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Question 71

KPSC KAS 2017• Full Test

Who among the following was not the recipient of Bharat Ratna for the year 2019 ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pranab Mukherjee

  2. BOption (b)

    Bhupen Hazarika

  3. COption (c)

    Atal Bihari Vajpayee

  4. DOption (d)

    Nanaji Deshmukh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Atal Bihari Vajpayee

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Atal Bihari Vajpayee.

Key Points

  • Bharat Ratna Award 2019
  • President Ramnath Kovind conferred the Bharat Ratna, on former President Pranab Mukherjee, along with social activist Nanaji Deshmukh (posthumous), and Assamese musician Bhupen Hazarika (posthumous).
  • The Bharat Ratna (Jewel of India), instituted in 1954 is the highest civilian award of the Republic of India.
  • It is awarded in recognition of exceptional service/performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavor.
  • The recommendations for the Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister to the President with a maximum of three nominees being awarded per year.
  • Recipients receive a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a peepal-leaf–Shaped medallion; there is no monetary grant associated with the award.
  • Bharat Ratna recipients rank seventh in the Indian order of precedence.
  • Atal Bihari Vajpayee (Awarded Bharat Ratna in 2015). Hence, Option 3 is correct.
  • Vajpayee was the Prime Minister of India during the years 1996, 1998, and 1999 to 2004. From 1977 to 1979, he was the External Affairs Minister. In 1994, he was given the Best Parliamentarian Award.

Additional Information 

  • Bharat Ratna
  • It is the highest civilian honor,
  • It is given for exceptional service towards the advancement of Art, Literature and Science, and in recognition of Public Service of the highest order.
  • It is also not mandatory that Bharat Ratna be awarded every year.
  • The original specifications for the award called for a circular gold medal, 35 mm in diameter, with the sun and the Hindi legend Bharat Ratna above and a floral wreath below.
  • The reverse was to carry the state emblem and motto.
  • It was to be worn around the neck from a white ribbon.
  • This design was altered after a year.
  • The provision of Bharat Ratna was introduced in 1954.
  • The first-ever Indian to receive this award was the famous scientist, Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman, C. Rajagopalachari, and Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan.
  • Since then, many dignitaries have received this coveted award.
  • The Bharat Ratna medals are produced at Kolkata's Alipore Mint, along with the other prestigious awards such as Padma Vibushan, Padma Bhushan, Padma Shri, and Param Veer Chakra.
  • There is no written provision that Bharat Ratna should be awarded to Indian citizens only. A naturalized Indian citizen, Agnes Gonxha Bojaxhiu, better known as Mother Teresa (1980), and non-Indians, Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan and Nelson Mandela (1990), were the recipients of this coveted award.

Question 72

KPSC KAS 2017• Full Test

India’s top crude oil supplier, meeting more than 1/5th of the country’s oil needs in 2018 – 19 fiscal year was _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Saudi Arabia

  2. BOption (b)

    Iraq

  3. COption (c)

    Iran

  4. DOption (d)

    Afghanistan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Iraq

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Iraq.

Key Points

  • India’s top crude oil supplier
  • Iraq has, for the second year in a row, become India’s top crude oil supplier, meeting more than a fifth of the country’s oil needs in the 2018-19 fiscal year. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • According to data sourced from the Directorate General of Commercial Intelligence and Statistics, Iraq sold 46.61 million tonnes (mt) of crude oil to India during April 2018 and March 2019, 2% more than 45.74 mt it had supplied in the 2017-18 fiscal.
  • India provisionally imported 207.3 mt of crude oil in 2018-19, down from 220.4 mt in the previous financial year.
  • Saudi Arabia has traditionally been India’s top oil source, but it was for the first time dethroned by Iraq in the 2017-18 fiscal year.
  • In 2018-19, Saudi exported 40.33 mt of crude oil, up from 36.16 mt of oil sold in the previous year.
  • While India stopped importing crude oil from Iran following the reimposition of economic sanctions this month by the U.S., the Persian Gulf nation was the third-largest crude oil supplier to India. It sold 23.9 mt of crude in 2018-19, up from 22.59 mt in the previous year, according to the data.
  • UAE topped Venezuela to become India’s fourth-largest crude supplier.
  • It sold 17.49 mt of crude oil to India. In 2017-18, Venezuela had supplied 18.34 mt and UAE 14.29 mt.
  • Nigeria was the next biggest supplier with 16.83 mt of exports in 2018-19, down from 18.11 mt in the previous year. Kuwait supplied 10.78 mt of oil and Mexico another 10.28 mt.
  • The U.S., which began selling crude oil to India in 2017, is fast becoming a major source.
  • Supplies from the U.S. jumped more than fourfold to 6.4 mt in the 2018-19 fiscal year. In 2017-18, the first year of imports from the U.S., the supplies were at 1.4 mt.
  • Iran was India’s second-biggest supplier of crude oil after Saudi Arabia till 2010-11, but western sanctions over its suspected nuclear program relegated it to the seventh spot in subsequent years.

