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The correct answer is To prevent concentration of economic power and regulate anti-competitive practices, in alignment with India's commitment to a mixed economy and socialist pattern of development.

Key Points

• The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) Act was enacted in 1969 and came into effect on June 1, 1970, following recommendations from the Subimal Dutt Committee (Industrial Licensing Policy Inquiry Committee).
• The legislation was a direct outcome of the socio-economic objectives enshrined in Articles 38 and 39 of the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India, which mandate the state to ensure that the concentration of wealth does not occur to the common detriment.
• The central objective was to regulate monopolies and prohibit restrictive trade practices that hindered competition or led to the exploitation of consumers through artificial price hikes or supply constraints.
• It established the MRTP Commission, a quasi-judicial body empowered to investigate inquiries into Monopolistic Trade Practices (MTP) and Restrictive Trade Practices (RTP).
• The Act reflected India's Mixed Economy model, where the state sought to exert significant control over the private sector to promote social justice and prevent a few large industrial houses from dominating the national economy.

 Additional Information

• Evolution and Repeal:
• The Act was significantly amended in 1984 to include Unfair Trade Practices (UTP), such as false representation and misleading advertisements, to further protect consumer rights.
• Post the 1991 Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG) reforms, the Act was deemed obsolete as India shifted from a 'command' to a 'market' economy.
• The MRTP Act was eventually repealed and replaced by the Competition Act, 2002, following the S.V.S. Raghavan Committee report, shifting focus from 'curbing monopolies' to 'promoting healthy competition'.
• Industrial Policy Context:
• The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 provided the base for the Act, emphasizing the Socialist Pattern of Society where the public sector would lead development while private sector expansion was strictly monitored.
• The 1991 New Industrial Policy removed the requirement for MRTP companies to seek prior government approval for expansion, mergers, or acquisitions, marking the end of the License-Permit Raj.

The correct answer is BIMSTEC operates better due to exclusion of India-Pakistan rivalry.

Key Points

• The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC), established in 1985 in Dhaka, has been frequently paralyzed by the deep-seated geopolitical tensions and bilateral conflict between India and Pakistan.
• Decision-making in SAARC is based on the principle of unanimity, which has allowed the India-Pakistan rivalry to deadlock major initiatives, such as the SAARC Motor Vehicles Agreement and regional rail connectivity projects.
• BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation), formed in 1997 via the Bangkok Declaration, provides a more functional environment because it excludes Pakistan, thereby removing the primary source of diplomatic friction that stalls South Asian integration.
• Since the cancellation of the 19^th SAARC Summit in Islamabad following the 2016 Uri terror attack, India has shifted its diplomatic energy toward BIMSTEC to pursue its Neighborhood First and Act East policies without regional interference.
• While SAARC focuses strictly on South Asia, BIMSTEC serves as a unique inter-regional bridge connecting five South Asian nations with two Southeast Asian nations (Thailand and Myanmar), promoting smoother technical and economic cooperation.

 Additional Information

• Membership and Geopolitics:
• BIMSTEC Leadership: BIMSTEC is a member-driven organization and is not led by China. China is not a member of the group, which consists of Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand.
• Landlocked Countries: SAARC does not exclude landlocked nations; in fact, Afghanistan, Nepal, and Bhutan are all prominent members of the association.
• Observer Status: Russia and Iran are not members of SAARC. While Iran holds observer status (alongside eight others like the USA and Japan), they do not participate in the core organizational functionality or decision-making processes.
• BIMSTEC Secretariat: It is located in Dhaka, Bangladesh, and focuses on 14 priority sectors, including trade, technology, energy, and transport.

The correct answer is COVID-19 vaccine diplomacy and critical tech cooperation.

