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The correct answer is 61.

Key Points

• Article 61 of the Indian Constitution prescribes the specific procedure for the impeachment of the President of India.
• The President can be removed from office only on the grounds of violation of the Constitution, although the Constitution does not define the exact meaning of this phrase.
• The impeachment process is a quasi-judicial procedure that can be initiated in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha).
• The charges must be contained in a resolution moved after at least 14 days notice in writing, signed by not less than one-fourth of the total number of members of the House.
• The resolution must be passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House in which it was originated.
• The other House then investigates the charges or causes the charges to be investigated, during which the President has the right to appear and to be represented.
• If, as a result of the investigation, a resolution is passed by the investigating House by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership, the President stands removed from office.

 Additional Information

• Article 63 and Article 64:
• Article 63 declares that 'There shall be a Vice-President of India', establishing the second-highest constitutional office in the country.
• Article 64 specifies that the Vice-President shall be the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and shall not hold any other office of profit.
• Article 62:
• This article deals with the time of holding an election to fill a vacancy in the office of the President.
• It mandates that an election to fill a vacancy caused by the expiration of the term must be completed before the term expires.
• Vacancies caused by death, resignation, or removal must be filled within six months.
• Article 52:
• States that there shall be a President of India, who is the formal head of the executive, legislature, and judiciary.

The correct answer is Article 14.

Key Points

• Article 14 of the Indian Constitution provides that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
• The concept of equality before the law is of British origin and represents a negative concept, implying the absence of special privileges and the equal subjection of all citizens to the ordinary law of the land.
• The concept of equal protection of the laws is derived from the Constitution of the United States and is a positive concept, ensuring the equality of treatment under equal circumstances in terms of both privileges conferred and liabilities imposed.
• This fundamental right is available to all persons, whether they are citizens or foreigners, and includes legal persons such as statutory corporations, companies, or registered societies.
• The Supreme Court of India has declared that the Rule of Law embodied in Article 14 is a basic feature of the Constitution; hence, it cannot be destroyed even by an amendment under Article 368.

 Additional Information

• Article 15
• Prohibits discrimination by the State against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
• It allows for special provisions for women, children, and socially and educationally backward classes.
• Article 21
• Guarantees the Protection of Life and Personal Liberty, stating that no person shall be deprived of their life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.
• The Maneka Gandhi case (1978) expanded its scope to include the Right to live with human dignity.
• Article 32
• Provides the Right to Constitutional Remedies, allowing citizens to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described this article as the 'Heart and Soul' of the Indian Constitution.

The correct answer is Second Schedule.

Key Points

• According to Article 75(6) of the Indian Constitution, the salaries and allowances of Union Ministers shall be such as Parliament may from time to time by law determine.
• The Constitution specifies that until Parliament determines these salaries through legislation, they shall be governed by the provisions laid down in the Second Schedule.
• A corresponding provision exists for Ministers of States under Article 164(5), where the State Legislature is empowered to determine salaries, defaulting to the Second Schedule in the interim.
• The Second Schedule contains provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, and privileges of high-ranking officials, including the President, Governors, Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, and Judges of the Supreme Court.
• To formalize these payments, the Parliament enacted the Salaries and Allowances of Ministers Act, 1952, which has been amended periodically to reflect economic changes.

 Additional Information

• Third Schedule
• This schedule contains the forms of Oaths or Affirmations for various constitutional posts, including Union Ministers, Members of Parliament, and Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
• It ensures that officials swear to uphold the Sovereignty and Integrity of India before assuming office.
• Fourth Schedule
• It details the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) to the various States and Union Territories.
• The allocation is primarily based on the population of each state to ensure proportional representation in the Upper House.
• Fifth Schedule
• This schedule deals with the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
• It empowers the Governor of a state to make regulations for the peace and good government of such areas.

The correct answer is RailTel.

Key Points

• RailTel Corporation of India Limited is a Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) that was officially incorporated on September 26, 2000, under the Ministry of Railways.
• The primary mandate of the organization is to modernize the train control, operation, and safety systems of the Indian Railways by establishing a state-of-the-art telecommunication infrastructure.
• The corporation utilizes the Right of Way (RoW) along the vast Indian Railways network to lay an extensive Optical Fiber Cable (OFC) network, which serves as the backbone for railway communications.
• It was established to facilitate the transition from traditional communication methods to a nationwide broadband and multimedia network, ensuring high-speed data transfer for critical rail operations.
• Currently, RailTel is recognized as a Miniratna (Category-I) Central Public Sector Enterprise, highlighting its operational efficiency and profitability within the government sector.

