Search Previous Year Questions

The correct answer is 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b.

Key Points

• Puga Geothermal Field is located in the Puga Valley of the Ladakh Union Territory, known for its high-temperature springs and potential for large-scale geothermal power generation. Hence, Puga matches with Ladakh.
• Cambay province refers to the Cambay Graben in Gujarat, a region characterized by high heat flow and geothermal gradients linked to the Deccan Traps volcanism. Hence, Cambay matches with Gujarat.
• SONATA stands for the Son-Narmada-Tapti lineament, a major geological structure spanning central India; in the context of geothermal provinces, it is prominently associated with Madhya Pradesh. Hence, SONATA matches with Madhya Pradesh.
• Tattapani is a significant geothermal area located in the Balrampur district of Chhattisgarh, featuring several hot springs that discharge water at temperatures near the boiling point. Hence, Tattapani matches with Chhattisgarh.

 Additional Information

• Geothermal Energy in India:
• The Geological Survey of India (GSI) has identified approximately 340 hot spring localities across the country.
• India is estimated to have a geothermal potential of about 10,000 MW spread across seven major provinces.
• Key provinces include the Himalayan province, Sohana, Cambay, SONATA, West Coast, Godavari, and Mahanadi basins.
• The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) facilitates the development of these resources to achieve energy security and reduce carbon emissions.
• Geothermal energy is considered a renewable and base-load power source, meaning it provides a continuous supply of electricity regardless of weather conditions.

The correct answer is It is based on the imagined life of the Tamil Bhakti poet Andal..

Key Points

• The Queen of Jasmine Country is a historical fiction novel written by Sharanya Manivannan, published in 2018, which provides a lyrical reimagining of the life of the 9^th-century poet-saint Andal. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The novel explores the transition of a young girl named Kodhai into the mystic saint Andal, focusing on her refusal to marry a mortal man and her spiritual dedication to Lord Vishnu. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The book is an original work written in English by a Chennai-based author; it is not a translation of Malayalam fiction nor has it been cited as a winner of the Sahitya Akademi Award for that specific category. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The narrative is not a translation of a Kannada novel by Tejaswini Niranjana; it is a contemporary Indian English literary work. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• The setting of the book is Srivilliputhur in Tamil Nadu during the medieval period, specifically during the peak of the Bhakti Movement, and is not a political biography set in British Raj Bengal. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Andal (Kodhai):
• She is the only female among the twelve Alwars, the medieval Vaishnavite saints of South India who popularized Bhakti through Tamil hymns.
• She is credited with composing two seminal works of Tamil literature: the Thiruppavai (a collection of 30 stanzas) and the Nachiar Tirumozhi (143 verses).
• Her poetry is renowned for Madhura Bhakti (erotic mysticism), where she expresses her intense desire for a divine union with Lord Ranganatha.
• Sharanya Manivannan:
• She is a multifaceted writer whose works often deal with themes of femininity, mythology, and spirituality.
• In The Queen of Jasmine Country, she utilizes a first-person narrative to humanize the saint, focusing on the sensory experiences of 9^th-century South India.
• The Bhakti Movement:
• This was a significant religious revolution in Medieval India that emphasized individual devotion to a personal god, bypassing rigid caste hierarchies and rituals.
• The Alwars (Vishnu devotees) and Nayanars (Shiva devotees) in the Tamil region were the early pioneers of this movement.

The correct answer is A is not guilty, as the act was done in good faith for the child's benefit.

Key Points

• Under Section 27 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (which corresponds to Section 89 of the Indian Penal Code), nothing which is done in good faith for the benefit of a person under eighteen years of age, or of unsound mind, by or by consent of the guardian or other person having lawful charge of that person, is an offence by reason of any harm which it may cause.
• The provision explicitly protects individuals who authorize risky medical procedures if the intent is to prevent death or cure a serious disease or infirmity. In this case, 'A' is acting to cure the child of a condition that requires a risky operation.
• The law recognizes that a child (minor) is legally incapable of giving valid consent for complex medical decisions; therefore, the guardian is empowered to provide consent on their behalf to ensure the child's welfare.
• The proviso to this section clarifies that the exception does not extend to the intentional causing of death, but it does cover acts done for the purpose of preventing death or grievous hurt, even if the person knows the act is likely to cause death.