Key Points

• The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD), comprising India, Japan, Australia, and the United States, has pivoted significantly toward non-military cooperation to promote a Free and Open Indo-Pacific.
• The QUAD Vaccine Partnership was a landmark initiative where United States technology, Japanese and Australian financing, and India's massive manufacturing capacity were leveraged to produce and distribute over 1 billion COVID-19 vaccine doses.
• In the realm of Critical and Emerging Technologies, the group established working groups to focus on 5G deployment, telecom diversification, and securing semiconductor supply chains to ensure technological resilience.
• These initiatives emphasize public goods such as climate action, disaster relief, and infrastructure development, moving the grouping beyond its perceived role as a purely security-centric or military alliance.
• The focus on standard-setting for Artificial Intelligence and quantum computing ensures that emerging technologies are developed based on shared democratic values and transparency.

 Additional Information

• Indo-Pacific Maritime Domain Awareness (IPMDA):
• A non-military tracking system that utilizes commercial satellite data to help regional countries monitor illegal, unreported, and unregulated (IUU) fishing and respond to climate events.
• QUAD Fellowship:
• An academic initiative that sponsors 100 students annually from member nations to pursue graduate degrees in STEM fields (Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics) in the United States.
• Clean Energy Supply Chains:
• Efforts are directed toward the QUAD Shipping Taskforce to build green shipping corridors and reduce carbon emissions in the maritime sector through green hydrogen adoption.
• Infrastructure Coordination:
• The QUAD Infrastructure Coordination Group provides technical assistance and high-standard financing for digital connectivity and transportation projects across the region.

The correct answer is Disqualification/lifetime ban.

Key Points

• Anabolic-androgenic steroids (AAS) are synthetic derivatives of the male hormone testosterone, primarily used to increase muscle mass, strength, and endurance, which constitutes a severe violation of fair play.
• The International Olympic Committee (IOC) adheres strictly to the World Anti-Doping Code, which mandates that any athlete testing positive for a prohibited substance like steroids faces immediate disqualification from all events in that Olympiad.
• Disqualification results in the automatic forfeiture of any medals, points, prizes, and certificates earned during the competition, as the integrity of the results is deemed compromised.
• Under the regulations set by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA), severe or repeated violations involving non-specified substances (such as potent steroids) can lead to a lifetime ban from participating in any Olympic or international sporting event.
• The imposition of such a penalty serves as a powerful deterrent to preserve the spirit of sport and ensure the health and safety of all competitors.

 Additional Information

• WADA (World Anti-Doping Agency):
• Established on 10 November 1999, in Lausanne, Switzerland, to combat the growing prevalence of performance-enhancing drugs in sports.
• It publishes the Prohibited List annually, which identifies substances and methods banned In-Competition and At All Times.
• Anti-Doping Rule Violations (ADRV):
• Penalties for doping are categorized based on the intent and the type of substance; Anabolic Steroids are almost always classified as high-level violations requiring a minimum four-year suspension for a first offense.
• Therapeutic Use Exemptions (TUE): Athletes with documented medical conditions may apply for a TUE to use a prohibited substance, but this is rarely granted for anabolic steroids in a competitive context.
• Doping Control: Includes both urine and blood testing, conducted In-Competition and Out-of-Competition (randomly) to ensure compliance.

The correct answer is Depreciation.

Key Points

• Gross Value Added (GVA) serves as a measure of the total value of goods and services produced by an industry, sector, or economy after deducting the cost of intermediate consumption.
• Net Value Added (NVA) represents the value of output minus both the cost of intermediate goods and the Consumption of Fixed Capital, which is technically known as Depreciation.
• The conceptual distinction between Gross and Net in national income accounting always hinges on the treatment of the wear and tear of capital assets used during the production process.
• The mathematical relationship between these two variables is defined by the formula: NVA = GVA − Depreciation.
• While GVA provides an estimate of the total value generated, NVA provides a more accurate reflection of the actual increase in wealth by accounting for the replacement costs of aging machinery and infrastructure.

