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The correct answer is Only I and III are correct.

Key Points

• Statement I: UDISE+ is indeed one of the largest Management Information Systems initiated by the Department of School Education and Literacy, Ministry of Education, Government of India. It aims to consolidate school-level information for effective planning and administration of school education. Hence, this statement is correct.
• Statement II: While UDISE+ is online, it has not been collecting data in real-time since 2014-15. UDISE+ was introduced in 2018-19 as an upgraded version of UDISE (Unified District Information System for Education). The earlier version of UDISE was not real-time but relied on manual data collection. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Statement III: UDISE+ information is extensively utilized for planning, optimizing resource allocation, implementing various education-related programs, and assessing progress. It provides valuable data to improve the quality and reach of education in India. Hence, this statement is correct.
• Thus, the correct answer is Only I and III are correct.

Additional Information

• Unified District Information System for Education+ (UDISE+):
• UDISE+ is a comprehensive data collection system designed to gather and analyze school-level data across India. It is managed by the Department of School Education and Literacy under the Ministry of Education.
• Introduced in 2018-19, UDISE+ replaced the earlier UDISE system to enhance data accuracy and ensure real-time data collection.
• It plays a crucial role in monitoring education programs, assessing the implementation of government initiatives, and ensuring resource optimization.
• Purpose and Applications:
• The system aims to improve educational planning by identifying gaps in infrastructure, teacher availability, and enrollment rates.
• Example: UDISE+ data helps in formulating policies such as the Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan, which focuses on school education improvement.
• It aids in tracking indicators like dropout rates, Gross Enrollment Ratio (GER), and teacher-student ratios.
• Key Features:
• UDISE+ provides real-time data entry and validation, which minimizes errors and improves the reliability of the information collected.
• It facilitates the monitoring of programs like RTE (Right to Education Act) compliance, infrastructure development, and mid-day meal schemes.
• The system ensures transparency and accountability in the education sector.

Important Points

• Significance of Data Collection:
• Accurate and reliable data is crucial for effective policy formulation and implementation in the education sector.
• UDISE+ ensures that data is collected systematically and can be analyzed to address challenges like low enrollment rates, gender disparity, and infrastructure gaps.
• Government Initiatives Supported by UDISE+:
• Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan: A program aimed at improving the quality of education across primary and secondary levels.
• RTE Act: Ensuring access to free and compulsory education for children aged 6 to 14 years.
• Mid-Day Meal Scheme: Monitoring school meal programs to improve student attendance and nutritional health.

The correct answer is Samagra Shiksha.

Key Points

• Project Appraisal, Budgeting, Achievements and Data Handling System (PRABANDH) is an integrated platform developed under the Samagra Shiksha scheme by the Ministry of Education, Government of India. Hence, option 3 is correct.
• The objective of PRABANDH is to ensure the efficient monitoring of school education programs, including the tracking of funds and progress under Samagra Shiksha.
• The system facilitates real-time monitoring and transparency by providing a digital platform for the appraisal, budgeting, and tracking of achievements in school education.
• The PRABANDH system also ensures that the funds allocated to schools are utilized appropriately and that reporting and monitoring of projects under the Samagra Shiksha scheme are streamlined.
• Samagra Shiksha is an overarching program for the school education sector, covering pre-school to senior secondary levels. It aims to ensure inclusive and equitable quality education at all levels.

Additional Information

• Samagra Shiksha Scheme:
• Launched in 2018, Samagra Shiksha subsumed three existing schemes: SSA (Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan), RMSA (Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan), and the Teacher Education (TE) scheme.
• The scheme focuses on providing quality education, inclusive learning opportunities, and equitable access to education for all children.
• It emphasizes early childhood care and education (ECCE), teacher training, digital learning, and the overall development of schools.
• The program also aims to improve student learning outcomes and bridge social and gender gaps in school education.
• Functions and Features of PRABANDH:
• PRABANDH is an online system designed to monitor the implementation of various interventions under the Samagra Shiksha scheme.
• It enables the real-time tracking of fund utilization, progress reports, and achievements of schools and education initiatives.
• The system also facilitates the submission of proposals, the evaluation of plans, and the release of funds to states and union territories.
• The PRABANDH platform ensures better accountability and transparency in the implementation of educational programs.

