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Question 471

DSSSB Junior Assistant (LDC) 2025• General Awareness 1

Which of the following statement is not true about the speaker of Lok Sabha ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Speaker has to be the member of the house within six months, he assumes office.

  2. BOption (b)

    He remains speaker so long as he is member of the house.

  3. COption (c)

    Speaker continues in office even if Lok Sabha is dissolved.

  4. DOption (d)

    Speaker can be removed by the members of Lok Sabha. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Speaker has to be the member of the house within six months, he assumes office.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • Statement 1: Speaker has to be the member of the house within six months, he assumes office.
  • Not True
  • This condition does not apply to the Speaker.
  • A non-member cannot be elected as Speaker.
  • Only a sitting Member of the Lok Sabha can be elected as the Speaker.
  • So, there is no provision that allows a non-member to become Speaker and then get elected within six months (unlike a minister under Article 75(5)).
  • Statement 2: He remains Speaker so long as he is member of the house.
  • True
  • The Speaker continues in office as long as they are a member of the Lok Sabha and have not resigned or been removed.
  • Statement 3: Speaker continues in office even if Lok Sabha is dissolved.
  • True
  • Article 94: The Speaker does not vacate office immediately upon dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
  • They continue until the first meeting of the new Lok Sabha and the election of a new Speaker.
  • Statement 4: Speaker can be removed by the members of Lok Sabha.
  • True
  • The Speaker can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Lok Sabha under Article 94(c).
  • 14 days' notice is required.
  • Conclusion:
  • Statement 1 is incorrect and hence the correct answer.
  • The Speaker must be a member of the Lok Sabha at the time of election, not later.

Question 472

DSSSB Junior Assistant (LDC) 2025• General Awareness 1

The pitch of the sound is determined by: 

  1. AOption (a)

    Amplitude

  2. BOption (b)

    Intensity

  3. COption (c)

    Frequency

  4. DOption (d)

    Loudness

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Frequency

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Frequency.

Concept:

Sound

  • Sound is a form of energy that produces a sensation of hearing in our ears.
  • Sound is produced by vibrating objects.
  • The matter or substance through which sound is transmitted is called a medium. It can be solid, liquid, or gas.
  • It travels in the form of longitudinal waves (Compression or rarefaction).

Explanation:

  • The pitch of the sound is determined by frequency.
  • If the frequency of vibration is higher, the sound is shrill and has a higher pitch.
  • If the frequency of vibration is lower, the sound has a lower pitch.
  • For example, A bird makes a high-pitched sound whereas a lion makes a low-pitched roar. However, the roar of a lion is very loud while the sound of the bird is quite feeble.

Thus, the pitch of the sound is determined by frequency. 

Additional InformationAmplitude:

  • The maximum amount of displacement of the medium particles from their mean position is called the amplitude of the wave.
  • The amplitude of a sound determines its loudness.
  • The sound produced is loud when the amplitude of the vibration is large.
  • The sound produced is weak when the amplitude is low.

Intensity:

  • The amount of sound energy passing each second through a unit area is called the intensity of sound.

Loudness:

  • The loudness of sound is proportional to the square of the amplitude of the vibration producing the sound.
  • The loudness of sound depends on its amplitude.

Question 473

DSSSB Junior Assistant (LDC) 2025• General Awareness 1

Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can the President of India seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court?

  1. AOption (a)

     Article 143

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 141

  3. COption (c)

    Article 129

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 148

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

 Article 143

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Article 143.

Key Points

  • Article 143 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President of India to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any question of law or fact.
  • This provision is classified under the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
  • The President can refer matters that are of public importance or cases where it is essential to have the advice of the apex court.
  • This article is divided into two clauses:
  • Clause 1: The President may seek advice on questions of law or fact.
  • Clause 2: The President may also seek advice on disputes arising out of pre-constitutional treaties, agreements, or other similar matters.
  • The Supreme Court’s advice under Article 143 is not binding on the President.
  • Examples of cases under Article 143 include:
  • The Berubari Union Case, where the Supreme Court was consulted on the implementation of the Indo-Pakistani agreement.
  • The Ayodhya Dispute, where the President sought the Supreme Court’s opinion on religious and historical issues.
  • This article reflects the unique relationship between the Executive and Judiciary in India, ensuring that critical legal questions are addressed appropriately.