 Additional Information

• Telecommunication Entities:
• Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL): While also incorporated in the year 2000 (specifically on October 1^st), BSNL was formed to provide general public telecommunication services across India (excluding Delhi and Mumbai) rather than focusing specifically on railway safety and train control.
• Vodafone and Airtel: These are private sector telecommunication giants. Airtel (Bharti Airtel) was founded in 1995, and Vodafone (now Vi after merging with Idea) operates as a commercial service provider for the retail and enterprise segments, independent of the Ministry of Railways infrastructure.
• RailTel Services and Infrastructure:
• Network Reach: The organization has laid over 61,000 route kilometers of OFC and covers major urban and rural areas, including several remote locations in the North East.
• RailWire: This is RailTel’s retail broadband service which provides high-speed Wi-Fi connectivity to passengers at more than 6,100 railway stations across the country.
• Significance: Beyond railways, it contributes to the National Knowledge Network (NKN) and BharatNet projects, supporting the Digital India mission.

The correct answer is 24.

Key Points

• The Departmentally Related Standing Committees (DRSCs) were first inaugurated in 1993 based on the recommendation of the Rules Committee of the Lok Sabha to ensure better parliamentary control over the executive.
• Initially, there were 17 such committees established in April 1993. However, the system was restructured and expanded on July 31, 2004, increasing the total number of committees to 24.
• These 24 committees currently cover all the Ministries and Departments of the Government of India, ensuring that every administrative unit is subject to legislative oversight.
• Each Standing Committee consists of 31 members, where 21 members are nominated by the Speaker from the Lok Sabha and 10 members are nominated by the Chairman from the Rajya Sabha.
• The primary objective of these committees is to secure the accountability of the Executive (Council of Ministers) to the Parliament, particularly in financial and administrative matters.

 Additional Information

• Institutional Division:
• Out of the 24 DRSCs, 8 committees function under the direction of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
• The remaining 16 committees function under the direction of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
• Core Functions:
• They examine the Demands for Grants of the respective ministries before the budget is voted upon in the Parliament.
• They scrutinize Bills and Annual Reports of the concerned ministries to ensure transparency and efficiency.
• They do not consider matters of day-to-day administration of the ministries.
• Membership Rules:
• The term of office for the members of these committees is one year from the date of constitution.
• A Minister cannot be nominated as a member of any Standing Committee. If a member is appointed as a Minister, they cease to be a member of the committee from that date.

The correct answer is Heating food and cooling it quickly to destroy many germs.

Key Points

• Pasteurization is a specialized heat-treatment process used to eliminate or reduce the population of pathogenic microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, and molds in food and beverages.
• The process was pioneered by the French scientist Louis Pasteur in 1864, initially to prevent the souring of wine and beer by killing spoilage-causing microbes.
• The fundamental mechanism involves heating a liquid (most commonly milk) to a specific temperature for a predetermined length of time and then cooling it rapidly to prevent the survival of heat-sensitive germs.
• Commonly used methods include High-Temperature Short-Time (HTST) pasteurization, where milk is heated to 71.7°C (161°F) for approximately 15 to 20 seconds, followed by immediate cooling to 4°C.
• Another method is Low-Temperature Long-Time (LTLT), or batch pasteurization, which involves heating the product to 63°C (145°F) for 30 minutes.
• This process is effective against major foodborne pathogens like Salmonella, Escherichia coli (E. coli), Listeria monocytogenes, and Mycobacterium tuberculosis, significantly enhancing public health safety.

 Additional Information

• Other Preservation Methods:
• Dehydration (Drying): This method involves removing the moisture content from food to inhibit the growth of enzymes and bacteria that require water to survive.
• High Sugar Concentration: This preservation technique uses osmotic pressure; high levels of sugar (as seen in jams or jellies) draw water out of microbial cells, leading to plasmolysis and preventing microbial reproduction.
• Ultra-High Temperature (UHT): A more intense form of heat treatment where milk is heated to 135–150°C for 1 to 2 seconds, allowing the product to be stored without refrigeration for several months in sterile packaging.
• Sterilization: Unlike pasteurization, which targets pathogens, sterilization aims to destroy all living microorganisms, including bacterial spores, making the food shelf-stable.

The correct answer is Sun god.

Key Points

• Pongal is a prominent harvest festival celebrated primarily in the state of Tamil Nadu and by the Tamil diaspora worldwide.
• The festival is dedicated to the Sun god (also known as Surya or Surya Bhagavan) to thank him for providing the energy required for a successful agricultural harvest and the sustenance of life on Earth.
• It typically occurs in the middle of January, coinciding with the Tamil month of Thai, marking the start of Uttarayan, the Sun's six-month-long journey northward.
• The word 'Pongal' literally translates to 'boiling over' or 'spilling over', referring to the traditional ritual of boiling freshly harvested rice with milk and jaggery in a pot until it overflows, symbolizing abundance and prosperity.
• The main celebration happens on the second day, known as Surya Pongal, where the prepared dish is offered to the Sun god in an open space or courtyard.

