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Question 111

NVS Staff Nurse 2019• Subject Knowledge

Which of the following response(s) is/are NOT forbidden during therapeutic communication?

  1. AOption (a)

    Arguing and judgmental response

  2. BOption (b)

    Giving advice

  3. COption (c)

    Reflecting and clarifying

  4. DOption (d)

    Asking close-ended questions

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Reflecting and clarifying

Why this answer is correct

Concept:-

  • Therapeutic communication: it is the use of communication for the purpose of creating a beneficial outcome for the client.
  • The nurse uses personal attributes and clinical techniques while working with the client to bring about insight and behavioral change.

Explanation:

  • Reflecting and clarifying are NOT forbidden during therapeutic communication.

Reflection: a rephrasing of the affective part of the client’s message.

Purpose:

  • To encourage more expression of feelings
  • To experience feelings more intensely
  • To help acknowledge and manage feelings
  • To discriminate among feelings

Clarifying: the moderator asks the speaker to clarify what was said.

Purpose:

  • To encourage more elaboration
  • To check out the accuracy of what you have heard
  • To clear up vague and confusing messages.

Question 112

NVS Staff Nurse 2019• Subject Knowledge

 The largest diameter of the fetal skull is:

  1. AOption (a)

    Submento-vertical

  2. BOption (b)

    Occipito-frontal

  3. COption (c)

    Submento-bregmatic

  4. DOption (d)

    Mento-vertical

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mento-vertical

Why this answer is correct

Concept:-

  • The fetal skull consists of the base of the skull and the vault or cranium. Also, the vault is made of occipital bone posteriorly, two parietal bones at the sides, and a pair of temporal bones and frontal bones anteriorly.
  • Submentovertical — extends from the junction of the floor of the mouth and neck to the highest point on the sagittal suture. It is 11.5 cm in length and hence the largest diameter of the fetal Skull
  • The Biparietal (9.4cm) is the largest transverse diameter in all cephalic presentations.  It is measured between the two parietal bones. (Hence option 3 is correct)
  • The parietal bones are the two eminences on the side of each parietal bone.
  • The skull is the largest part of the fetal body, these bones are thin and easily compressible, and joined by a membrane.

Important Points

Antero-Posterior Diameter

  • Suboccipitobregmatic diameter (9.4cm) is measured from the undersurface of the occipital bone to the centre of the anterior fontanelle or bregma.
  • Occipitofrontal diameter (11cm) was measured from the external occipital protuberance to the glabella.
  • Suboccipito frontal (10.5cm) is diameter in occipito-posterior.
  • Verticomental (13.5cm) measured from vertex to the chin and it is the longest anteroposterior diameter of the head.
  • Submentobregmatic (9.4cm) extends from the junction of the neck and lower jaw to the centre of the anterior fontanelle.

Key Points

  • Bitemporal diameter (8cm) is the shortest transverse diameter and is measured between two temporals.

Question 113

NVS Staff Nurse 2019• Subject Knowledge

The commonest presentation of vesicular mole is:

  1. AOption (a)

    Vomiting

  2. BOption (b)

     Abdominal pain

  3. COption (c)

    Expulsion of grape-like vesicles from vagina

  4. DOption (d)

    Vaginal bleeding

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Vaginal bleeding

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:-

  • Vaginal Bleeding is the most common presentation of Vesicular Mole which further may end up with the abortion.
  • It mainly occurs in the first 3 months of pregnancy in which dark brown to bright red bleeding occurs.
  • Vesicular mole is the non-cancerous mass formed by the blood clots, tissues, and the retained placenta after fetal death.

Additional Information

  • Hydatiform Mole: is the rare mass or growth inside the uterus at the beginning of the pregnancy.  Most commonly occurs in late-age pregnant women. It can be of two types:
  1. Partial Molar Pregnancy: in which abnormal placental and fetal development.
  2. Complete Molar Pregnancy: in which abnormal placenta development but no fetus is present.

Question 114

NVS Staff Nurse 2019• Subject Knowledge

A patient complains of pain and has redness with swelling at the site of IV site. What should a nurse do first?

  1. AOption (a)

    Apply warm moist pack to the reddened area

  2. BOption (b)

    Stop IV infusion and remove IV cannula

  3. COption (c)

    Continue the infusion

  4. DOption (d)

    Change IV tubing and the solution

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Stop IV infusion and remove IV cannula

Why this answer is correct

Explanation

  • Phlebitis is sometimes reported at the IV site, and the first action is to stop the infusion and remove the cannula.