Important Points

• Key Objectives of Samagra Shiksha:
• Focuses on universal access to quality education at all levels, including primary, secondary, and higher secondary education.
• Promotes gender equality and bridges socio-economic and regional disparities through targeted interventions.
• Supports vocational education to enhance employability and skill development among students.
• Provides funding for the development of infrastructure, such as classrooms, laboratories, and libraries, in government schools.
• Technology Integration in Education:
• The PRABANDH system is part of the government's emphasis on the Digital India initiative, focusing on e-governance and technology in education.
• It provides a centralized platform for data collection, monitoring, and evaluation, ensuring better decision-making and planning for school education programs.

The correct answer is Sulphur.

Key Points

• Sulphur is a non-metal, which is a chemical element with the atomic number 16. It is classified as a non-metal because it does not possess metallic properties like luster, conductivity, or malleability.
• Sulphur is known for its bright yellow appearance and is solid at room temperature. It is brittle and cannot be shaped into sheets or wires, further confirming its non-metallic nature.
• Non-metals generally have low conductivity, and sulphur is a poor conductor of heat and electricity. This characteristic is a key differentiator between metals and non-metals. Hence, Sulphur is the correct answer.
• Other elements in the options like Calcium, Magnesium, and Aluminium are metals because they exhibit metallic properties such as good conductivity, malleability, and ductility. These elements cannot be classified as non-metals. Hence, the other options are incorrect.
• Non-metals like sulphur are essential in various chemical and biological processes. Sulphur is widely used in the production of fertilizers, matches, and insecticides. This makes Sulphur significant among non-metals.

Additional Information

• Characteristics of Non-Metals:
• Non-metals are elements that lack metallic properties. They are usually brittle, dull, and poor conductors of heat and electricity.
• Examples of non-metals include oxygen, nitrogen, carbon, sulphur, and chlorine. These elements are essential for life and various industrial processes.
• Non-metals are commonly found in nature in gaseous, liquid, or solid forms. For instance, sulphur is solid, oxygen is gaseous, and bromine is liquid.
• Uses of Sulphur:
• Sulphur is used in the manufacturing of fertilizers like ammonium sulphate to enhance crop yield.
• It is a key component in the production of matches, gunpowder, and insecticides due to its chemical reactivity.
• Sulphur is also used in the vulcanization of rubber, a process that improves the durability and elasticity of rubber products.
• Metallic Properties vs. Non-Metallic Properties:
• Metals are malleable, ductile, lustrous, and good conductors of electricity and heat. Examples include iron, copper, and aluminium.
• In contrast, non-metals like sulphur are brittle, non-lustrous, and poor conductors.

Important Points

• About the given options:
• Calcium: A metal with atomic number 20, known for its role in bone health and industrial applications.
• Magnesium: A metal with atomic number 12, widely used in fireworks, medicines, and as an alloying agent.
• Aluminium: A metal with atomic number 13, utilized in construction, transportation, and packaging industries due to its lightweight and corrosion resistance.
• Physical and Chemical Properties:
• Non-metals like sulphur typically form acidic oxides, whereas metals form basic oxides.
• Sulphur reacts with oxygen to produce sulphur dioxide (SO₂), which is used in the food and beverage industry as a preservative.

The correct answer is I is wrong, but II is correct..

Key Points

• Statement I: As per the Constitution of India, the number of seats assigned to each of the States in the Rajya Sabha is the same.
• This statement is incorrect.
• The allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) is not uniform across all states. The seats are allocated based on the population of each state, as per the provisions of the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution.
• For example, larger states like Uttar Pradesh have 31 seats, while smaller states like Goa or Sikkim have only 1 seat.
• This ensures proportional representation and reflects the population size of each state in the Rajya Sabha.
• Statement II: As per the Constitution of India, seats are allocated in the Rajya Sabha to both, States and the Union Territories.
• This statement is correct.
• According to Article 80 of the Constitution, the Rajya Sabha consists of representatives of the States and Union Territories, as well as nominated members.
• Union Territories such as Delhi and Puducherry are allocated seats in the Rajya Sabha. For example, Delhi has 3 seats, while Puducherry has 1 seat.
• Other Union Territories, such as Andaman and Nicobar Islands, do not have representation in the Rajya Sabha.
• Hence, the correct answer is: I is wrong, but II is correct.

