Search Previous Year Questions

The correct answer is 1336.

Key Points

• The brothers Harihara and Bukka were the founders of the Vijayanagara Empire.
• They established the empire in the year 1336.
• The Vijayanagara Empire was located in the southern part of India, primarily in the region that is now known as Karnataka.
• The empire was known for its capital city, Hampi, which is now a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
• The Vijayanagara Empire played a crucial role in protecting the southern part of India from the invasions of the Delhi Sultanate.
• The empire saw significant developments in art, architecture, and culture, with contributions in various fields such as literature and religious practices.
• It was a period of economic prosperity and growth, marked by trade and commerce.
• The rulers of Vijayanagara were patrons of Hindu religion and worked towards the revival of Hinduism in the region.

 Additional Information

• 1346
• This date does not hold significant importance in relation to the establishment of the Vijayanagara Empire.
• 1356
• This date does not correspond to any major event related to the founding of the Vijayanagara Empire.
• 1367
• This date is not associated with the establishment of the Vijayanagara Empire.

The correct answer is 100.

Key Points

• The Smart Cities Mission was launched by the Government of India on 25 June 2015 under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
• Initially, 100 cities were selected to be developed as part of the mission.
• The mission aims to improve urban infrastructure and provide better quality of life through sustainable and inclusive development.
• The cities were selected through a competitive process known as the Smart Cities Challenge.
• The total planned investment for the mission is estimated at ₹2.05 lakh crore, covering projects like affordable housing, urban mobility, and IT connectivity.

Additional Information

• Smart Cities Mission Objectives:
• The mission focuses on area-based development such as retrofitting, redevelopment, and greenfield projects.
• It emphasizes smart solutions like smart meters, intelligent traffic management, and e-governance.
• Selection Process:
• The cities were selected through a three-stage competition involving state governments, urban local bodies, and central government evaluation.
• Only cities that meet specified criteria are granted funding under the mission.
• Implementation:
• Each selected city sets up a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) for implementation, with support from government and private partners.
• The SPV is responsible for planning, appraising, and executing projects under the mission.
• Progress:
• As of 2023, over 7,000 projects have been tendered, with many nearing completion across various cities.
• Key focus areas include urban mobility, affordable housing, and green energy initiatives.

The incorrect answer is The Bill was introduced citing an increase in Telangana’s rural fertility rate above replacement level.

In News

• Telangana Legislative Assembly passed the Telangana Panchayat Raj (Amendment) Bill, 2026, abolishing the two-child norm for local body elections.

Key Points

• The Bill removes the long-standing two-child norm that disqualified candidates with more than two children.
• The restriction was originally enacted in 1994 to address population surge concerns of earlier decades.
• The government cited a decline in rural Telangana’s total fertility rate to 1.7 children per woman.
• Incorrect Statement Explained
• The Bill was not introduced due to an increase in fertility rate
• Instead, concerns were raised about a declining fertility rate
• Lower fertility may affect Telangana’s future demographic dividend

Additional Information

• Two-Child Norm
• A population control measure linked to electoral eligibility
• Adopted by several states during the 1990s
• Aimed at promoting small family norms
• Total Fertility Rate (TFR)
• Average number of children a woman is expected to have
• Replacement level fertility is around 2.1
• Telangana’s rural TFR of 1.7 is below replacement level
• Demographic Dividend
• Economic growth potential from a larger working-age population
• Declining fertility can reduce this advantage over time
• Policy adjustments are often required to balance population structure

The correct answer is Option 4.

Key Points

• Statement 1: The 73^rd Inter Services Water Polo Championship was organized by the Eastern Naval Command. This statement is correct as the Eastern Naval Command is known for hosting and organizing various sports events for the armed forces.
• Statement 2: Visakhapatnam hosted the championship. This statement is correct as Visakhapatnam is home to the headquarters of the Eastern Naval Command, making it a prime location for such events.
• Statement 3: The event was held in April 2025 as per the Services’ aquatic calendar. This statement is also correct as sports events in the Services are often scheduled according to pre-determined calendars, including aquatic championships.
• All three statements are correct, making the correct answer Option 4.

