Search Previous Year Questions

The correct answer is Mosquito repellant creams provide a physical barrier preventing mosquitoes from biting by forming a thick layer on the skin..

Key Points

• DEET (N,N-Diethyl-meta-toluamide) is the most common active ingredient in repellents; it works by binding to odorant-binding proteins and olfactory receptors in mosquitoes, confusing their ability to detect human attractants like carbon dioxide and lactic acid. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Repellent creams do not act as a mechanical or physical barrier like a suit of armor; instead, they function biochemically by creating a vapor zone that deters insects or masks the host. The thickness of the application does not prevent bites through physical obstruction. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Natural repellents, such as citronella oil, lemon eucalyptus, and neem oil, are volatile organic compounds that mask human scents. They disrupt the mosquito's chemotaxis, making it difficult for the insect to lock onto a target. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• The duration of protection is influenced by the concentration of the active ingredient, the formulation type (aerosol vs. cream), and environmental variables such as ambient temperature, wind speed, and the user's perspiration rate. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

 Additional Information

• Chemical Repellents:
• Picaridin: A synthetic compound resembling the natural compound piperine found in plants that produce black pepper; it is effective against various arthropods.
• IR3535: A synthetic amino acid derivative that is structurally similar to the naturally occurring amino acid beta-alanine.
• Biological Mechanisms:
• Mosquitoes use sensilla located on their antennae and maxillary palps to detect chemical signatures.
• Kairomones: These are the chemical signals emitted by humans that mosquitoes track to find blood meals.
• Permethrin: Unlike skin-applied creams, this is a contact insecticide used on fabrics that kills mosquitoes upon contact.

The correct answer is Sundar Pichai.

Key Points

• Sundar Pichai, born in Madurai, Tamil Nadu, is the Chief Executive Officer of Alphabet Inc. and its subsidiary Google.
• He earned his degree from IIT Kharagpur in Metallurgical Engineering before pursuing an M.S. from Stanford University and an MBA from the Wharton School of the University of Pennsylvania.
• Joining Google in 2004, he played a critical role in the development of the Google Chrome browser and overseen the Android operating system's growth.
• He was appointed CEO of Google in 2015 and later became the CEO of Alphabet Inc. in 2019, following the reorganization of the company.
• Under his guidance, Google has transitioned to an AI-first company, launching advanced Large Language Models (LLMs) like Gemini and integrating Artificial Intelligence across its global product ecosystem.

 Additional Information

• Satya Nadella:
• He serves as the Executive Chairman and CEO of Microsoft, taking over in 2014.
• He is widely credited with shifting Microsoft's focus toward Cloud Computing and the Azure platform.
• Arvind Krishna:
• He is the Chairman and CEO of IBM (International Business Machines Corporation).
• He was the principal architect of the Red Hat acquisition, the largest in IBM's history, focusing on Hybrid Cloud technology.
• Parag Agrawal:
• An Indian-origin executive who served as the CEO of Twitter from November 2021 until the company was acquired by Elon Musk in October 2022.
• He previously held the position of Chief Technology Officer (CTO) at the social media giant.

The correct answer is Focus on Bay of Bengal regional cooperation.

Key Points

• BIMSTEC acts as a natural platform to fulfill India's primary foreign policy objectives, specifically the Act East Policy and Neighborhood First Policy, by linking South Asian and Southeast Asian economies.
• The Bay of Bengal is a geostrategically vital maritime zone, housing roughly 22% of the world population, making regional cooperation essential for India’s maritime security and blue economy interests.
• India has shifted its focus to BIMSTEC as a more viable alternative for regional integration due to the persistent stagnation of SAARC, caused largely by bilateral tensions and cross-border terrorism.
• The organization facilitates the development of India's North-Eastern states by promoting connectivity projects that provide landlocked areas access to Bay of Bengal ports via Bangladesh and Myanmar.
• India leads the Security pillar within BIMSTEC, which includes cooperation on counter-terrorism, transnational crime, and disaster management, reinforcing India's role as a Net Security Provider in the Indian Ocean Region.

 Additional Information

• BIMSTEC Foundation and Membership:
• Established on June 6, 1997, through the Bangkok Declaration.
• It comprises seven members: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand.
• The Secretariat is located in Dhaka, Bangladesh.
• Strategic Infrastructure Projects:
• The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project connects the eastern Indian seaport of Kolkata with Sittwe seaport in Myanmar.
• The India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway is a landmark project aimed at boosting land connectivity and trade with ASEAN nations.
• Economic Significance:
• Member states have a combined GDP of over 3.5 trillion USD.
• The proposed BIMSTEC Free Trade Area (FTA) aims to enhance intra-regional trade by reducing tariff and non-tariff barriers.

The correct answer is Bombay.