Question 73

KPSC KAS 2017• Full Test

Who among the following belongs to Protestants ?

  1. AOption (a)

    British and Dutch

  2. BOption (b)

    Spanish and Portuguese

  3. COption (c)

    Portuguese

  4. DOption (d)

    French

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

British and Dutch

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is British and Dutch.

Key Points

  • Protestants
  • Protestantism is a derivation of Christianity.
  • Roughly around 1 billion people in the world follow it.
  • It began in the 16th century.
  • British and Dutch belongs to Protestants. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • It was thought to be a powerful movement against the Catholic Church since many believers found faults in the practices of the Church.
  • One of the major differences between Catholics and Protestants is their deviant views regarding bread and wine during religious ceremonies.
  • Martin Luther was a German monk in the 15th century. Many of his followers became protestants.
  • Today there are many types of Protestant Churches. For example, Baptist is currently the largest denomination in the United States but there are many dozens more.
  • To understand the Protestant Reform movement, we need to go back in history to the early 16th century when there was only one church in Western Europe - what we would now call the Roman Catholic Church - under the leadership of the Pope in Rome.
  • Today, we call this Roman Catholic because there are so many other types of churches (for example, Methodist, Baptist, Lutheran, Calvinist, Anglican)
  • They worship the same God, but the principles of their faith are different.
  • Five hundred years after the Reformation, there are still painful divisions between Protestants and Catholics.
  • It all started when Reformation took place, 500 years ago, as Martin Luther (1483-1546) tried to reform the Catholic Church. His attempt to do so instead led to a schism in the church.
  • On October 31, 1517, the publication of his Ninety-Five Theses, which outlined various abusive practices of the church, is considered the founding event that led to this division in Germany and the creation of the Evangelical Church.

Question 74

KPSC KAS 2017• Full Test

World Nature Conservation Day is celebrated annually on _______ .

  1. AOption (a)

    28 July

  2. BOption (b)

    08 July

  3. COption (c)

    05 June

  4. DOption (d)

    25 June

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

28 July

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 28 July.

Key Points

  • World Nature Conservation Day
  • It is celebrated every year on July 28, to create and increase awareness about the importance of natural resources. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • The day encourages people to protect Earth’s natural resources and lead a sustainable lifestyle.
  • It also educates people to use the resources judiciously without exploiting the natural Earth.
  • Ministry of Culture has said that Worshipping Nature is a part of Indian culture.
  • The history and origin of World Nature Conservation Day are unknown but the main aim of celebrating it on 28 July is to come together and support nature, don't exploit it. Conservation of nature is the wise management and utilization of natural resources.
  • We know that due to natural imbalance, we are facing several problems like global warming, various diseases, natural disasters, increased temperature, etc.
  • Therefore, for the next generation, it is necessary to preserve it.
  • So, it is important to raise awareness among people all over the world to understand the importance of saving resources, recycle it, preserve it, and also understand the consequences of damaging them.

Question 75

KPSC KAS 2017• Full Test

In an efficient foreign exchange rate market, an unexpected increase in domestic money supply growth can lead to _________ .

  1. AOption (a)

    An immediate appreciation of a currency

  2. BOption (b)

    An immediate depreciation of a currency

  3. COption (c)

    An immediate decrease in direct foreign investment

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

An immediate depreciation of a currency

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is An immediate depreciation of a currency.

