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Question 71

Bihar Police SI 2026• Test

‘हिमालय’ शब्द का संधि-विच्छेद कीजिए।

  1. AOption (a)

    हिमा + लय

  2. BOption (b)

    हिमा + अलय

  3. COption (c)

    हिमा + आलय

  4. DOption (d)

    हिम + आलय

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

हिम + आलय

Why this answer is correct

सही उत्तर हिम + आलय है।

Key Points

  • ‘हिमालय’ शब्द का संधि विच्छेद ‘हिम + आलय’ होगा।
  • अ + आ= आ नियमानुसार हिमालय में दीर्घ स्वर संधि है।
  • दीर्घ स्वर संधि- दीर्घ अ, आ, इ, ई, उ, ऊ और ऋ के बाद ह्रस्व या दीर्घ अ, आ, इ, ई, उ, ऊ और ऋ स्वर आ जाएँ तो दोनों मिलकर दीर्घ आ, ई, ऊ और ऋ हो जाते हैं।
  • इस मेल से बनने वाली संधि को दीर्घ स्वर संधि कहते हैं। जैसे- विद्यालय= विद्या + आलय

Additional Information

संधि- दो शब्दों के मेल से जो विकार (परिवर्तन) होता है उसे संधि कहते हैं। संधि के तीन प्रकार हैं - 1. स्वर, 2. व्यंजन और 3. विसर्ग,
संधिपरिभाषाउदाहरण
स्वरस्वर वर्ण के साथ स्वर वर्ण के मेल से विकार उत्पन्न होता है।विद्या + अर्थी = विद्यार्थी महा + ईश = महेश
व्यंजनएक व्यंजन से दूसरे व्यंजन या स्वर के मेल से विकार उत्पन्न होता है।अहम् + कार = अहंकार उत् + लास = उल्लास
विसर्गविसर्ग के साथ स्वर या व्यंजन के मेल से विकार उत्पन्न होता है।दुः + आत्मा =दुरात्मा निः + कपट =निष्कपट

Question 72

Bihar Police SI 2026• Test

The following question has three statements. Study the question and the statements and decide which of the statement(s) is necessary to answer the question.

Find the average of x, y and z.

I) x is equal to 5.

II) y is 3 less than z.

III) z is 2 less than 5 times of x.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only (I)

  2. BOption (b)

    Only (II) and (III) 

  3. COption (c)

    All three

  4. DOption (d)

    Any two

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

All three

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

Considering statement (I),

⇒ x = 5

Considering statement (II),

⇒ y = z – 3

Considering statement (III),

⇒ z = 5x – 2

Using information from all three statements,

⇒ z = 5(5) – 2 = 23

⇒ y = 23 – 3 = 20

∴ Required average = (x + y + z)/3 = (5 + 20 + 23)/3 = 48/3 = 16

∴ The question can be answered using all the three statements

Hence the Correct answer is Option 3.

Question 73

Bihar Police SI 2026• Test

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List - I (Book)List - II (Writer)
A.Hindu Polity1.D.D. Kosambi
B.The Wonder That Was India2.A.L. Basham
C.An Introduction to the Study of Indian History3.K.P. Jayaswal
D.The Early History of India4.Vincent Arthur Smith
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 1, B - 2, C - 4, D - 3

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 3, B - 2, C - 1, D - 4

  3. COption (c)

    A - 3, B - 2, C - 4, D - 1

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A - 3, B - 2, C - 1, D - 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2

Key Points 

  • A. Hindu Polity → 3. K.P. Jayaswal
  • "Hindu Polity" was written by K.P. Jayaswal and focuses on the political system in ancient India, particularly during the classical period.
  • B. The Wonder That Was India → 2. A.L. Basham
  • "The Wonder That Was India" is a classic book by A.L. Basham. It is a comprehensive historical analysis of ancient India, highlighting the rich cultural and social contributions of the civilization.
  • C. An Introduction to the Study of Indian History → 1. D.D. Kosambi
  • "An Introduction to the Study of Indian History" is written by D.D. Kosambi. It emphasizes the scientific approach to the study of Indian history, particularly its social and economic aspects.
  • D. The Early History of India → 4. Vincent Arthur Smith
  • "The Early History of India" was written by Vincent Arthur Smith. It deals with the early history of India, especially covering the periods of ancient and early medieval history.
  • Hence, the correct answer is A - 3, B - 2, C - 1, D - 4

Question 74

Bihar Police SI 2026• Test

The total number of gold medals and silver medals won by India in the Games is 85. Which of the following cannot be the ratio between the number of silver medals and the number of gold medals won by India?

