Search Previous Year Questions

The correct answer is Only (b).

Key Points

• Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) is a statistical measure used in the education sector to determine the number of students enrolled in a specific level of education, regardless of age, expressed as a percentage of the official school-age population for that level.
• According to the Economic Survey of India 2022-23, the GER in schools has shown varied trends across different levels of education when comparing 2021-22 to 2013-14.
• Primary level: The GER at the primary level did not witness a decline in 2021-22 compared to 2013-14. Instead, it remained stable or improved. Hence, statement (a) is incorrect.
• Upper primary level: The GER at the upper primary level saw a decline in 2021-22 compared to 2013-14, as highlighted in the survey. This indicates challenges in retaining students beyond the primary level of education. Hence, statement (b) is correct.
• Secondary level: The GER at the secondary level has generally improved over the years due to increased focus on secondary education policies, infrastructure development, and incentives for retention. Hence, statement (c) is incorrect.

Additional Information

• Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER):
• GER is calculated as the total enrolment of students at a particular level of education divided by the population of the age group that officially corresponds to that level. It is expressed as a percentage.
• A GER above 100% indicates that there are students outside the official age group enrolled in education, which is a positive indicator of inclusivity.
• Trends in GER in India:
• The primary level has seen consistent enrolment rates due to government initiatives like the Mid-Day Meal Scheme and the Right to Education Act, 2009, which focus on universal access to primary education.
• The upper primary level has witnessed a decline in GER, indicating challenges such as dropout rates due to socio-economic factors or lack of access to higher grades in rural areas.
• The secondary level has shown improvement, with the GER increasing significantly due to programs like Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) and scholarships for students from marginalized communities.
• Challenges in GER:
• Dropout rates at the upper primary level are influenced by factors such as poverty, lack of awareness, and gender-based disparities.
• Geographical and infrastructural barriers in rural and remote areas contribute to lower GER at higher education levels.

Important Points

• Government Initiatives to Improve GER:
• Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan: An integrated scheme for school education that aims to improve enrolment, retention, and quality of education at all levels.
• Mid-Day Meal Scheme: Provides free meals to children in schools to enhance enrolment and retention, especially at the primary level.
• Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya: Focuses on improving GER for girls at the upper primary level in rural areas.
• Digital Education Initiatives: Programs like DIKSHA and e-learning platforms aim to increase accessibility to education resources and reduce dropout rates.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• Torneo del Centenario 2023: The Torneo del Centenario is an international hockey tournament organized to celebrate the centenary of the sport. It attracts top teams from across the globe to compete for the title.
• India's Victory: The Indian women's hockey team clinched the Torneo del Centenario 2023 title, showcasing their exceptional skills and teamwork throughout the tournament. This win highlights the growing prowess of Indian women in international hockey.
• Performance Highlights: India displayed a series of stellar performances against teams like Spain, England, and others. Their strategic gameplay, focused defense, and attacking prowess played a vital role in securing the championship.
• Historical Achievement: Winning the Torneo del Centenario 2023 is a significant achievement for Indian women's hockey, further strengthening their position in the global rankings and boosting morale for future tournaments.
• This victory is a testament to the hard work and dedication of the players, coaching staff, and support systems. It reflects the efforts to promote women's hockey in India.

Additional Information

• Indian Women's Hockey Team:
• Formation: The Indian women's hockey team has a rich history and has emerged as a strong contender in international tournaments over the years.
• Achievements: The team has consistently delivered exceptional performances, including qualifying for the Tokyo Olympics and finishing fourth, marking one of their best performances on a global stage.
• Role of Government and Federations:
• The Sports Authority of India (SAI) and Hockey India have been instrumental in providing infrastructure, training, and resources to improve the team's competitiveness.
• Under various schemes like Khelo India, players are nurtured from grassroots levels, ensuring a steady pipeline of talent for national teams.
• Global Competitors:
• Spain: Known for their aggressive playing style, Spain has been a strong contender in international hockey.
• England: England's women's hockey team has traditionally been a dominant force, often competing at the top levels in tournaments like the Olympics and World Cup.
• China: China's women’s hockey team is also regarded as a competitive team on the global stage, focusing heavily on strategic gameplay.