Additional Information

• Rajya Sabha Overview:
• The Rajya Sabha is the upper house of the Indian Parliament and represents the states and Union Territories of India.
• It is a permanent body and cannot be dissolved, but one-third of its members retire every 2 years.
• The total strength of the Rajya Sabha is 250, of which 238 members are representatives of states and Union Territories, and 12 members are nominated by the President for their expertise in specific fields.
• Allocation of Seats in the Rajya Sabha:
• Seats in the Rajya Sabha are allocated to states and Union Territories based on their population. This ensures proportional representation.
• The allocation follows the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
• States with larger populations, such as Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Bihar, have more seats compared to smaller states like Sikkim or Mizoram.
• Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha:
• Some Union Territories, such as Delhi and Puducherry, have representation in the Rajya Sabha, while others, such as Chandigarh and Andaman and Nicobar Islands, do not.
• The number of representatives from a Union Territory is determined by the President of India.

Important Points

• Composition of Rajya Sabha:
• The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the states using the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
• The representatives of the Union Territories are chosen in a manner determined by the Parliament.
• Special Features of the Rajya Sabha:
• The Rajya Sabha has special powers to declare a subject as being of national importance, allowing the Parliament to make laws on matters in the State List under Article 249.
• It is chaired by the Vice-President of India, who serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

The correct answer is Judicial Review.

Key Points

• Judicial Review refers to the power of the judiciary, especially the Supreme Court and High Courts in India, to examine the constitutionality of laws passed by the legislature.
• If a law violates the provisions of the Constitution of India, the judiciary can declare it null and void. This ensures that the legislature does not exceed its constitutional limits.
• The concept is derived from the doctrine of separation of powers, ensuring that each branch of government remains within its constitutional boundaries. Hence, this statement is correct.
• Judicial Review is an essential feature of the Indian Constitution as highlighted in the landmark judgment of Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973). The Supreme Court held that Judicial Review is part of the basic structure doctrine.
• This power is exercised primarily under Article 13, which ensures that laws inconsistent with fundamental rights are void. Hence, the judiciary has the authority to strike down laws violating the Constitution.
• Judicial Review in India is divided into three categories: Constitutional Review (examining laws against the Constitution), Administrative Review (reviewing executive actions), and Legislative Review (reviewing laws passed by the legislature).
• Hence, the correct answer is Judicial Review.

Additional Information

• Judicial Review:
• Judicial Review is a mechanism to ensure the supremacy of the Constitution and prevent arbitrary actions by the legislature or executive.
• This power is exercised by the Supreme Court and High Courts under Articles 32 and 226 of the Constitution of India.
• Key Features:
• It acts as a check on the misuse of power by the legislature and executive.
• Judicial Review protects the fundamental rights of citizens by invalidating laws or actions that infringe upon them.
• Example: In the case of Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980), the Supreme Court declared certain amendments unconstitutional as they violated the basic structure of the Constitution.
• Other Concepts Mentioned in the Question:
• Doctrine of Exception: This concept allows certain provisions or actions to be exempted from normal constitutional requirements. However, it is not applicable to the judiciary’s power to strike down laws.
• Appellate Judicial System: This refers to the hierarchical system of courts where higher courts (like the Supreme Court) review decisions of lower courts. It does not involve striking down laws.
• Judicial Activism: Refers to proactive judicial efforts to address socio-political issues. While it involves the judiciary's intervention, it is different from the constitutionality-checking power of Judicial Review.

Important Points

• Landmark Cases:
• Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973): Established Judicial Review as part of the basic structure doctrine.
• Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980): Struck down amendments violating the basic structure of the Constitution.
• Constitutional Articles:
• Article 13: Ensures that laws inconsistent with fundamental rights are void.
• Article 32: Empowers citizens to approach the Supreme Court for enforcement of fundamental rights.
• Article 226: Provides High Courts the power to issue writs for enforcement of rights.

The correct answer is Mulayam Singh Yadav.

Key Points

• Mulayam Singh Yadav, the founder of the Samajwadi Party and a former Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh, was posthumously awarded the Padma Vibhushan Award in 2023.
• The Padma Vibhushan is the second-highest civilian award in India, conferred for exceptional and distinguished service in any field, including public service, arts, literature, science, and more.
• Mulayam Singh Yadav, also referred to as Netaji, was a prominent Indian politician who served as the Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh three times and as the Minister of Defence in the Government of India.
• He was known for his significant contributions to Indian politics, particularly in empowering marginalized communities and championing the rights of farmers and backward classes.
• His leadership and political influence played a vital role in shaping the political landscape of Uttar Pradesh and the country. Hence, the correct answer is Mulayam Singh Yadav.