Concept:

  • Pain and redness with swelling at the site of the cannula are termed superficial thrombophlebitis.
  • In the case of thrombophlebitis, stop the infusion and remove the cannula.
  • If the infusion continues, it may lead to pulmonary embolism.

Explanation:

  • Care of the site of the cannula:
  • Wash hands when touching the site.
  • It should be changed every 72 hours.
  • Always check the patency of the cannula before starting the infusion.
  • Make sure to put on the date of insertion at the site of the cannula.
  • Use only sterile injections and needles.
  • Wipe the cannula after and before infusion.

Question 115

NVS Staff Nurse 2019• Subject Knowledge

A study of experiences is called:

  1. AOption (a)

    Ethnography

  2. BOption (b)

    Phenomenology

  3. COption (c)

    Action research

  4. DOption (d)

    Grounded theory

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Phenomenology

Why this answer is correct

Explanation

  • Phenomenology: Type of a Qualitative research study in which a researcher tries to gather the data related to the lived experience of the population. In which the researcher tries to study particular phenomena.
  • A phenomenology is an approach to qualitative research that focuses on the commonality of a lived experience within a particular group.
  • The fundamental goal of the approach is to arrive at a description of the nature of the particular phenomenon.
  • Phenomenology helps in answering the question of "what" rather than "how much".
  • Qualitative research often depends on interviews and observation for collecting data, phenomenology aids in this process.
  • The data is then read and reread and gathered for phrases and themes that are then grouped to form clusters of meaning. Through this process, the researcher may construct the universal meaning of the event, situation, or experience and arrive at a more profound understanding of the phenomenon.

Additional Information

  • Ethnography: This type of study is mostly seen in Anthropological Studies. In this researcher gathers data from a particular ethnic group by experiencing their real life.
  • Action Research: This type of research is also known as the cycle of actions and the cycle of inquiry. This research process follows a particular time period to gather the outcome data and to analyze the data.
  • Grounded Theory: It involves collecting and analyzing the data and then grounding the collected finding into the theory and gathering the outcomes. This theory was given by Glaser and Strauss 1967.

Question 116

NVS Staff Nurse 2019• Subject Knowledge

A thin, transparent mucus membrane that covers the inner surface of the eyelids and the anterior surface of the eye is:

  1. AOption (a)

    Sclera

  2. BOption (b)

    Conjunctiva

  3. COption (c)

    Choroid

  4. DOption (d)

    Glabella

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Conjunctiva

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • The conjunctiva is a thin, transparent mucous membrane.
  • It lines the inner surface of the eyelids and covers the sclera (the white part of the eye).
  • The conjunctiva contains glands that produce secretions that help to keep the eyes moist, and antibodies, which reduce infection.
  • Conjunctivitis means ‘inflammation of the conjunctiva’.

Additional Information

  • It is usual for both eyes to be affected in infectious cases.
  • Some causes include: 
  • The commonest cause is an infection by viruses or bacteria.
  • Due to chemical irritants.
  • Traditional eye remedies or allergies.

Important Points

  • Effects:
  • The eyes are red and uncomfortable.
  • Make the eyelids stick together.
  • The vision is usually not affected.

Question 117

NVS Staff Nurse 2019• Subject Knowledge

Kubler-Ross’s five successive stages of death and dying are:

  1. AOption (a)

    Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

  2. BOption (b)

    Denial, anger, depression, bargaining, acceptance

  3. COption (c)

    Bargaining, denial, anger, depression, acceptance

  4. DOption (d)

    Anger, bargaining, denial, depression, acceptance

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

Why this answer is correct

Concept:-

According to kublar and ross grief is composed of 5 stages. Which are as follows-

  1. Denial
  2. Anger
  3. Bargaining
  4. Depression
  5. Acceptance

Additional Information

1. DenialIt is the first reaction to loss. In this phase, an individual will not accept the loss he is having. It is often a shock, disbelief, and numb state.
2. AngerIn this second reaction of anger, the person may be directed the anger towards self, displaced to other family members or even to god.
3. BargainingGrieving people often feel empty they are repeatedly reminded of the person who has died. They also may have dreams or hallucinations that the dead person is alive.
4. DepressionIn this stage, the dominant feeling is sadness and the inability to feel pleasure.
5. AcceptanceIt is a final step in which the grieving person accepts the loss.