Important Points

• Significance of the Victory:
• This victory is a morale booster for Indian women's hockey, inspiring young players and promoting the sport in the country.
• It highlights the importance of teamwork, strategy, and resilience, serving as an example for upcoming athletes.
• Future Prospects:
• India's win at the Torneo del Centenario 2023 lays the foundation for better performances in tournaments like the Asian Games and World Cup.
• With continued support and investment in women's hockey, India aims to achieve greater success on international platforms.

The correct answer is Aurangzeb.

Key Points

• Alamgir Nama is a historical chronicle that provides a detailed account of the reign of the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb, who ruled India from 1658 to 1707.
• The book was written by Mirza Muhammad Kazim, a court historian during Aurangzeb’s reign. It documents the events, policies, and achievements of the emperor.
• Aurangzeb was also known as Alamgir, which means "Conqueror of the World," and the chronicle is named after this title.
• The Alamgir Nama is considered an important historical source for understanding the political and administrative systems during Aurangzeb's rule.
• It covers key aspects of Aurangzeb’s reign, including his military campaigns, religious policies, and governance style.
• The chronicle ends in the 10^th year of Aurangzeb's reign, as the author passed away before completing the full account of his rule.

Additional Information

• Aurangzeb’s Reign:
• Aurangzeb was the sixth Mughal Emperor, who ascended the throne in 1658 after defeating his brothers in a bitter succession war.
• He is known for his strict adherence to Islamic principles and his efforts to enforce Sharia law across his empire.
• Aurangzeb expanded the Mughal Empire to its greatest territorial extent, covering almost the entire Indian subcontinent.
• He implemented policies that were often criticized for being intolerant towards non-Muslims, such as the reimposition of the Jizya tax on non-Muslims.
• Other Mughal Chronicles:
• The Mughal dynasty is known for its rich historical chronicles, such as the Baburnama (memoirs of Babur), Akbarnama (chronicle of Akbar), and Shah Jahan Nama (chronicle of Shah Jahan).
• These works provide valuable insights into the reigns of different emperors, including their administrative systems, military campaigns, cultural achievements, and personal lives.
• Mirza Muhammad Kazim:
• Mirza Muhammad Kazim, the author of Alamgir Nama, was a prominent historian and writer of the Mughal court.
• His work is regarded as an authoritative account of the early years of Aurangzeb’s rule, offering detailed insights into the emperor’s policies and governance.

Important Points

• Key Features of Alamgir Nama:
• The chronicle provides detailed descriptions of Aurangzeb’s military campaigns, particularly in the Deccan region, against rulers like the Marathas and the Bijapur Sultanate.
• It documents the administrative reforms introduced by Aurangzeb, including his efforts to curb corruption and enforce Islamic law.
• The book also sheds light on Aurangzeb’s personal character, portraying him as a devout and disciplined ruler.
• Significance in Indian History:
• The Alamgir Nama serves as a vital source for historians studying the Mughal Empire, especially the transitional period leading to its decline.
• It highlights the challenges faced by Aurangzeb, such as internal dissent and external threats, which eventually contributed to the weakening of the Mughal dynasty.

The correct answer is A Civil Servant.

Key Points

• A permanent executive refers to individuals who are part of the administrative machinery of the government and serve irrespective of changes in political leadership.
• Civil servants are the backbone of the permanent executive. They are career bureaucrats who work in various government departments and are responsible for implementing policies, programs, and laws enacted by the legislature.
• Unlike the political executive (e.g., Prime Minister, Governor, and Cabinet Ministers), civil servants continue to serve across different governments and are not affected by elections or changes in ruling parties.
• Civil servants are selected through competitive exams like the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) and state-level public service commissions. They are appointed based on merit and serve for a fixed tenure until retirement or resignation.
• The political executives, such as the Prime Minister, Governors, and Cabinet Ministers, are temporary executives because they hold office only as long as they retain political power or until their term ends. Hence, the correct answer is A Civil Servant.