Additional Information

• Mulayam Singh Yadav:
• Born on 22 November 1939, in Saifai, Uttar Pradesh, Mulayam Singh Yadav emerged as a significant political leader advocating socialism.
• He played a major role in strengthening the Samajwadi Party (SP), which he founded in 1992. The party became a dominant political force in Uttar Pradesh under his leadership.
• Yadav was committed to the welfare of the backward classes, and his policies often focused on improving the lives of farmers, laborers, and the underprivileged.
• He passed away on October 10, 2022, leaving behind a legacy of grassroots political activism and governance.
• Padma Vibhushan Award:
• Instituted in 1954, the Padma Awards are one of the highest civilian honors in India, divided into three categories: Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan, and Padma Shri.
• The Padma Vibhushan is the second-highest civilian award, given for "exceptional and distinguished service."
• It is awarded across various fields, such as art, public affairs, science, trade, and more. It is announced every year on the eve of Republic Day.
• Other 2023 Padma Vibhushan Posthumous Awardees:
• Bipin Rawat: India’s first Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) who played a crucial role in modernizing the Indian Armed Forces.
• Rahul Bajaj: An industrialist who transformed the Bajaj Group into one of India’s leading business conglomerates.
• S.P. Balasubrahmanyam: Renowned Indian playback singer and music composer who made immense contributions to Indian music.

Important Points

• Significance of Padma Awards:
• These awards are a recognition of exceptional contributions made by individuals in various spheres such as arts, public service, literature, and more.
• The awards are divided into three categories:
• Padma Vibhushan – for exceptional and distinguished service.
• Padma Bhushan – for distinguished service of higher order.
• Padma Shri – for distinguished service in any field.
• Posthumous Recognition:
• Posthumous awards are given to individuals who have passed away but have made significant contributions in their respective fields during their lifetime.
• Such recognition helps in commemorating their legacy and inspiring future generations.

The correct answer is Children under 5 years who are overweight.

Key Points

• National Family Health Survey (NFHS): The NFHS is a large-scale, multi-round survey conducted in India to collect information on population, health, and nutrition. The survey provides critical data for policy formulation and program implementation.
• The NFHS-5 (2019-21) results were compared to the NFHS-4 (2015-16), highlighting changes in various health indicators such as malnutrition and child mortality.
• According to the Economic Survey of India 2022-23, certain health indicators showed improvement, while others revealed negative trends.
• Among the key indicators, the proportion of children under 5 years who are overweight has increased compared to NFHS-4. This highlights the growing concern of childhood obesity in India.
• The increase in overweight children can be attributed to factors like changing dietary patterns, increased consumption of processed and high-calorie foods, and reduced physical activity among children.
• Other indicators such as children under 5 years who are underweight and stunted have shown improvement or decline, reflecting progress in addressing malnutrition. Hence, these options are incorrect.
• The under-five mortality rate has also shown improvement, indicating better healthcare access and interventions. Hence, this option is incorrect.
• Hence, the correct answer is Children under 5 years who are overweight.

Additional Information

• Overview of NFHS:
• The National Family Health Survey is conducted by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in collaboration with the International Institute for Population Sciences (IIPS).
• It covers various aspects such as fertility, mortality, maternal and child health, nutrition, and family planning.
• The survey aims to provide essential data to monitor and evaluate the progress of health programs and policies in India.
• Key Findings from NFHS-5:
• The proportion of children under 5 years who are overweight increased from 2.1% in NFHS-4 to 3.4% in NFHS-5.
• The prevalence of underweight children under 5 years decreased from 35.8% in NFHS-4 to 32.1% in NFHS-5, reflecting progress in tackling malnutrition.
• The stunting rate among children under 5 years also decreased from 38.4% in NFHS-4 to 35.5% in NFHS-5.
• The under-five mortality rate dropped from 49.7 deaths per 1000 live births in NFHS-4 to 41.9 deaths per 1000 live births in NFHS-5.
• Childhood Obesity:
• The rise in childhood obesity reflects the impact of urbanization, sedentary lifestyles, and unhealthy dietary habits.
• Obesity in children can lead to long-term health issues such as diabetes, cardiovascular diseases, and other metabolic disorders.
• Awareness campaigns, policy interventions, and promoting a balanced diet and physical activity are critical to addressing this issue.

