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Question 901

BPSC AEDO 2022• Full Test

Which of the following is a Parliamentary Committee relating to delegation of power to make rules and regulations to the Executive?

  1. AOption (a)

    Committee on Executive Legislation

  2. BOption (b)

    Committee on Subordinate Legislation

  3. COption (c)

    Committee on Administrative Legislation

  4. DOption (d)

    Committee on Delegated Legislation

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Committee on Subordinate Legislation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Committee on Subordinate Legislation

Key Points

  • The Committee on Subordinate Legislation constituted in 1953 examines and reports to the House whether the powers to make rules, regulations, bye-laws, schemes, or other statutory instruments conferred by the Constitution or delegated by Parliament are being properly exercised.
  • In both the Houses, the committee consists of 15 members.
  • The Chairman of the Committee shall be appointed by the Chairman from amongst the members of the Committee.
  • Provided that if the Deputy Chairman is a member of the Committee, he shall be appointed Chairman of the Committee.
  • In order to constitute a meeting of the Committee, the quorum shall be five.
  • The Committee shall have the power to require the attendance of persons or the production of papers or records if such a course is considered necessary for the discharge of its duties.

Question 902

BPSC AEDO 2022• Full Test

Article 300 of the Indian Constitution deals with

  1. AOption (a)

    suits and proceedings

  2. BOption (b)

    governments contracts

  3. COption (c)

    Attorney General

  4. DOption (d)

    CAG

  5. EOption (e)

    Lok Sabha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

suits and proceedings

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is suits and proceedings.

Key Points

Article 300.

  • The Government of India may sue or be sued by the name of the Union of India and the Government of a State may sue or be sued by the name of the State and may, subject to any provisions which may be made by Act of Parliament or of the Legislature of such State enacted by virtue of powers conferred by this Constitution, sue or be sued in relation to their respective affairs in the like cases as the Dominion of India and the corresponding Provinces or the corresponding Indian States might have sued or been sued if this Constitution had not been enacted.

Question 903

BPSC AEDO 2022• Full Test

Judicial process in India is based on

  1. AOption (a)

    the Constitution

  2. BOption (b)

    the due process of routine law

  3. COption (c)

    conventions

  4. DOption (d)

    the procedure established by law

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

None of the above/More than one of the above

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is More than one of the above.

Key Points

Indian Judicial System:

  • The judiciary is that branch of the government that interprets the law, settles disputes and administers justice to all citizens.
  • India has a single integrated judicial system.
  • The judiciary in India has a pyramidal structure with the Supreme Court (SC) at the top.
  • Chapter IV under Part V of the constitution (Union) deals with The Union Judiciary.
  • In Indian Constitutional law, there are different judicial doctrines that develop over time as per the interpretation given by the judiciary.
  • The “Procedure Established by Law” means that a law is duly enacted by the legislature or the concerned body is valid only if the correct procedure has been followed to the letter.
  • The concept has been enshrined in Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, which states that “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the procedure established by law.”
  • “Due Process of Law” is a doctrine that not only checks if there is a law to deprive the life and personal liberty of a person but also ensures that the law is made fair and just.
  • If the Supreme Court of India that any law is not fair, it will declare it as null and void.

​Hence, option 5 (More than one of the above) is the correct answer.

Question 904

BPSC AEDO 2022• Full Test

The first 'Lokayukta' was established in which of the following states?

  1. AOption (a)

    Odisha

  2. BOption (b)

    Kerala

  3. COption (c)

    Maharashtra

  4. DOption (d)

    Punjab

  5. EOption (e)

    UP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Maharashtra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Maharashtra.

