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Question 171

IB MTS 2025• Test

The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) facilitated the first commercial sea shipment of which fruit variety from Maharashtra to the USA in April 2025?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bhagwa pomegranate

  2. BOption (b)

    Jalgaon banana

  3. COption (c)

    Nagpur orange

  4. DOption (d)

    Purandar figs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Bhagwa pomegranate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bhagwa pomegranate.

Key Points

  • The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) facilitated the first commercial sea shipment of Bhagwa pomegranates from Maharashtra to the USA in April 2025.
  • The Bhagwa variety is known for its bright red arils, soft seeds, and high antioxidant content, making it a premium export-quality fruit.
  • Maharashtra is the leading state for pomegranate production in India, contributing significantly to the country's total output.
  • APEDA has played a pivotal role in promoting agricultural exports by providing necessary infrastructure, certifications, and marketing support to farmers and exporters.
  • India has been focusing on diversifying export destinations for its agricultural produce, and this shipment marks a significant step in strengthening agricultural trade with the USA.

Additional Information

  • Jalgaon banana
  • Jalgaon, a district in Maharashtra, is known as the "Banana City of India" due to its high production of bananas.
  • Bananas from this region are mainly exported to Gulf countries and other international markets.
  • The Jalgaon banana has a high market demand due to its taste, nutritional value, and extended shelf life.
  • Nagpur orange
  • Nagpur oranges are a famous citrus fruit grown in the Vidarbha region of Maharashtra.
  • They are known for their unique sweet and sour taste, high juice content, and vibrant orange color.
  • The Nagpur orange holds a Geographical Indication (GI) tag and is often referred to as the "Orange City of India."
  • Purandar figs
  • Purandar figs are cultivated in the Purandar taluka of Pune district, Maharashtra.
  • These figs are known for their sweet taste, smooth texture, and nutritional benefits.
  • The cultivation of Purandar figs is supported by local farmers and agricultural initiatives to boost their market presence domestically and internationally.

Question 172

IB MTS 2025• Test

Which of the following from Narsapur, Andhra Pradesh, holds a Geographical Indications (GI) tag, safeguarding its unique cultural identity?

  1. AOption (a)

    Crochet lace products

  2. BOption (b)

    Gharchola sarees

  3. COption (c)

    Paabu stitched boots

  4. DOption (d)

    Kalamkari paintings

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Crochet lace products

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Crochet lace products.

Key Points

  • Crochet lace products from Narsapur, Andhra Pradesh, hold a Geographical Indications (GI) tag, ensuring their unique cultural and historical identity.
  • The art of crochet lace making has been practiced in Narsapur for over 150 years and is a significant source of livelihood for local artisans, especially women.
  • These intricate lace products are handcrafted using traditional techniques and are renowned for their delicate patterns and high-quality craftsmanship.
  • The GI tag protects the intellectual property rights of these products and prevents unauthorized use of the name, ensuring economic benefits to the artisans.
  • Crochet lace products from Narsapur are globally recognized and exported to multiple countries, including the United States, Europe, and Japan.

Additional Information

  • Gharchola sarees:
  • Gharchola sarees are traditional sarees originating from Gujarat and Rajasthan, known for their intricate tie-and-dye Bandhani patterns combined with zari checks.
  • These sarees are commonly worn during weddings and religious ceremonies, symbolizing auspiciousness and heritage.
  • While Gharchola sarees hold cultural significance, they do not have a GI tag associated with Narsapur, Andhra Pradesh.
  • Paabu stitched boots:
  • Paabu stitched boots refer to traditional footwear, often associated with regions in North India and Tibet, known for their unique hand-stitched designs and durability.
  • Kalamkari paintings:
  • Kalamkari is a traditional art form of hand-painted or block-printed textile designs, primarily associated with Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
  • These paintings often depict mythological themes and are created using natural dyes.

Question 173

IB MTS 2025• Test

In a cell, which of the following is the active site of Ribosomal RNA synthesis?