 Additional Information

  • Article 141
  • Article 141 states that the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
  • This article ensures the uniformity and finality of legal principles across the judicial system.
  • It does not deal with the advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
  • Article 129
  • Article 129 declares the Supreme Court as a court of record.
  • As a court of record, the Supreme Court has the power to punish for its contempt.
  • This article deals with the judicial authority of the Supreme Court, not the advisory jurisdiction.
  • Article 148
  • Article 148 deals with the appointment, duties, and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India.
  • The CAG is responsible for auditing all expenditures of the government and ensuring financial accountability.
  • This article is unrelated to the President’s ability to seek advice from the Supreme Court.

Question 474

DSSSB Junior Assistant (LDC) 2025• General Awareness 1

Who among the following was the last ruler of Delhi Sultanate?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ibrahim Lodi

  2. BOption (b)

    Daulat Khan Lodi

  3. COption (c)

    Sikandar Khan Lodi

  4. DOption (d)

    Bahlul Lodi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ibrahim Lodi

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ibrahim Lodhi.

Key Points:

  • The final Lodi Sultan of Delhi was Ibrahim Lodi, Sikandar's oldest son.
  • He possessed the traits of a great warrior, yet his judgement and behaviour were hasty and impolite.
  • His effort at royal absolutism was ill-timed, and his programme of ruthless repression without accompanying steps to fortify the government and boost military capabilities was bound to be unsuccessful.
  • Ibrahim endured many uprisings while keeping the opposition at bay for almost ten years.
  • He spent the majority of his reign fighting with the Afghans and the Mughal Empire and died trying to save the Lodi dynasty from extinction.
  • At the Battle of Panipat in 1526, Ibrahim was defeated.

**Additional Information:**Bahlol Lodhi:

  • During the administration of Muhammad Shah of the Sayyid dynasty, Bahlol Khan Lodhi replaced Malik Sultan Shah Lodi as the governor of Sirhind in (Punjab), India.
  • He was Malik Sultan Shah Lodi's nephew and son-in-law.
  • He was elevated to the rank of Tarun-Bin-Sultan by Muhammad Shah.​

Daulat Khan Lodhi:

  • ​When Ibrahim Lodi, the last monarch of the Lodi dynasty, was in power, Daulat Khan Lodhi served as the city's governor.

Sikander Lodhi:

  • ​After his father's passing on July 17, 1489, Sikandar Khan Lodi, the second son of Bahlol, succeeded him and assumed the title, Sikandar Shah.
  • On July 15, 1489, he was crowned sultan by his father, who had nominated him to be his successor.

Question 475

DSSSB Junior Assistant (LDC) 2025• General Awareness 1

The ratio of Absolute humidity to humidity capacity of an air parcel at certain temperature is known as ________

  1. AOption (a)

    Absolute Humidity

  2. BOption (b)

    Relative Humidity

  3. COption (c)

    Specific Humidity

  4. DOption (d)

    Mixing Ratio

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Relative Humidity

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Relative Humidity'

Key Points

  • Relative Humidity:
  • Relative humidity is the ratio of the current absolute humidity to the highest possible absolute humidity (which depends on the current air temperature).
  • It is expressed as a percentage, indicating how much moisture is in the air compared to how much moisture the air can hold at that temperature.
  • Relative humidity gives a measure of the amount of water vapor in the air relative to the maximum amount the air can hold at the same temperature.
  • This measure is crucial for understanding weather conditions, comfort levels, and the likelihood of precipitation.

Additional Information

  • Absolute Humidity:
  • Absolute humidity is the total mass of water vapor present in a given volume of air.
  • It is usually expressed in grams of water vapor per cubic meter of air (g/m³).
  • This measure does not change with temperature, making it less useful for everyday weather observations and forecasts.
  • Specific Humidity:
  • Specific humidity is the ratio of the mass of water vapor to the total mass of the air parcel.
  • It is expressed as grams of water vapor per kilogram of air (g/kg).
  • This measure remains constant regardless of changes in temperature or pressure, making it useful for meteorological studies.
  • Mixing Ratio:
  • The mixing ratio is the mass of water vapor compared to the mass of dry air in a given air parcel.
  • It is usually expressed in grams of water vapor per kilogram of dry air (g/kg).
  • This measure is important in the study of the atmosphere and weather patterns.

