Previous Year Paper

SBI Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (Held On: 15 Jan 2023 Shift 2) (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2023

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General/Financial Awareness (50 questions)

Question 1

Which of the following submarines of the Indian Navy was decommisioned recently after serving for 35 years?

  1. AOption (a)

    INS Shishumar

  2. BOption (b)

    INS Sindhudhvaj

  3. COption (c)

    INS Shankush

  4. DOption (d)

    INS Vela

  5. EOption (e)

    INS Sindhuraj

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

INS Sindhudhvaj

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'INS Sindhudhvaj'.

Key Points

  • INS Sindhudhvaj bid adieu to the Navy on Saturday after serving for 35 years. Vice-Admiral Biswajit Dasgupta, Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief, Eastern Naval Command, was the chief guest at the ceremony. The decommissioning was attended by 15 of the former commanding officers, including Commodore SP Singh (Retd), the commissioning CO and 26 commissioning crew veterans.
  • Sindhudhvaj, as the name suggests, was the flag-bearer of indigenisation and Navy’s efforts towards achieving ‘Atmanirbharta’ in the Russian-built Sindhughosh class submarines throughout her journey in the Navy.
  • She had many a first to her credit, including operationalisation of the indigenised sonar USHUS, indigenised satellite communication systems Rukmani and inertial navigation system and indigenised torpedo fire control system.
  • She also successfully undertook personnel transfer with deep submergence rescue vessel and was only submarine to be awarded CNS Rolling trophy for Innovation by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
  • The traditional ceremony was conducted at sunset, with an overcast sky adding to the solemnity of the occasion when the Decommissioning Pennant was lowered and the submarine was paid off after a glorious patrol of 35 years.

Additional Information 

  • INS Sindhudhvaj (S56) was a Sindhughosh-class submarine of the Indian Navy in service from 1987.
  • Sindhughosh-class submarines are Kilo-class diesel-electric submarines in active service with the Indian Navy.
  • The Sindhughosh submarines, designated 877EKM, were designed as part of Project 877, and built under a contract between Rosvooruzhenieand the Ministry of Defence (India).

Question 2

The Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) has been extended by how many crore rupees?

  1. AOption (a)

    40000

  2. BOption (b)

    ​50000

  3. COption (c)

    60000

  4. DOption (d)

    70000

  5. EOption (e)

    80000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

​50000

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 50000.

Key Points

  • The Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme (ECLGS) has been extended up to March 2023 and its guarantee cover has been expanded by Rs. 50,000 crores.
  • The total cover will now be Rs. 5 lakh crore.
  • This was announced by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman while presenting the Union Budget 2022-23.
  • The raising and Accelerating MSME Performance (RAMP) program will also be rolled out.

Important Points

  • The Credit Guarantee Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) Scheme will be revamped with the required infusion of funds.
  • This will facilitate additional credit of Rs. 2 lakh crore for Micro and Small Enterprises and expand employment opportunities.
  • The Finance Minister also announced the rolling out of Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance (RAMP) program with outlay of Rs. 6,000 crore over 5 years.
  • This will help the MSME sector become more resilient, competitive, and efficient.
  • The Udyam, e-Shram, NCS, and ASEEM portals will be interlinked.
  • Their scope will be widened.

Question 3

Which state has announced that the Rajiv Gandhi Orang National Park will be known as the Orang National Park?

  1. AOption (a)

    Assam

  2. BOption (b)

    Sikkim

  3. COption (c)

    Nagaland

  4. DOption (d)

    Manipur

  5. EOption (e)

    Mizoram

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Assam

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Assam.

Key Points

  • The Assam government has announced that the Rajiv Gandhi Orang National Park will be known as the Orang National Park.
  • It is the oldest reserve in the state, located on the north bank of the Brahmaputra.
  • It is located in the Darrang and Sonitpur districts of Assam.
  • The development comes weeks after the Centre dropped former Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi’s name from the Khel Ratna award.
  • The park is known for the one-horned rhino, tigers, elephants, etc.

Additional Information

  • It is often called ‘Mini Kaziranga’ owing to the similarities in topography, and a rich population of the one-horned rhino.
  • Orang was notified as a game reserve by the British in 1915, making it the oldest such reserve in the state.
  • it was upgraded to a National Park in 1999.
  • The other existing national parks in Assam are Kaziranga, Manas, Dibru-Saikhowa, Nameri, Dehing Patkai and Raimona.

Question 4

The Delhi High Court recently directed the Reserve Bank of India and the Centre to ensure the implementation of the RBI’s framework on regulation of digital lending platforms. RBI had issued a framework on  _______________ on the regulation of digital lending platforms based on the recommendations of its working committee.

  1. AOption (a)

    August 2022

  2. BOption (b)

    September 2022

  3. COption (c)

    March 2021

  4. DOption (d)

    January 2021

  5. EOption (e)

    December 2020

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

August 2022

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is August 2022.

In News

  • The Delhi High Court on January 25 directed the Reserve Bank of India and the Centre to ensure the implementation of the central bank’s framework on regulation of digital lending platforms.

Key Points

  • A division bench of Chief Justice Satish Chandra Sharma and Justice Subramonium Prasad in its January 25 decision observed that the RBI had issued a framework on August 10, 2022, on the regulation of digital lending platforms, including online lending platforms and mobile applications, based on the recommendations of its working committee, and hence no further orders were required.
  • The High court bench said that the Government of India will take immediate steps at an early date in accordance with law.
  • The RBI said online lending platforms are deployed by banks/NBFCs for the grant of loans that can either be owned by them or availed by them under the outsourcing arrangement.
  • The RBI said lending activities by such other entities over a digital platform are outside the “direct regulatory purview” of the relevant laws under which it derives power to regulate and supervise such entities.
  • The RBI also submitted before the high court that it had constituted a working committee to look into digital lending, including lending through online platforms and mobile apps, and to look into the granular aspects of financial technology and its implications and to review and reorient the regulatory framework.

Additional Information

  • The high court was hearing a public interest litigation seeking a direction to the Centre to regulate and control the working of online digital lenders engaged in lending money through mobile applications or any other platform, and restrain them from charging exorbitant interest on the loan from borrowers, harassing the borrowers and to save the borrowers from recovery agents and to fix the maximum interest of rate chargeable by online digital lenders.
  • The plea sought the setting up of a grievance redressal mechanism for borrowers in every state/Union of India.

Question 5

Select the correct statement: 

  1. The sugar marketing year runs from October to September.
  2. India is the world's largest sugar producer.
  3. Uttar Pradesh. the country's top sugar-producing state
  1. AOption (a)

    Only 1

  2. BOption (b)

    Only 2

  3. COption (c)

    Only 3

  4. DOption (d)

    Both 1 and 2

  5. EOption (e)

    Both 1 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Both 1 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is Both 1 and 3.

Key Points

  • The sugar marketing year runs from October to September.
  • India is the world's second-largest sugar producer after Brazil.
  • Sugar production in Uttar Pradesh, the country's top sugar-producing state, remained lower at 6.86 million tonnes during the October-February period of this marketing year, as against 7.42 million tonnes in the year-ago period.
  • However, sugar production in Maharashtra, the country's second-largest producing state, rose to 9.71 million tonnes from 8.48 million tonnes; while that in Karnataka, the country's third-largest producing state, rose to 5.08 million tonnes from 4.08 million tonnes.

