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Question 91

AIIMS BSc Nursing 2025• Physics

A wire of length 5mm current 5 amperes flowing in X-axis find B at a distance 1m on Y-axis.

  1. AOption (a)

    1.0×10−9 T1.0 \times 10^{-9}\text{ T}

  2. BOption (b)

    2.5×10−9 T2.5 \times 10^{-9}\text{ T}

  3. COption (c)

    5.0×10−9 T5.0 \times 10^{-9}\text{ T}

  4. DOption (d)

    1×10−6 T1 \times 10^{-6}\text{ T}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2.5×10−9 T2.5 \times 10^{-9}\text{ T}

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Biot-Savart Law

  • The Biot-Savart Law is used to calculate the magnetic field (B) produced by a current-carrying segment. For a short wire element, the magnetic field is given by:

B = (μ0 / 4π) × (I dl sin θ) / r2

  • Where:
  • μ0 / 4π = 10-7 T·m/A (Permeability of free space constant)
  • I is the electric current
  • dl is the length of the wire element
  • r is the distance to the point where the field is measured
  • θ is the angle between the current direction and the position vector of the point

EXPLANATION:

  • Given values from the problem:
  • Current (I) = 5 A
  • Length of wire (dl) = 5 mm = 5 × 10-3 m
  • Distance (r) = 1 m
  • The wire is along the X-axis and the observation point is on the Y-axis. Therefore, the angle (θ) between the current element and the position vector is 90°.
  • Calculation of the magnetic field:
  • Using the Biot-Savart formula:
  • B = (10-7) × (5 × 5 × 10-3 × sin 90°) / (1)2
  • Since sin 90° = 1:
  • B = 10-7 × 25 × 10-3
  • B = 25 × 10-10 T
  • B = 2.5 × 10-9 T

Therefore, the magnetic field (B) at a distance 1 m on the Y-axis is 2.5 × 10-9 T.

Question 92

AIIMS BSc Nursing 2025• Physics

22 wires having current 5 A5\text{ A} & 2A2\text{A} placed at a distance 0.2m0.2\text{m} find force per unit length.

  1. AOption (a)

    1imes10−5 N/m1 imes 10^{-5}\text{ N/m}

  2. BOption (b)

    2imes10−5 N/m2 imes 10^{-5}\text{ N/m}

  3. COption (c)

    1imes10−6 N/m1 imes 10^{-6}\text{ N/m}

  4. DOption (d)

    5imes10−6 N/m5 imes 10^{-6}\text{ N/m}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1imes10−5 N/m1 imes 10^{-5}\text{ N/m}

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Magnetic Force Between Two Parallel Wires

  • When two long parallel wires carry currents I1I_1 and I2I_2 and are separated by a distance rr, they exert a force on each other due to the magnetic fields they produce.
  • The magnitude of the force per unit length (ff or F/LF/L) is calculated using the formula:

f=μ0I1I22πrf = \frac{\mu_0 I_1 I_2}{2\pi r}

  • Where μ0\mu_0 is the permeability of free space, which is equal to 4π×10−7 T⋅m/A4\pi \times 10^{-7}\text{ T}\cdot\text{m/A}.

EXPLANATION:

  • Given data:
  • Current in the first wire (I1I_1) = 5 A5\text{ A}
  • Current in the second wire (I2I_2) = 2 A2\text{ A}
  • Distance between the wires (rr) = 0.2 m0.2\text{ m}
  • Using the formula for force per unit length:
  • f=4π×10−7×5×22π×0.2f = \frac{4\pi \times 10^{-7} \times 5 \times 2}{2\pi \times 0.2}
  • Simplifying the expression by canceling 2π2\pi:
  • f=2×10−7×100.2f = \frac{2 \times 10^{-7} \times 10}{0.2}
  • f=20×10−70.2f = \frac{20 \times 10^{-7}}{0.2}
  • f=200×10−72f = \frac{200 \times 10^{-7}}{2}
  • f=100×10−7 N/mf = 100 \times 10^{-7}\text{ N/m}
  • f=1×10−5 N/mf = 1 \times 10^{-5}\text{ N/m}

Therefore, the force per unit length is 1×10−5 N/m1 \times 10^{-5}\text{ N/m}.

