Search Previous Year Questions

The correct answer is Panchkula, Haryana.

Key Points

• The 63^rd National Inter-State Senior Athletics Championships were held at the Tau Devi Lal Stadium in Panchkula, Haryana.
• The four-day event took place from June 27 to June 30, 2024, and was organized by the Athletics Federation of India (AFI).
• This competition served as the final domestic qualifying event for Indian athletes to secure their spots for the Paris 2024 Olympics.
• The meet featured several high-stakes events across track and field categories, attracting the nation's elite athletes seeking to meet the World Athletics qualification standards before the June 30 deadline.

 Additional Information

• Athletics Federation of India (AFI):
• It is the apex body for athletics in India, headquartered in New Delhi and founded in 1946.
• The AFI is responsible for organizing national championships and managing Indian athletics' participation in international events like the Asian Games and Olympics.
• Olympic Qualification Highlights:
• During the 2024 Panchkula meet, Kiran Pahal made headlines by qualifying for the women's 400m race with a time of 50.92 seconds.
• The event was critical for relay teams and individual athletes to improve their World Athletics Road to Paris rankings.
• Venue Significance:
• The Tau Devi Lal Stadium is a multi-sport complex that previously hosted the Khelo India Youth Games in 2022, establishing Panchkula as a prominent sports hub in North India.

The correct answer is A is false, but R is true.

Key Points

• The National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) is an autonomous body established by the Government of India to ensure a dope-free sports environment. It functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, not the Ministry of Education. Hence, assertion A is incorrect.
• The primary objective of NADA is to implement anti-doping rules and policies that conform to the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) code. It is responsible for regulating drug testing, monitoring anti-doping measures, and promoting education and research regarding the prohibited use of performance-enhancing drugs in Indian sports. Hence, reason R is correct.

 Additional Information

• National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA):
• It was established on November 24, 2005, and is registered under the Societies Registration Act of 1860.
• The agency is tasked with sample collection (both blood and urine) from athletes during in-competition and out-of-competition periods.
• It works in coordination with the National Dope Testing Laboratory (NDTL), which is responsible for the analytical testing of the samples.
• The NADA India App was launched to provide athletes with a comprehensive list of prohibited substances to prevent accidental doping.
• World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA):
• Founded in 1999 and headquartered in Montreal, Canada, it sets the global standards for anti-doping regulations through the World Anti-Doping Code.

The correct answer is Chandragupta Maurya.

Key Points

• Chandragupta Maurya established the Maurya Empire in 322 BCE, which is historically recognized as the first major pan-Indian empire that unified most of the Indian subcontinent.
• With the strategic assistance of his mentor and prime minister, Chanakya (also known as Kautilya), he successfully overthrew the Nanda Dynasty by defeating its last ruler, Dhana Nanda.
• His military campaigns led to the expansion of his territory from the Indo-Gangetic Plain to the North-West frontier, covering regions up to the Hindu Kush mountains in modern-day Afghanistan.
• In 305 BCE, he successfully defeated Seleucus I Nicator, a former general of Alexander the Great, leading to a peace treaty that ceded territories like Arachosia (Kandahar) and Gedrosia (Balochistan) to the Mauryan state.
• The Greek diplomat Megasthenes was sent to his court at Pataliputra, where he authored the famous work Indica, providing a detailed account of the socio-political and administrative structure of the empire.
• According to historical and religious traditions, he eventually abdicated the throne in favor of his son Bindusara, embraced Jainism under the influence of the monk Bhadrabahu, and retired to Shravanabelagola.

 Additional Information

• Ashoka:
• He was the grandson of Chandragupta Maurya and the third ruler of the dynasty, famous for the Kalinga War in 261 BCE.
• Following the bloodshed of the war, he converted to Buddhism and popularized the concept of Dhamma through his numerous Rock Edicts and Pillar Inscriptions.
• Kanishka:
• He was the most prominent ruler of the Kushan Empire, reigning during the 2^nd century CE.
• He is noted for convening the Fourth Buddhist Council in Kashmir and initiating the Saka Era in 78 CE.
• Samudragupta:
• A powerful ruler of the Gupta Empire, he is often termed the Napoleon of India by historian V.A. Smith.
• His conquests and personality are detailed in the Prayag Prashasti, an inscription composed by his court poet Harisena.

