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Question 121

Bihar Jeevika 2025• Test

Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to the balance sheet?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is prepared to find out the actual financial position of the firm.

  2. BOption (b)

    It cannot be prepared without making adjustments for arrears and prepaid expenses.

  3. COption (c)

    All types of accounts – real, personal or nominal, are included in this.

  4. DOption (d)

    It is accepted by the court as documentary evidence.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

All types of accounts – real, personal or nominal, are included in this.

Why this answer is correct

The incorrect answer is All types of accounts – real, personal or nominal, are included in this.

Key Points

  • One of the three basic financial statements, the balance sheet is essential to accounting and financial analysis.
  • The balance sheet shows the overall assets of the business as well as how those assets are financed—either through debt or equity.
  • It is also known as a statement of financial situation or a statement of net worth.
  • The fundamental formula Assets = Liabilities + Equity serves as the foundation for the balance sheet.

Important Points

Statement I: It is prepared to find out the actual financial position of the firm

  • This statement is correct because a balance sheet is a list of the assets and liabilities of a company at a particular point in time. It is made using a trial balance that has been altered. By describing the sources of funding and how they were used, balance sheets reveal the financial position of the company.

Statement II: It cannot be prepared without making adjustments for arrears and prepaid expenses

  • This statement is correct about balance sheet because in order for the balance sheet to reflect the amount that is actually prepaid (not yet expired) at the end of the month, if the company releases financial statements at the end of each calendar month, the balance in the account Prepaid Expenses must be changed.

Statement III: All types of accounts – real, personal or nominal, are included in this

  • This statement is incorrect because the balance sheet is a statement that lists the company's assets, equity, and liabilities. It is separated into the sections Assets and Equity & Liabilities. It displays both the personal and real account balances. In contrast, a trial balance is a list of all general ledger account balances. It displays the balances of the personal, real, and nominal accounts and is divided into Debit and Credit columns.

Statement IV: It is accepted by the court as documentary evidence.

  • This statement is correct because the Supreme Court observed that the consideration of balance sheets as a valid acknowledgment of debts for the purposes of the Act cannot be refuted.

Hence, it can be concluded that only statement III is incorrect.

Question 122

Bihar Jeevika 2025• Test

Income received in advance appears at ____ side of balance sheet.

  1. AOption (a)

    Asset side

  2. BOption (b)

    Liability side

  3. COption (c)

    Both asset and liability side

  4. DOption (d)

    Does not appear in balance sheet

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Liability side

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is liability side. 

  • Income received in advance refers to income or portion of income received in an accounting year which is not earned in the accounting period.
  • It is also known as unearned income or unexpired income.
  • Income received in advance is a liability because the company that received the money has not yet earned it and it has an obligation to render benefit in future.

Additional Information

  • Balance Sheet: It is the summary of the financial balances of an individual firm consisting all the available assets and liabilities of the firm; showing their financial position to the users.
  • Assets- Anything (whether physical or not) that is holding any value in the market in terms of cash and which is owns by the company or any person.
  • Liability- An amount which is borrowed by any individual or a person and to be repaid after a specified period of time.

Question 123

Bihar Jeevika 2025• Test

A favourable bank balance implies _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    a debit balance in the cash book and passbook

  2. BOption (b)

    a credit balance in the cash book and passbook

  3. COption (c)

    a debit balance in the cash book and a credit balance in the passbook

  4. DOption (d)

    a credit balance in the cash book and a debit balance in the passbook

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

a debit balance in the cash book and a credit balance in the passbook

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is a debit balance in the cash book and a credit balance in the passbook.

Key PointsThe word "bank reconciliation statement" refers to a document that is generated to reconcile or add up the discrepancy between the user passbook and the company's cashbook so that the reason for the discrepancy can be identified and fixed.

Important PointsFavourable bank balance means debit balance in cash book as well as credit balance in pass book.

When in BRS, balance as per passbook is given, the impact of all transactions on the cash book must be assessed if a bank reconciliation statement is made using the balance of the passbook, whether it is favourable (credit) or overdraft (debit).