Additional Information

  • India's sugar exports are estimated to increase 15.38 percent year-on-year to 7.5 million tonnes (MT) in the current marketing year 2021-22, on a likely rise in demand for the Indian sweetener amid the possibility of a global deficit.
  • The country has physically exported 4.2 MT of sugar till February of the current marketing year, against the export contracts already undertaken for shipment of six million tonnes.

Question 6

Who has topped the 'IIFL Wealth Hurun India 40 & Under Self-Made Rich List 2022' released in September 2022?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bhavish Aggarwal

  2. BOption (b)

    Shreyaa Bajaj

  3. COption (c)

    Manish Goyal

  4. DOption (d)

    Nikhil Kamath

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Nikhil Kamath

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Nikhil Kamath.

Key Points

  • Nikhil Kamath, the cofounder of Zerodha, has topped the 'IIFL Wealth Hurun India 40 & Under Self-Made Rich List 2022' with a net worth of Rs 17,500 crore.
  • Bhavish Aggarwal, the founder of Ola, came in second place (Rs 11,700 crore).
  • The list, released on 28 Sept 2022, includes self-made Indian entrepreneurs aged 40 & under with a fortune of Rs 1,000 crore.

Additional Information

  • Hurun Report is a leading research group established in London in 1998.
  • It has presence in India, China, France, the UK, the USA, Australia, Japan, Canada and Luxembourg.
  • Hurun Report is the largest compiler of the rich list globally.

Question 7

When was the Indian National Flag adopted?

  1. AOption (a)

    12 June, 1947

  2. BOption (b)

    12 August, 1947

  3. COption (c)

    22 August, 1947

  4. DOption (d)

    22 July, 1947

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

22 July, 1947

Why this answer is correct

  • The National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India on 22 July 1947.
  • The ratio of breadth to the length of the Indian national flag is 2 : 3.
  • It is a horizontal tricolor of deep saffron (Kesari) at the top, white in the middle and dark green at the bottom in equal proportion.
  • It became the official flag of the Dominion of India on 15 August 1947.
  • The Prime Minister hoists the national flag at the Red Fort on Independence Day.
  • Pingali Venkayya is the designer of the Indian National Flag.
  • | NOTE: The ratio of Length to Breadth is 3:2 | | --- |

Question 8

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) launched the ‘RBI Retail Direct Scheme' on 12 November 2021 allows retail investors to buy and sell government securities through digital mode. What among them is not government security under this scheme?

a) Government of India Treasury Bills (T-Bills)

b) Government of India dated securities (dated G-Sec)

c) Zero-Coupon Bonds

d) State Development Loans (SDLs)

e) Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGB)

  1. AOption (a)

    All a, b, c

  2. BOption (b)

    Both b, d

  3. COption (c)

    Only c

  4. DOption (d)

    Both c, d

  5. EOption (e)

    Only d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only c.

Key Points

  • Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi launched the initiative of the Reserve Bank of India “RBI Retail Direct Scheme” on 12 November 2021.
  • “Retail Direct Scheme” is a one-stop solution under which individual retail investors can open a Gilt Securities Account – “Retail Direct Gilt (RDG)” account with RBI. Using this account, retail investors can buy and sell government securities through the online portal.
  • Opening an RDG account will allow individuals to buy Government securities directly in the primary market (auctions) as well as buy/sell in the secondary market.
  • Individuals and Retail Investors can buy and sell:
  • Government of India Treasury Bills (T-Bills)
  • Government of India dated securities (dated G-Sec)
  • State Development Loans (SDLs)
  • Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGB)

Important Points

  • The minimum amount for investment through the Retail Direct platform:
S. No.Government SecurityThe minimum investment amount/quantity (as of Nov 12, 2021)
1Government of India Treasury Bills (T-Bills)₹10,000
2Government of India dated securities (dated G-Sec)₹10,000
3State Development Loans (SDLs)₹10,000
4Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGB)One gram of gold
  • The maximum amount for investment in Government securities:
S. No.Government securityMaximum investment amount/quantity (as of Nov 12, 2021)
1Government of India Treasury Bills (T-Bills)The aggregate allocation of all non-competitive bids will be restricted to a maximum of 5% of the aggregate nominal amount of the issue within the notified amount as specified by the Government of India, or any other percentage determined by RBI.
2Government of India dated securities (dated G-Sec)₹2 crores (face value) per security per auction.
3State Development Loans (SDLs)1% of the notified amount (face value) per auction.

Question 9

It is a part of the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package (PMGKP) to help the poor fight the battle against Covid-19. The Union Cabinet has approved the extension for the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY-Phase VII) up to 

  1. AOption (a)

    October 2022

  2. BOption (b)

    November 2022

  3. COption (c)

    December 2022

  4. DOption (d)

    January 2023

  5. EOption (e)

    February 2023

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

December 2022

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is December 2022.

Key Points

  • The Union Cabinet has approved the extension for the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY-Phase VII) for a further period of 3 months i.e. October to December 2022.

 Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana

  • PMGKAY is a part of the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Package (PMGKP) to help the poor fight the battle against Covid-19.
  • Its nodal Ministry is the Ministry of Finance.
  • It was initially announced for a three-month period (April, May and June 2020), covering 80 crore ration cardholders. Later it was extended till November 2020.
  • Phase-I and Phase-II of this scheme were operational from April to June 2020 and July to November 2020 respectively.
  • Phase III of the scheme was operational from May to June 2021.
  • Phase IV of the scheme is currently operational for July-November 2021 months.
  • The scheme aimed at providing each person who is covered under the NFSA (National Food Security Act 2013) with an additional 5 kg grains (wheat or rice) for free, in addition to the 5 kg of subsidized food grain already provided through the Public Distribution System (PDS).

Question 10

Who is the author of the book, 'The Ministry of Utmost Happiness'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sara Aboobacker

  2. BOption (b)

    Jhumpa Lahiri

  3. COption (c)

    Arundhati Roy

  4. DOption (d)

    Tilottama Majumdar

  5. EOption (e)

    Mridula Sinha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Arundhati Roy

Why this answer is correct

The much awaited second novel of Arundhati Roy "The Ministry of Utmost Happiness" has been launched. Like its predecessor the Ministry of Utmost Happiness is a complex and a nonlinear narrative. The book is published in India by Penguin Random House. Arundhati Roy was the first Indian woman to win the prestigious Booker Prize with her 1997 work.

Question 11

Recently, Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has revoked the licence held by Brickwork Ratings and asked it to wind down its credit rating operations within ______ months.

  1. AOption (a)

    5

  2. BOption (b)

    6

  3. COption (c)

    7

  4. DOption (d)

    3

  5. EOption (e)

    9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

6

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is 6.

In News Securities Exchange Board of India (SEBI) has revoked the licence held by Brickwork Ratings and asked it to wind down its credit rating operations within six months.

Key PointsWhat are credit rating agencies?

  • Credit Rating Agencies (CRA) are agencies that assess the creditworthiness of organisation, individual or entity and assign ratings to it.
  • They take into consideration several factors like the financial statements, level and type of debt, lending and borrowing history, ability to repay the debt, and the past debts of the entity.
  • The entities that are rated by credit rating agencies comprise companies, state governments, non-profit organisations, countries, securities, special purpose entities, and local governmental bodies.
  • In India, CRAs are regulated by SEBI (Credit Rating Agencies) Regulations, 1999 of the Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992.
  • Brickwork ratings- Brickwork is one of the SEBI-registered credit rating agencies in India.
  • It is also a Reserve Bank of India (RBI) accredited credit rating agency.