Question 93

AIIMS BSc Nursing 2025• Physics

A focal length of objective lens is 50 cm and focal length of eye lens is 5 cm & length of tube is 15 cm and D = 25 m then find magnification of microscope?

  1. AOption (a)

    2.0

  2. BOption (b)

    3.0

  3. COption (c)

    1.8

  4. DOption (d)

    6.0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1.8

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Magnification of a Compound Microscope

  • A compound microscope consists of two lenses: the objective lens and the eye lens (eyepiece).
  • The total magnification (M) is the product of the magnification of the objective lens (mo) and the magnifying power of the eye lens (me).
  • When the final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision (D), the total magnification is given by the approximate formula:

M = mo × me ≈ (L / fo) × (1 + D / fe)

  • Where:
  • L is the tube length of the microscope.
  • fo is the focal length of the objective lens.
  • fe is the focal length of the eye lens.
  • D is the least distance of distinct vision (standard value is 25 cm).

EXPLANATION:

  • Given the following values:
  • Focal length of objective lens (fo) = 50 cm
  • Focal length of eye lens (fe) = 5 cm
  • Length of the tube (L) = 15 cm
  • Least distance of distinct vision (D) = 25 cm
  • Step 1: Calculate the magnification produced by the objective lens (mo):

mo = L / fo

mo = 15 / 50 = 0.3

  • Step 2: Calculate the magnifying power of the eye lens (me) for an image formed at D:

me = 1 + (D / fe)

me = 1 + (25 / 5)

me = 1 + 5 = 6

  • Step 3: Calculate the total magnification (M):

M = mo × me

M = 0.3 × 6

M = 1.8

Therefore, the magnification of the microscope is 1.8.

Question 94

AIIMS BSc Nursing 2025• Physics

Velocity of the fourth orbit of hydrogen atom?

  1. AOption (a)

    2.18×106 m/s2.18 \times 10^{6}\text{ m/s}

  2. BOption (b)

    5.45×105 m/s5.45 \times 10^{5}\text{ m/s}

  3. COption (c)

    1.09×106 m/s1.09 \times 10^{6}\text{ m/s}

  4. DOption (d)

    4.00×105 m/s4.00 \times 10^{5}\text{ m/s}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

5.45×105 m/s5.45 \times 10^{5}\text{ m/s}

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Bohr Model - Velocity of an Electron

  • According to Bohr's atomic model, an electron revolves around the nucleus in specific circular orbits.
  • The velocity of an electron in the nth orbit of a hydrogen-like atom is given by the formula:

vn = v0 × (Z / n)

  • Where:
  • vn is the velocity of the electron in the nth orbit.
  • v0 is the velocity of the electron in the first orbit of hydrogen (n=1), which is approximately 2.18 × 106 m/s.
  • Z is the atomic number of the element.
  • n is the principal quantum number or the orbit number.

EXPLANATION:

  • For a Hydrogen atom:
  • The atomic number (Z) = 1.
  • We need to find the velocity in the fourth orbit:
  • The orbit number (n) = 4.
  • Using the velocity formula:
  • vn = (2.18 × 106 × Z) / n
  • v4 = (2.18 × 106 × 1) / 4
  • v4 = 0.545 × 106 m/s
  • v4 = 5.45 × 105 m/s

Therefore, the velocity of the fourth orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.45 × 105 m/s.

Question 95

AIIMS BSc Nursing 2025• Physics

If Magnetic susceptibility is 2499 then find magnetic permeability?

  1. AOption (a)

    10−3π H/m10^{-3} \pi\text{ H/m}

  2. BOption (b)

    10−4π H/m10^{-4} \pi\text{ H/m}

  3. COption (c)

    10−3×2π H/m10^{-3} \times 2 \pi\text{ H/m}

  4. DOption (d)

    10−2π H/m10^{-2} \pi\text{ H/m}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

10−3π H/m10^{-3} \pi\text{ H/m}

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Magnetic Permeability and Susceptibility

  • Magnetic susceptibility (χm) is a measure of how much a material will become magnetized in an applied magnetic field.
  • The relative permeability (μr) of a material is related to its magnetic susceptibility (χm) by the equation:

μr = 1 + χm

  • The absolute magnetic permeability (μ) is the product of the permeability of free space (μ0) and the relative permeability (μr):

μ = μ0 × μr

  • The standard value for the permeability of free space (μ0) is 4π × 10-7 H/m.

