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Question 131

IB MTS 2025• Test

What key reform did the Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025, introduce?

  1. AOption (a)

    Transferred all Waqf properties to district magistrates

  2. BOption (b)

    Allowed non-Muslims to create waqf

  3. COption (c)

    Abolished waqf tribunals

  4. DOption (d)

    Mandated women's representation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Allowed non-Muslims to create waqf

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Allowed non-Muslims to create waqf.

Key Points

  • The Waqf (Amendment) Act, 2025 introduced a significant reform by allowing non-Muslims to create waqf properties, provided the intention aligned with public welfare.
  • This amendment aimed to promote inclusivity and broaden the scope of individuals contributing to the creation of waqf assets for philanthropic purposes.
  • Waqf properties created under this provision must comply with the existing regulations of the Waqf Act, ensuring their use for charitable and religious purposes.
  • Previously, only Muslims were permitted to create waqf properties, but this amendment marked a progressive step towards religious harmony and collective welfare.
  • The inclusion of non-Muslims in waqf creation is expected to increase the overall corpus of waqf properties, allowing their enhanced utilization for societal benefits such as education, healthcare, and poverty alleviation.

Additional Information

  • Waqf:
  • Waqf refers to a permanent dedication of movable or immovable property for religious, educational, or charitable purposes as recognized under Islamic law.
  • Traditionally, it has been an instrument to support causes such as building mosques, schools, and hospitals or assisting the underprivileged.
  • Waqf Board:
  • A waqf board is a statutory body established under the Waqf Act to oversee and manage waqf properties in India.
  • It ensures that waqf properties are used appropriately and for the intended charitable or religious purposes.
  • Key Features of the Waqf Act:
  • The Waqf Act, 1995, governs the administration of waqf properties in India.
  • It provides for the establishment of Central and State Waqf Boards to manage waqf assets effectively.
  • It also includes provisions for resolving disputes related to waqf properties through waqf tribunals.
  • Impact of the Amendment:
  • The amendment is expected to foster greater collaboration among communities for social welfare initiatives.
  • It also ensures that waqf properties continue to play a pivotal role in addressing societal challenges, such as poverty and lack of access to basic amenities.

Question 132

IB MTS 2025• Test

The Mudumal Megalithic Menhirs, which have been added to the tentative list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites from India in 2025, are located in ____

  1. AOption (a)

    Telangana

  2. BOption (b)

    Tamil Nadu

  3. COption (c)

    Kerala

  4. DOption (d)

    Karnataka

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Telangana

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Telangana.

Key Points

  • Located in Mudumal village, Narayanpet district of Telangana.
  • Represents a unique megalithic menhir tradition dating back over 3,500 years.
  • Added to India’s Tentative List of UNESCO World Heritage Sites in 2025.

Additional Information

  • Tamil Nadu
  • Known for megalithic burial sites like cairn circles and dolmens.
  • UNESCO-listed heritage includes Great Living Chola Temples.
  • Kerala
  • Kerala is known for its Edakkal Caves, which feature ancient rock art dating back thousands of years.
  • The state also has megalithic sites, such as dolmens and stone alignments, but the Mudumal Menhirs are not located here.
  • Kerala’s megaliths are typically associated with burial practices and provide insights into the region's prehistoric culture.
  • Karnataka
  • Karnataka is home to important megalithic sites, including the Hirebenkal Megalithic Tombs, which are protected as a UNESCO World Heritage tentative site.
  • Rich in megalithic sites, especially stone circles and burial monuments.
  • Home to UNESCO sites like Hampi and Pattadakal.

Question 133

IB MTS 2025• Test

At the 64th National Inter-State Senior Athletics Championships held in August 2025, which athlete broke the men's 400 m national record?

  1. AOption (a)

    Animesh Kujur

  2. BOption (b)

    Rajesh Ramesh

  3. COption (c)

    Vishal Thennarasu Kayalvizhi

  4. DOption (d)

    Muhammed Anas Yahiya

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Vishal Thennarasu Kayalvizhi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vishal Thennarasu Kayalvizhi.

