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The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

• Article 98 of the Constitution provides for a separate Secretariat staff for each House of Parliament.
• The recruitment and conditions of service of the staff of the Lok Sabha (House of the People) are regulated by Parliament.
• Formally, the President of India makes the appointments, but this is done after consultation with the Speaker of the Lok Sabha (for Lok Sabha Secretariat) or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (for Rajya Sabha Secretariat).
• This ensures independence of Parliament from the executive in its internal administration.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

1. “He gives advice to the President on legal matters”

• ✔️ Correct.
• Article 76(2): The Attorney General’s duty is to give advice to the Government of India (including the President) on legal matters.

2. “Is not entitled of audience except the Supreme Court”

• ❌ Incorrect.
• The Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in India (not only in the Supreme Court).

3. “Cannot participate in the proceedings in the House of Parliament”

• ❌ Incorrect.
• The Attorney General can participate and has the right to speak in both Houses of Parliament and in their joint sittings or committees (but without the right to vote).

4. “Is a whole-time counsel for the government”

• ❌ Incorrect.
• The Attorney General is not a whole-time counsel; he/she can also take up private practice, provided it does not conflict with official duties or involve matters against the Government of India.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key PointsSeventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution:

1. Protection of wildlife

• Belongs to the Concurrent List
• Shifted from State List to Concurrent List by the 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976

2. Income on agriculture

• Belongs to the State List
• States have the power to levy tax on agricultural income

3. Tax on electricity consumption or sale

• Belongs to the State List

4. Price control

• Belongs to the Concurrent List
• Both the Centre and States can legislate on price control

So the correct answers are 1 and 4.

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

Directive Principle (DPSP) against Gandhian Principles in Part IV of the Constitution:

1. Organization of Village Panchayats (Article 40)

• ✔️ Gandhian Principle (based on Gandhi’s idea of Gram Swaraj).

2. Common Civil Code (Article 44 – Uniform Civil Code)

• ❌ Not Gandhian → falls under Liberal-Intellectual principles.

3. Promotion of Cottage Industry in rural areas (Article 43)

• ✔️ Gandhian Principle (focus on self-reliance and rural economy).

4. Right to work (Article 41)

• ❌ Not Gandhian → falls under Socialist principles.

✅ Correct Answer:

3. 2 and 4

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

1. Forms of oath → 3^rd Schedule

• ✔️ Correct. The Third Schedule specifies forms of oath or affirmation for Union/State ministers, MPs, MLAs, judges, etc.

2. Allocation of seats in the Council of States → 4^th Schedule

• ✔️ Correct. The Fourth Schedule deals with allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).

3. Administration of scheduled areas → 6^th Schedule

• ❌ Incorrect.
• Fifth Schedule → Administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.
• Sixth Schedule → Administration of Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram (Autonomous District Councils).

4. Union List → 7^th Schedule

• ✔️ Correct. The Seventh Schedule contains Union, State, and Concurrent Lists.

✅ Correct Answer:

• 3. Administration of scheduled areas – 6^th schedule
• (It should be 5^th Schedule, not 6^th.)

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

1. “Ministries and Departments are formed by the Prime Minister with consultation of the Cabinet Secretary.”

• ❌ Incorrect.
• Ministries and departments are created/merged/reorganized by the President of India under Article 77 and the Allocation of Business Rules, 1961.
• The Prime Minister may advise, and the Cabinet Secretary may assist administratively, but constitutionally it is the President’s prerogative.

2. “Every Minister is allocated Ministry by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.”

• ✔️ Correct.
• As per Articles 74 and 75, the President allocates portfolios to Ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister.

✅ Correct Answer:

2. Only 2 is correct

The correct answer is oprion 2.

Key Points

1. “Advocate General has right to vote”

• ❌ Incorrect.
• The Advocate General has the right to speak and take part in proceedings of both Houses of the State Legislature (like the Attorney General in Parliament), but no right to vote.

2. “Business in the legislature shall be transacted only in official language of the state or in Hindi or in English.”

• ✔️ Correct.
• Article 210: Business in the State Legislature shall be conducted in the official language of the State or in Hindi or English.

3. “It can discuss the conduct of any judge of the High Court also”

• ❌ Incorrect.
• Under Articles 121 (Parliament) and 211 (State Legislature), discussions on the conduct of judges of High Courts and Supreme Court are prohibited, except when considering a motion for their removal.

4. “Validity of proceedings shall be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity”

• ❌ Incorrect.
• Article 212: Courts cannot inquire into the validity of legislative proceedings on grounds of procedural irregularities.

✅ Correct Answer:

• 2. Business in the legislature shall be transacted only in official language of the state or in Hindi or in English.

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

1. “The interest of the general public is safeguarded.”

• ✅ This is absolutely correct. Reasonable restrictions are meant to balance individual liberty with general public interest.

2. “Prevailing social value and also social needs are not bar.”

• ❌ Actually, the Supreme Court has said (e.g., State of Madras v. V.G. Row, 1952) that “reasonableness” must be judged considering **prevailing social values and needs of the time.”

So, the wording “are not bar” is misleading — they are part of the test of reasonableness. Hence, incorrect.

3. “Directive Principles can be bypassed.”

• ❌ Wrong. DPSPs cannot simply be bypassed; instead, courts try to harmonize FRs with DPSPs.

4. “Collective good is not greater.”

• ❌ Wrong. In fact, reasonable restrictions give priority to collective good over individual rights in some contexts.
• Final Answer:
• Only 1 is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

• Article 280 – Finance Commission:
• The President of India constitutes a Finance Commission every 5 years.
• Parliament by law determines the qualifications of members of the Finance Commission and the manner of their selection.
• Correct Answer:
• 3. Parliament by act

Additional Information

Finance Commission of India:

• Constitutional Provision:
• Article 280 (Part XII) of the Constitution.
• Constituted by the President of India every 5 years
• Functions:
• The Finance Commission makes recommendations to the President on:
• Distribution of net tax proceeds between the Union and the States (vertical devolution).
• Allocation among states of the share of such proceeds (horizontal distribution).
• Principles governing grants-in-aid to states out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
• Steps to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement resources of Panchayats and Municipalities (Article 280(3)(bb) & (c)).
• Any other matter referred by the President in the interest of sound finance.
• Composition:
• Chairman + 4 members.
• Appointed by the President.
• Parliament (Finance Commission Act, 1951) lays down the qualifications:
• Judge of a High Court / qualified to be one.
• Expert in public affairs, finance, economics, administration.
• Notable Finance Commissions:
• 1^st Finance Commission (1951) – Chairman K.C. Neogy.
• 14^th Finance Commission (2015-20) – increased states’ share in Union taxes from 32% to 42%.
• 15^th Finance Commission (2020-26) – Chairman N.K. Singh. Recommended 41% share (after J&K reorganisation) and special focus on performance-linked grants.
• The 16^th Finance Commission was constituted on 31 December 2023.
• Chairman: Dr. Arvind Panagariya (former Vice Chairman of NITI Aayog)

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

1. “The summoning of the House means convocation”

• ✔️ True.
• Summoning = convening the House for a session by the President (Article 85).

2. “Prorogation ends a session”

• ✔️ True.
• Prorogation = termination of a session of Parliament by the President, not of the House itself.

3. “Dissolution terminates a House”

• ✔️ True (for Lok Sabha only).
• Dissolution = complete end of the House’s life (not just a session). Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution.

4. “Prorogation of a session can be effected by the leader of the House alone”

• ❌ Not true.
• Only the President (Governor in states) can prorogue a session, not the leader of the House.

✅ Correct Answer:

4. Only 4