Important Points

  • Understanding relative humidity is essential for predicting weather conditions such as fog, dew, and heat index.
  • Relative humidity affects human comfort; high humidity can make temperatures feel warmer than they actually are.
  • It also plays a significant role in various industries, such as HVAC (heating, ventilation, and air conditioning), agriculture, and manufacturing.

Question 476

DSSSB Junior Assistant (LDC) 2025• General Awareness 1

Where in 2025 and which edition of the India-Uzbekistan Joint Military Exercise DUSTLIK was conducted?

  1. AOption (a)

    Termez, 5th Edition

  2. BOption (b)

    Aundh, 6th Edition

  3. COption (c)

    Tashkent, 4th Editionv

  4. DOption (d)

    Jodhpur, 7th Edition

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Aundh, 6th Edition

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Aundh, 6th Edition.

In News

  • The 6th edition of India-Uzbekistan Joint Military Exercise DUSTLIK commenced at the Foreign Training Node in Aundh, Pune on April 16, 2025.

Key Points

  • DUSTLIK-VI is the 6th edition of the joint military exercise between India and Uzbekistan.
  • It is being held from April 16 to 28, 2025, at the Foreign Training Node, Aundh (Pune), Maharashtra.
  • The exercise focuses on joint sub-conventional operations in a semi-urban scenario, including counterterrorism, reconnaissance, and drone operations.
  • The last edition of the exercise was held in Termez District, Uzbekistan in April 2024.

Additional Information

  • Exercise DUSTLIK
  • An annual bilateral military training exercise between Indian Army and Uzbekistan Army.
  • Started in 2019 with the first edition held in Uzbekistan.
  • Conducted alternately in India and Uzbekistan to enhance military cooperation and interoperability.
  • Foreign Training Node, Aundh
  • A premier training facility in Pune, Maharashtra, used by Indian Armed Forces for international joint exercises.

Question 477

DSSSB Junior Assistant (LDC) 2025• General Awareness 1

Which of the following is the second most populous Indian state as per census 2011 ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Andhra Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Maharashtra

  3. COption (c)

    Madhya Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Bihar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Maharashtra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

  • As per the Census 2011, Maharashtra is the second most populous state in India.
  • The population of Maharashtra as per Census 2011 is approximately 112.4 million.
  • Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state, with a population of around 199.8 million.
  • Other populous states include Bihar and West Bengal, but Maharashtra ranks second in terms of population.

Additional Information

  • Census 2011
  • The Census 2011 is the 15th National Census survey conducted by the Census Organization of India.
  • The census data includes demographic, social, and economic information of the population.
  • It is conducted every 10 years to provide a snapshot of the country's population and its characteristics.
  • Population Density
  • Population density refers to the number of people living per unit area, usually per square kilometer.
  • In 2011, the population density of India was 382 persons per square kilometer.
  • Bihar is the most densely populated state with a density of 1,106 persons per square kilometer.
  • Urbanization
  • Urbanization refers to the increasing population in urban areas compared to rural areas.
  • Maharashtra has a high rate of urbanization, with major cities like Mumbai, Pune, and Nagpur contributing significantly to its population.
  • As of Census 2011, about 45% of Maharashtra's population resides in urban areas.
  • Economic Contributions
  • Maharashtra is one of the most economically significant states in India, contributing about 15% to the country's GDP.
  • The state has a diverse economy with key industries such as manufacturing, IT, and finance.
  • Mumbai, the capital city, is known as the financial capital of India.

Question 478

DSSSB Junior Assistant (LDC) 2025• General Awareness 1

Which of the following is a form of calcium carbonate?

  1. AOption (a)

    Washing soda

  2. BOption (b)

    Baking soda

  3. COption (c)

    Limestone

  4. DOption (d)

    Table Salt

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Limestone

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Limestone.