Question 118

NVS Staff Nurse 2019• Subject Knowledge

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a:

  1. AOption (a)

    gram positive, motile, acid fast bacilli

  2. BOption (b)

    gram negative, motile, acid fast bacilli

  3. COption (c)

    gram negative, non-motile, acid fast bacilli

  4. DOption (d)

    gram positive, non-motile, acid fast bacilli

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

gram positive, non-motile, acid fast bacilli

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • Tuberculosis (TB):
  • It is caused by a bacterium called Mycobacterium tuberculosis, belonging to the Mycobacteriaceae family consisting of about 200 members.
  • These bacteria are Gram-positive, aerobic, non-sporulating, non-motile, and often pleomorphic. They are generally smaller than other bacteria. Mycobacteria are acid-fast due to the lipid-rich cell cover.
  • Some Mycobacteria cause diseases like TB and Leprosy in humans and others infect a wide range of animals.
  • In humans, TB most commonly affects the lungs (pulmonary TB), but it can also affect other organs (extra-pulmonary TB).
  • TB is a very ancient disease and has been documented to have existed in Egypt as early as 3000 BC.
  • TB is a treatable and curable disease.
  • Transmission:
  • TB is spread from person to person through the air. When people with lung TB cough, sneeze, or sprit, they propel the TB germs into the air.
  • BCG Vaccine:
  • BCG was developed by two Frenchmen, Albert Calmette and Camille Guerin, by modifying a strain of Mycobacterium Bovis (that causes TB in cattle). It was first used in humans in 1921.
  • In India, BCG was first introduced on a limited scale in 1948 and became a part of the National TB Control Programme in 1962.
  • In addition to its primary use as a vaccine against TB, it protects against respiratory and bacterial infections of newborns and other mycobacterial diseases like Leprosy and Buruli’s ulcer.

Question 119

NVS Staff Nurse 2019• Subject Knowledge

Which options describes orthopnea?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ability to breath only in upright sitting or standing position

  2. BOption (b)

    Slow breathing

  3. COption (c)

    Difficulty in breathing

  4. DOption (d)

    Rhythmic waxing and waning of respiration

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ability to breath only in upright sitting or standing position

Why this answer is correct

Explanation

  • Orthopnea is not a condition it is a symptom and it is a type of dyspnea that usually occurs when a person is lying down.
  • It is characterized by the shortness of breath when the person is lying down during standing or sitting.
  • Orthopnea is mainly seen in patients with Heart Diseases and Pulmonary Disease.

Orthopnea in Heart Diseases:

  • In cardiac disease, the heart is unable to redistribute sufficient blood to the heart muscles and their associated organs because of which sudden change in the patient's position may lead to Orthopnea.
  • Similarly in the case of Pulmonary Disease conditions increased pressure in the blood vessels lungs pushes the fluid to the alveoli and causes Pulmonary edema. Due to which gaseous exchange on the lungs is hampered which leads to orthopnea.

Question 120

NVS Staff Nurse 2019• Subject Knowledge

Which of the following organisms is responsible for the development of rheumatic fever?

  1. AOption (a)

    Group A-B hemolytic streptococcus

  2. BOption (b)

    Staphylococcus aureus

  3. COption (c)

    Streptococcal pneumonia

  4. DOption (d)

    Haemophilus influenza

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Group A-B hemolytic streptococcus

Why this answer is correct

Correct Answer: Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus.

Rationale:

  • Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory disease that can develop as a complication of inadequately treated strep throat or scarlet fever. These infections are caused by Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus (Streptococcus pyogenes). This bacterium triggers an immune response that can cause inflammation in various body tissues, including the heart, joints, skin, and brain.

Explanation of Other Options:

Staphylococcus aureus:

  • Rationale: While Staphylococcus aureus can cause a range of other infections, including skin infections, pneumonia, and bloodstream infections, it is not responsible for the development of rheumatic fever.

Streptococcal pneumonia:

  • Rationale: Streptococcal pneumonia is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, which primarily causes pneumonia, meningitis, and other infections, but it does not cause rheumatic fever.

Haemophilus influenza:

  • Rationale: Haemophilus influenzae is a bacterium that can cause a variety of respiratory tract infections, including pneumonia and meningitis, particularly in children, but it is not associated with rheumatic fever.

Conclusion:

  • Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus is the correct answer as it is the causative agent of rheumatic fever.
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