Key Points

• In 1924, the first multi-sport event in India was organized under the Olympic format, known then as the Indian Olympic Games. This event was critical for aligning Indian sports with the standards set by the International Olympic Committee (IOC).
• The city of Bombay served as the administrative and organizational heart of this movement, led by influential figures like Sir Dorabji Tata and Dr. A.G. Noehren, who sought to professionalize Indian athletics.
• The primary objective of the 1924 games was to identify and select talented athletes to represent India at the Paris 1924 Summer Olympics, marking a significant milestone in India's participation in global sports.
• The success of this event influenced the future sports structure by necessitating a permanent governing body, which eventually led to the official formation of the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) in 1927.
• This structure facilitated the transition of these games into what we now recognize as the National Games of India, a name officially adopted during the 9^th edition held in 1940.

 Additional Information

• Lahore:
• While the organizational impetus came from the Bombay Olympic Association, early editions of the All-India Olympic Games were also hosted in Lahore, making it a key historical site for pre-independence sports.
• Delhi:
• The capital city later became a pivotal hub for international sports, famously hosting the inaugural Asian Games in 1951 and several subsequent editions of the National Games.
• Kolkata:
• Known as the sports capital of India, it hosted the games in 1938 and has consistently been a major center for the development of football and track-and-field events.
• Sir Dorabji Tata:
• As the founding President of the IOA, his personal funding and vision were instrumental in sending the first organized Indian contingent to the 1920 Antwerp Olympics, three years before the formal national structure was established.

The correct answer is 1980.

Key Points

• The Indian women's hockey team made its historic debut at the Olympic Games in 1980, held in Moscow, Soviet Union.
• The 1980 Moscow Olympics was a landmark event as it featured the inaugural competition for women's field hockey in the history of the Summer Olympics.
• The Indian squad was led by captain Rupa Saini and delivered a commendable performance by finishing fourth in the overall standings among the six competing nations.
• The tournament followed a round-robin format where India competed against Zimbabwe, Czechoslovakia, the Soviet Union, Austria, and Poland.
• Although they narrowly missed a podium finish, this qualification established the foundation for women's field hockey in the Indian sporting landscape.

 Additional Information

• Evolution of the Indian Women's Hockey Team in the Olympics:
• After the 1980 appearance, the team faced a long gap of 36 years before qualifying for the 2016 Rio Olympics.
• At the 2020 Tokyo Olympics (held in 2021), the team achieved its best modern-day result by reaching the semi-finals for the first time.
• During the Tokyo Games, the team defeated Australia in the quarter-finals, eventually finishing fourth under the captaincy of Rani Rampal and coach Sjoerd Marijne.
• The International Hockey Federation (FIH) governs the qualification process, which has shifted from invitational formats to performance-based Olympic Qualifiers and Continental Championships.
• In the 1980 edition, Zimbabwe claimed the first-ever Gold Medal in women's Olympic hockey, a victory that remains one of the greatest upsets in the sport.

The correct answer is All of the above.

Key Points

• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) refers to the specific percentage of Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) that commercial banks are mandated to maintain as cash reserves with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). When the RBI increases the CRR, banks are required to park a larger portion of their deposits with the central bank, which directly reduces the loanable funds available for credit creation, thereby leading to a significant decrease in the money supply. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The increase in CRR acts as a part of a contractionary monetary policy or dear money policy. As the liquidity in the banking system tightens, the scarcity of funds typically pushes up the interest rates in the economy. In the framework of the money market, this tightening of credit conditions often aligns with an adjustment where the demand for money (liquidity preference) shifts or the cost of acquiring money increases. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• A higher CRR is primarily utilized as a tool to curb inflationary pressures. By reducing the liquidity available with banks and the public, it lowers aggregate demand and consumption spending. This reduction in the overall demand for goods and services helps in stabilizing the price levels and leads to a decrease in inflation. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

 Additional Information

• Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) Details:
• It is governed under the provisions of Section 42(1) of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• Banks do not receive any interest from the RBI on the amount maintained as CRR, making it a non-interest-earning asset for commercial banks.
• Unlike Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR), which can be maintained in the form of gold or government securities, CRR must be kept strictly in cash.
• The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) reviews the CRR periodically to manage price stability and support economic growth objectives.

The correct answer is They appear on the maṇḍapa roof and continue the Ajanta mural tradition.

Key Points

• The Badami Cave temples, located in the Bagalkot district of Karnataka, represent the finest examples of Chalukyan architecture and art from the 6^th century CE.
• Cave 3, popularly known as the Vishnu Cave, is the largest and most ecologically significant cave in the complex, featuring an inscription by the Chalukya King Mangalesha dated to 578 CE.
• The murals in this cave are primarily found on the soffits of the brackets and the vaulted roof of the maṇḍapa (the assembly hall), depicting various divine and courtly scenes.
• Art historians note that these paintings serve as a critical link in Indian art history, as they continue the Ajanta mural tradition while introducing a more stylized and elongated human form characteristic of the southern schools.
• The technique used at Badami is similar to the tempera or fresco-secco method seen at Ajanta, where pigments were applied over a lime plaster surface.