 Additional Information

• Good Faith:
• Defined in Section 2(10) of the BNS 2023, it implies that the act was done with due care and attention.
• The absence of malice and the presence of a benevolent motive are central to establishing this defense.
• General Exceptions:
• These are found in Chapter III of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
• Section 26 (BNS) covers acts done by consent in good faith for a person's benefit (formerly Section 88 IPC).
• Section 30 (BNS) addresses acts done in good faith for the benefit of a person without consent (formerly Section 92 IPC) in emergency situations where obtaining consent is impossible.
• Legal Liability:
• Options involving culpable homicide or grievous hurt are incorrect because the mens rea (guilty mind) is absent; the intention was to save the life rather than cause harm.
• The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 preserves these protections to ensure that medical professionals and guardians can take necessary life-saving risks without the fear of criminal prosecution.

The correct answer is Lachit Barphukan.

Key Points

• Lachit Borphukan was a distinguished commander and Borphukan (General) of the Ahom Kingdom in present-day Assam, who famously thwarted the Mughal Empire’s expansion under Aurangzeb.
• He is best known for his leadership in the Battle of Saraighat in 1671, which is regarded as one of the most significant naval battles ever fought on a river in India.
• The battle took place on the Brahmaputra River at Guwahati, where the Ahom army used superior knowledge of the terrain and guerrilla warfare tactics to overcome the larger Mughal fleet.
• Despite being severely ill, Lachit Barphukan inspired his soldiers by boarding a boat and leading the charge against the forces of Raja Ram Singh I, who was leading the Mughal army on behalf of the Kachwaha Dynasty of Amber.
• His strategic brilliance in using the narrow river stretch at Saraighat neutralized the Mughal advantage in cavalry and heavy artillery, resulting in a decisive victory that preserved the independence of the Ahom Kingdom.
• To honor his legacy, Lachit Divas is celebrated annually on November 24^th in Assam, and the National Defence Academy (NDA) awards the Lachit Borphukan Gold Medal to its best cadet.

 Additional Information

• Srimanta Sankardeva:
• A 15^th-16^th century polymath, saint, and social-religious reformer who founded the Neo-Vaishnavite movement in Assam.
• He introduced the Sattras (monasteries) and developed the Sattriya dance, which is now one of the eight classical dances of India.
• Rani Durgavati:
• The ruling Queen of Gondwana from 1550 to 1564, she is remembered for her heroic defense against the Mughal forces of Akbar led by Asaf Khan.
• She belonged to the Chandel Dynasty and died in battle near Jabalpur.
• Sant Tukaram:
• A prominent 17^th-century Hindu saint and poet of the Bhakti Movement in Maharashtra.
• He was part of the Varkari tradition and is celebrated for his devotional poetry known as Abhangas.

The correct answer is I, II and III all are correct.

Key Points

• Electric generators are devices that convert mechanical energy into electrical energy. They operate on the principle of electromagnetic induction, where a change in magnetic flux linked with a coil induces an electromotive force (EMF). Hence, statement I is correct.
• An AC generator (alternator) uses two full, continuous slip rings connected to the ends of the armature coil. These rings rotate with the coil and maintain constant contact with carbon brushes, allowing the induced current to change its direction periodically, producing Alternating Current. Hence, statement II is correct.
• A DC generator utilizes a split-ring commutator to ensure the output current flows in only one direction. The commutator acts as a mechanical rectifier, reversing the connections of the armature coil to the external circuit at the exact moment the current in the coil reverses. Hence, statement III is correct.