Question 12

Which of the following scheme launched to provide quality education to scheduled caste students?

  1. AOption (a)

    DHRUV

  2. BOption (b)

    NIRVIK

  3. COption (c)

    SVAMITVA

  4. DOption (d)

    SHRESHTA

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

SHRESHTA

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is ​Shreshta.

 In News

  • ​Government Launches Shreshta Scheme To Provide Quality Education To Scheduled Caste Students.

Key Points

  • In a significant move aimed at advancing education and promoting the socio-economic progress of Scheduled Castes (SCs), the Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment has introduced the 'Scheme for Residential Education for Students in High Schools in Targeted Areas' (SHRESHTA).
  • The initiative envisions the creation of a conducive environment for the socio-economic upliftment and comprehensive development of SC students.
  • The scheme's implementation is structured in two distinct modes.
  • First, there are the SHRESHTA schools, which comprise the best CBSE/State Board-affiliated private residential schools.
  • Under this mode, a specified number of outstanding SC students in various States and Union Territories (UTs) will be selected annually through the National Entrance Test for SHRESHTA (NETS), conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA).
  • The students will then be admitted to the best private residential schools affiliated with CBSE/State Boards for their education from the 9th to the 12th standard.
  • Selection of these schools is based on their exemplary performance, with schools boasting over a 75 per cent pass rate for classes 10 and 12 over the past three years being chosen by a selection committee for the admission of selected students.

Question 13

The 14th BRICS Summit was concluded by China under the chairmanship of President Xi Jinping. Which country will chair the next BRICS summit in 2023?

  1. AOption (a)

    Russia

  2. BOption (b)

    India 

  3. COption (c)

    South Africa

  4. DOption (d)

    Brazil

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

South Africa

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is South Africa.

Key Points

  • The full form of  BRICS is Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.
  • Initially, in 2009 there were only four countries. (BRIC)
  • South Africa joined in 2010.
  • It is associated with five emerging economies of the world that have a significant influence on regional affairs.
  • It was formed in 2009 and since then the governments of these 5 countries met annually at formal summits.
  • So, From 2010 Countries involved chairs the BRICS summits according to sequence of B-R-I-C-S.
  • As, in 2021 India chaired the 13th BRICS Summit, next initial is C So, this year, in 2022 China Chaired the Summit. Next year South Africa will host this Summit.

Question 14

What is the youth age limit in Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana?

  1. AOption (a)

    15 years

  2. BOption (b)

    25 years

  3. COption (c)

    18 years

  4. DOption (d)

    16 years

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

15 years

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 15 years.

Key Points

  • Union Government on 25 September 2014 launched Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Antyodaya Yojana for urban and rural poor.
  • Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Antyodaya Yojana has two components one for urban India and other for rural India.
  • The Urban component will be implemented by the Union Ministry of Housing & Urban Poverty Alleviation while rural component named as Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana will be implemented by the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
  • Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana
  • Under the Yojana, the Union Ministry of Rural Development will launch skill development training centres on a large scale to address the problem of unemployment particularly in rural India.
  • The minimum age for entry under the Yojana is 15 years compared to 18 years under the Aajeevika Skills Programme.
  • It aims to enable the rural poor to increase their household income by means of sustainable livelihood.
  • The scheme started out with an agenda to cover 7 Crore rural poor households via Self Help Groups (SHGs).

Question 15

International Day of the Girl Child is an international observance day declared by the United Nations and is observed on ____________ every year.

  1. AOption (a)

    October 10

  2. BOption (b)

    October 11

  3. COption (c)

    October 12

  4. DOption (d)

    October 13

  5. EOption (e)

    October 14

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

October 11

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'October 11'.

Key Points

  • International Day of the Girl Child is an international observance day on October 11 declared by the United Nations.
  • It is also called the Day of Girls and the International Day of the Girl.
  • October 11, 2012, was the first Day of the Girl Child.
  • The observation supports more opportunity for girls and increases awareness of gender inequality faced by girls worldwide based upon their gender.
  • This inequality includes areas such as access to education, nutrition, legal rights, medical care, and protection from discrimination, violence against women and forced child marriage.
  • The celebration of the day also "reflects the successful emergence of girls and young women as a distinct cohort in development policy, programming, campaigning and research."
  • Various events to promote the Day of Girls are planned in several countries. Some are sponsored by the United Nations, such as a concert in Mumbai, India.

Additional Information

  • Sustainable Development Goal 5 (SDG 5 or Global Goal 5) concerns gender equality and is fifth of the 17 Sustainable Development Goals established by United Nations in 2015.
  • The targets and indicators for SDG 5 are extensive and provide equal opportunity for females (women and girls), and cover a broad crosscutting gender issues including ending all forms of discrimination as well as violence against all females.

Question 16

Who among the following has been awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature for the year 2022?

  1. AOption (a)

    Peter Handke

  2. BOption (b)

    Hazel Hayes

  3. COption (c)

    Annie Ernaux

  4. DOption (d)

    Christina Lauren

  5. EOption (e)

    Sally Thorne

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Annie Ernaux

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Annie Ernaux'.

Key Points

  • Eighty-Two-year-old French writer Annie Ernaux has been awarded the Nobel Prize in literature for the year 2022.
  • The author awarded for the courage and clinical acuity with which she uncovers the roots, estrangements and collective restraints of personal memory. Her literary work maintains close links with sociology.
  • Annie Ernaux is a pioneer of autofiction, a style of writing that combines two mutually inconsistent narrative forms, namely autobiography and fiction.
  • The events in her book, she says, belong to everyone, to history, to sociology. In her works, the past is a raw material of her writings, which is transformed by rooting it in the present.
  • Ernaux says “necessity, not pleasure” takes her back to her past, which she dissects like a forensics expert examining a crime scene. Her magnum opus, Les années (The Years) has been written in the vein of a memoir and explodes with perspective and voice.
  • The book has been written using “one” and “we” and occasionally “she” or “they”, but never “I” The Happening, recounting her experience as a university student in France in 1963, is an intense account of an illegal abortion.
  • The novel was also adapted into an award winning French drama thriller film in 2021 by the same name.

Additional Information

  • The Nobel Prize in Literature is a Swedish literature prize that is awarded annually, since 1901, to an author from any country who has, in the words of the will of Swedish industrialist Alfred Nobel, "in the field of literature, produced the most outstanding work in an idealistic direction".
  • Though individual works are sometimes cited as being particularly noteworthy, the award is based on an author's body of work as a whole.

Question 17

In August 2021, the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) has appointed whom as Joint Secretary of the newly formed Ministry of Cooperation?

  1. AOption (a)

    Amit Sachdeva

  2. BOption (b)

    Manish Sinha

  3. COption (c)

    Abhay Kumar Singh

  4. DOption (d)

    Sunil Sharma 

  5. EOption (e)

    Rahul Gupta

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Abhay Kumar Singh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Abhay Kumar Singh.