Key Points

  • Lokayuktas:
  • Even much before the enactment of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act (2013) itself, many states had already set up the institution of Lokayuktas.
  • It must be noted here that the institution of Lokayukta was established first in Maharashtra in 1971.
  • Although Odisha had passed the Act in this regard in 1970, it came into force only in 1983.
  • Structural Variations:
  • The structure of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas is not the same in all the states.
  • Some states like Rajasthan, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Maharashtra have created the Lokayukta as well as a Upalokayukta, while some others like Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, and Himachal Pradesh have created only the Lokayukta.
  • There are still other states like Punjab and Orissa that have designated officials as Lokpal.
  • This pattern was not suggested by the ARC in the states.
  • Appointment:
  • The Lokayukta and upalokayukta are appointed by the governor of the state. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • While appointing, the governor in most of the states consults (a) the chief justice of the state high court, and (b) the leader of Opposition in the state legislative assembly.

Question 905

BPSC AEDO 2022• Full Test

Which of the following posts was held by A. S. Anand in late 1990's?

  1. AOption (a)

    Comptroller and Auditor General

  2. BOption (b)

    Chief Justice of India

  3. COption (c)

    Chief Vigilance Commissioner

  4. DOption (d)

    Attorney General

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Chief Justice of India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chief Justice of India.

Key Points

  • Adarsh Sein Anand was the 29th Chief Justice of India, serving from 10 October 1998 to 31 October 2001.
  • In the D.K. Basu case (1996), he laid down important safeguards against custodial torture.
  • These safeguards are considered valuable in protecting the rights of prisoners.
  • The Supreme Court first sentenced the Chairman of the Bar Council of India, V.C. Mishra, for contempt of court and suspended him from practicing.
  • Later, a Bench headed by Anand ruled that the Supreme Court did not have the power to debar any advocate from practicing even if it held him guilty of contempt.

Question 906

BPSC AEDO 2022• Full Test

Which of the following is not a part of the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution?

  1. AOption (a)

    Libraries

  2. BOption (b)

    Fuel and Fodder

  3. COption (c)

    Rural Sports

  4. DOption (d)

    Technical Training

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rural Sports

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rural Sports.

Key Points

  • The eleventh schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the following list of items placed within the purview of the Panchayats:
  1. Agriculture including agricultural expansion
  2. Land improvement, implementation of land reforms, land consolidation, and soil conservation.
  3. Animal Husbandry, Dairying, and poultry
  4. Fisheries Industry
  5. Minor irrigation, water management, and watershed development
  6. Social forestry and farm forestry
  7. Small scale industries in which the food processing industry is involved
  8. Minor forest produce
  9. Safe water for drinking
  10. Khadi, village and cottage industries
  11. Rural housing

12**. Fuel and fodder**

  1. Rural electrification, including distribution of electricity
  2. Road, culverts, bridges, ferries, waterways, and other means of communication
  3. Education including primary and secondary schools
  4. Non-conventional sources of energy
  5. Technical training and vocational education
  6. Adult and non-formal education
  7. Public distribution system
  8. Maintenance of community assets
  9. The welfare of the weaker sections of the in particular of the scheduled caste and scheduled tribes
  10. Social welfare, including the welfare of the handicapped and mentally retarded
  11. Family welfare
  12. Women and child development
  13. Markets and Fairs
  14. Health and sanitation including hospitals, primary health centers, and dispensaries
  15. Cultural activities
  16. Libraries
  17. Poverty Alleviation Programmes

Question 907

BPSC AEDO 2022• Full Test

How many (number) 'Demands for Grants' are put before the Parliament as a part of the Annual Budget in pursuance to Article 113 of the Constitution?

  1. AOption (a)

    98

  2. BOption (b)

    96

  3. COption (c)

    104

  4. DOption (d)

    109

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

None of the above/More than one of the above

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is None of the above.

Key Points

Demands for Grants:

  • Demand for Grants is the form in which estimates of expenditure from the Consolidated Fund, included in the annual financial statement and required to be voted upon in the Lok Sabha, are submitted in pursuance of Article 113 of the Constitution.
  • The demand for grants includes provisions with respect to revenue expenditure, capital expenditure, grants to State and Union Territory governments together with loans and advances.
  • Generally, one demand for a grant is presented in respect of each ministry or department. However, for large ministries and departments, more than one demand is presented. Hence, there is no fixed number.
  • Each demand is voted separately by the Lok Sabha.
  • During this stage, the members of Parliament can discuss the details of the budget.