  1. AOption (a)

    2 : 3

  2. BOption (b)

    12 : 13

  3. COption (c)

    9 : 8

  4. DOption (d)

    12 : 5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

12 : 13

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Total medals = 85

Ratio = Silver : Gold = a : b

Formula used:

Total medals = k(a + b)

⇒ 85 must be divisible by (a + b)

Calculations:

⇒ For 2 : 3 → a + b = 5 → 85 ÷ 5 = 17 (integer) 

⇒ For 12 : 13 → a + b = 25 → 85 ÷ 25 = 3.4 (not integer) 

⇒ For 9 : 8 → a + b = 17 → 85 ÷ 17 = 5 (integer) 

⇒ For 12 : 5 → a + b = 17 → 85 ÷ 17 = 5 (integer) 

∴ The ratio that cannot be the medal ratio is: 12 : 13.

Question 75

Bihar Police SI 2026• Test

Which of the following are related to the judicial removal or disciplinary process in India?

I. Article 124(4)

II. Judges Inquiry Act, 1968

III. Article 121

IV. Contempt of Courts Act, 1971

V. Article 326

Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2, and 3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2, 3, and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    2, 3, 4, and 5 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2, 3, and 5 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1, 2, and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1

In News

  • The Supreme Court recently questioned the submission of Justice Yashwant Varma to an in-house inquiry procedure under allegations of misconduct. The matter has revived discussions on the constitutional and legal framework governing judicial accountability and disciplinary action.

Key Points

  • Article 124(4): Provides for the removal of Supreme Court judges through a parliamentary process requiring a motion passed by both Houses. Hence, statement I is correct
  • Judges Inquiry Act, 1968: Statutory mechanism that outlines the procedure for investigation and presentation of charges against judges of the High Court and Supreme Court. Hence, statement II is correct
  • Article 121: Restricts Parliament from discussing the conduct of judges except when a motion for removal is under consideration. Hence, statement III is correct
  • Contempt of Courts Act, 1971: Deals with maintaining the authority of courts, but does not directly govern judicial removal. Hence, statement IV is incorrect
  • Article 326: Pertains to adult suffrage and the right to vote; not relevant to judicial discipline. Hence, statement V is incorrect

Question 76

Bihar Police SI 2026• Test

Which of the following schemes of computing interest yields the maximum interest for a year?

  1. AOption (a)

    Interest compounded every year at 24%. p.a.

  2. BOption (b)

    Interest compounded monthly at 2% per month.

  3. COption (c)

    Interest compounded per quarter 6% per quarter.

  4. DOption (d)

    Interest compounded every six months at 12% for every-6 months

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Interest compounded monthly at 2% per month.

Why this answer is correct

Concept used:

Amount = Principal[1 + (rate/n)]time × n

n = number of times interest applied in a year

Calculation:

We have to check Each option one by one

The principal would be the same for each case, time would be 1 year.

Let the Principal be 'P'

Option 1:

Amount = P[1 + (24/100)]1      ----(1)

Option 2:

Amount = P[1 + (2/12)]12      ----(2)

Option 3:

Amount = P[1 + (6/4)]4      ----(3)

Option 4:

Amount = P[1 + (12/2)]2      ----(4)

By comparing equations (1), (2), (3), (4)

The maximum power present in equation (2), which will give maximum interest in a year

∴ option(2) Interest compounded monthly at 2% per month will give maximum interest in a year.

Question 77

Bihar Police SI 2026• Test

Which of the following Kepler's laws comes from the observations that planets appear to move slower when they are farther from the sun than when they are nearer?

  1. AOption (a)

    Law of areas

  2. BOption (b)

    Law of orbits

  3. COption (c)

    Law of Gravitation

  4. DOption (d)

    Law of Periods

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Law of areas

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Law of areas.

Key Points

  • The Law of Areas, also known as Kepler's Second Law, states that a line segment joining a planet and the sun sweeps out equal areas during equal intervals of time.
  • This law implies that planets move faster when they are closer to the sun and slower when they are farther from the sun.
  • Kepler formulated this law based on the precise observations of planetary motions made by Tycho Brahe.
  • It is fundamental in understanding the elliptical orbits of planets and their varying velocities at different points in the orbit.

