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The correct answer is Powers of Parliament to legislate on State subject - Article 248.

Key Points

• Administration of Scheduled and Tribal Areas - Article 244: Article 244 of the Constitution of India deals with the administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas. It includes provisions for the governance of these areas under the Fifth Schedule (for Scheduled Areas) and the Sixth Schedule (for Tribal Areas in northeastern states). Hence, this statement is correct.
• Consolidated Fund of India - Article 266: Article 266 governs the Consolidated Fund of India, which includes all revenues received by the Government of India, all loans raised, and all money received in repayment of loans. This fund is used for the expenditure of the government. Hence, this statement is correct.
• Powers of Parliament to legislate on State subject - Article 248: Article 248 does not deal with the powers of Parliament to legislate on state subjects. Instead, it deals with residuary powers of legislation, granting Parliament the exclusive authority to make laws on matters not enumerated in the State List or the Concurrent List. The correct article for Parliament's power to legislate on State subjects is Article 249. Hence, this statement is incorrect.
• Freedom of trade and commerce - Article 301: Article 301 ensures freedom of trade, commerce, and intercourse throughout the territory of India. It guarantees that trade and commerce can be conducted freely across state boundaries without restrictions. Hence, this statement is correct.

Additional Information

• Article 244:
• Fifth Schedule: Pertains to the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. It provides for the establishment of Tribes Advisory Councils and laws to regulate the transfer of tribal land.
• Sixth Schedule: Deals with the administration of Tribal Areas in northeastern states like Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, allowing for Autonomous District and Regional Councils with legislative, executive, and judicial powers.
• Article 266:
• The Consolidated Fund of India represents the primary account of the central government, containing all revenues and loans.
• Withdrawals from this fund require parliamentary approval through appropriation bills.
• Article 248:
• Residuary powers: Grants Parliament the authority to legislate on matters not enumerated in the State or Concurrent List.
• Parliament can also impose taxes on residuary subjects under this article.
• Article 301:
• Ensures the free flow of trade and commerce across India.
• Exceptions to this freedom are provided under Articles 302 to 307, which allow Parliament or state legislatures to impose restrictions under specific circumstances.

Important Points

• Residuary Powers in India:
• India follows a federal structure where powers are divided into Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
• Residuary powers (Article 248) are those legislative powers not covered in these lists, exclusively vested in Parliament.
• Examples of residuary subjects include taxation on internet services or any new technology not envisaged during the drafting of the Constitution.
• Freedom of Trade under Article 301:
• Article 301 protects the fundamental right of trade and commerce across state boundaries.
• However, restrictions can be imposed under Article 302 if deemed necessary in the public interest.

Shortcut Trick

Identify the modal class (highest frequency): Class 20−30 with frequency 10.

Difference with preceding frequency (d₁) = 10 − 8 = 2.

Difference with succeeding frequency (d₂) = 10 − 2 = 8.

Mode = Lower limit + [ d₁ / (d₁ + d₂) ] × Class Width

Mode = 20 + [ 2 / (2 + 8) ] × 10 = 20 + 2 = 22.

∴ The correct answer is 22.

Alternate Method

Given:

Modal Class = 20−30 (as it has the maximum frequency of 10)

Lower limit of modal class (l) = 20

Frequency of modal class (f₁) = 10

Frequency of preceding class (f₀) = 8

Frequency of succeeding class (f₂) = 2

Class width (h) = 10

Formula Used:

Mode = l + [ (f₁ − f₀) / (2f₁ − f₀ − f₂) ] × h

Calculations:

⇒ Mode = 20 + [ (10 − 8) / (2 × 10 − 8 − 2) ] × 10

⇒ Mode = 20 + [ 2 / (20 − 10) ] × 10

⇒ Mode = 20 + [ 2 / 10 ] × 10

⇒ Mode = 20 + 2

⇒ Mode = 22

∴ The correct answer is 22.

Additional Information

Empirical Relationship

For a moderately skewed distribution: 3 × Median = Mode + 2 × Mean or Mean − Mode = 3(Mean − Median).

Modal Class

In a grouped frequency distribution, the modal class is the class interval which contains the maximum frequency.

Measures of Central Tendency

Mean is the average, Median is the middle-most value, and Mode is the most frequently occurring value in a data set.

The correct answer is 1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A..