The transactions shall be recorded in the bank reconciliation statement as under:

  • Deduct: All those transactions that have resulted in decreasing in the balance as per cash book
  • Add: All those transactions that have resulted in increasing the balance as per cash book

Hence, it can be concluded that a favourable bank balance implies a debit balance in the cash book and a credit balance in the passbook.

Question 124

Bihar Jeevika 2025• Test

Which of the following statements is true in the context of a balance sheet?

  1. AOption (a)

    An increase in assets always results in an increase in owner’s equity.

  2. BOption (b)

    Outsiders’ claim against business is a residual claim. 

  3. COption (c)

    Assets = Liabilities + Owner's equity is always true.

  4. DOption (d)

    Losses result in an increase in owner’s equity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Assets = Liabilities + Owner's equity is always true.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Assets = Liabilities + Owner's equity is always true.

Key Points

Accounting Equation:

  • The accounting equation demonstrates that a company's total assets are equal to the sum of its liabilities and shareholders' equity on its balance sheet.
  • Assets are the valuable resources owned by the business.
  • Funding for a company's assets can come from both liabilities and shareholders' equity.

Important Points

  • An important element of the balance sheet and a fundamental accounting principle is the accounting equation. The calculation looks like this:
  • Liabilities + shareholder equity = Assets.
  • This equation shows the balance sheet's structure and lays the groundwork for double-entry accounting, also referred to as double-entry bookkeeping.
  • Every transaction in a double-entry accounting system has an impact on at least two accounts.

Hence, it can be concluded that Assets = Liabilities + Owner's equity is always true.

Additional Information

Statement I:

An increase in assets always results in an increase in owner’s equity, this statement is incorrect because assets increased, liabilities had no effect, owners' equity increased. Assets decreased, liabilities had no effect, owners' equity decreased.

Statement II: 

Outsiders’ claim against business is a residual claim, this statement is incorrect because the term residual claim refers to a stockholders’ right to its share of earnings in a liquidation scenario after all debt obligations have been paid.

Statement IV: 

Losses result in an increase in owner’s equity, this statement is incorrect because losses and expenses lead to a decline in owner's equity. When the Service Revenues account is closed to owner's equity at the conclusion of the accounting year, if a company provides a service and raises its assets, owner's equity will rise.

Question 125

Bihar Jeevika 2025• Test

In the Balance Sheet of a Common Size Statement

  1. AOption (a)

    figure of share capital is assumed to be 100

  2. BOption (b)

    figure of current liabilities is assumed to be 100

  3. COption (c)

    figure of fixed assets is assumed to be 100

  4. DOption (d)

    figure of total assets is assumed to be 100

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

figure of total assets is assumed to be 100

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Figure for total assets is assumed to be 100

Key Points

Common Size Statement 

  • A common size statement is a type of financial statement analysis and interpretation.
  • It is also called Vertical Analysis.
  • This method examines financial statements by calculating each line item as a percentage of the base amount for the accounting period in question.

Important Points Common Size Balance Sheet

  • The total assets value is typically used as the base value (considered as 100) in the balance sheet common size analysis.
  • The value of total assets on the balance sheet equals the value of total liabilities and shareholders' equity.
  • The common size analysis is used by financial management or investor to compare a company's capital structure to that of competitors.
  • They can draw key conclusions by comparing individual line items to the total assets.

Question 126

Bihar Jeevika 2025• Test

The premium on issue of debentures is showed in Balance Sheet under -

  1. AOption (a)

    share capital

  2. BOption (b)

    reserve and surplus

  3. COption (c)

    secured loan

  4. DOption (d)

    current liabilities 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

reserve and surplus

Why this answer is correct

Introduction:

The premium on the issue of debentures refers to the amount received by a company over and above the face value of its debentures. This extra amount is accounted for in the company's financial statements.

 

Key Points

:

  1. Share Capital: Represents the equity stake owned by shareholders in the company. The premium on debentures does not fall under this category as it is not related to equity financing.

  2. Reserve and Surplus: This is where the premium on the issue of debentures is recorded. It represents additional funds that are not designated for a specific purpose but can be used for various needs, including the strengthening of the company's financial position.