Key Points

  • At the 64th National Inter-State Senior Athletics Championships held in August 2025, Vishal Thennarasu Kayalvizhi broke the men’s 400 m national record.
  • Vishal achieved a remarkable timing of 44.60 seconds, surpassing the previous record of 44.96 seconds set by Muhammed Anas Yahiya in 2019.
  • The championship was held in Kolkata, West Bengal, showcasing top athletes from across India.
  • This achievement highlights India’s growing prowess in athletics and Vishal’s potential as a strong contender for international events like the Asian Games and Olympics.
  • Vishal’s record-breaking performance is a testament to his talent and dedication, positioning him as a rising star in Indian athletics.

Additional Information

  • Animesh Kujur
  • Animesh Kujur is an emerging sprinter in Indian athletics but has not set any national records in the 400 m event.
  • He is known for competing at various domestic-level athletics competitions and represents the younger generation of sprinters in India.
  • Rajesh Ramesh
  • Rajesh Ramesh is a prominent name in Indian athletics, particularly in relay races such as the 4x400 m relay.
  • While he has contributed to India’s medal tally in international competitions, he has not broken the men’s 400 m national record.
  • Muhammed Anas Yahiya
  • Muhammed Anas Yahiya previously held the national record for the men’s 400 m event with a timing of 44.96 seconds, set in 2019.
  • He is one of India’s most accomplished sprinters and has represented India in prestigious competitions like the Olympics and World Championships.
  • His contribution to Indian athletics includes multiple medals in relay events and individual sprints.
  • Men’s 400 m Sprint
  • The 400 m sprint is a single-lap race around the track, demanding a mix of speed, endurance, and strategy.
  • The event is one of the most challenging in athletics due to its requirement for both anaerobic and aerobic capacity.
  • The current world record in men’s 400 m is held by Wayde van Niekerk of South Africa, with a timing of 43.03 seconds, set in the 2016 Olympics.

Question 134

IB MTS 2025• Test

What did the Supreme Court order a father to pay in respect of a divorced wife for their daughter's marriage expenses in a September 2025 judgment?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹5 lakh

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹10 lakh

  3. COption (c)

    ₹12.5 lakh

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹7.5 lakh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

₹10 lakh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ₹10 lakh.

Key Points

  • In September 2025, the Supreme Court of India directed a father to pay ₹10 lakh towards the marriage expenses of his daughter.
  • The judgment was delivered as part of a divorce case, emphasizing the father's financial responsibility for his daughter's welfare post-divorce.
  • The court stressed the importance of protecting the rights and interests of children involved in matrimonial disputes, ensuring they do not face undue hardship due to parental separation.
  • This judgment reinforces the judiciary’s commitment to securing financial and emotional stability for children affected by divorce.
  • Under Indian law, fathers are traditionally seen as bearing responsibility for their daughter’s marriage expenses, which the court upheld in this case.

Additional Information

  • Legal Framework and Matrimonial Cases in India:
  • The Indian judiciary frequently intervenes in divorce cases to ensure children’s rights are protected and their welfare is prioritized.
  • Under Hindu law, fathers traditionally bear the financial responsibility for their daughters' marriage. This principle is often upheld in matrimonial disputes.
  • Courts in India aim to minimize the impact of divorce on children by ensuring financial stability and emotional well-being.

Question 135

IB MTS 2025• Test

What was India's overall unemployment rate for people aged 15 and above in August 2025, according to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS)?

  1. AOption (a)

    5.6%

  2. BOption (b)

    5.1%

  3. COption (c)

    6.2%

  4. DOption (d)

    4.8%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5.1%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 5.1%.

Key Points

  • The overall unemployment rate for people aged 15 and above in India in August 2025 was reported as 5.1%, according to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS).
  • The unemployment rate is an important economic indicator representing the percentage of individuals in the labor force actively seeking employment but unable to find work.
  • This figure indicates a slight improvement compared to previous years, signaling better employment conditions in certain sectors of the economy.
  • The PLFS is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) and is considered the most comprehensive source of employment data in India.
  • The survey provides insights into employment trends across rural and urban sectors, aiding policymakers in designing targeted employment strategies.

