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Question 541

Delhi Police Head Constable 2025• General Awareness

Read the following statements about the Gangetic River Dolphin and choose the correct option:

Statement 1: India has conducted its first-ever "Ganges River Dolphin tagging project" in Assam.

Statement 2: These dolphins can live in both rivers and oceans.

Statement 3: Most of the world's Ganges dolphins are found in India.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 and 2 are correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1 and 3 are correct

  3. COption (c)

    Only 2 and 3 are correct

  4. DOption (d)

    1,2, and 3 all are correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only 1 and 3 are correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only 1 and 3 are correct.

Key Points

  • Statement 1 describes a significant conservation milestone where the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) and the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) launched the first-ever satellite tagging project for the Ganges River Dolphin in the Kuli River, a tributary of the Brahmaputra in Assam. This initiative aims to track movement patterns and health in real-time. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Statement 2 suggests that these mammals can inhabit both freshwater and marine environments; however, the Ganges River Dolphin is an obligate freshwater species. They lack the salt-excreting glands required to survive in oceans and are biologically restricted to the river systems of the Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu basins. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Statement 3 is accurate as India is home to approximately 80% of the global population of this species, with significant numbers found in the states of Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and West Bengal. It is the primary stronghold for their survival compared to neighboring Bangladesh or Nepal. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

 Additional Information

  • Conservation Status and Biology:
  • The Ganges River Dolphin (Platanista gangetica) was recognized as the National Aquatic Animal of India in 2009.
  • It is categorized as Endangered on the IUCN Red List and listed under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, providing it the highest level of legal protection.
  • Locally called Susu, it is essentially blind and uses echolocation (ultrasonic clicks) to hunt and navigate through murky river waters.
  • The species serves as a vital indicator species, where their presence reflects the overall ecological health and water quality of the river system.
  • The Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary in Bihar is India's only protected area specifically dedicated to the conservation of this freshwater mammal.

Question 542

Delhi Police Head Constable 2025• General Awareness

Which of the following statements about the translation of No Presents Please: Mumbai Stories is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Translated from Marathi by Tejaswini Niranjana 

  2. BOption (b)

    Originally written in English, later translated into Kannada 

  3. COption (c)

    Translator won the DSC Prize along with the author 

  4. DOption (d)

    English edition titled Mumbai Nights

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Translator won the DSC Prize along with the author 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Translator won the DSC Prize along with the author.

Key Points

  • The book was originally written in Kannada by the noted author Jayant Kaikini and was translated into English by Tejaswini Niranjana. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The collection of short stories was first published in Kannada (under the title Mithun Number Two) and was later translated into English to reach a wider audience. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • In 2018, the English translation of the book won the prestigious DSC Prize for South Asian Literature. Under the rules of the prize, the $25,000 award was split equally between the author, Jayant Kaikini, and the translator, Tejaswini Niranjana. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • The English edition of the book is titled No Presents Please: Mumbai Stories, which reflects the urban ethos of the city described in the narratives. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

  • Jayant Kaikini:
  • He is a celebrated Kannada poet, short story writer, and lyricist in the Kannada film industry.
  • His stories often focus on the working-class and middle-class residents of Mumbai, capturing the city's unique social fabric.
  • Tejaswini Niranjana:
  • She is a prominent scholar, cultural theorist, and translator who has worked extensively on post-colonial studies.
  • Her translation of Kaikini’s work is praised for retaining the colloquial rhythm and the spatial identity of the original Kannada prose.
  • DSC Prize for South Asian Literature:
  • Established in 2010, it is one of the few international awards that gives equal importance to translated works alongside original English writing.
  • The win for No Presents Please marked the first time in the prize’s history that a translated work secured the top honor$.