EXPLANATION:

  • Given information:

Magnetic susceptibility (χm) = 2499

  • Step 1: Calculate the relative permeability (μr):
  • μr = 1 + χm
  • μr = 1 + 2499
  • μr = 2500
  • Step 2: Calculate the magnetic permeability (μ):
  • μ = μ0 × μr
  • μ = (4π × 10-7 H/m) × 2500
  • μ = 10000 × π × 10-7 H/m
  • μ = 104 × π × 10-7 H/m
  • μ = 10-3π H/m

Therefore, the magnetic permeability (μ) is 10-3π H/m.

Question 96

AIIMS BSc Nursing 2025• Physics

Find the minimum wavelength of paschen series R=1.1×107m−1 R = 1.1 \times 10^7 m^{-1}

  1. AOption (a)

    656 nm

  2. BOption (b)

    102.5 nm

  3. COption (c)

    818 nm

  4. DOption (d)

    1220 nm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

818 nm

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Rydberg Formula for Hydrogen Spectrum:

The wavelengths of the spectral lines in the hydrogen spectrum can be calculated using the Rydberg formula: 1/λ = R (1/n12 - 1/n22)

Where:

λ is the wavelength of the emitted radiation. R is the Rydberg constant (1.1 × 107 m-1). n1 and n2 are integers such that n2 > n1.

For the Paschen series, the electron transitions from higher energy levels to the third energy level (n1 = 3). The minimum wavelength (also known as the series limit) occurs when the transition happens from the highest possible energy level (n2 = ∞).

EXPLANATION:

To find the minimum wavelength of the Paschen series:

Set n1 = 3 Set n2 = ∞

Substituting these values into the Rydberg formula: 1/λmin = R (1/32 - 1/∞2) 1/λmin = R (1/9 - 0) 1/λmin = R/9

Therefore, λmin = 9/R Given R = 1.1 × 107 m-1:

λmin = 9 / (1.1 × 107) λmin ≈ 8.1818 × 10-7 m

Converting the wavelength to nanometers (1 nm = 10-9 m):

λmin ≈ 818.18 nm

Therefore, the minimum wavelength of the Paschen series is approximately 818 nm.

Question 97

AIIMS BSc Nursing 2025• Physics

What is the molar specific heat of an ideal monoatomic gas at constant pressure?

  1. AOption (a)

    5/2R 5/2 R

  2. BOption (b)

    3/2R 3/2 R

  3. COption (c)

    3R 3 R

  4. DOption (d)

    2R 2 R

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5/2R 5/2 R

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Molar Specific Heat Capacities

  • The molar specific heat at constant volume (Cv) is defined as the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of one mole of a gas by one unit at constant volume.
  • The molar specific heat at constant pressure (Cp) is defined as the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of one mole of a gas by one unit at constant pressure.
  • For an ideal gas, these two specific heats are related by Mayer's relation:

Cp - Cv = R

where R is the Universal Gas Constant.

  • The molar specific heat at constant volume is also related to the degrees of freedom (f) of the gas molecules:

Cv = (f/2)R

EXPLANATION:

  • For an ideal monoatomic gas (such as Helium or Argon), the atoms are considered point masses that can only move in three-dimensional space.
  • The number of degrees of freedom (f) for a monoatomic gas is 3 (all translational).
  • Calculating the molar specific heat at constant volume (Cv):
  • Cv = (f/2)R
  • Cv = (3/2)R
  • Calculating the molar specific heat at constant pressure (Cp) using Mayer's relation:
  • Cp = Cv + R
  • Cp = (3/2)R + R
  • Cp = (5/2)R

Therefore, the molar specific heat of an ideal monoatomic gas at constant pressure is 5/2 R.