Additional Information

• Permanent Executive:
• The permanent executive is responsible for the day-to-day administration of the country. They ensure the smooth functioning of government machinery by implementing laws, policies, and programs efficiently.
• Civil servants remain impartial and apolitical. Their role is to serve the government of the day without being influenced by political ideologies or biases.
• Selection and Functions of Civil Servants:
• Civil servants are selected through competitive exams like the UPSC Civil Services Examination, which recruits candidates for prestigious posts such as IAS, IPS, and IFS.
• Their functions include policy formulation, implementation, managing public resources, and advising political executives on administrative matters.
• Political Executives:
• The Prime Minister, Cabinet Ministers, and Governors are part of the political executive. They are temporary executives who hold office as long as they have political power or until the tenure of the government ends.
• Their role is to make decisions, set policies, and guide the administration. However, they rely on the permanent executive for effective implementation of these decisions.
• Examples of Permanent Executive:
• The Indian Administrative Service (IAS) and Indian Police Service (IPS) are prime examples of civil servants who are part of the permanent executive.
• Other examples include officers working in state-level administrative services, revenue departments, and other government agencies.

Important Points

• Difference Between Permanent and Temporary Executives:
• Permanent executives (civil servants) are selected based on merit and serve irrespective of changes in government, while temporary executives (political leaders) are elected for a fixed term and depend on electoral outcomes.
• Permanent executives focus on implementation and administration, while temporary executives focus on decision-making and policy formulation.
• Significance of Civil Servants:
• Civil servants ensure continuity and stability in governance, especially during political transitions.
• They act as a link between the government and the citizens, ensuring that public resources are managed efficiently.

The correct answer is Tanzania.

Key Points

• Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) is an internationally recognized institution established to promote technical education and innovation in India.
• In 2023, India announced plans to set up the first-ever IIT campus outside the country in Tanzania. This marks a significant step in extending Indian higher education globally.
• The campus will be established in Zanzibar, Tanzania, as part of the India-Tanzania bilateral agreement. This decision reflects India's commitment to fostering international academic cooperation. Hence, statement is correct.
• This initiative aligns with India's New Education Policy (NEP) 2020, which emphasizes internationalization of Indian education.
• The establishment aims to provide quality technical education to students in Africa and build stronger ties between India and Tanzania. Hence, statement is correct.
• The IIT Zanzibar campus will offer a variety of programs including undergraduate, postgraduate, and doctoral studies in engineering, technology, science, and mathematics.
• This campus is expected to foster research collaborations in emerging fields like Artificial Intelligence, Data Science, and Renewable Energy. Hence, statement is correct.
• The decision reflects India's growing emphasis on soft diplomacy through educational and cultural exchanges, strengthening its image as a global leader in education. Hence, statement is correct.
• Hence, the correct answer is Tanzania.

Additional Information

• Indian Institute of Technology (IIT):
• IITs are globally renowned for their quality education, research, and innovation. They are ranked among the top engineering institutions worldwide.
• Currently, India has 23 IITs, which specialize in diverse fields such as engineering, technology, science, and management.
• The establishment of an IIT campus in Tanzania will mark the first-ever expansion of IITs outside India.
• Why Tanzania?
• Tanzania is strategically located in East Africa, making it an accessible education hub for African nations.
• Zanzibar is known for its cultural and economic significance, attracting investment and partnerships in education, trade, and tourism.
• By setting up the IIT campus in Zanzibar, India aims to provide affordable and quality education to African students.
• India-Tanzania Relations:
• India and Tanzania share long-standing diplomatic, economic, and cultural ties.
• India has been actively involved in promoting developmental cooperation in Africa through projects in education, healthcare, and infrastructure.
• The IIT campus is part of a broader effort to enhance bilateral relations and contribute to the African continent's development.

Important Points

• Key Features of IIT Zanzibar Campus:
• The campus will offer programs in engineering, technology, and science to students from Africa and other regions.
• It aims to establish research facilities in emerging technologies and promote collaborative projects.
• The campus is designed to foster cultural exchange and strengthen India's image as a global leader in education.
• Significance of IIT Expansion:
• The move aligns with India's New Education Policy (NEP) 2020, which emphasizes internationalization.
• It contributes to global access to quality education and promotes India's diplomatic outreach through education.