Key Points

  • Currency depreciation
  • It is a fall in the value of a currency in terms of its exchange rate versus other currencies.
  • Currency depreciation can occur due to factors such as economic fundamentals, interest rate differentials, political instability, or risk aversion among investors.
  • Currency depreciation is a fall in the value of a currency in a floating exchange rate system.
  • In an efficient foreign exchange rate market, an unexpected increase in domestic money supply growth can lead to an immediate depreciation of a currency. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • Economic fundamentals, interest rate differentials, political instability, or risk aversion can cause currency depreciation.
  • Orderly currency depreciation can increase a country’s export activity as its products and services become cheaper to buy.
  • The Federal Reserve's quantitative easing programs used to stimulate the economy in the aftermath of the 2007-2008 financial crisis caused U.S. dollar depreciation.
  • Currency depreciation in one country can spread to other countries.

Additional Information

  • Foreign Exchange Reserves:
  • Foreign exchange reserves are assets held on reserve by a central bank in foreign currencies, which can include bonds, treasury bills, and other government securities.
  • It needs to be noted that most foreign exchange reserves are held in U.S. dollars.
  • These assets serve many purposes but are most significantly held to ensure that the central bank has backup funds if the national currency rapidly devalues or becomes altogether insolvent.
  • India’s Forex Reserves include:
  • Foreign Currency Assets
  • Gold
  • Special Drawing Rights
  • Reserve position with the International Monetary Fund (IMF)

Question 76

KPSC KAS 2017• Full Test

The Doctrine of Fundamental Rights cannot be amended under Article 368 was propounded by the Supreme Court of India in

  1. AOption (a)

    Gopalan v/s State of Madras

  2. BOption (b)

    Keshavananda Bharati v/s State of Kerala

  3. COption (c)

    Golaknath v/s State of Punjab

  4. DOption (d)

    Menaka v/s Union of India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Golaknath v/s State of Punjab

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Golaknath v/s State of Punjab.

Key Points

  • Golaknath Case
  • Fundamental Rights are given a transcendental position in the constitution and are not amenable to the Parliamentary restriction as stated in Article 13.
  • A place of permanence is given to the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution.
  • in order to amend Fundamental Rights, a new Constituent Assembly is necessary.
  • Article 368 provides the procedure to amend the Constitution but does not confer power on Parliament to amend the Constitution.
  • In the Golaknath case (1967), the Supreme Court held that Parliament could not amend Fundamental Rights, and this power would be only with a Constituent Assembly. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
  • The Court held that an amendment under Article 368 is "law" within the meaning of Article 13 of the Constitution and therefore if an amendment "takes away or abridges" a Fundamental Right conferred by Part III, it is void.
  • To get over the judgments of the Supreme Court in the Golaknath case (1967), RC Cooper case (1970), and Madhavrao Scindia case (1970), the then government headed by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi had enacted major amendments to the Constitution (the 24th, 25th, 26th and 29th).
  • All four amendments brought by the government were challenged in the Kesavananda Bharati case.
  • After the Golaknath case, the SC held that the Parliament cannot amend Fundamental rights, whereas, after the Kesavanada Bharti case, the SC upheld the validity of the 24th amendment holding amendment to Fundamental Rights as constitutional but simultaneously putting a caveat of maintaining the basic structure.

Question 77

KPSC KAS 2017• Full Test

As part of ‘Make in India’ Programme, Light Combat Helicopter production was started in which of the following places in India ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Gurugram

  2. BOption (b)

    Vizag

  3. COption (c)

    Cochin

  4. DOption (d)

    Bengaluru

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Bengaluru

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bengaluru.

Key Points

  • Light Combat Helicopters
  • Light Combat Helicopter production was started at the HAL complex in Bengaluru. The project is a part of the Make in India initiative. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
  • The Light Combat Helicopters (LCH) were completely designed by HAL.
  • It has 2 engines and several latest technical features.
  • The helicopters are to be deployed at the Siachen base which is 4,700 meters above sea level.
  • It has the capacity to carry 500 kg of load.
  • India has been taking several steps to strengthen the Indian Air Force and also to increase Defence Exports.
  • India has set a target of achieving Rs 35,000 crores of Defence Exports by 2024.
  • Manufacturing of the Light Combat Helicopter will help India achieve the above goals.
  • The need for the production of Light Combat Helicopters came from the Kargil war.
  • The LCH is a derivative of HAL Dhruv that was developed during the 1990s.

Question 78

KPSC KAS 2017• Full Test

________ represent the features of both emergence and submergence.

  1. AOption (a)

    Compound coasts

  2. BOption (b)

    Neutral coasts

  3. COption (c)

    Simple coasts

  4. DOption (d)

    Retrograded coasts

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Compound coasts

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Compound coasts.