  1. AOption (a)

    DNA

  2. BOption (b)

    Nucleoplasm

  3. COption (c)

    Nucleus

  4. DOption (d)

    Nucleolus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Nucleolus

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Nucleolus.

Key Points

  • The nucleolus is a dense, spherical structure within the nucleus of a cell and is the primary site for ribosomal RNA (rRNA) synthesis.
  • rRNA is an essential component of ribosomes, which are responsible for protein synthesis in cells.
  • In the nucleolus, rRNA genes are transcribed, and rRNA is processed and assembled with ribosomal proteins to form ribosomal subunits.
  • The nucleolus also plays a key role in regulating cellular stress responses and maintaining genomic stability.
  • The size and activity of the nucleolus are directly proportional to the protein synthesis demands of the cell, making it more prominent in cells with high protein production.

Additional Information

  • DNA:
  • DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid) is the molecule that carries genetic information in all living organisms and many viruses.
  • It serves as the template for the synthesis of RNA during transcription but is not directly involved in ribosomal RNA synthesis.
  • In eukaryotic cells, rRNA is transcribed from specific regions of DNA known as rRNA gene clusters, which are located on multiple chromosomes.
  • Nucleoplasm:
  • The nucleoplasm, also known as nuclear sap, is the semi-fluid substance that fills the nuclear space within the nuclear membrane.
  • It serves as a medium for the diffusion of ions, molecules, and enzymes required for nuclear processes like transcription, replication, and RNA transport.
  • However, the nucleoplasm itself is not directly involved in rRNA synthesis.
  • Nucleus:
  • The nucleus is a membrane-bound organelle in eukaryotic cells that houses the genetic material (DNA).
  • It is the control center for cellular activities such as transcription, replication, and RNA processing.
  • While the nucleus contains the nucleolus, which is responsible for rRNA synthesis, the nucleus as a whole is not specifically the active site for rRNA synthesis.

Question 174

IB MTS 2025• Test

The initiative 'CM with Me', aimed at boosting citizen participation and transparency in welfare schemes, was launched in 2025 by which state?

  1. AOption (a)

    Punjab

  2. BOption (b)

    Kerala

  3. COption (c)

    Odisha

  4. DOption (d)

    West Bengal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Kerala

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kerala.

Key Points

  • The initiative 'CM with Me' was launched by the Kerala state government in 2025 to promote citizen participation and transparency in welfare schemes.
  • It is aimed at strengthening the relationship between the government and the public by allowing individuals to directly interact with the Chief Minister and provide feedback or suggestions.
  • The program focuses on enhancing transparency and accountability in the implementation of welfare schemes by involving citizens in decision-making processes.
  • It is one of Kerala's innovative efforts to leverage technology and participatory governance for ensuring the effective delivery of welfare programs.
  • The initiative reflects Kerala's commitment to fostering inclusive governance and empowering citizens by providing a direct communication channel with the state leadership.

Additional Information

  • Punjab
  • Punjab has launched several welfare schemes like 'Mera Ghar, Mere Naam', aimed at providing property ownership rights to residents of villages and cities.
  • Another notable program is 'Smart Village Campaign', which focuses on improving infrastructure and amenities in rural areas of Punjab.
  • Though Punjab has implemented various schemes for welfare, it has not launched the 'CM with Me' initiative.
  • Odisha
  • Odisha has been a pioneer in welfare programs like 'KALIA Scheme' (Krushak Assistance for Livelihood and Income Augmentation), which supports farmers with financial aid.
  • Another flagship initiative is 'Mo Sarkar', aimed at improving the delivery of public services through citizen feedback.
  • While Odisha has shown innovation in governance, 'CM with Me' is not among its initiatives.
  • West Bengal
  • West Bengal has introduced major welfare schemes such as 'Duare Sarkar' (Government at Doorstep) to ensure doorstep delivery of various government services.
  • Another significant initiative is 'Kanyashree Prakalpa', focusing on empowering girls through financial assistance for education and prevention of child marriage.