  • The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) has appointed Abhay Kumar Singh as Joint Secretary of the newly formed Ministry of Cooperation.
  • He is an Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer, Bihar Cadre of 2004 batch.
  • He has been appointed for a combined tenure of seven years upto 30 August 2022 from the date of assumption of the charge of the post.
  • Other Appointments:
  • Vijaya Lakshmi Nadendla and Priya Ranjan have been appointed as Joint Secretaries in the Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
  • Pramod Kumar Meherda has been appointed as Managing Director in National Food Security Mission (NFSM) under the Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
  • Kavita Garg has been named as Joint Secretary in the Ministry of AYUSH.
  • Kavita Singh was appointed as Joint Secretary in Cabinet Secretariat.
  • Vibhu Nayar was named as Executive Director, India Trade Promotion Organisation (ITPO) under the Department of Commerce.

Question 18

Which of the following will be the 12th company to get the status of the 'Maharatna' company?

  1. AOption (a)

    Container Corporation of India Limited

  2. BOption (b)

    Power Finance Corporation Limited

  3. COption (c)

    Hindustan Aeronautics Limited

  4. DOption (d)

    Rural Electrification Corporation Limited

  5. EOption (e)

    Coal India Limited

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Rural Electrification Corporation Limited

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ​Rural Electrification Corporation Limited.

Key Points

  • Rural Electrification Corporation Limited (REC) has been accorded the status of a ‘Maharatna’ Central Public Sector Enterprise, thus giving REC greater operational and financial autonomy.
  • An order to this effect was issued on 21st September by the Department of Public Enterprises, under the Ministry of Finance.
  • Incorporated in 1969, REC is an NBFC focusing on Power Sector Financing and Development across India.
  • Shri Vivek Kumar Dewangan, CMD, REC said that REC achieved this feat owing to its adaptability, resilience, and consistent performance even during the global covid-19 pandemic.
  • REC has played a key role in the success of the flagship schemes of the Government of India such as DDUGJY and SAUBHAGYA and has contributed towards achieving village and household electrification in the country.
  • The Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana (DDUGJY) is an Indian government scheme intending to provide an uninterrupted power supply to the rural parts of India.
  • Saubhagya Scheme or Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana is an Indian government project to provide electricity to non-electrified rural households.

Additional Information List of Maharatna Companies in India 2022

1. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
2. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
3. Coal India Limited
4. GAIL (Gas Authority of India) Limited
5. Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
6. Indian Oil Corporation Limited
7. NTPC ( National Thermal Power Corporation) Limited
8. Oil & Natural Gas Corporation Limited
9. Power Grid Corporation of India Limited
10. Steel Authority of India Limited
11. Power Finance Corporation
12. Rural Electrification Corporation Limited

Question 19

Who among the following persons has been appointed as the independent Chairman of the Unity Small Finance Bank (USFB)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vikram Dev Dutt

  2. BOption (b)

    Narendra Kumar

  3. COption (c)

    Ittira Davis

  4. DOption (d)

    Vinod Rai

  5. EOption (e)

    Urjit Patel

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Vinod Rai

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vinod Rai.

Key Points

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has appointed Vinod Rai as the independent Chairman of the Unity Small Finance Bank (USFB).
  • He is the former Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) Chief.
  • The bank has also appointed Sandip Ghose, an RBI veteran, Basant Seth, the former Chairman and Managing Director of erstwhile Syndicate Bank, and Subhash Kutte, former chairman RBL Bank, to its board.

Additional Information

  • Senior bureaucrat Vikram Dev Dutt has been appointed as the chairman and managing director (CMD) of Air India Ltd.
  • Narendra Kumar Goenka has been appointed as the new chairman of the Apparel Export Promotion Council, AEPC.
  • Reserve Bank of India has approved the appointment of Ittira Davis as managing director & chief executive officer of (MD & CEO) of Ujjivan Small Finance Bank for one tenure.
  • To put restrictions on para-banks whenever vital financial metrics dip below the prescribed threshold, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced a prompt corrective action (PCA) framework for large non-banking financial companies (NBFCs) with effect from October 2022.
  • RBI 25th Governor: Shaktikanta Das (As of Jan 2022).
  • RBI Headquarters: Mumbai;
  • RBI Founded: 1 April 1935, Kolkata.
  • Economist Pierre-Olivier Gourinchas has been named as the next chief economist of the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
  • Former Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor, Urjit Patel has been appointed as Vice President of the multilateral funding institution Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)

Question 20

Taiwan’s Pegatron Corporation and Tata Electronics will invest separately in which state to make mobile phones and parts?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tamil Nadu

  2. BOption (b)

    Kerala

  3. COption (c)

    Gujarat

  4. DOption (d)

    Bihar

  5. EOption (e)

    Madhya Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Tamil Nadu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

  • Taiwan’s Pegatron Corporation and Tata Electronics will invest separately in Tamil Nadu to make mobile phones and parts.
  • Tata Electronics will invest ₹5,763 crores for making mobile phone components and Pegatron will invest ₹1,100 crores to make mobile phones as part of its phase I investment.
  • The other companies to invest in Tamil Nadu include Sun Edison and Ola Electric.
  • Tamil Nadu:
  • Chief Minister - Edappadi K. Palaniswami.
  • Governor - Banwarilal Purohit.
  • Lok Sabha seats - 39.
  • Rajya Sabha seats - 18.

Question 21

Who among the following have been awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics 2022?

  1. AOption (a)

    David J. Thouless, F. Duncan M. Haldane and J. Michael Kosterlitz

  2. BOption (b)

    Isamu Akasaki, Hiroshi Amano and Shuji Nakamura

  3. COption (c)

    Alain Aspect, John F. Clauser and Anton Zeilinger

  4. DOption (d)

    Syukuro Manabe, Klaus Hasselmann and Giorgio Parisi

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Alain Aspect, John F. Clauser and Anton Zeilinger

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Alain Aspect, John F. Clauser and Anton Zeilinger.

Key Points

  • Alain Aspect, John F. Clauser and Anton Zeilinger have jointly won the Nobel Prize in Physics.
  • They have won it "for experiments with entangled photons, establishing the violation of Bell inequalities and pioneering quantum information science".
  • In 2021, the award was given to Giorgio Parisi, Klaus Hasselmann and Syukuro Manabe.

Additional Information

  • Recent Awards and Honours:
  • Likith YP has won bronze medal in the Skill of Prototype Modelling at the WorldSkills Competition 2022.
  • Former India Chief of Naval Staff, Admiral Sunil Lanba was conferred Singapore’s prestigious military award, the Pingat Jasa Gemilang (Tentera) or Meritorious Service Medal (Military).
  • Bangladesh-born Fahmida Azim working for the Insider online magazine of US has been selected for the 2022 Pulitzer prize.
  • Karnataka Chief Minister Basavaraj Bommai has announced that Kannada film star Puneeth Rajkumar, who died 2021, will be conferred with the 'Karnataka Ratna' award posthumously, on November 1, 2022.
  • Michelle Poonawalla received the Shromani Award at NRI World Summit 2022, United Kingdom in July 2022.
  • India's Vijay Amritraj has been named the 2021 recipient of the Golden Achievement Award.

Question 22

Recently the Reserve Bank of India capped aggregate exposure of upper layer NBFCs toward one entity at what percent of the capital base?