Additional Information

  • Kepler's Laws of Planetary Motion
  • Law of Orbits: Planets move in elliptical orbits with the Sun at one of the foci.
  • Law of Areas: A line joining a planet and the Sun sweeps out equal areas during equal intervals of time.
  • Law of Periods: The square of the orbital period of a planet is proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit.
  • Elliptical Orbits
  • Planets do not move in perfect circles but in ellipses, with the sun at one focus.
  • The shape of the elliptical orbit is defined by its eccentricity.
  • Velocity of Planets
  • Planets move faster when they are closer to the sun (perihelion) and slower when they are farther from the sun (aphelion).
  • This variation in velocity is a direct consequence of the Law of Areas.
  • Historical Context
  • Kepler's laws were derived from the meticulous observations of Tycho Brahe.
  • These laws significantly advanced the heliocentric model of the solar system proposed by Copernicus.

Question 78

Bihar Police SI 2026• Test

(Match the Following – Projects and Locations)

Project NameState/Region
A) Hirakud1) Rajasthan
B) Damodar Valley2) Jharkhand-West Bengal
C) Nagarjuna Sagar3) Telangana
D) Indira Gandhi Canal4) Odisha
  1. AOption (a)

    A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

  2. BOption (b)

    A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

  3. COption (c)

    A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

  4. DOption (d)

    A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: A - 4, B - 2, C - 3, D - 1.

Key Points

Project NameState/Region
(A) Hirakud(4) Odisha
(B) Damodar Valley(2) Jharkhand-West Bengal
(C) Nagarjuna Sagar(3) Telangana
(D) Indira Gandhi Canal(1) Rajasthan

 

 

 

 

Additional Information 

  • Hirakud Project in Odisha:
  • Overview: The Hirakud Dam is built across the Mahanadi River in Odisha. It is one of the longest dams in the world.
  • Purpose: The primary purpose of the Hirakud Dam is to control floods, provide irrigation, and generate hydroelectric power.
  • Significance: This dam is crucial for flood control in the Mahanadi delta and supports agriculture in the region.
  • Damodar Valley Project in Jharkhand-West Bengal:
  • Overview: The Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC) operates several dams, reservoirs, and a network of canals in the Damodar River basin, spanning Jharkhand and West Bengal.
  • Purpose: The project aims at flood control, irrigation, and hydroelectric power generation.
  • Significance: It plays a vital role in managing water resources and providing electricity to the region.
  • Nagarjuna Sagar Project in Telangana:
  • Overview: The Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is built on the Krishna River in Telangana.
  • Purpose: It provides irrigation water to the regions of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh and generates hydroelectric power.
  • Significance: This dam is one of the largest and earliest multipurpose projects in India, significantly boosting agriculture in the area.
  • Indira Gandhi Canal in Rajasthan:
  • Overview: The Indira Gandhi Canal is one of the largest canal projects in India, designed to carry water from the Beas and Sutlej rivers to the Thar Desert in Rajasthan.
  • Purpose: The canal provides irrigation to the arid regions of Rajasthan, transforming the desert into productive agricultural land.
  • Significance: The project has significantly improved the socio-economic conditions of the region by enhancing agriculture and providing drinking water.

Question 79

Bihar Police SI 2026• Test

Who won the 2025 FIDE Women's World Cup?

  1. AOption (a)

    Koneru Humpy

  2. BOption (b)

    Divya Deshmukh

  3. COption (c)

    Tan Zhongy

  4. DOption (d)

    Lei Tingjie

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Divya Deshmukh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Divya Deshmukh.

Key Points

  • Divya Deshmukh is an Indian chess prodigy who emerged victorious in the 2025 FIDE Women’s World Cup.
  • The Women's Chess World Cup 2025 is a single-elimination chess tournament, the third edition of the Women's Chess World Cup, which took place in Batumi, Georgia
  • Divya’s victory in the 2025 Women’s World Cup further solidified her position as one of India’s top female chess players.
  • Her strategic gameplay and resilience against some of the world’s toughest competitors were key to her success in the tournament.
  • The current world champion in men's Chess is Gukesh Dommaraju, who defeated the previous champion Ding Liren in the 2024 World Chess Championship.