Key Points

  • Calcium carbonate is a chemical compound.
  • The chemical formula of Calcium carbonate is CaCO3.
  • Limestone is a common type of carbonate sedimentary rock.
  • It is a sedimentary rock made of calcium carbonate.
  • Limestone may contain considerable amounts of magnesium carbonate (dolomite) as well.
  • Limestone is used in the production of cement by heating powdered limestone with clay.
  • Around 71% of all crushed stone produced in the U.S. is either limestone or dolomite.

Additional Information

  • Washing soda is sodium carbonate containing 10 molecules of water of crystallisation(Na2CO3.10H2O).
  • Sodium hydrogen carbonate is the chemical name of baking soda(NaHCO3).
  • Table salt consists of two elements, sodium (Na) and chloride (Cl).

Question 479

DSSSB Junior Assistant (LDC) 2025• General Awareness 1

Which of the following schemes focuses on rural employment?

  1. AOption (a)

    MNREGA

  2. BOption (b)

    Swachh Bharat Mission

  3. COption (c)

    Digital India

  4. DOption (d)

    GST

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

MNREGA

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is MNREGA.

Key Points

  • Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MNREGA) is a flagship scheme by the Government of India aimed at providing guaranteed 100 days of wage employment per financial year to rural households.
  • It was launched in 2005 under the Ministry of Rural Development.
  • The scheme is demand-driven, meaning employment is provided upon request, ensuring work opportunities for rural households.
  • Under MNREGA, employment is provided for unskilled manual labor, focusing primarily on building rural infrastructure such as roads, irrigation facilities, and water conservation structures.
  • The scheme plays a critical role in poverty alleviation, rural development, and empowering marginalized communities, including women and Scheduled Castes/Tribes.

Additional Information

  • Key Features of MNREGA:
  • Focuses on sustainable development and asset creation such as water conservation and afforestation.
  • Wages are paid according to minimum wage rates as notified by the state government.
  • Payment is made through direct benefit transfer (DBT) into workers' bank accounts to ensure transparency.
  • Employment Guarantee:
  • MNREGA ensures legal entitlements for rural households to demand work.
  • If employment is not provided within 15 days of demand, workers are entitled to unemployment allowance.
  • Social Impact:
  • Empowers women by providing equal wage opportunities and increased participation in the workforce.
  • Promotes financial inclusion by providing work opportunities and wages directly to rural households.
  • Monitoring and Implementation:
  • Implemented by Gram Panchayats, ensuring local governance and accountability.
  • Regular social audits are conducted to ensure transparency and prevent corruption.

Question 480

DSSSB Junior Assistant (LDC) 2025• General Awareness 1

Statutory grants to states by the Union government, under Article 275 of the Constitution, are primarily recommended by which body?

  1. AOption (a)

    National Development Council

  2. BOption (b)

    Finance Commission 

  3. COption (c)

    Ministry of Finance

  4. DOption (d)

    NITI Aayog

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Finance Commission 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Finance Commission.

Key Points

  • The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution to recommend financial relations between the Union and the States.
  • Under Article 275, the Finance Commission recommends statutory grants to states to ensure balanced regional development and mitigate disparities.
  • These grants are given to states that require financial assistance to meet specific needs, such as social welfare, infrastructure development, or education.
  • The Finance Commission submits its recommendations to the President, which are then tabled in Parliament for implementation.
  • The grants are unconditional and are intended to supplement the resources of the states to enable them to perform their constitutional responsibilities.

Additional Information

  • Finance Commission:
  • Constituted every five years or earlier as deemed necessary by the President.
  • Composed of a Chairperson and four other members with expertise in public finance and governance.
  • The 15th Finance Commission, chaired by N.K. Singh, submitted its report for 2021-26.
  • Article 275:
  • Empowers Parliament to make grants-in-aid to states, as recommended by the Finance Commission.
  • These grants aim to promote the welfare of Scheduled Tribes and develop their areas.
  • Role of the Ministry of Finance:
  • Although the Finance Commission makes recommendations, the Ministry of Finance oversees the disbursement of grants to states.
  • It ensures that funds are allocated as per constitutional provisions and Commission recommendations.
  • Difference from NITI Aayog:
  • NITI Aayog focuses on policy formulation and cooperative federalism, while the Finance Commission deals with financial resource allocation.
  • NITI Aayog does not have a constitutional mandate to recommend statutory grants.