  1. AOption (a)

    5%

  2. BOption (b)

    10%

  3. COption (c)

    20%

  4. DOption (d)

    25%

  5. EOption (e)

    30%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

20%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ‘20%’

 

Key Points

 

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has tightened the rules for non-banking finance companies (NBFCs) relating to their large exposures.
  • RBI capped aggregate exposure of NBFCs which are in the upper layer toward one entity at 20% of the capital base.
  • The limit can only be extended by another 5% with the board’s approval.
  • For a particular borrower group, the cap is at 25%, with an additional 10% if exposure is towards infrastructure.
  • The upper-layer NBFCs are typically the top 10 ones in terms of asset size.
  • However, NBFCs that are into infrastructure finance can have exposure of 25 percent, with an option of an additional 5 percent of Tier I capital to a single counterparty.
  • For a group of connected counterparties, infrastructure companies can have an exposure of 35 percent of Tier-I capital.
  • In case of breach of the large exposure limits, the NBFCs have to report to the department of supervision of RBI.
  • The RBI has also warned that any failure to comply with the exposure limit may lead to the imposition of penalties on the NBFCs.
  • These norms will come into effect from October 1, 2022.

Question 23

Prime Minister has launched National Logistics Policy, according to the policy India aims to be among the top 25 countries in the Logistics Performance Index ranking by which year?

  1. AOption (a)

    2025

  2. BOption (b)

    2023

  3. COption (c)

    2024

  4. DOption (d)

    2027

  5. EOption (e)

    2030

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

2030

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2030.

Key Points

  • Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi launched the National Logistics Policy in New Delhi on 17th September. India had taken yet another important step towards becoming a developed nation with the National Logistics Policy.
  • The policy aspires to reduce the cost of logistics in India to be comparable to global benchmarks by 2030, endeavor to be among the top 25 countries by 2030 in the Logistics Performance Index ranking, and create a data-driven decision support mechanism for an efficient logistics ecosystem.
  • The implementation of the National Logistics Policy would bring down logistics costs, give a boost to international trade, help in making India ‘atmanirbhar’ or self-reliant, usher in prosperity in the nation, and present new opportunities to our startups.
  • The policy would be highly beneficial to the farmers of the country, helping them to take their produce to the markets at a faster pace and reduce wastage and delay.  This would bring down prices in the economy - said Piyush Goyal, Union Minister of Commerce and Industry.
  • The Policy will be implemented through a Comprehensive Logistics Action Plan (CLAP).

The interventions proposed under the CLAP are divided into eight key action areas:(i) Integrated Digital Logistics Systems (ii) Standardization of physical assets and benchmarking service quality standards (iii) Logistics Human Resources Development and Capacity Building (iv) State Engagement (v) EXIM (Export-Import) Logistics (vi) Service Improvement framework (vii) Sectoral Plan for Efficient Logistics (viii) Facilitation of Development of Logistics Parks.

Question 24

The Airports Authority of India (AAI) and the LFV Air Navigation Services of ________ have signed a memorandum of understanding to bring together the two countries with demonstrated capabilities in building and operationalizing the next generation of sustainable aviation technology?

  1. AOption (a)

    USA

  2. BOption (b)

    UK

  3. COption (c)

    UAE

  4. DOption (d)

    Sweden

  5. EOption (e)

    Austraila

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sweden

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sweden.

Key Points

  • The agreement will enable the two sides to explore smart aviation solutions and pave the way for bilateral exchanges of aviation knowledge and technology.
  • It will allow Indian companies to accelerate growth while leveraging Swedish innovation and expertise.
  • Under the aegis of the MoU, companies can collaborate in areas of mutual interest.

Additional Information

  • Accordingly, AAI and LFV, both government agencies of India and Sweden respectively, will collaborate on the following areas:
  • Air traffic management
  • Air traffic control
  • Remote airport management and traffic control
  • Airspace design and planning
  • Airport design and infrastructure
  • Digitalized airport and aviation
  • Capability and training
  • Sustainable airports and aviation
  • Processes for pilots
  • Processes for scale-up
  • A Joint Working Group shall be organized to prioritize interest areas and drive collaboration between the two countries.
  • This MoU will play a crucial role in furthering government-to-government engagements between India and Sweden in the Aviation sector in addition to other existing engagements such as sustainability, healthcare, innovation, energy, and infrastructure etc.

Question 25

In the category of best performing states in ‘Swachh Survekshan Awards 2022’, ____________ has secured the first position, followed by Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra.

  1. AOption (a)

    Telangana

  2. BOption (b)

    Madhya Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Sikkim

  4. DOption (d)

    Tamil Nadu 

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Madhya Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ​Madhya Pradesh.

In News 

  • In the category of best performing states in ‘Swachh Survekshan Awards 2022’, Madhya Pradesh has secured the first position, followed by Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra.
  • Indore was adjudged India’s cleanest city for the sixth time in a row, while Surat and Navi Mumbai followed it on the next two spots.

Additional Information

  • Telangana won the first prize under the large states category under the Swachh Survekshan Grameen (SSG) 2022 which looks into the sanitation status of rural areas.
  • Haryana was in the second position while Tamil Nadu was third.
  • Among smaller states and Union territories, Andaman and Nicobar secured the first position followed by Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu and Sikkim.
  • In the category of cities having population fewer than one lakh, Maharashtra’s Panchgani was ranked number one, followed by Chhattisgarh’s Patan (NP) and Maharashtra’s Karhad.
  • Haridwar was adjudged the cleanest Ganga town in the category of more than 1 lakh population, followed by Varanasi and Rishikesh.
  • In to the survey, Maharashtra’s Deolali was adjudged the country’s cleanest Cantonment Board.

Question 26

The Union Budget 2022-23, proposed to introduce the “Digital Rupee” using blockchain and other technologies. "Central Bank Digital Currency" is introduced for “Digital Rupee”. Who is the regulator of "Central Bank Digital Currency"?

  1. AOption (a)

    SBI

  2. BOption (b)

    RBI

  3. COption (c)

    SEBI

  4. DOption (d)

    ECGC

  5. EOption (e)

    NABARD

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

RBI

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is RBI.

Key Points

  • Union Minister for Finance and Corporate Affairs, Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman proposed to introduce a “Digital Rupee”, using blockchain and other technologies, to be issued by the Reserve Bank of India starting 2022-23.
  • RBI will introduce “Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC)” to give a big boost to the digital economy.
  • “Digital currency will also lead to a more efficient and cheaper currency management system”.

Important Points

  • A CBDC is a legal tender issued by a central bank in a digital form. It is the same as a fiat currency and is exchangeable one-to-one with the fiat currency. Only its form is different.
  • “Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC)” and "Cryptocurrency" are not the same thing. The digital rupee will be the digital version of physical cash issued by the RBI and will, be sovereign-backed. On the other hand, cryptocurrencies are not backed by a government or central bank and are traded online. Any income from the transfer of any "Virtual Digital  Asset" will now be taxed under a 30% slab rate.
  • The official bill to regulate the digital currency- “The Cryptocurrency and Regulation of Official Digital Currency Bill 2021” was introduced in the Parliament during the winter session that starts on November 29, 2021.

Additional Information

  • Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman proposed to set up** **75 Digital Banking Units (DBUs) in 75 districts of the country by Scheduled Commercial Banks.

Question 27

Consider the following statements regarding the ‘PM-CARES for Children’ scheme.

  1. It is applicable for children who lost one or both parents.
  2. Eligible children will be enrolled as a beneficiary under Ayushman Bharat Scheme. 3. The eligible child will be assisted in obtaining an education loan for Professional courses.