Additional Information

  • FIDE Women’s World Cup:
  • The FIDE Women’s World Cup is a prestigious knockout tournament organized by the International Chess Federation (FIDE).
  • It serves as a pathway for players to qualify for the Women’s Candidates Tournament, a step towards competing for the Women’s World Chess Championship.
  • The format involves multiple rounds, with players facing off in two-game matches and tiebreakers if necessary.
  • Divya Deshmukh’s Chess Journey:
  • Divya is a Woman Grandmaster (WGM) and holds the title of International Master (IM), showcasing her remarkable talent in chess.
  • She has represented India in numerous international tournaments, including the Chess Olympiad.
  • Her consistent performances at the junior and senior levels have made her a prominent figure in Indian chess.
  • Notable Indian Women in Chess:
  • India has produced several top female chess players, including Koneru Humpy, Harika Dronavalli, and Vaishali Rameshbabu.
  • Koneru Humpy became the Women’s World Rapid Chess Champion in 2019, inspiring a new generation of players.
  • Chess in India:
  • Chess has a rich history in India, with its origins traced back to the ancient game of Chaturanga.
  • India’s rise in global chess is attributed to the influence of players like Viswanathan Anand, a former World Chess Champion.
  • The country continues to invest in nurturing young talent through academies and national tournaments.

Question 80

Bihar Police SI 2026• Test

The function of lysosomes in cells is:

  1. AOption (a)

    Protein synthesis

  2. BOption (b)

    Intracellular digestion

  3. COption (c)

    Energy production

  4. DOption (d)

    Genetic information storage

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Intracellular digestion

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Intracellular digestion.

Key Points

  • Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles found in animal cells that contain digestive enzymes. These enzymes help in breaking down cellular waste, debris, and foreign particles through intracellular digestion.
  • Intracellular digestion occurs when lysosomes fuse with vesicles containing cellular waste or foreign particles. The digestive enzymes degrade these substances into simpler molecules that can be reused or expelled from the cell.
  • Lysosomes play a vital role in maintaining cellular health by removing damaged organelles, pathogens, and cellular debris. This process is known as autophagy.
  • Lysosomal enzymes function optimally at acidic pH levels, making lysosomes a specialized compartment for digestion within the cell.
  • Disorders related to lysosomal function, such as Lysosomal Storage Diseases (e.g., Tay-Sachs disease), occur when these enzymes are defective, leading to the accumulation of undigested substances in cells.

Additional Information

  • Protein synthesis:
  • Protein synthesis primarily occurs in the ribosomes, which are present in the cytoplasm or attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
  • This process involves two major steps: transcription (DNA to mRNA) and translation (mRNA to protein).
  • Lysosomes are not involved in protein synthesis, but they help degrade proteins that are damaged or no longer needed.
  • Energy production:
  • Energy production in cells is mainly carried out by the mitochondria, known as the "powerhouse of the cell."
  • Mitochondria generate energy in the form of ATP through processes such as cellular respiration and oxidative phosphorylation.
  • Lysosomes do not contribute to energy production; their primary role is in digestion and waste removal.
  • Genetic information storage:
  • Genetic information is stored in the form of DNA within the cell nucleus and mitochondria.
  • The nucleus contains the majority of the cell’s genetic material and regulates gene expression and replication.
  • Lysosomes do not have any role in storing or managing genetic information.
  • Function of lysosomes:
  • Lysosomes are involved in processes such as endocytosis (intake of substances), exocytosis (expulsion of waste), and autophagy (self-digestion of cellular components).
  • They contain hydrolytic enzymes such as proteases, lipases, and nucleases, which break down various biomolecules.
  • Lysosomes are often referred to as the "cell's garbage disposal" due to their role in waste degradation.

Important Points

  • Discovery: Lysosomes were first discovered by Belgian biologist Christian de Duve in 1955.
  • Structure: Lysosomes are spherical vesicles surrounded by a lipid bilayer membrane that maintains their acidic environment.
  • Enzymes: The enzymes within lysosomes are synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum and processed in the Golgi apparatus before being enclosed in lysosomes.
  • Diseases: Mutations affecting lysosomal enzymes can lead to conditions like Gaucher disease and Niemann-Pick disease.