Search Previous Year Questions

The correct answer is Only 1 and 2.

Key Points

• The Lesser Florican (Sypheotides indicus) is biologically classified as the smallest member of the bustard family (Otididae), reaching a height of only about 46 to 51 centimeters. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• This bird is endemic to the Indian subcontinent, with its core breeding habitats concentrated in the seasonal grasslands of Rajasthan, Gujarat, and parts of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra during the monsoon. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Contrary to the claim, the species faces a severe population decline due to habitat loss driven by land-use changes and the excessive use of chemical pesticides in agricultural fields, which depletes their primary food source of insects. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Conservation Status:
• It is categorized as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List due to its rapidly dwindling numbers and fragmented habitat.
• In India, it is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, ensuring the highest level of legal protection against hunting and trade.
• It is also listed in Appendix I of CITES, which prohibits international commercial trade of the species.
• Behavioral Features:
• The male Lesser Florican is famous for its unique aerial courtship display, where it jumps high into the air above the tall grass to attract females during the monsoon season.
• Their diet consists of a variety of insects, frogs, and seeds found in agro-grassland ecosystems.

The correct answer is Jayant Kaikini - No Presents Please.

Key Points

• In the first pair, Meena Kandasamy is an Indian poet and novelist known for works like The Gypsy Goddess and When I Hit You, while the book titled Five Past Midnight in Bhopal was authored by Dominique Lapierre and Javier Moro. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• In the second pair, Jayant Kaikini is a distinguished Kannada writer whose short story collection No Presents Please, translated by Tejaswini Niranjana, won the prestigious DSC Prize for South Asian Literature in 2018. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• In the third pair, Sea of Poppies is a historical novel written by Amitav Ghosh, which was shortlisted for the 2008 Man Booker Prize and is the first volume of the Ibis Trilogy. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• In the fourth pair, The White Tiger is the debut novel of Aravind Adiga, which won the Man Booker Prize in 2008 for its portrayal of India's class struggle, while Anuradha Roy is famous for Sleeping on Jupiter. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Jayant Kaikini:
• He is a celebrated poet and playwright in Kannada literature and a leading lyricist in Kannada cinema.
• His work No Presents Please is set in Mumbai, capturing the city's essence through the lives of ordinary people.
• Amitav Ghosh:
• He was awarded the 54^th Jnanpith Award in 2018, becoming the first writer in English to receive this honor.
• His notable works include The Shadow Lines, The Glass Palace, and The Hungry Tide.
• Aravind Adiga:
• Born in Chennai, he is one of the few Indian-origin authors to win the Booker Prize for a debut novel.
• His other significant books include Between the Assassinations and Selection Day.

The correct answer is Four months.

Key Points

• Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, the provisions regarding imprisonment for non-payment of a fine are specified under Section 37.
• The act mandates that if an offense is punishable with a fine only, any imprisonment imposed due to default in payment must be simple imprisonment.
• The scale for the term of imprisonment in default is categorized based on the amount of the fine: if the fine does not exceed five thousand rupees, the term cannot exceed two months.
• For a fine that does not exceed ten thousand rupees, the maximum term of simple imprisonment is fixed at four months.
• In all other cases, where the fine exceeds ten thousand rupees, the term of imprisonment for default can extend up to a maximum of one year.

 Additional Information

• Legislative Context:
• The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, was enacted to replace the colonial-era Indian Penal Code (IPC) of 1860.
• The new Sanhita officially came into effect on July 1, 2024, across India.
• Compared to the IPC (where the limits were fifty and one hundred rupees), the BNS has significantly increased the monetary thresholds for default imprisonment to align with modern economic standards.
• Section 37 of the BNS corresponds to the old Section 67 of the IPC, but with revised fine slabs and increased maximum jail terms for higher fine amounts.
• This provision ensures that the duration of imprisonment is proportional to the financial penalty imposed by the court.

The correct answer is P.C. Mahalanobis.

Key Points

• Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis (1893−1972) was a world-renowned Indian statistician and physicist who is widely regarded as the Father of Modern Statistics in India.
• He founded the Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) on 17 December 1931 in Kolkata, which was later recognized as an Institute of National Importance.
• As a key member of the Planning Commission of independent India, he played a pivotal role in drafting the Second Five-Year Plan (1956−1961).
• The economic strategy he developed, known as the Mahalanobis Model, focused on rapid industrialization through the growth of heavy industries and capital goods to achieve economic self-reliance.
• He introduced the Mahalanobis distance, a fundamental statistical measure used extensively in multivariate data analysis and cluster identification.
• In honor of his contributions to the field of economic planning and statistics, his birth anniversary, June 29, is celebrated as National Statistics Day in India.