Which among the above statements is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    2 only

  5. EOption (e)

    All are correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Key Points

  • The Centre has launched "PM-CARES for Children" scheme, which will take care of their educational needs, including higher education.
  • All children who have lost both parents or surviving parent or legal guardian/adoptive parents due to Covid 19 will be supported under the ‘PM-CARES for Children’ scheme. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • PM CARES will contribute through a specially designed scheme to create a corpus of Rs 10 lakh for each child when he or she reaches 18 years of age.
  • For children under 10 years-
  • The child will be given admission to the nearest Kendriya Vidyalaya or in a private school as a day scholar.
  • PM-CARES will also pay for expenditure on uniforms, textbooks, and notebooks.
  • For children between 11-18 years-
  • The child will be given admission to any Central Government residential school such as Sainik School, Navodaya Vidyalaya, etc.
  • PM CARES will also pay for expenditure on uniforms, textbooks, and notebooks.
  • The child will be assisted in obtaining an education loan for Professional courses / Higher Education in India as per the existing Education Loan norms. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • All children will be enrolled as a beneficiary under Ayushman Bharat Scheme (PM-JAY) with a health insurance cover of Rs. 5 lakhs. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Question 28

Which one of the following states has the highest proportion of urban population in India according to 2011 Census?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tamil Nadu

  2. BOption (b)

    Kerala

  3. COption (c)

    Maharashtra

  4. DOption (d)

    Goa

  5. EOption (e)

    Uttar Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Goa

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Goa.

Key Points

  • As per the 2011 census,
  • 833.5 million persons live in rural areas i.e: 2/3rd of the total population while, 377.1 million persons live in urban areas.
  • The urban population proportion is 31.2%.
  • Among states, Goa is the most urbanised State with a 62.2% urban population
  • Among all the States and Union territories, the National Capital Territory of Delhi and Chandigarh are most urbanized with 97.5% and 97.25% urban population respectively, followed by Daman and Diu (75.2%) and Puducherry (68.3%).
  • Among the North-Eastern States, Mizoram is most urbanised with 51.5% urban population.
  • Among major states, Tamil Nadu continues to be the most urbanized state with 48.4% of the population living in urban areas.
  • It is followed by Kerala (47.7%) and Maharashtra (45.2%).

Question 29

Recently in June 2022, which organization has partnered with the Maharashtra Chamber of Commerce, Industry and Agriculture (MACCIA) to promote the benefits of listing on its SME platform?

  1. AOption (a)

    National Stock Exchange

  2. BOption (b)

    Bombay Stock Exchange

  3. COption (c)

    Reserve Bank of India

  4. DOption (d)

    Stock Exchange Board of India

  5. EOption (e)

    State Bank of India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bombay Stock Exchange

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ‘Bombay Stock Exchange’

Key Points

  • Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) has collaborated with the Maharashtra Chamber of Commerce, Industry and Agriculture to promote and create awareness in the state on the benefits of listing on its SME platform.
  • Through this partnership, BSE will provide intellectual and manpower support to enterprises registered with the Maharashtra Chamber of Commerce, Industry and Agriculture (MACCIA) to get listed on the BSE SME platform.
  • Also, BSE SME will provide training and capacity-building programmes to MACCIA officials.
  • The exchange will appoint a nodal person as single point contact in Maharashtra for providing an end-to-end solution with respect to registration or listing on its SME platform.
  • Being the apex chamber and primary body of all associations, MACCIA represents the highest MSMEs in the state.
  • This pact will help the micro, small and medium industries in the state to get registered in the capital market and raise capital from the public capital market.
  • Recently, BSE signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with Federal Bank to promote the listing of SMEs and startups.
  • As on 29th June 2022, 375 companies have been listed on the BSE SME Platform and has raise a little over Rs 3,997 crore from the market

Question 30

Which Ministry is responsible for implementation of foreign contribution of regulation act?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ministry of Finance 

  2. BOption (b)

    Ministry of Corporate Affairs 

  3. COption (c)

    Ministry of Home Affairs 

  4. DOption (d)

    Ministry of Defence

  5. EOption (e)

    Ministry of Earth Sciences

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ministry of Home Affairs 

Why this answer is correct

  • The Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act is regulated by the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
  • The FCRA  was passed by the Parliament of India in 2010.
  • The Act regulates the arrival and movement of foreign funds in India.
  • Licensing and revocation of licenses to major NGOs, institutions and various authorities is also the function of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  • The act prevents the arrival of illegal foreign currency in India, Terror funding and other illegal financial transfers.
  • The Ministry of Finance oversees and regulates the work related to finance.
  • The Ministry of Corporate Affairs deals with the corporate company and other related matters.

Question 31

___________ and __________ have got approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to open a special Vostro account for trade in rupees and both the approvals are for trade with Russia.

  1. AOption (a)

    Axis Bank, Union Bank of India

  2. BOption (b)

    ICICI Bank, Federal Bank

  3. COption (c)

    Axis Bank, Bank of India

  4. DOption (d)

    HDFC Bank, Canara Bank

  5. EOption (e)

    ICICI Bank, Canara Bank

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

HDFC Bank, Canara Bank

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'HDFC Bank, Canara Bank'.

Key Points

  • HDFC Bank and Canara Bank have got approval from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to open a special Vostro account for trade in rupees and both the approvals are for trade with Russia.
  • So far five Indian banks, UCO Bank, Union Bank, and IndusInd Bank being the other three, have received regulatory clearance for such trade.
  • This apart, two Russian banks- Sber Bank and VTB have the RBI’s approval. Both have branches in India.
  • According to sources, three banks have opened accounts so far though no deal has been done through this mechanism. The move is aimed at popularising trade in the domestic currency.

Additional Information

  • Kolkata-based UCO Bank was the first Indian bank to receive the RBI’s approval to open a special Vostro account with Russia’s Gazprombank, which was set up by the world’s largest gas producer and exporter, Gazprom.
  • After the Russia-Ukraine war broke out in late February, resulting in the former facing sanctions from European countries and the United States, the need to develop an alternative currency for trade arose.

Question 32

Which of the following companies has recently become as one of official sponsor for FIFA Qatar World Cup 2022?

  1. AOption (a)

    Upgrad

  2. BOption (b)

    Byju's

  3. COption (c)

    Unacademy

  4. DOption (d)

    Cred

  5. EOption (e)

    Rupay

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Byju's

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ‘Byju's’

 

Key Points

 

  • Edtech major Byju's has been announced as one of the official sponsors for FIFA Qatar World Cup 2022.
  • Through this partnership, Bengaluru-based Byju’s will leverage its rights to the FIFA World Cup 2022 marks, emblem, and assets, and run unique promotions to connect with passionate football fans around the world.
  • It will also create engaging and creative content with educational messages as part of a multifaceted activation plan.
  • The FIFA World Cup Qatar 2022 will take place from 21 November to 18 December 2022.
  • Byju’s has already empowered 3.4 million students from underserved communities with digital learning in India and aims to reach 10 million students in its home country by 2025.

Question 33

The agricultural census in India is conducted after every _____ years.

  1. AOption (a)

    4

  2. BOption (b)

    1

  3. COption (c)

    3

  4. DOption (d)

    5

  5. EOption (e)

    10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

5

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 5.

Key Points 

  • The Agriculture Census is conducted every 5 years, which is being undertaken now after a delay due to the corona pandemic.
  • The ministry is implementing an agriculture census scheme from 1970-71. The tenth edition of the census was conducted with the reference year 2015-16.
  • The agricultural census is the main source of information on a variety of parameters, such as the number and area of operational holdings, their size, class-wise distribution, land use, tenancy and cropping pattern, etc.