 Additional Information

• Depreciation (Consumption of Fixed Capital):
• It accounts for the obsolescence and physical deterioration of fixed assets like factory buildings, transport equipment, and heavy machinery.
• In India, the National Statistical Office (NSO) estimates depreciation to derive net measures from gross domestic product and value-added figures.
• Gross Value Added (GVA):
• GVA is considered a supply-side indicator that tracks the performance of specific sectors like Agriculture, Industry, and Services.
• It is linked to Gross Domestic Product (GDP) through the equation: GDP = ∑GVA + Product Taxes − Product Subsidies.
• Value Added:
• This refers to the incremental value created at each stage of production, preventing the double-counting of goods.

The correct answer is It signifies the beginning of the sowing season.

Key Points

• Erok Sim is a major agricultural festival celebrated by the Santal community, one of the largest tribal groups in India, primarily inhabiting Jharkhand, Odisha, and West Bengal.
• The festival is observed during the Hindu month of Ashadh (June-July), which aligns with the onset of the monsoon, and not during Bhadrapada. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The ritual marks the ceremonial beginning of the sowing season, where the community seeks divine permission and blessings to start planting seeds in their fields. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The festival is specific to the Santal tribe and their unique cultural heritage, whereas the Bhil community observes different traditions such as Baneshwar. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• During the celebrations, the village priest, known as the Naike, offers prayers and sacrifices at the Jaher Than (sacred grove) to Maran Buru and other deities for a successful agricultural cycle and protection from pests. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

 Additional Information

• Santal Festivals:
• Sohrai: This is the most famous harvest festival of the Santals, celebrated in the month of Poush (January) to thank the deities and cattle for a successful harvest.
• Baha: Known as the flower festival, it is celebrated in the spring when Sal and Mahua trees bloom, signifying the Santal New Year.
• Sakrat: Observed on the last day of the month of Poush, involving archery competitions and traditional dances.
• Bhil Community:
• A tribal group found in Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Madhya Pradesh.
• Famous for the Ghoomar dance and the Bhagoria Haat festival, which is associated with matchmaking and the spring season.

The correct answer is It is a short story collection about modern urban lives..

Key Points

• Difficult Pleasures is a distinguished collection of thirteen short stories written by the Indian author Anjum Hasan, published in 2012.
• The narrative primarily explores the internal psychological landscapes of characters residing in contemporary Indian cities such as Bangalore, Delhi, and Shillong.
• The book captures the essence of modern urban existence, focusing on themes of alienation, solitude, and the subtle, often difficult search for identity and joy in mundane settings.
• Unlike traditional plots driven by external action, these stories emphasize interiority and the intricate emotional shifts within domestic and social spheres of the city-dwelling middle class.
• Hence, the description that it is a short story collection about modern urban lives is correct.

 Additional Information

• Anjum Hasan and Her Literary Contributions:
• She is a prolific Indian novelist, poet, and critic who previously served as the books editor for The Caravan.
• Her notable novels include Lunacy (2008), Neti, Neti (2009), and The Cosmopolitans (2015).
• Difficult Pleasures received significant acclaim and was shortlisted for the 2012 Hindu Literary Prize and the Crossword Book Award.
• Distinction from Other Genres:
• Historical Fiction: This genre focuses on specific eras like Indo-Persian courts, requiring historical reconstruction, which differs from Hasan's contemporary realism.
• Epic Retellings: These involve reimagining Hindu epics like the Mahabharata, whereas Hasan's work is grounded in secular urbanity.
• Crime Fiction: This genre relies on investigative tropes and legal thrillers, which is distinct from the character-driven literary fiction found in this collection.

The correct answer is Moons formed in-situ would orbit in the same direction as the planet's rotation.

Key Points

• According to the Nebular Hypothesis, planets and their regular satellites form simultaneously from a rotating circumplanetary disk of gas and dust. Hence, moons formed in-situ would orbit in the same direction as the planet's rotation is correct.
• The principle of Conservation of Angular Momentum dictates that any material condensing within this localized disk will move in the same direction as the primary planet's rotation, creating prograde orbits. Hence, the direction of motion is a primary indicator of origin.
• Retrograde motion involves a moon orbiting in the direction opposite to the planet's spin, which is physically improbable for objects forming from the original accretion disk. Such orbits strongly suggest the object was a trans-neptunian object or asteroid later trapped by the planet's gravity. Hence, retrograde orbits are evidence of gravitational capture.