  3. Secured Loan: Debentures can be secured or unsecured, but the premium received from their issue does not classify as a loan itself.

  4. Current Liabilities: These are the company's debts or obligations due within one year. The premium on issue of debentures does not qualify as a liability.

Conclusion:

The correct placement for the premium on the issue of debentures is under the "Reserve and Surplus" category in the Balance Sheet. This is because it represents additional funds available to the company, which are not immediately required to be paid back or used.

 

Additional Info

rmation:

Recording the premium under "Reserve and Surplus" not only accurately reflects the nature of these funds but also strengthens the company's financial statements by showing additional resources available for future use or investment.

Question 127

Bihar Jeevika 2025• Test

Leave Travel Concession is a _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Tax-free perquisite for one journey per year

  2. BOption (b)

    Tax-free perquisite for two visits in a period of 4 years

  3. COption (c)

    Taxable perquisite

  4. DOption (d)

    Tax-free perquisite for one journey in a period of 4 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Tax-free perquisite for two visits in a period of 4 years

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tax-free perquisite for two visits in a period of 4 years.

Key PointsIncome Tax Act, 1951 - Section10 (5): Leave Travel Concession

  • As the name implies, it is an exemption for any compensation or benefits the employee receives from his employer for travel while on leave.
  • Even though it might seem straightforward, there are a lot of things to consider before scheduling a trip in order to qualify for LTA exemption.
  • The income tax code has established guidelines for seeking LTA exemption.

Important PointsConditions for claiming LTC

  1. You must really travel to be eligible for the exemption.
  2. Only domestic travel, or travel within India, is taken into account for exemption. No overseas travel is covered under LTA.
  3. The employee is eligible for the travel exemption whether they are travelling alone or with their family, which includes their spouse, kids, parents who are completely or primarily dependent on them, siblings, and other blood relatives.
  4. Additionally, more than two children of an employee who were born after October 1, 1998, are not eligible for this exemption. There are no restrictions for kids who were born before October 1, 1998.
  5. Additionally, this restriction does not apply in circumstances of multiple births where a child is born on a second occasion after the first.

Eligible LTA Exemption

  1. Only the actual travel expenses, such as the employee's plane, rail, or bus fares, are eligible for the exemption.
  2. No costs like local transportation, sightseeing, hotel stays, meals, etc. qualify for this exemption.
  3. Additionally, only LTA supplied by the employer is exempt.

Leave Travel Exemption

  • TA exemption is available for only two journeys performed in a block of four calendar years.​

Hence, it can be concluded that Leave Travel Concession is a Tax-free perquisite for two visits in a period of 4 years.

Question 128

Bihar Jeevika 2025• Test

Continuous examination of books of accounts throughout the year is called

  1. AOption (a)

    Occational audit

  2. BOption (b)

    Internal audit

  3. COption (c)

    Periodic audit

  4. DOption (d)

    Continuous audit

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Continuous audit

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Continuous Audit

Key Points

Continuous Audit

Continual auditing involves an auditor's continuous examination of all transactions throughout the year. Continuous audit, in other words, is when a client's accounts are checked continuously throughout the year or at regular intervals during the financial term. The auditor verifies the accuracy of the financial statements at the conclusion of the financial period and produces a report with minimal delay.

Important Points Features of Continuous Audit

  • It involves detailed examination of all transactions by the auditor.
  • The auditor visits the business concern at frequent intervals, say, weekly or fortnightly or monthly during the period of audit.
  • Continuous audit is done simultaneously with the preparation of accounts.
  • The auditor is constantly engaged in checking the accuracy of the accounts during the whole accounting period.
  • At the end of the financial period, the auditor checks the correctness of the financial statements and submits a report.

Additional Information Internal Audit: An independent service that evaluates an organization's internal controls, corporate practises, processes, and methods is known as internal audit. Internal audits assist in ensuring compliance with numerous laws that apply to a company.

Occasional auditing: Occasional auditing is performed as a one-time event in organisations when routine auditing is not performed. Audits are conducted on a regular basis. Occasional auditing is performed as a one-time event in organisations when routine auditing is not performed.