Additional Information

  • Agriculture Minister Narendra Singh Tomar launched the eleventh agricultural census to collect data on various parameters, including operational holdings.
  • The fieldwork of the Eleventh Agricultural Census (2021-22) was started in August 2022.
  • The minister released the 'Handbook on Operational Guidelines for Census' for the use of states/UTs, and launched the 'Data Collection Portal/App'.
  • In the two Agricultural Censuses, namely, 1950 and 1960, data required for the World Agricultural Census were collected through sample Surveys carried out by the erstwhile Directorate of National Sample Survey (Now called 'National Sample Survey Office) which gave estimates for the country as a whole and also for States.

Question 34

Which of the following has signed an MoU with Testing, Inspection, Certification Council to collaborate to promote implementation of standards and quality, safety and sustainability practices in laboratories?

  1. AOption (a)

    Food Corporation of India

  2. BOption (b)

    Bureau of Indian Standards

  3. COption (c)

    Food Safety and Standards Authority of India

  4. DOption (d)

    International Organization for Standardization

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bureau of Indian Standards

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Bureau of Indian Standards.

Key Points

  • Bureau of Indian Standards, the National Standards Body of India has signed an MoU with Testing, Inspection, Certification Council.
  • They will collaborate to promote implementation of standards and quality, safety and sustainability practices in laboratories.
  • TIC Council is a global trade association representing independent third-party testing, inspection and certification industry.

Question 35

The ratio that the banks are required to maintain between their liquid assets and total deposits is called

  1. AOption (a)

    CRR (cash reserve ratio)

  2. BOption (b)

    SLR (statutory liquidity ratio)

  3. COption (c)

    CAR (capital adequacy ratio)

  4. DOption (d)

    Provision Ratio

  5. EOption (e)

    None Of These

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

SLR (statutory liquidity ratio)

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is SLR (statutory liquidity ratio)

Key PointsExplanation:

  • Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is the portion of time (fixed deposits) and demand liabilities (savings bank and current accounts) of banks that they should keep in the form of designated liquid assets like government securities, gold and Vault Cash.
  • SLR aims at ensuring that the need for government funds is partly but surely met by the banks.
  • The maximum limit is 40% according to the Reserve Bank of India Act and Banking Regulation Act.

Question 36

Apple Inc. will manufacture Made-In-India iPhone 12 soon. iPhone 12 will be manufactured at the Hon Hai Precision Industry (Foxconn) facility in which state?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kerala

  2. BOption (b)

    Karnataka

  3. COption (c)

    Tamil Nadu

  4. DOption (d)

    Maharashtra

  5. EOption (e)

    Gujarat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Tamil Nadu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

  • Apple Inc. will manufacture Made-In-India iPhone 12 soon.
  • Its latest model was launched in India on October 30, 2020.
  • iPhone 12 will be manufactured at the Hon Hai Precision Industry (Foxconn) facility in Tamil Nadu, both for the domestic as well as export market.
  • The unit also manufactures iPhone 11, which is the bestseller in India, as well as iPhone XR.

Question 37

Recently in June 2022, what amount has been sanction for the 'Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance' (RAMP) scheme during the 'Udyami Bharat' programme?

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹2,000 crore

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹5,000 crore

  3. COption (c)

    ₹6,000 crore

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹8,000 crore

  5. EOption (e)

    ₹9,000 crore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

₹6,000 crore

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ‘₹6,000 crore’

Key Points

  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the ₹6,000 crore 'Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance' (RAMP) scheme in the 'Udyami Bharat' programme at Vigyan Bhawan in New Delhi.
  • The scheme aims to scale up the implementation capacity and coverage of MSMEs in the states, with impact enhancement of existing MSME schemes.
  • It will complement the Aatmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan by fostering innovation, encouraging ideation, enhancing market access, deploying technological tools and Industry 4.0 to make MSMEs competitive and self-reliant.
  • The prime minister said that for orders up to ₹200 crores, no global tender will be undertaken.
  • While addressing the programme, Prime Minister also said that more than ₹500 crores have been digitally transferred to 18,000 MSMEs.
  • More than ₹500 crores have been digitally transferred to 18,000 MSMEs.
  • During the event, the prime minister also launched 'Capacity Building of First-Time MSME Exporters' (CBFTE) scheme and new features of the 'Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme' (PMEGP).
  • The 'Capacity Building of First-Time MSME Exporters' (CBFTE) scheme aims to encourage MSMEs to offer products and services of international standards for the global market.
  • This will enhance the participation of Indian MSMEs in the global value chain and help them realize their export potential.

Question 38

Which country approved the Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA), a Free Trade Agreement, with India in November 2022? 

  1. AOption (a)

    United Arab Emirates

  2. BOption (b)

    Indonesia

  3. COption (c)

    France

  4. DOption (d)

    Australia

  5. EOption (e)

    Germany

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Australia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Australia.

Key Points

  • The ECTA (Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement) was signed on April 2, 2022, and ratified on November 21, written notifications were exchanged on November 29, and after 30 days.
  • The India-Australia ECTA provides an institutional mechanism to encourage and improve trade between the two countries.
  • It covers almost all the tariff lines dealt with by India and Australia.
  • India will benefit from preferential market access provided by Australia on 100% of its tariff lines, including all the labour-intensive sectors of export interest to India, such as Gems and Jewellery, Textiles, leather, footwear, furniture, food, and agricultural products, engineering products, medical devices, and Automobiles.
  • On the other hand, India will offer preferential access to Australia on over 70% of its tariff lines, including lines of export interest to Australia, which are primarily raw materials and intermediaries such as coal, mineral ores, and wines.
  • Both sides have also agreed to a separate Annex on Pharmaceutical products under this agreement, which will enable fast-track approval for patented, generic and biosimilar medicines.

Additional Information

  • Australia is an important strategic partner of India.
  • They are also part of the four-nation QUAD, Trilateral Supply Chain Initiative, and the Indo-Pacific Economic Forum (IPEF).
  • India and Australia in December 2022,  held joint military drills as part of the ongoing joint military exercise 'Austra Hind 22' in Rajasthan's Mahajan field firing ranges.

Question 39

Recently in June 2022, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) extended the card-on-file (CoF) tokenization deadline to ________________.

  1. AOption (a)

    July 31, 2022

  2. BOption (b)

    September 30, 2022

  3. COption (c)

    November 30, 2022

  4. DOption (d)

    December 31, 2022

  5. EOption (e)

    January 30, 2023

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

September 30, 2022

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ‘September 30, 2022’

Key Points

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) extended the card-on-file (CoF) tokenization deadline by three months to September 30, 2022.
  • Tokenization is the process of replacing actual card details with a unique alternate code called 'Token' - thereby enabling more secure transactions.
  • Card-on-file, or CoF refers to card information stored by payment gateway and merchants to process future transactions.
  • The industry stakeholders have highlighted some issues related to the implementation of the framework in respect of guest checkout transactions.
  • As per the RBI previous mandate to enhance the security of online transactions, card details saved on the merchant website/app were to be deleted by the merchants by June 30, 2022.
  • To date, about 19.5 crore tokens have been created however for CoFT (i.e. creating tokens) is voluntary for the cardholders.
  • The basic purpose of tokenization is to increase and improve customer safety and with tokenization, storage of card details is limited.

Question 40

Ben S. Bernanke, Douglas W. Diamond and Philip H. Dybvig won the 2022 Nobel Prize in Economics for research on banks and financial crises. These three economist are from which country?