 Additional Information

• Irregular Moons:
• These are typically small satellites with high inclination and eccentricity.
• Triton, the largest moon of Neptune, is the most famous example of a massive captured body in a retrograde orbit.
• Phoebe, a moon of Saturn, is believed to be a captured Centaur from the Kuiper Belt.
• Scientific Principles:
• Kepler's Laws: These laws describe the mechanics of an orbit (ellipses, area, and period) but do not prohibit retrograde motion; thus, such orbits do not contradict orbital physics.
• Hill Sphere: Gas Giants like Jupiter and Saturn have massive Hill Spheres, allowing them to capture passing bodies much more efficiently than Terrestrial Planets.

The correct answer is Passive natural immunity.

Key Points

• Passive natural immunity refers to the transfer of pre-formed antibodies from one individual to another through biological processes rather than medical intervention.
• During pregnancy, maternal Immunoglobulin G (IgG) is actively transported across the placenta into the fetal circulation, primarily during the third trimester.
• IgG is the only class of immunoglobulin capable of crossing the placental barrier because the placenta possesses specific Fc receptors that facilitate this transport.
• This mechanism provides immediate systemic protection to the neonate against specific pathogens and toxins for which the mother has developed immunity.
• Because the fetus does not produce these antibodies itself, this type of immunity is temporary and does not result in the formation of immunological memory or memory B-cells.

 Additional Information

• Active Immunity:
• Natural: Developed when a person is exposed to a live pathogen and their immune system produces a primary immune response.
• Artificial: Induced through vaccination using antigens to stimulate the body to produce its own antibodies and memory cells.
• Passive Artificial Immunity:
• Achieved by injecting exogenous antibodies (e.g., convalescent plasma, antivenom, or gamma globulin) to provide rapid, short-term protection against exposure.
• Colostrum:
• The first milk produced by the mother contains secretory IgA, which provides another form of passive natural immunity by protecting the infant's gastrointestinal tract.

The correct answer is Provided for an All-India Federation and granted provincial autonomy.

Key Points

• The Government of India Act, 1935 was a major constitutional reform that proposed the creation of an All-India Federation comprising British Indian Provinces and Princely States as units.
• It introduced the concept of Provincial Autonomy by abolishing the system of Dyarchy in the provinces and allowing them to act as autonomous administrative units in their assigned spheres.
• The Act established responsible government at the provincial level, which meant the Governor was required to act on the advice of ministers who were accountable to the elected provincial legislature.
• A dual system of government known as Dyarchy was introduced at the Centre, dividing federal subjects into Reserved (administered by the Governor-General) and Transferred (administered with ministerial advice) categories.
• It provided for the establishment of a Federal Court, which was eventually set up in 1937, to adjudicate disputes between the federal government and the provinces or between provinces themselves.

 Additional Information

• Division of Legislative Powers: The Act divided powers using three lists: the Federal List (consisting of 59 items), the Provincial List (54 items), and the Concurrent List (36 items), with Residuary powers given to the Viceroy.
• Universal Adult Franchise: The Act did not introduce Universal Adult Franchise; instead, it granted voting rights to only about 10 per cent of the total population based on factors like property, tax, and education.
• Fundamental Rights: Unlike the modern Constitution of India, the 1935 Act did not contain any provision for Fundamental Rights, which remained a major grievance of Indian nationalists.
• Administrative Institutions:
• It established the Reserve Bank of India in 1935 to regulate the country's currency and credit.
• It created the Federal Public Service Commission, Provincial Public Service Commission, and Joint Public Service Commission for recruitment.
• Reorganization: The Act led to the separation of Burma (now Myanmar) from India and the creation of two new provinces, Sindh and Orissa.