Additional Information

  • Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS):
  • Launched in 2017, the PLFS is aimed at generating estimates on key labor market indicators such as unemployment rate, worker population ratio, and labor force participation rate.
  • The survey covers both urban and rural areas and provides quarterly updates for urban regions along with annual reports for the entire country.
  • It serves as a critical tool for assessing employment and unemployment trends in India.
  • Unemployment Rate:
  • Defined as the percentage of people in the labor force who are actively looking for jobs but unable to find employment.
  • A high unemployment rate indicates economic distress, while a lower rate signals better job opportunities and economic growth.
  • The unemployment rate is an essential parameter used by policymakers to gauge the economic health of a country.
  • Employment Trends in India:
  • India's unemployment rate fluctuates due to global economic conditions, domestic policy changes, and disruptions like pandemics.
  • Key employment-contributing sectors include agriculture, manufacturing, services, and information technology.
  • Government initiatives such as Skill India, Start-Up India, and Make in India aim to boost employment opportunities and entrepreneurship in the country.
  • Youth Unemployment:
  • Youth unemployment, particularly among individuals aged 15–29, remains a significant challenge in India.
  • The youth unemployment rate is generally higher than the overall unemployment rate, highlighting the need for targeted interventions.
  • Government schemes like Skill India and other vocational training programs aim to address this issue by promoting skill development and employability.

Question 136

IB MTS 2025• Test

In 2025, India tested its most advanced missile, the ET-LDHCM (developed under DRDO's secretive Project Vishnu), which can

  1. AOption (a)

    fly at Mach 8 and hit targets 1500 km away

  2. BOption (b)

    fly at Mach twelve speed with five-thousand-kilometre reach

  3. COption (c)

    fly at Subsonic cruise with one-thousand-kilometre range capability

  4. DOption (d)

    fly at Mach 2 speed with a three-hundred-kilometre range capability

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

fly at Mach 8 and hit targets 1500 km away

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is fly at Mach 8 and hit targets 1500 km away.

Key Points

  • The ET-LDHCM missile, developed under DRDO's secretive Project Vishnu, can fly at a hypersonic speed of Mach 8, which is eight times the speed of sound.
  • This advanced missile system boasts a range of 1,500 kilometers, making it suitable for long-range precision strikes.
  • The missile incorporates cutting-edge navigation and guidance systems, ensuring precision targeting of high-value assets and enhancing its strategic deterrence.
  • ET-LDHCM represents India's advancement in hypersonic missile technology, aligning with global defense trends to improve military capabilities.
  • Hypersonic missiles provide a tactical edge in modern warfare due to their speed, maneuverability, and ability to evade traditional missile defense systems.

Additional Information

  • Hypersonic Missile Technology:
  • Hypersonic missile technology is a key focus for defense advancements due to its ability to travel at speeds greater than Mach 5.
  • These missiles are highly maneuverable, capable of evading detection and interception by traditional missile defense systems.
  • India’s development of hypersonic systems under programs like Project Vishnu highlights its commitment to staying competitive in global military capabilities.
  • Types of Hypersonic Missiles
  • Hypersonic Glide Vehicles (HGVs):
  • Boosted by a rocket to high altitude and then released.
  • Glides back to Earth at hypersonic speeds, capable of changing direction mid-flight.
  • Evades defenses due to unpredictable trajectories.
  • Hypersonic Cruise Missiles (HCMs):
  • Use air-breathing scramjet engines for sustained flight.
  • Fly at lower altitudes than HGVs, using the atmosphere to compress air for combustion.

Question 137

IB MTS 2025• Test

Who among the following secured a gold medal for India in the Paris Paralympic Games, 2024?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nishad Kumar

  2. BOption (b)

    Mona Agarwal

  3. COption (c)

    Preethi Pal

  4. DOption (d)

    Navdeep Singh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Navdeep Singh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Navdeep Singh.