Question 543

Delhi Police Head Constable 2025• General Awareness

'A' is at work with a hatchet; the head flies off and kills a man standing nearby. If A exercised proper caution, how will the act be treated under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

  1. AOption (a)

    A is guilty of murder due to negligence

  2. BOption (b)

    A is guilty because he knew harm was possible

  3. COption (c)

    A has committed no offence if done without criminal intent and in good faith 

  4. DOption (d)

    A is liable for civil compensation even without criminal intent 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A has committed no offence if done without criminal intent and in good faith 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A has committed no offence if done without criminal intent and in good faith.

Key Points

  • Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, certain acts are excluded from criminal liability if they occur by accident or misfortune. This is covered under Section 18 of the new code, which mirrors the old Section 80 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC).
  • The provision states that nothing is an offence if it is done by accident or misfortune, without any criminal intention or knowledge, in the performance of a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful means.
  • In the provided scenario, 'A' was performing the lawful act of working with a hatchet. The incident where the head flies off and causes death is an unforeseen event that lacks mens rea (a guilty mind).
  • A crucial requirement for this legal protection is that the person must have exercised proper care and caution. Since the question explicitly states that 'A' exercised proper caution, the requirement of due diligence is met.
  • Therefore, the death of the man is considered an excusable homicide caused by a pure accident, and 'A' is not held criminally liable for murder or negligence.

 Additional Information

  • Distinction between Accident and Negligence:
  • Negligent Homicide: Under Section 106 of the BNS, 2023, causing death by a rash or negligent act (not amounting to culpable homicide) is punishable. If 'A' had known the hatchet was loose and failed to fix it, he would be guilty of negligence.
  • Murder (Section 101): To be guilty of murder, there must be a clear intention to cause death or knowledge that the act is so imminently dangerous that it must in all probability cause death. In an accident with proper caution, both intent and knowledge are absent.
  • Good Faith: Defined in the legal context as an act done with due care and attention. The presence of good faith is a primary defense in the General Exceptions chapter of the BNS.
  • Civil Liability: While the BNS handles criminal liability, civil law (Torts) might involve compensation; however, under criminal law specifically, the absence of intent and presence of caution exonerates the individual from punishment.

Question 544

Delhi Police Head Constable 2025• General Awareness

Who composed the famous patriotic flag song 'Vijayi Vishwa Tiranga Pyara'?

  1. AOption (a)

    ShyamIal Gupta Parshad

  2. BOption (b)

    Tileswari Koch

  3. COption (c)

    Sucheta Kriplani

  4. DOption (d)

    Sukumar Sen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

ShyamIal Gupta Parshad

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Shyamlal Gupta Parshad.

Key Points

  • The famous patriotic flag song 'Vijayi Vishwa Tiranga Pyara' was composed by Shyamlal Gupta, who is better known by his pen name 'Parshad'.
  • Born in Narwal, Kanpur, in 1893, he was a dedicated freedom fighter, social reformer, and a prolific poet who used his literature to inspire the masses during the Indian Independence Movement.
  • The song was originally composed in March 1924 and was first sung during a commemorative event at Jallianwala Bagh in Kanpur the same year.
  • It gained immense national importance when the Indian National Congress officially adopted it as the National Flag Song during the Haripura Session in 1938.
  • The composition served as a powerful anthem for Satyagrahis and revolutionaries, symbolizing the dignity and pride of the Tricolour (Tiranga).
  • Recognizing his monumental contribution to the Indian freedom struggle and literature, the Government of India posthumously awarded him the Padma Shri in 1969.

 Additional Information

  • Tileswari Koch:
  • A teenage martyr from Assam who participated in the Quit India Movement of 1942.
  • She was shot by the colonial police while attempting to hoist the Tricolour at the Dhekiajuli police station.
  • Sucheta Kriplani:
  • A prominent freedom fighter who sang Vande Mataram in the Constituent Assembly on the eve of independence.
  • She holds the distinction of being the first woman Chief Minister of an Indian state (Uttar Pradesh), serving from 1963 to 1967.
  • Sukumar Sen:
  • An Indian Civil Service officer who served as the first Chief Election Commissioner of India.
  • He successfully organized and managed India's first two General Elections in 1951-52 and 1957, establishing the foundations of Indian democracy.

