Search Previous Year Questions

Find real questions from previous competitive exam papers with answers and solutions.

Leave the keyword blank to browse saved questions for your selected exam, newest papers first. Add a keyword, year or topic to narrow the results.

Browse complete papers
Showing 10 question(s)
Clear

Question 411

Bihar Jeevika 2025• Test

 Name the species of marine tardigrade discovered by CUSAT researchers, which pays homage to ISRO's Chandrayaan-3 mission?

  1. AOption (a)

    Batillipes keralensis

  2. BOption (b)

    Batillipes chandrayaani

  3. COption (c)

     Stygarctus keralensis Isroei

  4. DOption (d)

    Isroneus kalami

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Batillipes chandrayaani

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Batillipes chandrayaani. 

In News

  • The newly discovered species of marine tardigrade by researchers from the Department of Marine Biology, Cochin University of Science and Technology (CUSAT) has been named Batillipes chandrayaani.

Key Points

  • This species was found in the intertidal beach sediments of Mandapam coast, Tamil Nadu, as part of a broader marine biodiversity survey.
  • Batillipes chandrayaani is named in honor of Chandrayaan-3, ISRO's successful lunar south pole landing mission in 2023, highlighting the significance of exploration and discovery both in space and marine environments.
  • The species measures about 0.15 millimeters in length and 0.04 millimeters in width, featuring four pairs of legs similar to other tardigrades.
  • This discovery marks the third marine tardigrade described from Indian waters and underscores the immense biodiversity within India's coastal ecosystems, reinforcing the importance of their conservation.
  • Tardigrades, including Batillipes chandrayaani, are known for their extraordinary resilience and survival abilities in extreme conditions, furthering our understanding of life's adaptability.

Question 412

Bihar Jeevika 2025• Test

Which of the following is not a financial inclusion scheme?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pradhan Mantri Jandhan Yojana

  2. BOption (b)

    Suraksha Bandhan Scheme

  3. COption (c)

    Atal Pension Yojana

  4. DOption (d)

    HRIDAY

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

HRIDAY

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is HRIDAY.

Key Points

  • HRIDAY
  • It is National Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana.
  • The aim was to bring together urban planning, economic growth and heritage conservation in an inclusive manner & with the objective of preserving the heritage character of the city.
  • The Scheme has supported the development of core heritage linked civic infrastructure projects which includes revitalization of urban infrastructure for areas around heritage, religious, cultural and tourism assets of the cities.

Additional Information

  • Pradhan Mantri Jandhan Yojana
  • It is a National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure access to financial services, namely, basic savings & deposit accounts, remittance, credit, insurance, pension in an affordable manner.
  • Under the scheme, a basic savings bank deposit (BSBD) account can be opened in any bank branch or Business Correspondent (Bank Mitra) outlet, by persons not having any other account.
  • Suraksha Bandhan Scheme
  • It is a drive that aims to take forward the Government’s objective of creating a universal social security system in the country, targeted especially at the poor and the underprivileged.
  • It facilitates enrolment under Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) and Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY).
  • Atal Pension Yojana
  • It was launched on 09.05.2015 to create a universal social security system for all Indians, especially the poor, the underprivileged and the workers in the unorganised sector.
  • It is administered by Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA).
  • It aims at the unorganized sector such as maids, gardeners, delivery boys, etc.

Question 413

Bihar Jeevika 2025• Test

In which of the following states did the 38th National Games take place from 28 January to 14 February 2025?

  1. AOption (a)

    Punjab

  2. BOption (b)

    Bihar 

  3. COption (c)

    Goa

  4. DOption (d)

    Uttarakhand

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Uttarakhand

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Uttarakhand.