Periodical audit: Periodical audit is one which is taken up at the close of the financial or trading period when all the accounts have been balanced and Trading and Profit and Loss Accounts and the Balance Sheet have been prepared.

Question 129

Bihar Jeevika 2025• Test

Section 80QQB of the Income Tax Act, 1961 deals with _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Interest on savings accounts in bank

  2. BOption (b)

    Profit from export of computer software

  3. COption (c)

    Royalty income from patents

  4. DOption (d)

    Author's royalty income

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Author's royalty income

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Author's royalty income.

Key Points

  • Section 80QQB: The Income Tax Act of 1961 contains provisions relating to Royalty Income under Section 80QQB.
  • Authors' royalties are included as deductions in this section.
  • The royalty income is subject to taxation under the same heading as other sources of profit and gains.

Important PointsEligible income available as a deduction under section 80QQB

  • Any income earned by an author in the exercise of his profession.
  • Any income earned as a lump sum consideration for the assignment or grant of any of his interest in the copyright of any book being the work of artistic or literary or scientific nature or royalty or copyright in respect of author’s book.
  • Any income received as non-refundable advance payment of royalties or copyright fees.

Conditions to be fulfilled for availing deduction under section 80QQB

  • The individual assessee who is claiming the deduction must either be an Indian resident or an Indian resident who is not ordinarily an Indian resident.
  • The assessee should have authored (with others) a book that discusses a piece of either literary, artistic, or scientific work.
  • Payment for the total should be made in lump sum. However, income (before permitting expenses) that is in excess of 15% of the value of books sold throughout the year should be disregarded if the money is not paid in lump sum payment.
  • When income is earned outside of India, section 80QQB's deduction is only applicable to that portion of the revenue that is brought back to India in convertible foreign currency within six months (or within an extended length of time) after the end of the previous year in which the income was earned.
  • The assessee who is requesting the deduction must obliquely provide a certificate in Form No. 10CCD. The person in charge of paying the income shall properly verify such a certificate in Form No. 10CCD. When submitting an income tax return, the certificate must be included.
  • After the deduction for income under section 80QQB has been taken, no additional deduction for that income under any other provisions of the Act may be claimed in any assessment year.

Maximum amount of allowable deduction

  • The total amount of royalty income;
  • or INR 3 Lakhs.

Hence, it can be concluded that Section 80QQB of the Income Tax Act, 1961 deals with Author's royalty income.

Question 130

Bihar Jeevika 2025• Test

One person company is a special type of 

  1. AOption (a)

    Public company 

  2. BOption (b)

    Private company 

  3. COption (c)

    Holding company 

  4. DOption (d)

    Subsidiary company 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Private company 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is private company. 

  • One Person Company (‘OPC’ for short) is defined under Section 2(62) of the Companies  Act, 2013 which has only one person as a member. Section 3 of the Act indicates that OPC is a private limited company.

Key Points

  • Features of One Person Company: 
  • Private company: Section 3(1)(c) of the Companies Act says that a single person can form a company for any lawful purpose. It further describes OPCs as private companies.
  • Single-member: OPCs can have only one member or shareholder, unlike other private companies.
  • Nominee: A unique feature of OPCs that separates it from other kinds of companies is that the sole member of the company has to mention a nominee while registering the company.
  • Minimum one director: OPCs need to have a minimum of one person (the member) as director. They can have a maximum of 15 directors.
  • No minimum paid-up share capital: Companies Act, 2013 has not prescribed any amount as minimum paid-up capital for OPCs.

Additional Information

  • Public companies- a company that is not a private company.
  • Private companies- ‘a company having a minimum paid-up share capital as may be prescribed and the company which by its articles restricts the right to transfer its shares limits the number of its members to 200 and prohibits any invitation to the public to subscribe for any securities of the company.
  • Holding company - ‘holding company’ in relation to one or more other companies means a body corporate of which such companies are subsidiary companies.
  • Subsidiary company- ‘subsidiary company’ in relation to any other body corporate as a company in which the holding company-
  1. controls the composition of the Board of Directors; or
  2. exercises or controls more than one half of the total voting power.