Additional Information

• Eastern Naval Command:
• The Eastern Naval Command is one of the three main commands of the Indian Navy, headquartered in Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
• It is responsible for overseeing naval operations along the eastern coast of India and plays a vital role in maritime security in the Bay of Bengal.
• The Command frequently organizes sporting events to foster camaraderie, fitness, and team spirit among personnel.
• Visakhapatnam:
• Known as the "City of Destiny," Visakhapatnam is a port city located on the eastern coast of India.
• It serves as a strategic location for the Indian Navy and hosts various military and naval events.
• The city is also famous for its scenic beaches and proximity to significant naval bases.
• Inter Services Water Polo Championship:
• This championship is organized annually to promote water sports among the armed forces.
• Participants include teams from different branches of the Indian Armed Forces, such as the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
• The event fosters healthy competition and contributes to the physical fitness of military personnel.
• Aquatic Sports in the Armed Forces:
• Aquatic sports like water polo, swimming, and diving are integral to military training and recreational activities.
• These sports enhance endurance, teamwork, and tactical skills among personnel.
• Events like the Inter Services Water Polo Championship showcase the importance of aquatic disciplines in the armed forces.

Important Points

• Significance of Armed Forces Sports:
• Sports in the armed forces are not just recreational but also play a crucial role in physical training and mental well-being.
• Inter-service championships encourage healthy competition and unity among the different branches of the military.
• Benefits of Aquatic Sports:
• Develops physical endurance and stamina, crucial for military personnel.
• Enhances teamwork, which is vital for successful military operations.
• Promotes discipline and strategic thinking.

The correct answer is 1 and 3 are correct.

Key Points

• Statement 1: An election to constitute a municipality shall be completed before the expiration of a period of six months from the date of its dissolution. This statement is correct as per the provisions of the Constitution of India.
• Statement 2: Election to constitute a municipality should be before three months of its expiration. This statement is incorrect as the timeframe mentioned does not align with the legal provisions.
• Statement 3: A municipality constituted upon dissolution of a municipality before expiration of its term shall continue only for the remainder period. This statement is correct and aligns with the constitutional provisions regarding municipalities.
• Statement 4: If a municipality is dissolved before expiration of its term, then the new municipality will be constituted for five years. This statement is incorrect as the new municipality would continue only for the remaining period of the original term.

Additional Information

• Municipal Elections:
• Municipal elections are governed by the provisions of the Constitution of India, specifically under Article 243U.
• As per this article, elections to constitute a municipality must be completed before the expiry of its term, ensuring continuity in governance.
• Term of Municipality:
• The normal term of a municipality is five years from the date of its first meeting.
• If a municipality is dissolved before the completion of its term, the newly constituted municipality will serve only for the remaining period, not a full five-year term.
• Election Process:
• When a municipality is dissolved, elections must be held to reconstitute it within six months, as per constitutional guidelines.
• This ensures that governance is not disrupted and local administration continues to function efficiently.
• Constitutional Provisions:
• The constitutional provisions for municipalities are detailed in the 74^th Amendment of the Constitution, which introduced Part IXA.
• These provisions outline the structure, composition, and functioning of urban local bodies in India.

Important Points

• Article 243U: This article specifies the term and reconstitution process for municipalities in India.
• 74^th Constitutional Amendment: Enacted in 1992, this amendment established urban local bodies as the third tier of governance in India.
• Six-Month Timeframe: Elections for reconstituting a dissolved municipality must be held within six months to ensure administrative continuity.
• Remaining Term: A municipality constituted after dissolution serves for the remainder of the original term, ensuring adherence to constitutional provisions.

The correct answer is Option 3: Only one and two.