Key Points

  • The 38th National Games are scheduled to take place in Uttarakhand from 28 January to 14 February 2025.
  • Uttarakhand has been selected as the host state for the National Games, marking a significant event in the region's sporting history.
  • This will be the first time Uttarakhand will host the National Games, showcasing its infrastructure and organizational capabilities.
  • The National Games will include a variety of sports disciplines, promoting sportsmanship and athletic excellence across the nation.
  • Preparations are underway to ensure the successful execution of the games, including the development of sports facilities and accommodation for athletes.

Additional Information

  • National Games of India
  • The National Games is a multi-sport event held in India, involving athletes from different states and union territories.
  • It is organized by the Indian Olympic Association and is considered a significant event for promoting sports in the country.
  • The games aim to identify and nurture sporting talent, providing a platform for athletes to compete at a high level.
  • The first edition of the National Games was held in 1924 in Lahore, then part of undivided India.
  • Uttarakhand
  • Uttarakhand is a state in northern India, known for its natural beauty and pilgrimage sites.
  • It was formed on 9 November 2000 as the 27th state of India, carved out from the state of Uttar Pradesh.
  • The state capital is Dehradun, which is also the largest city in the region.
  • Uttarakhand is often referred to as the "Land of the Gods" due to the numerous Hindu temples and pilgrimage centers found throughout the state.
  • Sports Infrastructure in India
  • India has been investing significantly in sports infrastructure to promote various sports at the grassroots and professional levels.
  • Sports complexes, stadiums, and training centers are being developed across the country to support athletes.
  • Government initiatives like the Khelo India program aim to strengthen the sports ecosystem in India.
  • Hosting major sports events like the National Games helps boost local economies and encourages youth participation in sports.
  • Indian Olympic Association (IOA)
  • The Indian Olympic Association is the body responsible for selecting athletes to represent India at the Olympic Games and other international athletic meets.
  • It also oversees the organization of the National Games and other multi-sport events within the country.
  • The IOA works to promote the Olympic movement and the values of sportsmanship and fair play in India.
  • Founded in 1927, the IOA is affiliated with the International Olympic Committee (IOC) and the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA).

Question 414

Bihar Jeevika 2025• Test

Which ministry launched the Setubandha Scholar Scheme?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ministry of Culture

  2. BOption (b)

    Ministry of Education

  3. COption (c)

    Ministry of Skill Development

  4. DOption (d)

    Ministry of Home Affairs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ministry of Education

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is Ministry of Education.

In News

  • Gurukul Students To Get Research Opportunities In IITs, Scholarships Up To Rs 2 Lakh.

Key Points

  • Ministry of Education and IKS division of Central Sanskrit University launched the Setubandha Scholar Scheme.
  • Aims to integrate Gurukul-trained students into mainstream academia.
  • Open to those trained in traditional Vidyās and Kalās under the Gurukula system.
  • Scholars can pursue Postgraduate and Ph.D. studies, even at top institutes like IITs.
  • Degrees will be awarded by the Central Sanskrit University.
  • Monthly fellowship: ₹40,000 to ₹65,000.
  • Annual contingency grant: ₹1 lakh for PG, ₹2 lakh for PhD.
  • Eligibility:
  • Max age: 32 years
  • Minimum 5 years of study under a Guru/Gurukul
  • No formal degree required
  • Must show excellence in traditional knowledge
  • Applications open until August 15.
  • Scheme serves as a bridge between ancient traditions and modern research.
  • Supports the revival and mainstreaming of Indian Knowledge Systems (IKS).

Question 415

Bihar Jeevika 2025• Test

Which of the following kingdoms was not annexed by East India Company through Doctrine of Lapse? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Udaipur

  2. BOption (b)

    Nagpur

  3. COption (c)

    Satara

  4. DOption (d)

    Kittur

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Kittur

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kittur.

Key Points

  • Queen Chennamma oversaw the princely state of Kittur.
  • In 1824, after the deaths of her husband and son, she adopted a new son and tried to designate him as heir to the throne, but the British refused to recognise it.
  • At that point, it was taken over by the East India Company.
  • Satara (1848) was the first state to be incorporated under the Doctrine of Lapse.
  • After that came Jaipur and Sambalpur (1849), Bhagat (1850), Udaipur (1852), Jhansi (1853), and Nagpur (1854).