Question 175

IB MTS 2025• Test

In 2025, which state government designated District Child Protection Officers as Child Marriage Prohibition Officers to strengthen its fight against child marriage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kerala

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajasthan

  3. COption (c)

    Assam

  4. DOption (d)

    Haryana

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Assam

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

  • In 2025, the Assam government designated District Child Protection Officers (DCPOs) as Child Marriage Prohibition Officers (CMPOs) to curb the menace of child marriage in the state.
  • The initiative is part of Assam's broader efforts to strengthen the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006, ensuring stricter implementation and enforcement.
  • DCPOs, as CMPOs, are responsible for preventing child marriages, reporting cases to authorities, and ensuring legal actions against those involved in such practices.
  • Assam has been actively working to reduce child marriage rates, which are among the highest in India, with numerous campaigns and legal measures.
  • This step is expected to create a more effective framework for preventing child marriages and safeguarding the rights of children, particularly young girls.

Additional Information

  • Kerala
  • Kerala has one of the lowest rates of child marriage in India, largely due to its high literacy rate and awareness campaigns.
  • The state has implemented various women empowerment schemes, such as Kudumbashree, to uplift women and prevent social evils like child marriage.
  • Kerala has also focused on promoting gender equality and providing education to girls.
  • Rajasthan
  • Rajasthan has historically had one of the highest rates of child marriage in India due to deep-rooted social and cultural practices.
  • The state government has been implementing awareness campaigns and legal actions to combat child marriage, especially in rural areas.
  • Under the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006, Rajasthan has introduced measures to prevent child marriages during festivals like Akshaya Tritiya, when such practices are more prevalent.
  • Haryana
  • Haryana has made significant progress in combating child marriage through campaigns like "Beti Bachao Beti Padhao."
  • The state government has focused on improving female literacy and tackling social issues such as dowry and gender discrimination, which contribute to child marriages.
  • Efforts have also been made to ensure stricter enforcement of laws against child marriage.
  • Main Theme: The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006
  • This is a central law enacted by the Government of India to prevent the solemnization of child marriages.
  • Under this Act, the legal age for marriage is 18 years for females and 21 years for males.
  • The Act provides for the appointment of Child Marriage Prohibition Officers (CMPOs) to implement its provisions effectively.
  • Violation of this law can result in legal consequences, including fines and imprisonment for those responsible for organizing or participating in child marriages.

Question 176

IB MTS 2025• Test

On 17 July 2025, the launch of a skill training and women entrepreneurship development project at IIIT Kottayam took place under which central government scheme?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS)

  2. BOption (b)

    Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)

  3. COption (c)

    Bharatiya Mahila Kaushalya Abhiyan (BMKA)

  4. DOption (d)

    Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS).

Key Points

  • Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS) is an integrated scheme launched by the Government of India to boost the skills and entrepreneurship of artisans, craftsmen, and other traditional sectors.
  • The scheme aims to offer skill development training, capacity building, and financial assistance to enhance the livelihood of marginalized communities.
  • Under this scheme, the focus is on preserving and promoting India’s traditional heritage by empowering artisans, especially women and marginalized groups.
  • PM VIKAS also includes a component of women's entrepreneurship development by providing technical and managerial training, along with financial support for starting or expanding businesses.
  • It aligns with the government’s vision of Aatmanirbhar Bharat, fostering self-reliance and economic independence for rural and urban artisans.

Additional Information

  • Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY):
  • Launched by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), this flagship scheme aims to provide skill training to India’s youth.
  • The scheme focuses on industry-relevant skill training and certification, enabling individuals to secure better livelihood opportunities.
  • It also includes Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) to certify individuals with existing skills.
  • PMKVY is executed through National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) and promotes both short-term training and long-term skill development programs.
  • Bharatiya Mahila Kaushalya Abhiyan (BMKA):
  • This initiative is aimed at empowering women by providing skill training to enhance their employability and entrepreneurial capabilities.
  • It focuses on sectors like textiles, handicrafts, food processing, and other areas where women’s participation is significant.
  • Although not as prominent as PMKVY, BMKA seeks to address gender disparity in the workforce by specifically targeting women from economically weaker sections.
  • Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY):
  • Implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD), DDU-GKY focuses on skill development of rural youth aged 15-35 years, especially from poor families.
  • The scheme aims to provide employment-linked skill training to promote wage employment and uplift rural livelihoods.
  • DDU-GKY is a part of the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) and works in collaboration with state governments, private training providers, and industry partners.