Key Points

• Statement 1: Chandragupta Maurya established the Maurya Empire by overthrowing the Nanda dynasty.
• This is correct. Chandragupta Maurya, with the assistance of his mentor Chanakya (Kautilya), overthrew the Nanda dynasty in Magadha and established the Mauryan Empire around 321 BCE.
• The Nanda dynasty ruled over Magadha and was overthrown due to its oppressive policies and unpopularity.
• Statement 2: Ashoka's edicts, found extensively in Bihar, promoted a policy of 'Dhamma' based on non-violence and tolerance.
• This is correct. Emperor Ashoka's policy of 'Dhamma' emphasized non-violence, compassion, religious tolerance, and welfare of all living beings.
• Many of Ashoka's inscriptions and edicts have been found in Bihar, such as those at Kaimur, Rampurva, and Lauria Nandangarh, promoting these principles.
• Statement 3: Megasthenes, a Greek ambassador, visited Pataliputra during the reign of Bindusara.
• This is incorrect. Megasthenes, the Greek ambassador of Seleucus I Nicator, visited Pataliputra during the reign of Chandragupta Maurya, not Bindusara.
• He documented his observations in his work "Indica," providing valuable information about the Mauryan administration, culture, and society.

Additional Information

• The Mauryan Empire:
• The Mauryan Empire (321 BCE–185 BCE) was the first large-scale empire in India, founded by Chandragupta Maurya and expanded by his successors Bindusara and Ashoka.
• Pataliputra (modern-day Patna, Bihar) served as the capital of the empire.
• Ashoka's Contribution:
• Emperor Ashoka is regarded as one of the greatest rulers in Indian history for propagating Buddhism and his policy of 'Dhamma.'
• His edicts were inscribed on rocks and pillars across the Indian subcontinent and are some of the earliest examples of written records in India.
• Megasthenes and His Observations:
• Megasthenes' "Indica" provides insights into the Mauryan administration, agriculture, and urban planning.
• He described Pataliputra as a well-planned city with a fortified wall, gates, and a moat, highlighting the advanced urban planning of the Mauryan era.
• The Nanda Dynasty:
• The Nanda dynasty preceded the Mauryan Empire and was known for its wealth and military strength.
• However, its oppressive taxation policies led to widespread discontent, paving the way for Chandragupta Maurya's rise to power.

Important Points

• The Mauryan administration was centralized and organized, with a council of ministers and a network of spies to ensure efficient governance.
• The Arthashastra by Chanakya is a valuable text that provides insights into the political and economic policies of the Mauryan Empire.
• Ashoka's propagation of Buddhism had a significant impact on the spread of the religion across Asia, including regions like Sri Lanka, Southeast Asia, and Central Asia.
• The Mauryan Empire's decline began after Ashoka's death, leading to the rise of regional kingdoms.

The correct answer is Fifth Five-Year Plan.

Key Points

• The Twenty Point Programme was launched in India during the Fifth Five-Year Plan period (1974-79).
• It was introduced by Prime Minister Indira Gandhi on 1^st July 1975.
• The programme aimed at poverty eradication, employment generation, and improvement of quality of life.
• The focus was on areas like health, education, housing, and social welfare to uplift the marginalized sections of society.

Additional Information

• Five-Year Plans in India
• India's Five-Year Plans were centralized economic and social growth programs modeled after the Soviet Union's planning system.
• The first Five-Year Plan was launched in 1951, focusing on agriculture and infrastructure development.
• The plans aimed to achieve self-reliant and robust economic growth, reducing poverty, and improving living standards.
• Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)
• It aimed at economic self-reliance and poverty reduction, with a focus on employment generation.
• Major projects included the National Program for Minimum Needs and the Twenty Point Programme.
• The plan faced challenges due to the global oil crisis and inflationary pressures.
• Indira Gandhi's Policies
• Indira Gandhi, the then Prime Minister, introduced several socio-economic reforms in the 1970s.
• Her policies focused on poverty alleviation, land reforms, and increasing agricultural productivity.
• She nationalized banks in 1969 to ensure credit availability to the underprivileged.
• Poverty Alleviation Programs
• India has implemented various programs to alleviate poverty, such as the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA).
• These programs aim to provide employment, improve infrastructure, and support vulnerable populations.