Important Points

• NFHS Data Utilization:
• The data collected from NFHS surveys is used by the government to design and implement programs such as the Poshan Abhiyaan and National Health Mission.
• It also helps in tracking India's progress towards achieving Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), particularly Goal 3 related to health and well-being.
• Policy Recommendations:
• To address childhood obesity, policies need to focus on promoting healthy diets, reducing the consumption of sugar and processed foods, and encouraging physical activity.
• School-based nutrition programs and public awareness campaigns play a crucial role in instilling healthy habits from an early age.

The correct answer is Tsunami.

Key Points

• The term 'Harbour waves' refers to Tsunamis in the Japanese language. The word Tsunami is derived from two Japanese words: 'tsu' (harbour) and 'nami' (waves).
• A tsunami is a series of ocean waves caused by large-scale disturbances such as underwater earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, or landslides.
• Unlike hurricanes or typhoons, tsunamis are triggered by geological activity rather than atmospheric disturbances. Hence, the statement is correct.
• Tsunamis can travel at high speeds across the ocean, often reaching speeds of up to 500 miles per hour, and cause massive destruction when they hit coastal areas.
• Japan is one of the most tsunami-prone countries due to its location near the Pacific Ring of Fire, which is an area with frequent earthquakes and volcanic activities. Hence, the correct term for 'Harbour waves' is Tsunami.

Additional Information

• Characteristics of Tsunamis:
• Tsunamis are formed due to the displacement of large volumes of water, often as a result of geological events such as underwater earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, or landslides.
• They can travel across entire ocean basins, with their speed determined by the depth of the ocean. In deep oceans, they can reach speeds of up to 800 kilometers per hour, but their waves are barely noticeable.
• As tsunamis approach shallow waters near the coast, their speed decreases but their height increases, leading to devastating waves that can flood coastal areas.
• Global Occurrence:
• Major tsunamis have occurred in regions such as the Pacific Ocean and the Indian Ocean.

Some notable examples include the 2004 Indian Ocean Tsunami and the 2011 Great East Japan Earthquake and Tsunami.

• The 2004 tsunami was caused by a massive earthquake off the coast of Sumatra, Indonesia, and affected multiple countries, resulting in over 230,000 deaths.
• The 2011 tsunami in Japan was triggered by a magnitude 9.0 earthquake, resulting in widespread destruction and the Fukushima nuclear disaster.
• Preparedness and Mitigation:
• Countries prone to tsunamis have developed early warning systems to alert people living in coastal areas about potential threats.
• Infrastructure development in such regions includes measures like sea walls, evacuation routes, and tsunami-resistant buildings.
• Education and awareness campaigns are conducted to ensure that people know how to respond in case of a tsunami warning.

Important Points

• Difference between Tsunamis and Other Natural Disasters:
• Hurricanes: These are intense tropical storms with strong winds and heavy rainfall, caused by atmospheric disturbances. They are different from tsunamis, which are geological phenomena.
• Typhoons: Similar to hurricanes, typhoons occur in the Pacific region and are caused by weather systems, not underwater geological activity.
• Cyclones: Cyclones are low-pressure systems with strong winds and rainfall, occurring primarily in the Indian Ocean region. Unlike tsunamis, they are not caused by seismic activity.
• Historical Tsunamis:
• The Indian Ocean Tsunami (2004) was one of the deadliest natural disasters in history, affecting countries like Indonesia, Sri Lanka, India, and Thailand.
• The Great East Japan Tsunami (2011) caused significant damage to Japan's infrastructure and led to the Fukushima nuclear disaster.

The correct answer is Panjab University, Chandigarh.

Key Points

• Panjab University, Chandigarh, emerged as the top performer by winning the highest number of gold medals in the Khelo India University Games held between May 25 to June 3, 2023.
• The Khelo India University Games is a prestigious sporting event organized by the Government of India to promote sports among university students.
• In the 2023 edition, Panjab University showcased exceptional performance across various sports disciplines, earning recognition for its consistent excellence in sports. Hence, Panjab University, Chandigarh, won the highest number of gold medals.
• Jain University, Karnataka, although a strong contender, did not surpass the medal tally of Panjab University. This makes option 1 incorrect.
• Guru Nanak Dev University, Amritsar, and Punjabi University, Patiala, also performed well, but their gold medal counts were lower than Panjab University, making options 2 and 3 incorrect.
• The gold medal tally highlights the dominance of Panjab University in university-level sports competitions. Hence, the correct answer is Panjab University, Chandigarh.