 Additional Information

• Chronological Context:
• The Badami Chalukyas ruled the Deccan region between the 6^th and 8^th centuries CE, long before the rise of the Imperial Cholas in the 9^th-12^th centuries.
• The Chola dynasty is famous for the Brihadisvara Temple murals, which are distinct in style and period from the Early Western Chalukyan works.
• Thematic Differences:
• While Cave 4 at Badami is dedicated to Jainism and contains images of Mahavira and other Tirthankaras, Cave 3 is exclusively Vaishnavite, focusing on incarnations such as Varaha, Narasimha, and Trivikrama.
• The murals in Cave 3 are monumental wall paintings and are not considered miniature paintings, which became a dominant style much later in Indian history during the Medieval period.

The correct answer is To monitor Earth's surface changes and ecosystem disturbances.

Key Points

• NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) is a landmark joint mission between the United States (NASA) and India (ISRO), designed to observe Earth's most complex processes.
• The primary objective is to study Earth's surface changes, specifically measuring movements as small as centimeters to monitor tectonic deformation, volcanic activity, and landslides.
• It is equipped to monitor ecosystem disturbances by tracking changes in biomass, carbon storage, and vegetation health, providing insights into the impacts of climate change.
• The mission focuses on the cryosphere, observing the movement and melting of ice sheets and glaciers in Antarctica and the Arctic to predict sea-level rise.
• NISAR utilizes a 12-day repeat cycle, mapping the entire globe consistently to provide high-resolution data for geohazards and natural resource management.

 Additional Information

• Dual-Band Radar Technology: This is the first satellite mission to use two different radar frequencies, the L-band (1.25 GHz) provided by NASA and the S-band (3.2 GHz) provided by ISRO.
• L-band SAR: Capable of penetrating thick forest canopies to study the ground beneath, essential for measuring seismic strain.
• S-band SAR: Targeted at coastal processes, soil moisture, and agricultural monitoring.
• Mission Hardware: NASA is providing the L-band SAR, a high-rate communication subsystem, and a 12-meter deployable mesh reflector; ISRO is providing the spacecraft bus, the S-band SAR, and the GSLV Mark II launch vehicle.
• Global Impact: The data will be open-access, supporting global efforts in disaster management, groundwater depletion analysis, and sustainable agriculture.
• Launch Site: The satellite is scheduled for launch from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota.

The correct answer is Heavy and Basic Industries.

Key Points

• During India's initial planning phase, specifically starting with the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961), the government adopted the Mahalanobis Model, which prioritized heavy and basic industries to foster self-reliance.
• The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 served as the blueprint for this era, granting the Public Sector a lead role in the commanding heights of the economy, including sectors like iron and steel, heavy machinery, and chemicals.
• Massive capital investments were directed toward establishing Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs), such as the Bhilai, Rourkela, and Durgapur Steel Plants, to create an industrial base for future growth.
• This strategy was rooted in Import Substitution Industrialization (ISI), aimed at reducing dependence on foreign capital goods and building a robust domestic manufacturing infrastructure.
• The growth during the 1950s to the 1980s was characterized by state-led development where basic industries provided the necessary inputs for other sectors of the national economy.

 Additional Information

• Sectoral Comparisons:
• Information Technology (IT): This sector only gained momentum after the Economic Reforms of 1991 and the subsequent globalization of the Indian economy; it was not a priority during the early planning years.
• Fast-Moving Consumer Goods (FMCG): Growth in this sector was restricted during the License Raj era (pre-1990s) as the government discouraged luxury consumption in favor of capital formation.
• Tourism and Hospitality: These were considered tertiary services and received relatively low public sector outlay compared to the primary focus on structural industrialization.
• First Five-Year Plan: Unlike the heavy industry focus of the second plan, the First Plan (1951-1956) primarily targeted agricultural development and irrigation projects.

The correct answer is Mahmud Gawan's assassination weakened the Sultanate.

Key Points

• The Bahmani Sultanate was established in 1347 by Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah (Hasan Gangu) as an independent kingdom after revolting against Muhammad bin Tughluq of the Delhi Sultanate. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Mahmud Gawan served as the Prime Minister and Vakil-us-Sultanat under three kings; his execution in 1481 due to conspiracies by rival factions (Deccanis) led to the loss of central authority and the fragmentation of the state. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The capital of the kingdom was initially established at Gulbarga (Ahsanabad) but was shifted to Bidar in 1424 during the reign of Ahmad Shah I Wali for better strategic control and climate. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• The Sun Temple at Konark was commissioned by King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty in the 13^th century, long before the Bahmani rise. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Mahmud Gawan:
• He was a brilliant administrator and military strategist who successfully captured Goa and Dabhol.
• He established the famous Madrasa of Mahmud Gawan in Bidar, which was a significant center for Islamic learning.
• He introduced administrative reforms by dividing the kingdom into eight provinces (tarafs) to curb the power of local governors.
• Decline and Legacy:
• Internal strife between Afagis (foreigners) and Deccanis (local nobles) triggered the eventual collapse.
• The empire eventually split into the five Deccan Sultanates: Adil Shahi (Bijapur), Nizam Shahi (Ahmednagar), Imad Shahi (Berar), Qutb Shahi (Golconda), and Barid Shahi (Bidar).