The correct answer is Formic acid.

Key Points

• When an ant bites a human, it injects formic acid into the skin through its sting.
• Formic acid, also known as methanoic acid, is a chemical compound that causes a stinging or burning sensation upon injection. This is why ant bites often result in pain, redness, and swelling around the affected area.
• The acidic nature of formic acid irritates the skin, leading to inflammation and discomfort. Hence, the correct answer is Formic acid.
• In some cases, individuals may experience allergic reactions to formic acid, causing more severe symptoms such as excessive swelling, itching, or even anaphylaxis (in rare cases).
• Formic acid is not harmful in small quantities but can be neutralized by applying a basic substance, such as sodium bicarbonate, to the affected area to reduce irritation. This helps alleviate the pain and redness caused by the ant bite.
• The primary function of formic acid in ants is as a defense mechanism to protect themselves and their colonies from predators or threats.

Additional Information

• Formic Acid:
• Formic acid is a naturally occurring compound found in ants and some other insects. It is one of the simplest carboxylic acids, with the chemical formula HCOOH.
• It is used by ants as a defense mechanism and as a way to subdue prey. This acid is secreted through the ant's sting or bite, causing pain to the victim.
• Other Substances Mentioned in the Question:
• Calamine solution: This is a soothing lotion containing zinc oxide and ferric oxide, typically used to relieve itching and discomfort caused by insect bites or skin irritations. It is not injected by ants.
• Sodium hydrogencarbonate (baking soda): This is a basic compound that can neutralize acids, such as formic acid, to reduce irritation. It is used as a remedy, not injected by ants.
• Zinc carbonate: This is an inorganic compound used in industrial applications and as a treatment for skin conditions. It is unrelated to ant bites.
• Reactions to Ant Bites:
• The irritation and pain caused by an ant bite are due to the acidic nature of formic acid. This can be alleviated by applying a cold compress or a basic substance.
• Individuals allergic to ant bites may require medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.

Important Points

• Neutralizing Formic Acid:
• Applying sodium bicarbonate (baking soda) to the site of the bite can neutralize the acidic effect of formic acid and reduce irritation.
• Over-the-counter antihistamines or hydrocortisone creams may also help alleviate symptoms.
• Role of Formic Acid in Ants:
• Apart from being a defense mechanism, formic acid helps ants in hunting or subduing prey.

Some ant species also use it to mark territories or communicate with fellow ants.

The correct answer is No child is denied admission in a school according to this Act, for the lack of age proof..

Key Points

• Statement 1: The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act (RTE), 2009, mandates that no child shall be denied admission to a school for the lack of age proof. Schools are required to ensure that every child has access to education without imposing unnecessary restrictions. This statement is correct.
• Statement 2: The Act applies to the whole of India except the state of Jammu and Kashmir. However, after the abrogation of Article 370 in August 2019, the Act became applicable to Jammu and Kashmir as well. This statement is incorrect.
• Statement 3: Elementary education, as defined under the Act, refers to education from Class 1 to 8, not Class 1 to 6. This statement is incorrect.
• Statement 4: The Act provides for free education to all children aged 6 to 14 years, not up to the age of 16. This provision is in alignment with Article 21A of the Constitution of India. This statement is incorrect.
• Hence, the correct answer is "No child is denied admission in a school according to this Act, for the lack of age proof.".

Additional Information

• Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009:
• The Act was enacted to provide free and compulsory education to children aged between 6 to 14 years as a fundamental right under Article 21A of the Constitution.
• It ensures that every child has access to education without discrimination based on gender, caste, religion, or socio-economic background.
• Schools are required to reserve 25% of seats for children from economically weaker sections (EWS) and disadvantaged groups.
• Key Features of the Act:
• The Act prohibits schools from charging any form of fees, ensuring that education is truly free for eligible children.
• It mandates the establishment of a neighborhood school within a certain distance to ensure accessibility.
• The Act prescribes norms for infrastructure, teacher qualifications, and pupil-teacher ratios to maintain quality education.
• Age and Coverage:
• The Act covers children aged 6 to 14 years, focusing on elementary education (Class 1 to 8).
• It applies to all government schools and aided schools, while unaided private schools are required to reserve seats for children from EWS and disadvantaged groups.