 Additional Information

• Electromagnetic Induction:
• Discovered by Michael Faraday in 1831, it forms the fundamental basis for most electrical power generation.
• The magnitude of the induced EMF is governed by Faraday's Law, which states it is directly proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux.
• The direction of the induced current in the generator's coil is determined using Fleming's Right-Hand Rule.
• Fleming's Right-Hand Rule:
• Thumb: Indicates the direction of motion of the conductor relative to the magnetic field.
• Forefinger: Points in the direction of the magnetic field (North to South).
• Middle Finger: Shows the direction of the induced current.
• Commutators vs. Slip Rings:
• Slip rings are used when a smooth, sinusoidal AC output is required, commonly found in hydroelectric and thermal power plants.
• Split rings are essential for DC motors and DC generators to maintain consistent torque or unidirectional current respectively.

The correct answer is 130.

Key Points

• The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite statistical tool used to measure a country's overall achievement in its social and economic dimensions.
• According to the data for 2025, India secured the 130^th position, reflecting its global standing in terms of human welfare and development.
• The ranking is released by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) as part of its annual Human Development Report (HDR).
• The index provides a more comprehensive view of a nation's status than GDP alone, as it integrates health and education metrics alongside economic output.
• India's rank of 130 is derived from a calculated score that considers the country's progress in expanding functional capabilities and improving the quality of life for its citizens.

 Additional Information

• Core Dimensions of HDI:
• A Long and Healthy Life: This is assessed through Life Expectancy at Birth, which indicates the average number of years a newborn is expected to live.
• Knowledge and Education: Measured by two indicators: Mean Years of Schooling for adults aged 25 and older, and Expected Years of Schooling for children entering the education system.
• A Decent Standard of Living: This is measured using Gross National Income (GNI) per capita adjusted for Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) to account for cost of living differences.
• Ranking Tiers:
• Countries are categorized into four groups based on their HDI scores: Very High, High, Medium, and Low human development.
• India typically falls within the Medium Human Development category, alongside several other emerging economies.
• The HDI value ranges from 0 to 1; a value closer to 1 signifies a higher level of human development.

The correct answer is Only 1 and 3.

Key Points

• India is one of the largest producers of cotton in the world. Statistically, India consistently ranks as the second-largest producer globally, closely following China, and it possesses the largest area under cotton cultivation in the world, accounting for approximately 25% of the total global cotton area. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Cotton is a Kharif crop that requires specific soil and moisture conditions. It thrives best in the Black Cotton Soil (also known as Regur Soil) found predominantly in the Deccan Plateau region. While it can be grown in alluvial soils, heavy rainfall is detrimental to the crop as it causes waterlogging and damages the lint; cotton needs moderate, well-distributed rainfall. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The physiological development of the cotton plant is highly sensitive to climate. It requires a warm climate with temperatures ranging between 21 and 30 degrees Celsius. Crucially, for the fiber to mature and the bolls to burst properly, the plant requires a minimum of 210 frost-free days and clear, bright sunshine during the ripening period. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

 Additional Information

• Major Cotton Producing States:
• Gujarat: Often the leading producer in India due to favorable soil and irrigation.
• Maharashtra: Has the largest area under cultivation, primarily in the Vidarbha and Marathwada regions.
• Telangana and Rajasthan: Significant contributors to the national output through both rain-fed and irrigated systems.
• Technical Aspects:
• BT Cotton: India has seen a massive adoption of genetically modified Bacillus thuringiensis (BT) cotton to resist pests like the Pink Bollworm.
• Species: India is unique for commercially cultivating all four species of cotton: Gossypium arboreum, herbaceum, hirsutum, and barbadense.
• Economic Role: The cotton sector supports the Textile Industry, which is one of the largest employers and exporters in the Indian economy.

The correct answer is Maldives.