Question 545

Delhi Police Head Constable 2025• General Awareness

person stands on a weighing machine inside a lift. Consider the following about their apparent weight:

I. It is less than actual weight when the lift accelerates downward.

II. It becomes zero during free fall.

III. It increases if the lift moves upward with constant speed.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    I and II only 

  2. BOption (b)

    I and III only

  3. COption (c)

    II and III only

  4. DOption (d)

    I, II and III all are correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

I and II only 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is I and II only.

Key Points

  • Statement I: When a lift accelerates downward with an acceleration a, a pseudo force (ma) acts in the upward direction. The net normal force R, which represents the apparent weight, is given by the formula R = m(g − a). Since g − a is less than g, the apparent weight is lower than the actual weight (mg). Hence, statement I is correct.
  • Statement II: During a free fall, the lift accelerates downward at a rate equal to the acceleration due to gravity (a = g). Substituting this into the apparent weight formula, we get R = m(g − g) = 0. In this state, the person experiences a complete lack of support force from the machine. Hence, statement II is correct.
  • Statement III: If the lift moves upward or downward with a constant speed, the acceleration is zero (a = 0). According to Newton's First Law, the net force is zero, meaning the normal reaction force exactly balances the gravitational force. Therefore, R = mg, and the apparent weight remains equal to the actual weight. Hence, statement III is incorrect.

 Additional Information

  • Apparent Weight Concepts:
  • It is the normal force exerted by a supporting surface. A weighing machine actually measures this reaction force rather than the true gravitational pull.
  • In an upward accelerating lift, the apparent weight increases and is calculated as R = m(g + a) because the pseudo force acts in the same direction as gravity.
  • Weightlessness occurs not because gravity disappears, but because the object and the reference frame accelerate at the same rate, resulting in zero relative acceleration and zero contact force.
  • An inertial frame of reference is one with zero acceleration, whereas an accelerating lift is a non-inertial frame where pseudo forces must be considered for calculations.

Question 546

Delhi Police Head Constable 2025• General Awareness

Which pollutant is NOT a part of India's AQI calculation?

  1. AOption (a)

    PM10

  2. BOption (b)

    Carbon Dioxide (CO2)

  3. COption (c)

    Ozone (O3)

  4. DOption (d)

    Sulphur Dioxide (SO2)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Carbon Dioxide (CO2)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Carbon Dioxide (CO2).

Key Points

  • The National Air Quality Index (AQI) was launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in October 2014 to provide a simplified tool for communicating air quality status to the public.
  • The index is calculated based on the concentrations of eight major pollutants that have significant short-term health impacts: Particulate Matter (PM10), Particulate Matter (PM2.5), Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2), Sulphur Dioxide (SO2), Carbon Monoxide (CO), Ozone (O3), Ammonia (NH3), and Lead (Pb).
  • Carbon Dioxide (CO2) is a greenhouse gas primarily associated with global warming and climate change; however, it is not included in the AQI because it is not considered a criteria pollutant that causes acute respiratory or cardiovascular issues at standard atmospheric levels.
  • The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) categorization includes six levels: Good, Satisfactory, Moderately Polluted, Poor, Very Poor, and Severe, based on the ambient concentration of these tracked pollutants.

 Additional Information

  • PM10 (Particulate Matter 10):
  • Refers to inhalable particles with a diameter of 10 micrometers or less.
  • Common sources include road dust, construction sites, and industrial emissions.
  • Ozone (O3):
  • Ground-level ozone is a secondary pollutant formed when Nitrogen Oxides (NOx) and Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) react in the presence of sunlight.
  • It is a major component of photochemical smog and a severe respiratory irritant.
  • Sulphur Dioxide (SO2):
  • Produced largely from the combustion of coal in power plants and the smelting of mineral ores.
  • It contributes to the formation of acid rain and can trigger bronchoconstriction and asthma symptoms.