Key Points

• Assertion (A): UDAN Scheme improves regional air connectivity:
• The UDAN Scheme, known as Ude Desh Ka Aam Nagrik, is a flagship regional air connectivity scheme launched by the Government of India in 2016.
• Its primary aim is to make air travel affordable and accessible for common citizens, especially in tier-2 and tier-3 cities.
• By connecting underserved and remote regions of India, UDAN improves regional connectivity and fosters economic growth. Hence, the assertion is correct.
• Reason (R): It provides financial viability gap funding to airlines:
• Under the UDAN scheme, airlines operating on regional routes receive Viability Gap Funding (VGF) from the government.
• The VGF reduces the financial burden on airlines to operate flights on less profitable routes, ensuring sustained operations.
• This funding is critical to achieving the goals of UDAN by incentivizing airlines to cover underserved routes. Hence, the reason is correct.
• The reason (R) directly explains the assertion (A), as the financial VGF mechanism is integral to improving regional air connectivity through the UDAN scheme. Thus, both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Additional Information

• UDAN Scheme:
• The UDAN Scheme is jointly funded by the Central Government and the State Governments.
• It aims to reduce the cost of air travel by capping fares at Rs. 2,500 for an hour-long flight.
• The scheme also promotes the development of regional airports and infrastructure in remote areas.
• As of 2023, the scheme has connected several underserved regions, including cities like Darbhanga, Kanpur, and Jharsuguda.
• Viability Gap Funding (VGF):
• VGF is a financial support mechanism provided by the government to make projects commercially viable.
• Under UDAN, VGF is funded through a levy collected from airlines operating on metro routes.
• It ensures that airlines can operate on regional routes without incurring significant losses.
• Impact of UDAN:
• Boosts tourism and trade in remote and underserved areas.
• Generates employment opportunities in aviation and related sectors.
• Strengthens socioeconomic development by connecting regions with the rest of the country.
• Other Regional Connectivity Efforts:
• Development of regional airports under Regional Connectivity Infrastructure Investment.
• Promotion of private sector investments in aviation infrastructure.
• Collaboration with state governments to enhance last-mile connectivity.

Important Points

• UDAN Achievements:
• As of October 2023, the UDAN scheme has connected over 70 airports and initiated 425 routes in India.
• It has made air travel accessible to millions of citizens, especially in remote regions.
• Future Goals:
• The scheme aims to connect all regions of India, including the North-Eastern States and hilly terrains, by 2030.
• Plans to expand infrastructure and increase the number of operational airports to 100+.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

The correct answer is Treaty of Madras.

Key Points

• The First Anglo-Mysore War occurred between 1767 and 1769, involving the forces of the British East India Company and Hyder Ali, the ruler of Mysore.
• The war was marked by intense military engagements, with Hyder Ali showing remarkable strategic skills and challenging the British forces effectively.
• The war ended with the Treaty of Madras signed in 1769. This treaty is significant as it restored peace between Mysore and the British.
• Under the treaty, both parties agreed to mutual restitution of conquered territories, and pledged to assist each other in case of attacks by other powers.
• The Treaty of Madras also highlighted Hyder Ali's growing influence as a leader capable of negotiating on equal terms with the British forces.

Additional Information

• First Anglo-Mysore War:
• The war was initiated due to territorial ambitions and political rivalry between Mysore and the British East India Company.
• Hyder Ali formed alliances with the Nizam of Hyderabad and the Marathas to counter the British forces.
• Despite initial setbacks, Hyder Ali's military strategies forced the British to sue for peace.
• Treaty of Madras:
• Signed in April 1769, it restored territories captured during the war.
• It included a clause for mutual assistance in case of external attacks, particularly highlighting Hyder Ali's diplomatic acumen.
• This treaty marked a temporary end to hostilities but left unresolved tensions that later led to subsequent Anglo-Mysore wars.
• Treaty of Mangalore:
• Signed in 1784, this treaty concluded the Second Anglo-Mysore War, not the first.
• It restored territories to their pre-war status but did not involve the First Anglo-Mysore War.
• Treaty of Srirangapattanam:
• This treaty was signed in 1792 after the Third Anglo-Mysore War between Tipu Sultan and the British forces.
• It involved significant territorial losses for Mysore and marked the beginning of Tipu Sultan's decline.
• Treaty of Salbai:
• This treaty was signed in 1782 between the Marathas and the British, concluding the First Anglo-Maratha War.
• It is unrelated to the Anglo-Mysore conflicts.

Important Points

• The Anglo-Mysore Wars were pivotal in shaping the colonial history of India and demonstrated the resistance offered by Indian rulers like Hyder Ali and Tipu Sultan.
• The treaties signed after each war reflect the geopolitical shifts and growing dominance of the British East India Company.
• Understanding these treaties helps contextualize the broader struggle for power between Indian states and colonial forces.

The correct answer is (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II).

 Key Points

• The Indian Constitution is a comprehensive document that defines the framework for the governance of the country.
• Article 368 outlines the procedure for amending the Constitution of India, making it the provision for Constitution amendment.
• Article 40 states that the state shall take steps to organize Panchayats in the rural areas and to endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government, making it the provision for Panchayati Raj.
• Article 61 deals with the impeachment of the President of India and sets out the procedure for removing the President from office, making it the provision for Impeachment of the President.
• Article 352 deals with the Emergency Provision, which allows the President to declare a state of emergency in the country in case of a threat to the security of the nation or to the functioning of the government.