Question 177

IB MTS 2025• Test

Which writer won the Kendra Sahitya Akademi's Yuva Puraskar, 2025, for Malayalam for the popular work 'Ram C/o Anandhi'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Abin Joseph

  2. BOption (b)

    Anuja Akathoottu

  3. COption (c)

    Amal Pirappancode

  4. DOption (d)

    Akhil P Dharmajan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Akhil P Dharmajan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Akhil P Dharmajan.

Key Points

  • Akhil P Dharmajan won the prestigious Kendra Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar in 2025 for Malayalam literature.
  • The award-winning work 'Ram C/o Anandhi' is a celebrated piece of contemporary Malayalam literature that gained widespread recognition.
  • The Kendra Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar is an annual recognition for young writers who demonstrate exceptional literary merit in their respective languages.
  • This award is aimed at promoting emerging talent in Indian literature under the age of 35.
  • Akhil P Dharmajan's work reflects modern storytelling techniques and explores themes relevant to contemporary society, resonating deeply with readers.

Additional Information

  • Abin Joseph
  • Abin Joseph is an emerging writer in Malayalam literature, known for his contributions to poetry and short stories.
  • He has gained recognition for his creative use of language and deep exploration of human emotions.
  • Anuja Akathoottu
  • Anuja Akathoottu is celebrated for her contributions to Malayalam fiction, particularly focusing on feminist themes.
  • Her works often highlight the struggles and resilience of women in society, making her a significant voice in Indian literature.
  • Amal Pirappancode
  • Amal Pirappancode is known for his experimental writing style and innovative narrative techniques in Malayalam literature.
  • He has contributed to both prose and poetry, and his works often challenge traditional literary norms.

Question 178

IB MTS 2025• Test

Which international think tank published The Limits to Growth (1972), highlighting potential resource depletion amid population growth?

  1. AOption (a)

    Club of Rome (global policy think tank)

  2. BOption (b)

    United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

  3. COption (c)

    World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)

  4. DOption (d)

    Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Club of Rome (global policy think tank)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Club of Rome (global policy think tank).

Key Points

  • The Club of Rome, an international think tank, published the seminal report "The Limits to Growth" in 1972, which analyzed the interrelationship of population growth, industrialization, resource depletion, and environmental degradation.
  • The report was based on a computer simulation model called World3, developed by a team led by Dennis Meadows, Donella Meadows, and Jørgen Randers at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT).
  • It highlighted that if current trends in population growth and resource consumption continued, the world would face resource depletion and environmental collapse within a century.
  • The report served as a wake-up call, emphasizing the need for sustainable development and resource conservation to ensure long-term global stability.
  • The Club of Rome continues to work on global challenges such as climate change, poverty, and inequality, promoting the concept of a sustainable future.

Additional Information

  • United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP):
  • UNEP is a leading global environmental authority established in 1972, headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya.
  • It coordinates the United Nations' environmental activities and assists developing countries in implementing environmentally sound policies and practices.
  • Key initiatives include climate action, biodiversity conservation, and sustainable resource management.
  • World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF):
  • WWF, founded in 1961, is an international non-governmental organization focused on wildlife conservation and reducing the human impact on the environment.
  • It works on critical issues such as climate change, deforestation, and water conservation.
  • WWF is known for its iconic panda logo and efforts to protect endangered species worldwide.
  • Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC):
  • The IPCC, established in 1988 by the United Nations, assesses scientific information related to climate change, its impacts, and potential future risks.
  • The IPCC does not conduct its own research but provides comprehensive assessments based on peer-reviewed scientific literature.
  • Its reports, such as the Sixth Assessment Report (AR6), are critical for informing global climate policies and agreements like the Paris Agreement.