Question 547

Delhi Police Head Constable 2025• General Awareness

Consider the following statements about coffee cultivation in India:

1.The Arabica variety of coffee grown in India was originally brought from Yemen,

2.Coffee cultivation in India began on the Baba Budan Hills and is still concentrated in the Nilgiri region.

3.Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu are major coffee-producing states in India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    Only 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    All 1,2 and 3 are correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only 1 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only 1 and 3.

Key Points

  • The Arabica variety of coffee was brought to India from Yemen during the 17th century. It was reportedly introduced by the Sufi saint Baba Budan, who planted seven seeds in the hills of Chikkamagaluru. This high-quality variety remains in great demand internationally. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • While coffee cultivation began on the Baba Budan Hills (specifically in the Chikkamagaluru district of Karnataka), its major concentration is not limited to the Nilgiri region. Production is heavily concentrated across the Malnad region of Karnataka, specifically in Kodagu, Hassan, and Chikkamagaluru, which together produce over 70% of India's coffee. The Nilgiris (spanning Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka) is only one of the significant growing zones. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu are the three traditional and primary coffee-producing states in India. Karnataka leads the production, followed by Kerala and Tamil Nadu, forming a major agricultural belt in the Western Ghats. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

 Additional Information

  • Coffee Varieties in India:
  • Arabica: Grown at altitudes between 1,000 to 1,500 meters, it is valued for its superior aroma and mild flavor.
  • Robusta: A hardier variety grown at lower altitudes (500 to 1,000 meters), known for its higher caffeine content and strength.
  • Climatic Conditions:
  • Requires temperatures between 15°C and 28°C and annual rainfall ranging from 150 cm to 250 cm.
  • It thrives in well-drained loamy soil rich in organic matter.
  • Indian coffee is unique as it is largely shade-grown, often under a two-tier canopy of evergreen trees.
  • Institutional Framework:
  • The Coffee Board of India, headquartered in Bengaluru, oversees the promotion, research, and quality control of the industry.
  • India is the only country in the world that grows all of its coffee under shade.

Question 548

Delhi Police Head Constable 2025• General Awareness

What is the main strategic advantage for India in developing Iran's Chabahar Port?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bypasses China-Pak route to Afghanistan

  2. BOption (b)

    Access to Arctic trade

  3. COption (c)

    Alternative to Suez Canal

  4. DOption (d)

    Reduces dependency on Maldives

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Bypasses China-Pak route to Afghanistan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bypasses China-Pak route to Afghanistan.

Key Points

  • Chabahar Port is strategically located in the Sistan-Balochistan province on the energy-rich southern coast of Iran, situated outside the Strait of Hormuz in the Gulf of Oman.
  • The primary strategic advantage for India is the establishment of a direct transit route to Afghanistan and the Central Asian Republics (CARs), effectively bypassing Pakistan, which has consistently denied India overland transit rights.
  • The port serves as a geopolitical counterweight to the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) and the Gwadar Port in Pakistan, which is located approximately 72 nautical miles away from Chabahar.
  • It serves as the maritime gateway for the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a 7,200-km multi-modal trade route designed to connect India, Iran, and Russia, potentially reducing carriage costs by 30% and transit time by 40%.
  • India's involvement is focused on the Shaheed Beheshti terminal, through which it has already successfully shipped thousands of tonnes of wheat as humanitarian aid to Afghanistan.

 Additional Information

  • Trilateral Agreement: In May 2016, India, Iran, and Afghanistan signed a historic transit agreement to develop the port into a regional trade hub.
  • Infrastructure Linkages:
  • The port is linked to the Zaranj-Delaram Highway in Afghanistan, a 218-km road constructed by India's Border Roads Organization (BRO), providing access to the Garland Highway which connects major Afghan cities like Kabul, Kandahar, and Herat.
  • Plans include the construction of the Chabahar-Zahedan railway line to further enhance land-sea connectivity into the Eurasian heartland.
  • Geopolitical Influence:
  • By securing a presence in Chabahar, India enhances its footprint in the Western Indian Ocean and secures a foothold in West Asia, crucial for its long-term energy security and maritime trade interests.