Additional Information

• Khelo India University Games:
• The Khelo India University Games was launched in 2020 to promote sports culture at the grassroots level and provide young athletes with a platform to showcase their talent.
• It involves participation from universities across India, competing in multiple sports disciplines like athletics, swimming, basketball, volleyball, football, and shooting.
• Panjab University, Chandigarh:
• Panjab University is one of the oldest universities in India, established in 1882. It is located in Chandigarh, India.
• The university is renowned for its academic excellence and achievements in sports. It has consistently performed well in national-level competitions.
• Performance of Other Universities:
• Jain University, Karnataka: Known for emphasizing sports infrastructure and training, Jain University often ranks among the top universities in sports competitions.
• Guru Nanak Dev University, Amritsar: Located in Punjab, this university has a rich history of participating in inter-university sports competitions.
• Punjabi University, Patiala: This university also has a strong tradition of sports, especially in disciplines like hockey and athletics.

Important Points

• Significance of Khelo India University Games:
• The event is aimed at identifying and nurturing young sports talent to represent India in international competitions.
• Government of India promotes these games as part of its vision to make India a global sporting powerhouse.
• Achievements of Panjab University:
• Panjab University has consistently demonstrated excellence in sports due to its state-of-the-art facilities and dedicated coaching staff.
• The university's students have represented India in various international sports events, cementing its reputation as a hub of sports talent.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2023: The CCPI is an independent monitoring tool that evaluates the climate protection performance of 59 countries and the European Union, which together account for more than 92% of global greenhouse gas emissions.
• The index assesses countries based on four categories: greenhouse gas emissions, renewable energy, energy use, and climate policy. It helps track progress in global climate action.
• India's Performance: India is the highest performer among G20 countries in the CCPI 2023 rankings. It ranks 8^th overall, with no country occupying the top three spots, indicating that no country has achieved outstanding climate action performance.
• India's strong performance is attributed to its commitment to clean energy, renewable energy development, and efforts to reduce carbon emissions. For example, India has set an ambitious target of achieving net zero emissions by 2070 and aims to meet 50% of its energy needs from renewable sources by 2030.
• South Korea: South Korea ranks much lower in the CCPI rankings due to its heavy reliance on coal and insufficient climate policies. Hence, this option is incorrect.
• Russia: Russia is ranked among the lowest-performing countries in the index, primarily due to its high greenhouse gas emissions and lack of significant climate action. Hence, this option is incorrect.
• Canada: Canada performs poorly in the CCPI due to high per capita emissions and inadequate policies to combat climate change effectively. It is ranked much lower than India. Hence, this option is incorrect.

Additional Information

• About CCPI:
• The Climate Change Performance Index is published by Germanwatch, the NewClimate Institute, and the Climate Action Network (CAN).
• It evaluates countries based on their progress in reducing greenhouse gas emissions, developing renewable energy, promoting energy efficiency, and implementing effective climate policies.
• India’s Climate Goals:
• India has pledged to reduce the carbon intensity of its economy by 45% by 2030 from 2005 levels.
• As part of its Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs), India aims to achieve 500 GW of non-fossil fuel capacity by 2030.
• It is also focusing on promoting renewable energy sources such as solar and wind energy through initiatives like the International Solar Alliance (ISA).
• Performance of Other G20 Countries:
• South Korea: Ranks low due to its coal dependency and insufficient renewable energy adoption.
• Russia: Performs poorly due to its high fossil fuel-based economy and limited climate policies.
• Canada: Despite its progressive climate policies, Canada faces challenges in reducing emissions, particularly from the oil and gas sector.

Important Points

• Top Performers in CCPI 2023:
• The top three positions in the CCPI 2023 ranking are left vacant as no country has achieved the required standards to limit global warming to 1.5°C.
• India ranks 8^th and is the highest-ranked G20 country, followed by Germany and the United Kingdom.
• Need for Climate Action:
• Climate change poses a significant threat to ecosystems, economies, and human health globally.
• Global cooperation, along with strong national policies, is crucial to achieving the targets of the Paris Agreement and maintaining global temperature rise within 1.5°C.