Additional Information

  • Doctrine of Lapse:
  • Lord Dalhousie, the English East India Company's governor general from 1848 to 1856, introduced the Doctrine of Lapse.
  • The East India Company used the Doctrine of Lapse in India until 1859.
  • According to the doctrine, if a princely state that is under the company's vassalage does not have an heir, then its land will be annexed.

Question 416

Bihar Jeevika 2025• Test

Which bacterial disease is specifically confirmed by a serological method?

  1. AOption (a)

     Plague

  2. BOption (b)

    Diphtheria

  3. COption (c)

    Typhoid

  4. DOption (d)

    Pneumonia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Typhoid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Typhoid.

Key Points

  • Typhoid is a bacterial infection caused by Salmonella typhi, which spreads through contaminated food and water.
  • The disease is commonly diagnosed using the Widal test, a serological test that detects antibodies against S. typhi antigens.
  • The Widal test evaluates the presence of O (somatic) and H (flagellar) antigens in the blood, which are specific to typhoid fever.
  • This method is preferred in areas with limited access to advanced diagnostic tools and is widely used for diagnosing typhoid in endemic regions.
  • While the Widal test is widely used, its results must be interpreted cautiously alongside the patient’s clinical history and other diagnostic findings.

Additional Information

  • Widal Test:
  • Developed in 1896 by Georges-Fernand Widal, it remains one of the most common methods to diagnose typhoid fever.
  • A fourfold increase in antibody titers in two consecutive samples taken 7–10 days apart confirms the diagnosis of typhoid.
  • False-positive results may occur due to previous infections or vaccination with S. typhi.
  • Other Diagnostic Methods for Typhoid:
  • Blood Culture: The most reliable method, especially in the early stages of the disease.
  • Bone Marrow Culture: Considered the most sensitive diagnostic method but is invasive and rarely used.
  • Typhidot Test: A rapid diagnostic test that detects IgM and IgG antibodies specific to typhoid.
  • Symptoms of Typhoid:
  • High fever, abdominal pain, weakness, headache, loss of appetite, and constipation or diarrhea.
  • In severe cases, it can lead to intestinal perforation and sepsis.
  • Prevention of Typhoid:
  • Vaccination: Typhoid conjugate vaccines and oral live-attenuated vaccines are available.
  • Ensure safe drinking water, proper sanitation, and hygiene to prevent transmission.

Question 417

Bihar Jeevika 2025• Test

Where is the Mattala International Airport located?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nepal

  2. BOption (b)

    Sri Lanka

  3. COption (c)

    Myanmar

  4. DOption (d)

    Bhutan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sri Lanka

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sri Lanka.

Key Points

  • Mattala Rajapaksa International Airport (MRIA) is located in Mattala, near Hambantota in the southern region of Sri Lanka.
  • The airport was officially inaugurated on March 18, 2013, and is the second international airport in Sri Lanka after Bandaranaike International Airport near Colombo.
  • It was named after the former Sri Lankan President Mahinda Rajapaksa, under whose tenure the airport was constructed.
  • The airport was envisioned to boost regional development and support tourism in the southern part of the country.
  • Despite its modern infrastructure, MRIA has often been referred to as the "world's emptiest airport" due to its low passenger and cargo traffic.

Additional Information

  • Tourism in Sri Lanka:
  • Sri Lanka is known for its beautiful beaches, historic sites, and wildlife reserves, making tourism a significant contributor to its economy.
  • The southern region, where Mattala is located, is famous for attractions like Yala National Park and Galle Fort.
  • Significance of Hambantota:
  • Hambantota is a strategic location for trade and logistics due to its proximity to international shipping routes.
  • The region also houses the Hambantota Port, developed with Chinese investments.
  • Challenges Faced by MRIA:
  • The airport has struggled with low operational activity since its opening.
  • Efforts have been made to attract more airlines and cargo services to improve its utilization.
  • Infrastructure:
  • MRIA is equipped with modern facilities, including a 3,500-meter runway capable of accommodating large aircraft like the Airbus A380.
  • The airport aims to function as a regional aviation hub in South Asia.