 Additional Information

• Asaf Ali:
• He was a distinguished Indian independence activist and lawyer. He served as the first Indian Ambassador to the United States and as the Governor of Odisha.
• Govind Ballabh Pant:
• A prominent statesman and freedom fighter, he served as the first Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh and later as the Union Home Minister. He was conferred with the Bharat Ratna in 1957.
• Sukumar Sen:
• A former Indian Civil Service (ICS) officer, he served as the first Chief Election Commissioner of India, successfully overseeing the historic 1951−52 and 1957 General Elections.

The correct answer is Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Key Points

Assertion (A) is based on the physics of supersonic flight. When an aircraft travels faster than the speed of sound, it moves ahead of the sound waves it produces. Consequently, the aircraft passes over an observer before the sound waves (the sonic boom) ever reach them. Hence, statement A is correct. Reason (R) explains the mechanism of the sonic boom. As a supersonic aircraft cuts through the air, it creates a series of pressure waves that coalesce into a single conical shock wave, often called a Mach cone. This shock wave is a continuous surface of high pressure that trails behind the aircraft like a wake behind a boat. Hence, statement R is correct. The sonic boom is the sudden, explosive noise heard when the surface of this trailing Mach cone finally reaches the observer's ears. Since the aircraft is at the vertex of the cone and the cone surface angles backward, the aircraft must logically pass a point on the ground before the trailing shock wave intersects that same point. Therefore, the trailing nature of the shock wave directly explains the observed delay. Hence, R is the correct explanation of A.

 Additional Information

Mach Number (M):

It is the ratio of the speed of the object to the speed of sound in the surrounding medium. If M > 1, the object is supersonic; if M > 5, it is considered hypersonic.

Shock Wave Characteristics:

A shock wave involves an almost instantaneous increase in pressure, temperature, and density. The Mach Angle (the half-angle of the cone) is calculated using the formula sin(theta) = 1/M. As the aircraft speed increases, the cone becomes narrower. A typical sonic boom profile is known as an N-wave because the pressure rises sharply at the nose (bow shock), decreases linearly, and then rises sharply again at the tail (tail shock).

The correct answer is Air Quality Index.

Key Points

• The Air Quality Index (AQI) was launched in India in September 2014 as part of the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan to provide a simplified 'One Number-One Colour-One Description' format for the general public to judge air quality.
• It is a vital tool for environmental monitoring that transforms complex air quality data of various pollutants into a single numerical value representing the level of atmospheric pollution.
• The National Air Quality Index considers eight major pollutants to determine the air quality: Particulate Matter (PM10), Particulate Matter (PM2.5), Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2), Sulphur Dioxide (SO2), Carbon Monoxide (CO), Ozone (O3), Ammonia (NH3), and Lead (Pb).
• The index is calculated based on the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS), where a sub-index is calculated for each pollutant, and the highest sub-index value is designated as the overall AQI for that specific location and time.

 Additional Information

• AQI Categories and Health Impacts:
• Good (0-50): Minimal impact on human health.
• Satisfactory (51-100): May cause minor breathing discomfort to sensitive people.
• Moderately Polluted (101-200): Likely to cause breathing discomfort to people with lung diseases like asthma and discomfort to children and elderly.
• Poor (201-300): Can lead to breathing discomfort on prolonged exposure and heart diseases.
• Very Poor (301-400): May cause respiratory illness on prolonged exposure; effect may be more pronounced in people with lung and heart diseases.
• Severe (401-500): Affects healthy people and seriously impacts those with existing respiratory or cardiovascular diseases.
• Regulatory Bodies:
• The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), in consultation with IIT Kanpur and other experts, developed the methodology for the Indian AQI.
• The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) oversees the implementation of air quality standards across India.

The correct answer is Only 1 and 3.