Key Points

  • The boundary between the coast and the shore is known as the coastline; it marks the seaward limit of the coast.
  • The outline of the coast may be modified by sea waves.
  • Submergence of the shoreline may take place because of a rise in sea level or a downward adjustment of the land surface; from a geometrical point of view, the two are indistinguishable.
  • According to D.W. Johnson, coastlines can be divided into the following classes:
  • Coastline of Emergence
  • Coastline of Submergence
  • Neutral coastline
  • Compound coastline
  • Fault coastline
  • This classification has two bases:
  • The change of levels, i.e., if sea level falls, the shores emerge,
  • The nature of shorelines, because it is necessary to know the nature of seashore before emergence and submergence, whether the shore was upland or downland, for instance.
  • Compound Coastlines:
  • Such coastlines show the forms of two of the previous classes combined, for example, submergence followed by emergence or vice versa. The coastlines of Norway and Sweden are examples of compound coastlines. Hence, Option 1 is correct.

Question 79

KPSC KAS 2017• Full Test

By the treaty of Allahabad of 1765, the East India Company obtained ________ .

  1. AOption (a)

    Diwani Rights of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa

  2. BOption (b)

    Trading Rights over Coromandel Coast

  3. COption (c)

    Right to interfere with the politics of Delhi

  4. DOption (d)

    Acceptance by Nawab of Bengal to build a fort at Hugli

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Diwani Rights of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Diwani Rights of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa.

Key Points

  • Treaty of Allahabad, 1765
  • In 1765, two Treaties were concluded by Robert Clive at Allahabad with Nawab Shuja-ud-Daulah and Emperor Shah Alam II.
  • Under the first treaty with the Nawab of Awadh:
  • Allahabad and Kara were surrendered by the Nawab to Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II.
  • A sum of Rs 50 lakh was paid to the Company as war indemnity.
  • Balwant Singh, the Zamindar of Banaras, was given full possession of his estate.
  • Under the second treaty with Shah Alam II:
  • The emperor was asked to reside at Allahabad under the Company’s protection.
  • The Diwani of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa were granted to the East India Company instead of an annual payment of Rs 26 lakh. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • An amount of Rs 53 lakh was to be given by the Mughal Emperor to the Company in return for nizamat functions (military defense, police, and administration of justice) of the said provinces.

Additional Information 

  • The major difference in the significance of the Carnatic Wars (1740-48, 1749-53, and 1758-63), Battle of Plassey (1757), and Battle of Buxar (1764) is:
  • The Carnatic Wars established British supremacy in trade in India.
  • The Battle of Plassey laid the foundation of the British Empire in India.
  • The Battle of Buxar established the British as masters of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa and made them great power of Northern India and contenders for the supremacy of the whole country.

Question 80

KPSC KAS 2017• Full Test

The United Kingdom has left the European Union on _________ and has entered an 11 - month transition period.

  1. AOption (a)

    1st January, 2018

  2. BOption (b)

    1st January, 2019

  3. COption (c)

    1st January, 2020

  4. DOption (d)

    31st January, 2020

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

31st January, 2020

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 31st January 2020.

Key Points

  • Brexit
  • Britain has officially left the European Union (EU) and has become the first country to leave the 28-member bloc.
  • The UK stopped being a member of the European Union (EU) after 23:00 GMT on 31 January 2020. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
  • The EU is an economic and political union involving 28 European countries. It allows free trade, which means goods can move between member countries without any checks or extra charges. The EU also allows free movement of people, to live and work in whichever country they choose.
  • The UK joined in 1973 (when it was known as the European Economic Community) and it will be the first member state to withdraw.
  • After the UK formally leaves the EU, there is still a lot to talk about and months of negotiation will follow.
  • While the UK has agreed on the terms of its EU departure, both sides still need to decide what their future relationship will look like.
  • During the 11-month transition period, the UK will continue to follow all of the EU’s rules and its trading relationship will remain the same.
  • The transition period is meant to give both sides some breathing space while a new free trade agreement is negotiated.
  • This is needed because the UK will leave the single market and customs union at the end of the transition. A free trade agreement allows goods to move around the EU without checks or extra charges.
  • If a new one cannot be agreed on in time, then the UK faces the prospect of having to trade with no deal in place. That would mean tariffs (taxes) on UK goods traveling to the EU and other trade barriers.