 Additional Information

• The festival is celebrated over four distinct days, each with specific significance:
• Bhogi Pongal: The first day dedicated to Lord Indra, the god of rain, where old household items are discarded in a ritual bonfire.
• Maatu Pongal: The third day dedicated to cattle, particularly cows and bulls, which are essential for farming and plowing.
• Kaanum Pongal: The final day focused on family reunions, community gatherings, and social visits.
• The other deities mentioned in the options are associated with different festivals:
• Lord Shiva is the primary deity of Maha Shivaratri.
• Goddess Lakshmi is central to the worship during Diwali (the festival of lights) and Varalakshmi Vratam.
• Lord Hanuman is worshipped during Hanuman Jayanti.
• Pongal corresponds to other regional harvest festivals in India, such as Makar Sankranti in North India, Bihu in Assam, and Lohri in Punjab.

The correct answer is 42^nd amendment.

Key Points

• The Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Indian Constitution based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee, which was constituted by the government in 1976.
• The 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, added a completely new part to the Constitution, namely Part IV-A, consisting of only one article, Article 51A.
• Originally, ten fundamental duties were listed to remind citizens that while enjoying their rights, they also have certain social obligations to fulfill.
• These duties are inspired by the Constitution of the erstwhile USSR, making India one of the few democratic nations to have a specific list of duties for its citizens.
• Fundamental duties are non-justiciable, meaning there is no direct legal provision for their enforcement by the courts, although Parliament is free to enforce them through suitable legislation.

 Additional Information

• 86^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002:
• This amendment introduced the 11^th Fundamental Duty, which mandates that a parent or guardian provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of 6 and 14 years.
• 44^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978:
• Enacted by the Janata Government, this act primarily aimed to undo the distortions introduced by the 42^nd Amendment and notably removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights.
• 24^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971:
• This act affirmed the power of Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution, including Part III (Fundamental Rights), and made it compulsory for the President to give assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill.
• 38^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975:
• It made the declaration of Emergency by the President non-justiciable and barred the judicial review of Ordinances promulgated by the President or Governors.

The correct answer is Central Highlands and Deccan Plateau.

Key Points

• The Peninsular Plateau is a tableland composed of old crystalline, igneous, and metamorphic rocks, formed by the breaking and drifting of the Gondwana land, making it one of the oldest landmasses on Earth.
• It is broadly divided into two major divisions: the Central Highlands and the Deccan Plateau, separated primarily by the Narmada river valley.
• The Central Highlands refer to the portion of the plateau lying to the north of the Narmada river, covering a major area of the Malwa plateau. It is bounded by the Vindhya range on the south and the Aravalis on the northwest.
• The Deccan Plateau is a triangular landmass situated to the south of the Narmada river. Its broad base is formed by the Satpura range in the north, while the Mahadev, Kaimur hills, and Maikal range form its eastern extensions.
• The plateau is characterized by broad and shallow valleys and rounded hills, with a general slope from the west to the east, as evidenced by the flow of major rivers.

 Additional Information

• Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats
• The Western Ghats mark the western edge of the Deccan Plateau and are higher and continuous, with peaks like Anaimudi reaching 2,695 meters.
• The Eastern Ghats mark the eastern edge, stretching from the Mahanadi Valley to the Nilgiris, and are lower and discontinuous due to river erosion.
• Coastal Plains
• The Western Coastal Plain is a narrow strip between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea, including the Konkan and Malabar coasts.
• The Eastern Coastal Plain is wider and situated along the Bay of Bengal, featuring large deltas formed by the Mahanadi, Godavari, and Cauvery.
• Deccan Trap
• This is the black soil region of the Peninsular plateau, formed by volcanic activity (basaltic rocks), making it highly suitable for cotton cultivation.

The correct answer is Kalpakkam.

Key Points

• The Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS), located at Kalpakkam in Tamil Nadu, is established as Indias third nuclear power station.
• It is distinguished as Indias first nuclear power plant to be constructed and designed completely indigenously, demonstrating the countrys capability to build complex nuclear infrastructure without foreign assistance.
• The station was commissioned in 1984, following the operationalization of the Tarapur Atomic Power Station (1969) and the Rajasthan Atomic Power Station (1973).
• The facility operates two Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs), which utilize natural uranium as fuel and heavy water as both a coolant and a moderator.
• The plant is managed and operated by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL), a public sector enterprise under the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE).

 Additional Information

• Tarapur Atomic Power Station:
• Located in Palghar, Maharashtra, it is Indias first nuclear power station, commissioned on October 28, 1969.
• It was initially built with technical assistance from the United States using Boiling Water Reactors (BWRs).
• Narora Atomic Power Station:
• Situated in the Bulandshahr district of Uttar Pradesh, this plant is recognized as Indias fourth nuclear power station.
• It commenced commercial operations in 1991 and features advanced safety systems designed for its specific seismic zone.
• Kakrapar Atomic Power Station:
• Located near Surat, Gujarat, it is the fifth nuclear power station in the country, with its first unit commissioned in 1993.
• It recently made headlines for hosting Indias first indigenous 700 MWe unit, a significant upgrade in power generation capacity.