The correct answer is PM2.5.

Key Points

• PM2.5 refers to fine Particulate Matter with a diameter of less than 2.5 micrometers, which is small enough to enter the alveoli of the lungs and the bloodstream.
• In Delhi, particularly during the winter months like January 2025, PM2.5 is the dominant pollutant that dictates the Air Quality Index (AQI) category due to its high concentration.
• The high levels of PM2.5 in the National Capital Region (NCR) are attributed to vehicular emissions, industrial smoke, and the persistence of secondary inorganic aerosols under low-temperature conditions.
• Meteorological factors such as low wind speed and temperature inversion prevent the dispersion of these fine particles, leading to 'Severe' or 'Severe Plus' air quality ratings as defined by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).
• While the AQI is calculated based on eight pollutants, the index value is usually determined by the lead pollutant, which in Delhi's winter is almost exclusively PM2.5.

 Additional Information

• AQI Pollutants:
• PM10: These are coarser particles up to 10 micrometers in size, often originating from construction dust and mechanical grinding.
• Sulphur Dioxide (SO2): Primarily emitted from thermal power plants and metal smelting; it is a precursor to acid rain but rarely the primary driver of Delhi's AQI.
• Ozone (O3): A secondary pollutant formed by the reaction of NOx and VOCs in the presence of sunlight; it is more problematic during the summer months.
• Regulatory Framework:
• National Air Quality Index: Launched in October 2014, it comprises six categories ranging from 'Good' to 'Severe'.
• GRAP: The Graded Response Action Plan is a set of emergency measures implemented by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) based on pollution severity.

The correct answer is Deemed permission.

Key Points

• The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, which replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), was implemented across India on July 1, 2024.
• Under the new legal framework, specifically under Section 218 of the BNSS, a time-bound mechanism has been introduced for the sanction of prosecution of public servants and police officers.
• The law stipulates that the Competent Authority (either the Central or State Government) must decide on the request for prosecution within a period of 120 days from the date of receipt of the proposal.
• If the government fails to provide a decision or communicate its refusal within this stipulated 120-day window, the permission is legally presumed to have been granted. This legal provision is termed Deemed Permission.
• This reform aims to eliminate the long-standing issue of administrative delays that often protected corrupt or erring officials from legal accountability for years under the previous CrPC regime.

 Additional Information

• Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) Context:
• The BNSS was enacted to modernize the criminal justice system, focusing on victim-centric justice and the integration of technology in investigations.
• The Section 218 provision specifically targets Section 197 of the CrPC equivalent, ensuring that official immunity does not lead to impunity.
• This provision is particularly relevant for offenses committed by public servants while acting or purporting to act in the discharge of their official duties.
• The implementation of Deemed Permission aligns with various Supreme Court observations regarding the necessity of speedy trials and the removal of hurdles in the cognizance of offenses involving corruption or misuse of power.

Seven persons – P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V – are sitting in a row facing North.

1. S sits 3^rd to the left of T.

2. Only one person sits between Q and R.

3. U is to the immediate right of R.

4. P is not at any end.

T is sitting exactly in the middle.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Given Word**: FUTURE**

The new word formed is GTUTSD.

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 2”.

The pattern observed is: √(First number) = Second number.

For 16 : 4 →

 √16 = 4

Similarly, for the second pair

For 81 : ? →

√81 = 9

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 3”.

1. Ink is the primary material required for writing, which is contained within a Pen.
2. A Pen is the tool used to write or record information on Paper.
3. A collection of printed or written Paper sheets bound together forms a Book.
4. After the Book is created, it is intended for the consumption of the Reader.

The sequence follows:

Ink → Pen → Paper → Book → Reader

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.

Pattern followed here is,

Hence, the correct answer is “Option 1”.