Question 418

Bihar Jeevika 2025• Test

P's salary is 60% of Q's salary which is 50% of R's salary. What percentage of R's salary is P's salary?

  1. AOption (a)

    30%

  2. BOption (b)

    40%

  3. COption (c)

    20%

  4. DOption (d)

    24%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

30%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

P's salary is 60% of Q's salary which is 50% of R's salary.

Calculation

P's Salary = 60% of Q

= 60% of (50% of R)

= (60/100)[(50/100)*100] % of R

= 30% of R

∴ P's salary is 30% of R's salary.

Alternate Method 

Let Q salary be 100

P salary = 60

R salary = 200

P salary = 60/200 × 100 = 30% of R salary

Question 419

Bihar Jeevika 2025• Test

In still water, the speed of a motorboat is 15 km/h. The boat travels 30 km downstream and returns in 4 hours and 30 minutes. The stream's speed (in km/h) is:

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    7

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

5

Why this answer is correct

GIVEN:

Speed of a motorboat is 15 km/h

distance of boat in downstream is 30 km

distance of boat in upstream is 30 km

Total time is 4hrs 30 minutes

FORMULA USED:

Distance = Speed  × Time 

Relative speed in downstream = (speed of motorboat + speed of stream)

Relative speed in upstream = (speed of motorboat – speed of stream )

CALCULATION :

As 1hour = 60 minutes

To convert minutes into hours divide it by 60, 

⇒ Time = (4 + 30/60) hours =  9/2 hours    

Now, let the stream's speed be x

⇒ Downstream speed = ( 15 + x) km/h

⇒ Upstream speed = ( 15 -x ) km/h

Now, Distance = speed × time

⇒ Hence, \(Distance \over Speed \) = Time

⇒  \(30\over( 15 + x ) \) + \(30\over ( 15 -x )\) = 9/2

⇒ \( (15 +x +15 - x)\over225- x^2\) = 9/60 = \(30 \over( 225 - x^2)\)= \(9 \over 60\) 

⇒ ( 200 = 225 - \(x^2\) ) = \(x^2\) = 25  

⇒ x = 5. 

Hence, the speed of the stream is 5 km/h.

Shortcut TrickBy hit and trial method

Let the speed of boat = u = 15km/h (given)

Let speed of the stream = v

Considering option(3), let v = 5km/h

So, Downstream speed (D) = 15 + 5 = 20km/h

Upstream speed (U) = 15 - 5 = 10km/h

Now, Total time taken = Distance/D + Distance/U

⇒ 30/20 + 30/10 = 3/2 + 3

⇒ 9/2 h = 4 h 30 mins

It satisfies the given condition. 

Hence, the speed of the stream is 5 km/h.

Question 420

Bihar Jeevika 2025• Test

Profit earned by selling at Rs. 1540 is same as the loss incurred by selling the article for Rs. 1140. What is the selling price of the article if it sold at 25% profit?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 1600

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 1680

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 1520

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 1675

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rs. 1675

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Profit earned by selling at Rs. 1540 is same as the loss incurred by selling the article for Rs. 1140

Formula:

Profit = SP – CP

Loss = CP – SP

Calculation:

Let cost price of the article be Rs. x, then

1540 – x = x – 1140

⇒ x + x = 1540 + 1140

⇒ 2x = 2680

⇒ x = 1340

Cost price of the article Rs. 1340.

∴ Selling price of the article if it is sold at 25% profit = 1340 × (125/100) = Rs. 1675.