Important Points

• Prohibition of Discrimination:
• Schools are prohibited from denying admission based on age, gender, caste, or economic background.
• They cannot subject children to screening procedures or entrance tests for admission.
• Role of Local Authorities:
• Local authorities are responsible for identifying children who are out of school and ensuring their enrollment.
• They must ensure the availability of adequate infrastructure and trained teachers.
• Impact of the Act:
• The Act has significantly improved enrollment rates and reduced dropout rates among children in the target age group.
• It has empowered economically weaker sections and disadvantaged groups by ensuring access to quality education.

The correct answer is Duns.

Key Points

• Duns are elongated valleys located between the Lesser Himalayas (Middle Himalayas) and the Shivalik Hills.
• These valleys are formed due to the folding and faulting of the Earth’s crust during the process of Himalayan orogeny.
• Dehradun, Kotli Dun, and Patli Dun are prominent examples of duns in India. They serve as significant geographical and ecological features.
• The duns are characterized by their rich soil, making them suitable for agriculture. They are largely fertile plains surrounded by hills.
• These valleys are also important for human settlements due to their favorable climatic conditions and natural resources. Hence, the term "Duns" correctly refers to the longitudinal valleys lying between the Lesser Himalayas and Shivaliks.

Additional Information

• Formation of Duns:
• Duns are formed as a result of tectonic activity, specifically the collision between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate.
• The folding and faulting during this collision created depressions or valleys between the mountain ranges.
• Characteristics of Duns:
• Duns are typically narrow and elongated, with fertile soil suitable for crops like rice, wheat, and sugarcane.
• They are surrounded by rugged terrain, making them distinct geographical features.
• The valleys have rich biodiversity, serving as habitats for various flora and fauna.
• Other Options Explained:
• Kullus: Refers to the Kullu Valley, located in Himachal Pradesh, and is not associated with the longitudinal valleys between the Lesser Himalayas and Shivaliks.
• Pir Panjal Range: A mountain range in the Himalayas, located in Jammu and Kashmir, and not a valley.
• Purvanchals: Refers to the hills located in northeastern India, which are not related to the Shivalik Hills or Lesser Himalayas.

Important Points

• Dehradun: The most famous dun valley in India, known for its scenic beauty, educational institutions, and tourist attractions.
• Human Settlements: Duns are preferred for settlements due to their fertile lands, availability of water, and pleasant climate.
• Geographical Importance: These valleys act as a transition zone between the mountainous regions and plains, influencing both climate and ecology.

The correct answer is Rivonia - South Africa.

Key Points

• Nuremberg - France: This statement is incorrect. Nuremberg is a city located in Germany, not France. It is historically significant due to the Nuremberg Trials, conducted after World War II to prosecute prominent leaders of Nazi Germany for war crimes.
• Rivonia - South Africa: This statement is correct. Rivonia is a suburb in South Africa. It is historically significant as the location where key leaders of the African National Congress (ANC), including Nelson Mandela, were arrested in 1963 during apartheid. The Rivonia Trial that followed led to Mandela's imprisonment for 27 years.
• Versailles - Germany: This statement is incorrect. Versailles is located in France, not Germany. It is historically significant for the Treaty of Versailles signed in 1919, which ended World War I and imposed harsh conditions on Germany.
• St. Petersburg - England: This statement is incorrect. St. Petersburg is located in Russia, not England. It is historically significant as a cultural hub, the former capital of Imperial Russia, and the site of significant events during the Russian Revolution.
• Hence, the correct answer is Rivonia - South Africa.