Key Points

• The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a unique regional group that bridges South Asia and Southeast Asia, focusing on countries dependent on the Bay of Bengal.
• The organization was established on 6 June 1997 following the Bangkok Declaration, originally involving four member states under the acronym BIST-EC.
• Currently, the grouping consists of seven members: five from South Asia (Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, and Sri Lanka) and two from Southeast Asia (Myanmar and Thailand).
• Maldives is not a part of BIMSTEC; it is a member of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) and the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA).
• The BIMSTEC headquarters or Secretariat is located in Dhaka, Bangladesh.

 Additional Information

• Bangladesh:
• As a founding member, it plays a central role by hosting the permanent Secretariat and leading the Trade, Investment and Development sector within the organization.
• Myanmar:
• It officially joined the group on 22 December 1997, adding a critical geographical link to the ASEAN region and contributing to energy and agriculture cooperation.
• Bhutan:
• It became a member in 2004, focusing its efforts on environment and climate change initiatives to leverage collective regional support for its landlocked economy.

The correct answer is A-2, B-3, C-1.

Key Points

• The GDP Deflator is a comprehensive measure of inflation that tracks the prices of all newly produced, domestic, final goods and services in an economy, serving as a more comprehensive indicator than consumer-specific indices. Hence, A matches with 2.
• Inflation is defined as a sustained and persistent increase in the general price levels of commodities over a specific period, which results in the erosion of the purchasing power of a currency. Hence, B matches with 3.
• Demand Forecasting is a strategic management process that uses historical data and analytical models to predict future customer requirements, acting as an anticipatory tool for effective resource and production planning. Hence, C matches with 1.

 Additional Information

• Economic Indicators and Tools:
• The GDP Deflator is calculated using the formula: (Nominal GDP / Real GDP) × 100. Unlike the Consumer Price Index (CPI), it is not restricted to a fixed basket of goods and reflects current consumption patterns.
• Inflation can be categorized into Demand-Pull Inflation (rising demand) and Cost-Push Inflation (rising input costs). In India, it is primarily monitored through the CPI and Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
• Demand Forecasting techniques include Qualitative Methods (like the Delphi Method and Market Surveys) and Quantitative Methods (like Time Series Analysis and Regression models). It is essential for minimizing inventory costs and optimizing the supply chain.
• The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) in India is responsible for releasing data related to GDP and national accounts.

The correct answer is Integrating with world economy.

Key Points

• Globalisation in the Indian context refers to the process of opening up the domestic economy to the rest of the world, fostering economic integration and interdependence.
• It was a vital pillar of the 1991 New Economic Policy (NEP), launched by the government of P.V. Narasimha Rao and then Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh.
• The primary objective was to overcome the Balance of Payments (BoP) crisis by encouraging the free flow of goods, services, capital, and technology across international borders.
• Key measures included the significant reduction of customs duties and the removal of quantitative restrictions (quotas) on imports to facilitate international trade.
• It aimed to make Indian industries globally competitive by allowing them to access foreign raw materials, capital goods, and advanced technical expertise.
• Globalisation also involved making the Indian Rupee partially convertible on the current account to streamline international transactions.

 Additional Information

• LPG Reforms:
• Liberalisation: Replaced the restrictive License Raj with a deregulated environment, allowing private businesses to expand without excessive government interference.
• Privatisation: Involved disinvestment in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs), transferring management and ownership to the private sector to improve efficiency.
• Incorrect Concepts:
• Import Duties: Rather than increasing them, the reforms focused on lowering tariffs to align Indian prices with global market rates.
• Foreign Direct Investment (FDI): The policy actively sought to increase FDI and Foreign Institutional Investment (FII) inflows by relaxing equity caps in sectors like telecommunications and insurance.
• Foreign Banks: Globalisation encouraged the entry of foreign banks and the expansion of private sector banking to modernize the financial system.
• Legislative Changes: The government replaced the rigid Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) with the more flexible Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) in 1999 to support the globalised economic framework.