The correct answer is February 17^th.

In News

• Global Tourism Resilience Day is observed on February 17^th.

Key Points

• The United Nations General Assembly designated February 17^th as Global Tourism Resilience Day.
• The day aims to raise awareness and build capacity for resilience in the tourism sector.
• It highlights the vulnerabilities of the tourism industry and calls for action to address these challenges.
• The initiative began in 2023, and in 2024, the UN proclaimed 2027 as the International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism.

Additional Information

• UN General Assembly
• It plays a crucial role in declaring important days and initiatives to promote global awareness.
• The declaration of Global Tourism Resilience Day is part of the UN's efforts to make the tourism industry more resilient.
• Sustainable and Resilient Tourism
• Refers to a tourism model that focuses on long-term sustainability while being resilient to external challenges.
• The International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism will be celebrated in 2027.

The correct answer is Carbon disulphide.

Key Points

• Carbon disulphide has the highest absolute refractive index among the given materials.
• The refractive index of Carbon disulphide is approximately 1.63.
• It is higher than that of Crown glass (around 1.52) and Fused quartz (around 1.46).
• Turpentine oil has a refractive index of about 1.47, which is lower than Carbon disulphide.

Additional Information

• Refractive Index: It is a measure of how much the speed of light is reduced inside a medium compared to a vacuum.
• Snell's Law: It describes the relationship between the angles of incidence and refraction, when referring to light or other waves passing through a boundary between two different isotropic media.
• Critical Angle: The angle of incidence above which total internal reflection occurs.
• Applications: Materials with high refractive indices are used in optics and photonics to manipulate light paths in lenses, microscopes, and other instruments.
• Absolute Refractive Index: The refractive index measured with respect to the vacuum, which has an index of 1.

The correct answer is The percent growth of population decreased, but Bihar's share in India's total population increased.

Key Points

• During the period 2001-2011, Bihar experienced a reduction in the percent growth rate of population compared to the previous decade. This indicates a decline in the rate at which the population was increasing.
• Despite the decrease in the growth rate, Bihar's absolute population increased, leading to an increase in its share in India's total population during the same period.
• Population growth in Bihar was still significant due to its already high fertility rates, which contributed to its increasing share within India's demographic structure.
• The population density of Bihar also rose substantially during this decade, making it one of the most densely populated states in India.
• This trend reflects the interplay between absolute population growth and a reduced growth rate, highlighting demographic shifts in Bihar's contribution to the national population.

Additional Information

• Population Growth Rate:
• The population growth rate refers to the percentage change in the total population over a specific period. In Bihar, the growth rate declined from 28.62% (1991-2001) to 25.42% (2001-2011).
• A declining growth rate can result from factors such as improved education, healthcare, and family planning awareness.
• Bihar's Share in India's Total Population:
• Despite the reduced growth rate, Bihar's total population rose from approximately 83 million in 2001 to 104 million in 2011.
• This increase led to Bihar accounting for a higher proportion of India's total population, rising from 8.07% to 8.58% during the same period.
• Factors Contributing to Population Dynamics:
• High fertility rates: Bihar recorded one of the highest fertility rates in India during this period.
• Migration trends: Outward migration from Bihar for employment opportunities influenced demographic shifts but did not significantly reduce the overall population.
• National Demographic Context:
• India's population growth rate during 2001-2011 was 17.64%, lower than Bihar's growth rate, explaining the state's increased share in the national population.
• Bihar remains a critical contributor to India's overall population density due to its limited geographical area compared to its growing population.

Important Points

• Population Density: Bihar's population density rose from 880 persons per square kilometer (2001) to 1106 persons per square kilometer (2011), making it the most densely populated state in India.
• Demographic Transition: Bihar is in the early stages of demographic transition, where high birth rates are gradually declining due to socio-economic improvements.
• Government Initiatives: Efforts to improve education, healthcare, and rural development in Bihar aim to reduce fertility rates and manage population growth more effectively.
• Impact on Resources: The increasing population share poses challenges for resource allocation, infrastructure development, and service delivery in Bihar.

The Correct Answer is Option 1

Key Points

• Kanchipuram → Ancient Period (4)
• Kanchipuram, located in Tamil Nadu, was an important ancient city and a center of learning and Hindu culture during the Pallava and Chola dynasties.
• Jaisalmer → Medieval Period (3)
• Jaisalmer, in Rajasthan, was founded in 1156 CE by Rawal Jaisal and became a major medieval trade and fort city.
• Kodaikanal → Colonial Period (2)
• Kodaikanal, a hill station in Tamil Nadu, was developed by the British in the 19^th century as a retreat from the heat.
• Bhilai → Post-Independence (1)
• Bhilai, in Chhattisgarh, was planned after independence, especially with the establishment of the Bhilai Steel Plant in collaboration with the USSR in 1955.
• Correct Answer: Option 1) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1