Additional Information

• Rivonia Trial:
• Year: Conducted in 1963-1964.
• Purpose: The trial targeted leaders of the ANC who were accused of sabotage against the apartheid government.
• Outcome: Key figures like Nelson Mandela, Walter Sisulu, and Govan Mbeki were convicted and sentenced to life imprisonment.
• Impact: The trial highlighted global opposition to apartheid and made Mandela a symbol of the anti-apartheid struggle.
• Nuremberg Trials:
• Location: Conducted in Nuremberg, Germany.
• Year: Held between 1945-1946.
• Purpose: To prosecute Nazi leaders for war crimes, crimes against humanity, and crimes of aggression during World War II.
• Significance: Established principles of international law and accountability for leaders committing atrocities.
• Versailles Treaty:
• Location: Signed at the Palace of Versailles, France.
• Year: 1919.
• Purpose: To formally end World War I and impose reparations and territorial losses on Germany.
• Impact: The treaty is considered one of the causes of World War II due to its harsh terms on Germany.
• St. Petersburg:
• Location: A city in Russia.
• Historical Significance: Served as the capital of Imperial Russia until 1918.
• Events: Key events include the October Revolution of 1917 and the siege during World War II.
• Current Status: Renamed from Leningrad to St. Petersburg in 1991 and remains a cultural and historical center in Russia.

Important Points

• Significance of Rivonia:
• The Rivonia Trial was pivotal in raising awareness about the oppression under apartheid in South Africa.
• It led to international condemnation of apartheid policies and increased support for the ANC.
• Nelson Mandela’s statement from the dock during the trial became a defining moment in the struggle for freedom.
• Other Historical Places:
• Nuremberg: Symbolizes justice and accountability in international law.
• Versailles: Represents the consequences of war and the challenges of international diplomacy.
• St. Petersburg: Reflects Russia's cultural and political history through centuries.

The correct answer is Kumar Mangalam Birla.

Key Points

• Kumar Mangalam Birla is a renowned Indian industrialist and the chairman of the Aditya Birla Group, one of India's largest multinational conglomerates.
• He was awarded the prestigious Padma Bhushan in 2023 for his exceptional contribution to the field of Trade and Industry.
• The Padma Bhushan is India's third-highest civilian award, conferred for distinguished service of high order in various fields including art, public affairs, science, and trade and industry. Hence, Kumar Mangalam Birla's recognition is highly significant.
• Kumar Mangalam Birla has been instrumental in transforming the Aditya Birla Group into a global entity, driving innovation and growth across diverse sectors such as metals, cement, textiles, financial services, and telecom.
• The group operates in over 100 countries with more than 140,000 employees, showcasing Kumar Mangalam Birla's visionary leadership. Hence, his award is a recognition of his immense contributions.

Additional Information

• About Kumar Mangalam Birla:
• Kumar Mangalam Birla was born on June 14, 1967, in Mumbai, Maharashtra, India.
• He succeeded his father, Aditya Vikram Birla, as chairman of the Aditya Birla Group at the young age of 28, following his father's untimely demise.
• Under his leadership, the group expanded globally, entering sectors like telecom, financial services, and retail.
• He is also known for his philanthropic contributions, particularly in education and healthcare, through initiatives like the Aditya Birla Centre for Community Initiatives and Rural Development.
• About the Padma Bhushan Award:
• The Padma Bhushan was established in 1954 and is awarded by the Government of India on Republic Day.
• It recognizes individuals for their distinguished contributions in various fields, including trade and industry, sports, arts, and science.
• Recipients are selected based on their achievements, irrespective of nationality, reflecting the award's global recognition.
• Other Notable Industrialists Considered:
• Adar Poonawalla: CEO of the Serum Institute of India, known for its contributions to vaccine manufacturing, especially during the COVID-19 pandemic.
• Gautam Adani: Chairman of the Adani Group, a leading infrastructure conglomerate in India.
• Mukesh Ambani: Chairman of Reliance Industries, one of India's largest corporations with a significant presence in energy, retail, and telecom.

Important Points

• Achievements of Kumar Mangalam Birla:
• Under his leadership, the Aditya Birla Group became one of India's first multinational corporations, with operations across Asia, Europe, America, and Africa.
• He pioneered expansions into high-growth sectors such as telecom, financial services, and luxury retail.
• He has been recognized with numerous awards, including the International Advertising Association’s CEO of the Year and the Ernst & Young Entrepreneur of the Year Award.
• Significance of the Padma Bhushan:
• The award highlights outstanding contributions to India’s growth and development, celebrating achievements that inspire the nation.
• It underscores the importance of leadership, vision, and innovation in driving progress across industries.