Key Points

  • Navdeep Singh won the gold medal for India at the Paris Paralympic Games 2024 in his respective category.
  • He is recognized as an accomplished para-athlete, known for his exceptional performance in various international competitions.
  • His victory at the Paris Paralympics 2024 was a significant achievement, showcasing India’s growing prominence in the global para-sports arena.
  • Navdeep Singh’s success was a result of his hard work, rigorous training, and unwavering dedication.
  • His win contributed to India’s medal tally and inspired the Indian sports community, promoting inclusivity and the potential of para-athletes.

Additional Information

  • Nishad Kumar:
  • Nishad Kumar is a prominent Indian para high jumper who won a silver medal in the men’s T47 high jump at the Tokyo 2020 Paralympic Games.
  • He also holds the Asian record in his category, showcasing India’s strength in para-athletics.
  • Mona Agarwal:
  • Mona Agarwal is not currently known for any notable achievements in the field of para-sports or the Paralympic Games.
  • Preethi Pal:
  • Preethi Pal is not associated with any major accomplishments in the Paralympic Games or international para-sports events.
  • Paris Paralympic Games 2024:
  • The Paris Paralympic Games 2024 will take place from August 28 to September 8, featuring athletes with disabilities competing in various sports disciplines.
  • India has been consistently improving its performance at the Paralympics, with increasing support for para-athletes through government schemes, financial assistance, and training initiatives.
  • The event serves as a platform to showcase the exceptional capabilities of para-athletes and promote inclusivity in sports worldwide.

Question 138

IB MTS 2025• Test

The National Makhana Board, announced in the Union Budget 2025-26, was officially launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in September 2025 at which of the following places?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dhanbad

  2. BOption (b)

    Bharuch

  3. COption (c)

    Purnea

  4. DOption (d)

    Kanpur

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Purnea

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Purnea.

Key Points

  • The National Makhana Board was officially launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Purnea, Bihar, in September 2025.
  • The announcement for the establishment of this Board was first made in the Union Budget 2025-26 to promote makhana cultivation and trade.
  • Purnea is widely recognized as the hub of makhana production in India, contributing significantly to the nation’s overall output.
  • The Board aims to address challenges faced by makhana farmers and enhance the productivity, quality, and market access for makhana.
  • India is one of the largest producers of makhana globally, with Bihar accounting for nearly 90% of the total production.

Additional Information

  • Dhanbad
  • Dhanbad, located in Jharkhand, is known as the “Coal Capital of India” due to its rich coal deposits and significant contributions to the coal industry.
  • It is home to the prestigious Indian School of Mines (ISM), which is now part of the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT).
  • While Dhanbad is crucial for its mining industry, it does not have a significant role in makhana production.
  • Bharuch
  • Bharuch is a city in Gujarat, famous for its chemical and petrochemical industries.
  • It is also known for its historical importance and rich cultural heritage but does not play a role in makhana cultivation.
  • Kanpur
  • Kanpur is a major industrial city in Uttar Pradesh, known for its leather and textile industries.
  • It has no direct connection to makhana production or agriculture but is historically significant as an important center during India’s independence movement.
  • About Makhana
  • Makhana, also known as fox nuts, are seeds derived from the Euryale Fox plant, which thrives in water bodies like ponds.
  • It is a nutritious food item rich in protein, fiber, and antioxidants and is widely used in snacks, sweets, and traditional cuisines.
  • The establishment of the National Makhana Board is expected to boost the production, research, and export of this significant agro-product.

Question 139

IB MTS 2025• Test

Kamalini Dutt, who passed away in April 2025, was noted for her contributions to which of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shadow puppetry

  2. BOption (b)

    Baul music

  3. COption (c)

    Traditional sculpture

  4. DOption (d)

    Bharatnatyam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Bharatnatyam

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bharatnatyam.

Key Points

  • Kamalini Dutt was an eminent figure in the realm of Indian classical dance and was celebrated for her significant contributions to Bharatnatyam.
  • Bharatnatyam is a traditional dance form that originated in Tamil Nadu and is considered one of the oldest and most revered classical dance forms in India.
  • Kamalini Dutt dedicated her life to the promotion, teaching, and preservation of Bharatnatyam, ensuring its recognition both nationally and internationally.
  • She was instrumental in showcasing Bharatnatyam on global platforms, enhancing its reputation as a symbol of India's rich cultural heritage.
  • Through her efforts, she inspired the younger generation to take up Bharatnatyam as both an art form and a medium for spiritual expression.