The correct answer is 'Harris'

Key Points

• Stationary Wave Theory:
• Proponent: The Stationary Wave Theory was propounded by R.A. Harris, a scientist with the U.S. Coast and Geodetic Survey.
• Contrasting Approach: Unlike the Progressive Wave Theory (proposed by William Whewell), which describes tides as waves traveling freely across oceans, Harris suggested that tides are regional phenomena caused by stationary waves originating independently in each ocean.
• Mechanism: According to the theory, tidal forces from the Sun and Moon create oscillations in the oceanic waters. These oscillations do not occur along straight lines, but rather around central points known as amphidromic points.
• Amphidromic Points: These are points in the ocean where water remains calm and does not move. The water level oscillates around these points, creating a rotational system of waves.
• Anti-clockwise Motion: The oscillating waves move in an anti-clockwise direction around each amphidromic point, forming a series of stationary waves. These waves then move towards the coastlines.
• Effect of Coastlines: The forward movement of these waves is impeded by continents, islands, and peninsulas. When these waves reach the coast, their crests and troughs cause high and low tides respectively.
• Relation to Ocean Depth: The height of tides is influenced by the depth of the ocean. Deeper oceans generate higher stationary waves, which result in higher tides (spring tides). In contrast, shallow seas produce smaller waves, causing lower tides (neap tides).

Additional Information

• Progressive Wave Theory:
• Proposed by William Whewell in 1833, the Progressive Wave Theory posits that tidal waves travel from east to west across the globe, driven by the moon's tidal force.
• This theory suggests that tidal waves can travel freely across oceans, but their path is obstructed by landmasses, causing the waves to refract northward and generate secondary waves.
• Canal Theory:
• G.B. Airy proposed the Canal Theory in 1842, which attributes the formation of tides to the shape and configuration of ocean basins. Airy focused on how the geometry of the basins could influence the movement of tidal waves.

Important Points

• Oscillatory Motion: Stationary waves are a result of oscillatory motion caused by the tidal forces of the Sun and Moon. The water moves rhythmically, creating a wave-like movement without advancing along a linear path.
• Stationary Wave Dynamics: The stationary waves generated by the oscillations form a circular or elliptical path around the amphidromic points. The period of oscillation varies depending on the depth and shape of the oceanic basins.
• Wave Refraction: The direction and velocity of these waves are affected by the landmasses they encounter. The waves refract northward as they are obstructed by continents, leading to regional variations in tidal patterns.
• Effect on Coastal Tides: As the stationary waves reach the coastlines, the crests and troughs cause high and low tides. This phenomenon is especially noticeable in regions with deep ocean basins.
• Correlation with Ocean Depth: There is a direct correlation between the depth of the ocean and the height of the tides. In deeper oceans, stationary waves are larger, leading to more significant tides. In shallow seas, smaller stationary waves result in lower tides.

Shortcut Trick Let the Income of B be 100x 

Income of A and B is 180x and 100x respectively

New Income of A = 180x [80/100] = 144x

New Income of B = 100x[160/100] = 160x

According to options 1)

⇒ [(160x - 144x)/144x ] × 100 = 11\(1\over9\)%

∴ B's Income is more than A's income by 11\(1\over9\)%

 

Alternate Method Given:

A's income is 80% more than B's income

Calculation:

Let B's income be Rs. 100

A's income,

⇒ B's income + 80% of B's income

⇒ 100 + (80/100 × 100)

⇒ 180

Now A's income is decreased by 20%

⇒ 180 – (20/100) × 180

⇒ 180 – 36

A's new income is Rs. 144

Now B's income increased by 60%

⇒ 100 + (60/100) × 100

⇒ 100 + 60

B's new income is Rs. 160

B's income is more than A's income,

⇒ 160 – 144

⇒ 16

In percent,

⇒ 16/144 × 100

⇒ 1/9 × 100

⇒ \(11\frac{1}{9}\)%

∴ B's income is more than A's income by \(11\frac{1}{9}\)%

The Correct answer is Option 1. 

Key Points

Based on global remittance rankings for 2022:

1. India received the highest remittances (1^st place).
2. Mexico ranked second.
3. China ranked third.
4. The Philippines ranked fourth.

Thus, the correct matching should be:

• A (Mexico) → 2
• B (China) → 3
• C (India) → 1
• D (Philippines) → 4

Hence Option 1 is Correct.