Question 179

IB MTS 2025• Test

Which of the following is NOT classified as part of the global commons (shared areas beyond national jurisdiction)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Outer space

  2. BOption (b)

    Earth's atmosphere

  3. COption (c)

    Amazon Rainforest (within national territory)

  4. DOption (d)

    Ocean floor (the deep seabed)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Amazon Rainforest (within national territory)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Amazon Rainforest (within national territory).

Key Points

  • The Amazon Rainforest is located within the national territory of several South American countries, primarily Brazil, Peru, Colombia, Venezuela, and others.
  • Because it falls under the jurisdiction of specific nations, it is not considered part of the global commons.
  • The term "global commons" refers to areas that are not owned or governed by any one country and are shared resources for all of humanity.
  • Examples of global commons include the high seas, the atmosphere, outer space, and the deep seabed.
  • The Amazon Rainforest, despite its critical environmental importance, is managed under national laws and policies of the countries it spans.

Additional Information

  • Outer Space
  • Outer space is considered part of the global commons as per the Outer Space Treaty of 1967.
  • The treaty states that the exploration and use of outer space shall be free for all nations and not subject to appropriation by any country.
  • It includes celestial bodies like the Moon and planets, which are shared by all of humanity.
  • Earth's Atmosphere
  • The Earth's atmosphere is another element of the global commons as it transcends national boundaries.
  • It plays a crucial role in supporting life and regulating global climate systems.
  • International agreements like the Kyoto Protocol and Paris Agreement aim to regulate activities that impact the atmosphere.
  • Ocean Floor (Deep Seabed)
  • The deep seabed, beyond the limits of national jurisdiction, is part of the global commons.
  • It is governed by the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), which ensures that its resources are used for the benefit of all humanity.
  • The International Seabed Authority (ISA) manages activities related to mining and exploration in these areas.

Question 180

IB MTS 2025• Test

In July 2025, which satellite was launched by ISRO in collaboration with NASA, aimed at enhancing climate resilience and natural disasters using dual-band radar imaging?

  1. AOption (a)

    GSAT-7R

  2. BOption (b)

    NVS-02

  3. COption (c)

    EOS-09

  4. DOption (d)

    NISAR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

NISAR

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is NISAR.

Key Points

  • NISAR stands for NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar, a collaborative satellite project between NASA and ISRO.
  • It is designed to provide detailed, dual-band radar imaging using L-band (from NASA) and S-band (from ISRO), making it capable of monitoring changes in Earth's surface with unprecedented precision.
  • The satellite aims to enhance climate resilience by tracking ecosystem disturbances, ice-sheet collapse, and natural disasters such as earthquakes, tsunamis, and landslides.
  • Scheduled for launch in July 2025, NISAR will play a pivotal role in studying carbon cycles, deforestation, and agricultural patterns.
  • The mission represents a significant technological collaboration between the United States and India, leveraging cutting-edge radar systems for global environmental monitoring.

Additional Information

  • GSAT-7R
  • GSAT-7R is a communication satellite developed by ISRO, primarily meant for defense applications in India.
  • It serves to enhance secure communication for military and strategic purposes, particularly for naval operations.
  • While GSAT-7R is crucial for national security, it does not focus on climate resilience or disaster monitoring like NISAR.
  • NVS-02
  • NVS-02 is part of India's Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC) satellite series aimed at providing accurate navigation services.
  • NavIC satellites are used for terrestrial, aerial, and maritime navigation but do not focus on climate resilience or radar imaging.
  • The satellite strengthens India's navigation system and is essential for disaster management and transportation but is unrelated to NISAR's objectives.
  • EOS-09
  • EOS-09 refers to an Earth Observation Satellite developed by ISRO for optical remote sensing applications.
  • Its primary objectives include agriculture monitoring, forestry, and disaster management.
  • While EOS-09 contributes to environmental monitoring, it does not feature dual-band radar imaging or involve collaboration with NASA as NISAR does.