Additional Information

  • Shadow Puppetry
  • Shadow puppetry is a traditional form of storytelling using flat, articulated figures that cast shadows on a screen or surface.
  • In India, this art form is known as "Tholu Bommalata" in Andhra Pradesh and "Togalu Gombeyaata" in Karnataka.
  • The puppets are often made from leather and are illuminated by a light source to project their shadows.
  • It is a popular folk art form that combines music, narration, and intricate designs to convey stories from epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata.
  • Baul Music
  • Baul music is a unique folk tradition from Bengal that combines spiritual and philosophical themes with simple, soulful melodies.
  • It is performed by the Bauls, a mystic community of wandering minstrels known for their distinctive lifestyle and attire.
  • The songs often emphasize themes of universal love, self-realization, and oneness with the divine.
  • Baul music was recognized by UNESCO as a part of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2008.
  • Traditional Sculpture
  • Traditional Indian sculpture is a significant part of India's cultural heritage and is often associated with religious and spiritual themes.
  • Examples include temple carvings, stone idols, bronze statues, and terracotta figurines found across India.
  • The sculptures typically depict deities, mythical creatures, and scenes from epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata.
  • Famous examples include the sculptures at Khajuraho, Ellora, and Mahabalipuram.

Question 140

IB MTS 2025• Test

 Which of the following is NOT in India’s 'Very High Damage Risk Zone' for earthquakes?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dharamshala (Himachal Pradesh) 

  2. BOption (b)

    Kashmir Valley (Jammu & Kashmir) 

  3. COption (c)

    Kachchh (Gujarat)

  4. DOption (d)

    Latur (Maharashtra)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Latur (Maharashtra)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Latur (Maharashtra).

Key Points

  • Latur (Maharashtra) is categorized under Seismic Zone III, which is considered a moderate-risk zone for earthquakes.
  • India is divided into four seismic zones: II, III, IV, and V, with Zone V being the most prone to earthquakes and Zone II being the least.
  • Regions in Seismic Zone V include areas like Kashmir Valley (Jammu & Kashmir), Dharamshala (Himachal Pradesh), and Kachchh (Gujarat), which are classified as 'Very High Damage Risk Zones.'
  • The 1993 Latur earthquake was a significant seismic event with a magnitude of 6.2, but the region's geological stability limits its classification to moderate risk.
  • Seismic Zone III reflects reduced tectonic activity compared to Zone V, which comprises areas near active tectonic plate boundaries or fault lines.

Additional Information

  • Kashmir Valley (Jammu & Kashmir):
  • This region lies in Seismic Zone V, classified as a 'Very High Damage Risk Zone' due to its proximity to active tectonic plate boundaries in the Himalayan region.
  • The area is prone to frequent earthquakes caused by the collision between the Indian and Eurasian plates.
  • Major earthquakes in this region include the 2005 Kashmir earthquake, which caused widespread destruction.
  • Dharamshala (Himachal Pradesh):
  • Himachal Pradesh, including Dharamshala, is also part of Seismic Zone V, making it highly susceptible to earthquakes.
  • The Himalayan region experiences high seismic activity due to ongoing tectonic movements and fault lines.
  • Strict building codes are enforced in this area to mitigate earthquake damage.
  • Kachchh (Gujarat):
  • Kachchh is another region within Seismic Zone V due to its location near geological fault lines, including the Kachchh Rift Basin.
  • It has witnessed devastating earthquakes, such as the 2001 Gujarat earthquake, which caused significant loss of life and property.
  • The region's vulnerability to earthquakes necessitates stringent disaster preparedness measures.
  • Seismic Zones in India:
  • India's seismic zones range from Zone II (least prone) to Zone V (most prone) based on earthquake risk.
  • Factors influencing seismic activity include tectonic plate movements, fault lines, and geological features.
  • Regions in Zone V face the highest risk due to their proximity to active tectonic zones, while Zone III reflects moderate risk.