Key Points

• India is the second-largest producer of fruits and vegetables in the world, positioned immediately after China. During the 2020-21 period, India produced approximately 102.48 million tonnes of fruits and 200.45 million tonnes of vegetables, accounting for a significant share of global output. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Pineapple cultivation is concentrated in the North-Eastern states and the eastern coast. The primary producers are West Bengal, Assam, Tripura, and Meghalaya. While Kerala also produces pineapples, Maharashtra is not a major hub for this specific crop, as it is better known for Grapes, Mangoes, and Oranges. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The high-altitude regions of Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh dominate the production of temperate horticultural crops. Jammu & Kashmir is the leading producer of Apples and Walnuts, while Himachal Pradesh is famously known as the 'Apple State' of India, also producing significant quantities of Apricots and Pears. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

 Additional Information

• Pineapple Production:
• Climatic Conditions: Thrives in humid tropical climates with high rainfall and temperature ranges between 22°C and 32°C.
• Leading States: West Bengal consistently ranks as the top producer, followed by Assam and Kerala.
• Temperate Fruits in the Himalayas:
• Apple Production: Over 70% of India's total apple production comes from Jammu & Kashmir.
• Nut Crops: Walnuts and Almonds are largely restricted to Jammu & Kashmir due to the specific cold-weather requirements and soil conditions of the Kashmir Valley.
• Golden Revolution:
• This period (1991−2003) marked a massive surge in the production of Fruits, Honey, and other Horticultural products, significantly diversifying Indian agriculture.

The correct answer is Brazil.

Key Points

• Brazil officially assumed the BRICS chairmanship on January 1, 2025, succeeding Russia which held the position throughout 2024.
• The chairmanship of BRICS (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) rotates annually among its member nations, typically following the alphabetical order of the acronym.
• Brazil was originally scheduled to chair in 2024, but a swap was arranged with Russia because Brazil hosted the G20 Summit in 2024; consequently, Russia took the 2024 chair and Brazil moved to 2025.
• As the chair for 2025, Brazil will host the 17^th BRICS Summit, bringing together the leaders of the expanded intergovernmental organization.
• The primary focus of Brazil's 2025 presidency involves promoting multilateralism, fostering sustainable development, and strengthening South-South cooperation within the bloc.

 Additional Information

• BRICS Expansion:
• On January 1, 2024, the group expanded beyond its five core members to include Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, and the United Arab Emirates (UAE).
• This expansion aims to increase the geopolitical influence of the Global South and provides a platform for emerging economies to challenge Western-dominated financial systems.
• Recent Summits:
• Russia (2024): Hosted the 16^th summit in Kazan, which was the first summit after the formal inclusion of the new member countries.
• South Africa (2023): Hosted the 15^th summit in Johannesburg, where the historic decision for expansion was announced.
• Institutional Pillars:
• The New Development Bank (NDB), headquartered in Shanghai, serves as the bloc's financial arm, financing infrastructure projects in member states.
• The Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) serves as a safety net to protect member countries from global liquidity pressures.

The correct answer is It results in collective welfare and wealth through an invisible hand mechanism. The full solution will be update soon.

The correct answer is World Bank and International Monetary Fund (IMF).

Key Points

• In 1991, India faced a severe Balance of Payments (BoP) crisis, where its foreign exchange reserves dwindled to approximately $1.2 billion, barely enough to sustain two weeks of essential imports like petroleum.
• To address this emergency, the Indian government, under Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh, approached the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), commonly known as the World Bank, and the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
• India secured a bailout loan of $7 billion from these international financial institutions to manage its immediate debt obligations and stabilize the economy.
• The loan was granted on the condition that India would implement structural reforms to move from a command economy to a more market-oriented economy, involving the removal of trade barriers and reducing government control.
• These conditionalities directly led to the announcement of the New Economic Policy (NEP) in July 1991, which introduced the LPG (Liberalisation, Privatisation, and Globalisation) framework to the Indian economic landscape.

 Additional Information

• International Monetary Fund (IMF)
• Established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference, it is headquartered in Washington, D.C.
• Its primary mission is to ensure the stability of the international monetary system and provide short-to-medium-term loans to countries facing BoP crises.
• World Bank (IBRD)
• Formed alongside the IMF in 1944, it focuses on long-term economic development and poverty reduction through infrastructure and human capital projects.
• Other Organizations Mentioned
• Asian Development Bank (ADB): Founded in 1966, it focuses on development in Asia but was not the primary architect of the 1991 structural reforms.
• World Trade Organization (WTO): This organization was established in 1995, replacing the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT), and thus did not exist during the 1991 crisis.
• European Union (EU): A regional political and economic union of 27 member states located primarily in Europe, focusing on regional integration.