Question 908

BPSC AEDO 2022• Full Test

In which year was the 'National Extension Service' launched?

  1. AOption (a)

    1953

  2. BOption (b)

    1957

  3. COption (c)

    1960

  4. DOption (d)

    1972

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1953

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1953.

  • The National Extension Service program was formulated in April 1953 and it was inaugurated on October 2, 1953.
  • It was formed after the Indian government realized that the Community Development Programme, which was formed in 1952, cannot be implemented all over India due to a shortage of funds.

Key Points 

  • The National Extension Service was formed so that development work could proceed on the basis of self-help efforts.
  • It was ab initio launched for an amount of 3 years, with the availability of Rs. 4.5 lakhs per block with stress on agriculture, agriculture, rural communication, and social education.
  • After 3 years, the blocks covered under this scheme were to be converted into Community Development Programme blocks with the provision of Rs 15 Lakhs for 3 years for more intensive development work.
  • In 1957, the Indian government formed the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee to examine the working of the Community Development Programme and the National Extension Service and suggest ways to make it better.
  • The committee led to the formation of the Panchayati Raj system.

Question 909

BPSC AEDO 2022• Full Test

The members of a State Legislative Council are not chosen by which of the following categories of persons?

  1. AOption (a)

    Members of the local bodies/Panchayats

  2. BOption (b)

    Teachers

  3. COption (c)

    Graduates

  4. DOption (d)

    Industrialists

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Industrialists

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Industrialists.

Key Points

State Legislative Council

  • Article 169 of the constitution states that the Parliament can abolish a legislative council (where it already exists) or create it (where it does not exist) by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of each House present and voting, if the legislative assembly of the concerned state, by a special majority, passes a resolution to that effect.
  • Special majority means:
  • A majority of the total membership of the assembly and
  • A majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the assembly present and voting.
  • Hence, Statement C is correct.
  • Under Article 171 of the Constitution, the Legislative Council of a state shall not have more than one-third of the total strength of the State Assembly, and not less than 40 members.
  • The legislative council is a continuing chamber like the Rajya Sabha i.e. it is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution.
  • The tenure of a Member of the Legislative Council (MLC) is six years, with one-third of the members retiring every two years.
  • Hence, Statement A is incorrect. ( Only one-third of members retire and not two-thirds.)
  • ​Electoral College:
  • One-third of the MLCs are elected by the state’s MLAs,
  • One-third by a special electorate comprising sitting members of local governments such as municipalities and district boards,
  • One-twelfth by an electorate of teachers and another one-twelfth by registered graduates.
  • The remaining members are appointed by the Governor for distinguished services in various fields namely, literature, science, art, cooperative movement and social service.

Additional Information 

  • India has a bicameral system of legislature.
  • A bicameral system describes a government that has a two-house legislative system.
  • Like the Parliament, the states can also have a Legislative Council in addition to the Legislative Assembly through Article 169 of the Constitution.
  • Currently, Six states have a Legislative Council viz. Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka

Question 910

BPSC AEDO 2022• Full Test

The 'split system' in the Indian administration relates to

  1. AOption (a)

    Audit/Accounts

  2. BOption (b)

    Union/States

  3. COption (c)

    Policy/Implementation

  4. DOption (d)

    All India Services/Central Services

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above/More than one of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Policy/Implementation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Policy/Implementation. 

Key Points

  • The Secretariat's operation in our country has mostly been guided by two ideas.
  • First, the notion of policy separation from implementation—the administration in action—so that the latter can be delegated to a distinct agency with some execution flexibility.
  • Second, the viability of the administrative system as a whole requires a transitory cadre of officers selected from States Cadres, operating on a tenure system of staff supervising a permanent staff.
  • The policy-making functions are the ones who are most likely to suffer.
  • Routine business is always more pressing and necessitates fewer intellectual resources than policymaking.
  • Because the human mind prefers the least amount of opposition.
  • It is only possible to ensure for careful and successful planning by creating a separate policy department general staff, free of the administration as a whole.
  • This system is known as split system.