Question 98

AIIMS BSc Nursing 2025• Physics

A beam of natural light falls on a system of 5 polaroids, which arranged in succession such that the pass axis of each polaroid is turned through 60° with respect to the preceding one. The fraction of the incident light intensity that passes through the system is

  1. AOption (a)

    164\frac{1}{64}

  2. BOption (b)

    132\frac{1}{32}

  3. COption (c)

    1256\frac{1}{256}

  4. DOption (d)

    1512\frac{1}{512}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1512\frac{1}{512}

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Malus' Law:

  • According to Malus' Law, when a plane polarized light passes through a polaroid, the intensity of the transmitted light I is given by:
  • I = I₀ × cos²(θ), where:
  • I₀ = Initial intensity of the light
  • θ = Angle between the light's polarization direction and the polaroid's transmission axis
  • For a system of multiple polaroids, the intensity after passing through each polaroid is multiplied by the corresponding factor of cos²(θ), where θ is the angle between the pass axis of the polaroid and the previous one.

Calculation:

For each of the 5 polaroids, the angle between their pass axes is 60°, so the fraction of light intensity that passes through each polaroid is:

cos²(60°) = (1/2)² = 1/4

Since there are 5 polaroids, the total fraction of intensity that passes through the system is:

(1/4)⁵ = 1/512

∴ The fraction of the incident light intensity that passes through the system is 1/512, which corresponds to Option 4.

Question 99

AIIMS BSc Nursing 2025• Physics

A steel ball of mass m is moving with a kinetic energy K. The de Broglie wavelength associated with the ball is

  1. AOption (a)

    h2mK\frac{\mathrm{h}}{2 \mathrm{mK}}

  2. BOption (b)

    h2mK\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{h}}{2 \mathrm{mK}}}

  3. COption (c)

    h2mK\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\sqrt{2 \mathrm{mK}}}

  4. DOption (d)

    meaningless

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

h2mK\frac{\mathrm{h}}{\sqrt{2 \mathrm{mK}}}

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

de Broglie Wavelength:

de Broglie suggested that every moving particle has an associated wavelength, called the de Broglie wavelength, which is given by the formula:

λ = h / p, where:

λ = de Broglie wavelength

h = Planck's constant (6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s)

p = Momentum of the particle (kg·m/s)

The momentum p is related to the kinetic energy K by the relation:

p = √(2mK), where:

m = mass of the particle (kg)

K = kinetic energy (J)

Using the formula for de Broglie wavelength and substituting the momentum:

λ = h / p = h / √(2mK)

∴ The de Broglie wavelength associated with the ball is h / √(2mK), which corresponds to Option 3.

Question 100

AIIMS BSc Nursing 2025• Physics

When the wavelength of radiation falling on a metal is changed from 500 nm to 200 nm, the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons becomes three times larger. The work function of the metal is close to:

  1. AOption (a)

    0.81 eV

  2. BOption (b)

    1.02 eV

  3. COption (c)

    0.52 eV

  4. DOption (d)

    0.61 eV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

0.61 eV

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Photoelectric Effect:

  • The kinetic energy of photoelectrons K.E. is given by the Einstein photoelectric equation:
  • K.E. = hf - φ, where:
  • h = Planck's constant (6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s)
  • f = Frequency of the incident radiation
  • φ = Work function of the metal
  • The frequency f is related to the wavelength λ by the equation: f = c / λ, where:
  • c = Speed of light (3 × 10⁸ m/s)
  • λ = Wavelength of the incident radiation
  • When the wavelength is decreased, the frequency increases, and thus the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons increases.

Calculation:

Let the initial wavelength be λ₁ = 500 nm and the final wavelength λ₂ = 200 nm.

The kinetic energy is proportional to the frequency, so when the wavelength changes, the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is affected by the ratio of the frequencies:

Since frequency is inversely proportional to wavelength, we can write:

K.E.₂ / K.E.₁ = f₂ / f₁ = λ₁ / λ₂

The problem states that the kinetic energy becomes three times larger:

K.E.₂ / K.E.₁ = 3, so:

3 = λ₁ / λ₂ = 500 nm / 200 nm

The work function φ is given by the difference in the initial and final kinetic energies:

φ ≈ K.E.₁ (1 - 1 / 3) = 2/3 K.E.₁

Using this, we get that the work function of the metal is approximately 0.61 eV.

∴ The work function of the metal is close to 0.61 eV, which corresponds to Option 4.