Question 549

Delhi Police Head Constable 2025• General Awareness

In an economy, when the aggregate demand increases faster than aggregate supply, what is the likely outcome?

  1. AOption (a)

    Deflation

  2. BOption (b)

    Stagflation

  3. COption (c)

    Inflation

  4. DOption (d)

    Depression

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Inflation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Inflation.

Key Points

  • Aggregate Demand (AD) represents the total quantity of all finished goods and services produced in an economy that is demanded by households, businesses, and the government at a specific price level.
  • Aggregate Supply (AS) refers to the total volume of goods and services that producers are prepared to offer for sale in the market at various price levels.
  • When Aggregate Demand increases at a pace that exceeds the growth of Aggregate Supply, it creates a situation of excess demand or a shortage in the market.
  • In a market-driven economy, this imbalance exerts upward pressure on prices as consumers compete for limited resources, leading to a sustained increase in the general price level, which is the definition of Inflation.
  • This specific phenomenon is categorized as Demand-Pull Inflation, which is frequently described by economists as a situation where 'too much money is chasing too few goods'.
  • Such conditions typically occur during periods of Economic Expansion, high consumer confidence, or significant increases in the Money Supply.

 Additional Information

  • Deflation:
  • A persistent decrease in the general price level of goods and services, often resulting from a reduction in Aggregate Demand or an oversupply of products.
  • Stagflation:
  • A rare economic condition characterized by slow economic growth and relatively high unemployment (stagnation) accompanied by rising prices (Inflation).
  • Depression:
  • An extreme and prolonged downturn in economic activity, significantly more severe than a standard recession, characterized by a major decline in Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and employment.
  • Equilibrium:
  • The state where Aggregate Demand equals Aggregate Supply, resulting in price stability within the economy.

Question 550

Delhi Police Head Constable 2025• General Awareness

What does liberalisation primarily refer to in the context of economic reforms?

  1. AOption (a)

    Reducing government control

  2. BOption (b)

    Nationalising banks

  3. COption (c)

    Promoting subsidies

  4. DOption (d)

    Imposing trade tariffs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Reducing government control

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Reducing government control.

Key Points

  • Liberalisation refers to the removal of government-imposed restrictions and regulations on economic activities to allow for a more free-market approach.
  • In the Indian context, liberalisation was the cornerstone of the New Economic Policy (NEP) introduced in July 1991 under the leadership of then-Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh.
  • The primary objective was to dismantle the Licence Raj, a system of elaborate licenses and red tape that hindered the entry and growth of private businesses.
  • Key measures included the abolition of industrial licensing for most sectors, reducing the role of the public sector, and allowing for foreign direct investment (FDI).
  • It encourages market competition and efficiency by allowing the forces of demand and supply to determine prices and production levels rather than state planning.
  • Liberalisation is part of the broader LPG reforms (Liberalisation, Privatisation, and Globalisation) aimed at integrating the domestic economy with the global market.

 Additional Information

  • Nationalising banks:
  • This involves bringing private banks under state ownership. In India, 14 major banks were nationalised in 1969 and 6 more in 1980 to promote social welfare and financial inclusion, which is the opposite of liberalisation.
  • Promoting subsidies:
  • While subsidies are used for poverty alleviation, liberalisation often focuses on fiscal discipline and the reduction of non-merit subsidies to prevent market distortions and reduce the fiscal deficit.
  • Imposing trade tariffs:
  • This is a protectionist policy intended to restrict imports. Liberalisation, conversely, seeks the reduction of import duties and quotas to facilitate international trade and improve the balance of payments.