption (c)

    State Bank of India

  4. DOption (d)

    Indian Bank

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

State Bank of India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is State Bank of India.

Key Points

  • The State Bank of India (SBI) has achieved a milestone by becoming the first Public Sector Bank (PSB) to join the India International Bullion Exchange (IIBX) as a Special Category Client (SCC).
  • The IIBX is India's first International Bullion Exchange, situated in the Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City) in Gandhinagar, established to provide a transparent platform for bullion trading.
  • As an SCC, SBI is empowered to participate directly in the exchange to facilitate the import of gold and silver for its domestic clients, specifically Qualified Jewellers.
  • This participation follows the regulatory framework set by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA), which allows Scheduled Commercial Banks to act as intermediaries in the bullion market.
  • The integration of SBI into the IIBX ecosystem is expected to significantly increase trading volumes and provide better price discovery for the Indian bullion market, which is one of the largest in the world.

 Additional Information

  • India International Bullion Exchange (IIBX):
  • Inaugurated in July 2022, it aims to make India a price setter rather than a price taker in the global bullion market.
  • The exchange offers various products, including Gold 995 and Gold 999 purity, along with Silver contracts.
  • Special Category Client (SCC) framework:
  • Introduced by the RBI in May 2022 to allow Indian banks to operate as Professional Clearing Members or Trading Members at GIFT-IFSC.
  • Banks must maintain a minimum Capital to Risk-weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR) as per Basel III norms to qualify for this status.
  • GIFT City (Gujarat International Finance Tec-City):
  • It serves as India's first International Financial Services Centre (IFSC), designed to compete with global financial hubs like Singapore, Dubai, and London.
  • It provides a tax-neutral environment and a streamlined regulatory regime for international financial entities.

Question 408

RRB Technician 2026• General Awareness

Under the new scheme for first-time Women, SC and ST entrepreneurs, announced in the Union Budget 2025-26, what is the maximum loan amount that can be availed?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹50 lakh

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹1 crore

  3. COption (c)

    ₹2 crore

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹5 crore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹2 crore

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ₹2 crore.

Key Points

  • In the Union Budget 2025-26, the Government of India announced a significant enhancement of financial support targeted at first-time entrepreneurs to foster a robust startup ecosystem.
  • The scheme specifically prioritizes individuals from the Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes (ST), and Women categories to ensure inclusive economic growth and social equity.
  • Under this revamped initiative, the maximum loan amount that can be availed by eligible entrepreneurs has been increased to ₹2 crore per borrower.
  • The primary objective of increasing the limit to ₹2 crore is to support greenfield enterprises in manufacturing, services, or the trading sector, allowing for higher capital expenditure.
  • This measure is part of the broader Viksit Bharat strategy, aimed at empowering marginalized sections to become job creators rather than job seekers.

 Additional Information

  • The Union Budget 2025-26, presented by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, emphasizes four key pillars: Garib (Poor), Mahilayen (Women), Yuva (Youth), and Annadata (Farmer).
  • Credit Guarantee Support: To facilitate these high-value loans of up to ₹2 crore, the government provides credit guarantee covers, reducing the risk for lending institutions like Scheduled Commercial Banks.
  • Entrepreneurship Promotion: This enhancement follows the success of earlier versions of the Stand-Up India scheme, which previously had a lower ceiling, thereby reflecting the rising costs of technology and machinery.
  • Ease of Access: The scheme is integrated with the Jan Samarth Portal, enabling a digital and transparent application process to improve the Ease of Doing Business for new entrants.
  • Economic Impact: By targeting first-time entrepreneurs, the government aims to stimulate the MSME sector, which contributes significantly to India’s GDP and export earnings.

Question 409

RRB Technician 2026• General Awareness

Division of legislative subjects into union, state and concurrent List is contained in which of the following schedules of the Constitution of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Seventh Schedule

  2. BOption (b)

    Fifth Schedule

  3. COption (c)

    Ninth Schedule

  4. DOption (d)

    Eleventh Schedule

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Seventh Schedule

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Seventh Schedule.

Key Points

  • The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India establishes the federal distribution of powers between the Union and the States.
  • It is divided into three distinct lists: List I (Union List), List II (State List), and List III (Concurrent List).
  • Article 246 serves as the constitutional basis for this schedule, defining the legislative jurisdiction of Parliament and State Legislatures.
  • List I (Union List) currently comprises 100 subjects (originally 97) such as Defense, Foreign Affairs, Atomic Energy, Banking, and Communication, where the Central Government holds exclusive authority.
  • List II (State List) consists of 61 subjects (originally 66) including Public Order, Police, Public Health, and Agriculture, governed primarily by state governments.
  • List III (Concurrent List) features 52 subjects (originally 47) like Education, Forests, Marriage, and Criminal Law, allowing both the Union and States to legislate, though central laws prevail in case of conflict.
  • The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 famously transferred five subjects from the State List to the Concurrent List to promote uniformity.

 Additional Information

  • Fifth Schedule:
  • Contains provisions related to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.
  • It excludes the tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, which are covered under the Sixth Schedule.
  • Ninth Schedule:
  • Introduced by the 1st Constitutional Amendment Act (1951) to protect land reform laws and other regulations from judicial scrutiny.
  • Laws included here were initially immune to challenges regarding Fundamental Rights violations.
  • Eleventh Schedule:
  • Added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992) to empower Panchayati Raj Institutions.
  • It lists 29 functional items intended to promote rural development and local self-governance.

Question 410

RRB Technician 2026• General Awareness

Which dance form is performed by men wearing long colorful robes and tall conical caps in Jammu & Kashmir?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hikat

  2. BOption (b)

    Chholiya

  3. COption (c)

    HurkaBaul

  4. DOption (d)

    Dumhal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Dumhal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Dumhal.

Key Points

  • Dumhal is a prestigious folk dance originating from the Jammu and Kashmir region, specifically performed by the Wattal tribe on special ceremonial occasions.
  • The performance is exclusively conducted by male dancers who dress in long, vibrant colorful robes and wear distinctive tall conical caps that are frequently embellished with beads and shells.
  • The dance is ritualistic in nature and begins only after a banner is ceremoniously planted into the ground at a designated spot, serving as the focal point for the dancers.
  • Dancers move in a graceful circular formation around this banner, accompanied by the rhythmic beats of large drums known as the Duff, while the participants sing folk choruses in unison.
  • Historically, this dance was performed to seek divine intervention or blessings during times of distress or for the fulfillment of specific community prayers.

 Additional Information

  • Hikat:
  • It is a traditional folk dance of Jammu and Kashmir usually performed by young girls and boys.
  • The dancers interlock their arms and spin in circles, maintaining perfect balance while dancing to the tunes of Rabbi music.
  • Chholiya:
  • A famous martial art-style dance originating from the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand.
  • It is primarily a sword dance performed during wedding processions and is believed to ward off evil spirits.
  • HurkaBaul:
  • An agricultural folk dance associated with the state of Uttarakhand.
  • It is performed during the cultivation of paddy and maize, where the name refers to Hurka (the percussion instrument) and Baul (the song structure).