  1. AOption (a)

    France

  2. BOption (b)

    Ukraine

  3. COption (c)

    Japan

  4. DOption (d)

    China

  5. EOption (e)

    U.S.A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

U.S.A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'U.S.A'.

Key Points

  • Ben S. Bernanke, Douglas W. Diamond and Philip H. Dybvig won the 2022 Nobel Prize in Economics for research on banks and financial crises.
  • The committee said that the three laureates have significantly improved our understanding of the role of banks in the economy, particularly during financial crises, and an important finding in their research is why avoiding bank collapses is vital.
  • Modern banking research clarifies why we have banks, how to make them less vulnerable in crises and how bank collapses exacerbate financial crises. The foundations of this research were laid by Ben Bernanke, Douglas Diamond, and Philip Dybvig in the early 1980s.
  • Their analyses have been of great practical importance in regulating financial markets and dealing with financial crises.
  • The Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences, officially the Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel is an economics award administered by the Nobel Foundation.
  • Although not one of the five Nobel Prizes which were established by Alfred Nobel's will in 1895, it is commonly referred to as the Nobel Prize in Economics.
  • The winners of the Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences are chosen in a similar way, are announced along with the Nobel Prize recipients, and the prize is presented at the Nobel Prize Award Ceremony.

Additional Information

  • The Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences award was established in 1968 by an endowment "in perpetuity" from Sweden's central bank, Sveriges Riksbank, to commemorate the bank's 300th anniversary.
  • It was first awarded in 1969 to Dutch economist Jan Tinbergen and Norwegian economist Ragnar Frisch "for having developed and applied dynamic models for the analysis of economic processes".

Question 41

Which of the following statement(s) regarding the National Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd (NARCL) and IDRCL is/are true?

 

(i) Public sector banks will hold a minimum of 76% stake in NARCL and the rest will be with private sector banks.

(ii) State Bank of India has subscribed to 100,000 shares of Rs 10 each of IDRCL.

(iii) Pradip Shah is the chairman of the National Asset Reconstruction Company NARCL

  1. AOption (a)

    Only (i)

  2. BOption (b)

    Only (ii)

  3. COption (c)

    Only (iii)

  4. DOption (d)

    Both (i) and (iii)

  5. EOption (e)

    Both (ii) and (iii)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only (iii)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ‘Only (iii)’

 

Key Points

 

  • As per the Union Budget 2022, a National Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd (NARCL) and an Asset Management Company (IDRCL) have been set up by lenders (public sector and private sector banks and financial institutions).
  • These companies will consolidate and take over the existing stressed debt in the banking/ financial system.
  • The NARCL will acquire assets by making an offer to the lead bank.
  • IDRCL is yet to become operational. As an asset management company, it will manage the asset and engage market professionals and turnaround experts for debt resolution.
  • State Bank of India, Bank of Baroda, Punjab National Bank, Union Bank of India, Canara Bank, and Bank of Maharashtra have subscribed the shares of India Debt Resolution Company Ltd (IDRCL).
  • State Bank of India, Bank of Baroda, Union Bank of India have subscribed to 99,000 shares of Rs 10 each of IDRCL.
  • Public sector banks (PSBs) will hold a minimum of 51% stake in NARCL and the rest will be with private sector banks.

 

Additional Information

  

National Asset Reconstruction Company Limited:

 

  • It has been incorporated under the Companies Act and has applied to the RBI for the license as an Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC).
  • NARCL has been set up by banks to aggregate and consolidates stressed assets for their subsequent resolution.
  • NARCL proposes to acquire stressed assets of about Rs. 2 Lakh crore in phases within extant regulations of RBI. In phase I, fully provisioned assets of about Rs. 90,000 crores are expected to be transferred to NARCL, while the remaining assets with lower provisions would be transferred in phase II.
  • It intends to acquire these through 15% Cash and 85% in Security Receipts (SRs).
  • Central Government guarantee of Rs.30,600 crore to back Security Receipts issued by National Asset Reconstruction Company Limited (NARCL) for acquiring stressed loan assets.
  • Pradip Shah is the chairman of the National Asset Reconstruction Company (NARCL).

Question 42

Which of the following has imposed a fine of Rs 1.67 crore on Ola Financial Services Private Limited for non-compliance with certain provisions related to Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPI) and Know Your Customer (KYC) norms?

  1. AOption (a)

    IRDAI

  2. BOption (b)

    SEBI

  3. COption (c)

    SIDBI

  4. DOption (d)

    NABARD

  5. EOption (e)

    RBI

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

RBI

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is RBI.

Key Points

  • Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has imposed a fine of Rs 1.67 crore on Ola Financial Services Private Limited for non-compliance with certain provisions related to Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPI) and Know Your Customer (KYC) norms.
  • The penalty has been imposed in exercise of powers vested in RBI under Section 30 of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.

Additional Information

  • RBI:
  • Governor - Shaktikanta Das.
  • Headquarters - Mumbai.
  • Founded: 1 April 1935, Kolkata.
  • The Bank publishes two statutory reports, the Annual Report of the Bank and the Report on Trend and Progress of Banking in India.
  • It also publishes Financial Stability Report.

Question 43

Paytm Payments Bank (PPBL) management has received an RBI-mandated IT auditors report and the central bank’s observation on it, more than six months after it was asked to pause onboarding new customers. What is the share of Paytm in Paytm Payments Bank (PPBL)?

  1. AOption (a)

    49%

  2. BOption (b)

    51%

  3. COption (c)

    75%

  4. DOption (d)

    60%

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

49%

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 49%.

Key Points

  • Paytm Payments Bank (PPBL) management has received an RBI-mandated IT auditors report and the central bank’s observation on it, more than six months after it was asked to pause onboarding new customers.
  • The payments bank is a joint venture between Paytm, which owns a 49% stake in the company, and Vijay Shekhar Sharma, who holds 51%.
  • The bank management is in the process of responding to the RBI and will wait for further discussions/directions from the regulator.
  • The fintech firm informed that it cannot share a timeline on when it would be permitted to resume onboarding new customers.
  • Paytm has posted a consolidated loss of Rs 571.5 crore for the quarter that ended September FY23, widening from a loss of Rs 473.5 crore recorded in the same period last year.
  • However, the loss narrowed from Rs 645.4 crore registered in Q1FY23.
  • Paytm Payments Bank (PPBL)
  • Paytm Payments Bank (PPBL) is an Indian payments bank headquartered in Noida that was founded in 2015. The Reserve Bank of India granted it a license to operate a payments bank the same year, and it began operations in November 2017. The RBI granted the bank scheduled bank status in 2021.
  • Paytm Payments Bank is India’s first mobile-first bank, with no minimum balance and no digital transaction fees. Paytm Payment Bank provides a Paytm wallet and Paytm Savings bank account.
  • Vijay Shekhar Sharma owns 51% of the company, while One97 Communications Limited owns the remaining 49%. Paytm Payments Bank is promoted by Vijay Shekhar Sharma.
  • Payments Bank
  • The creation of a “Payments Bank” to serve low-income individuals and small businesses were suggested by a committee led by Dr. Nachiket.
  • A payments bank, such as Airtel Payments Bank, India Post Payments Bank, etc., functions similarly to a regular bank but on a smaller or more constrained scale.
  • With the Payments Bank, there is no credit risk. The majority of banking tasks can be completed by it, but it cannot make loan advances or issue credit cards.
  • Only demand deposits—savings and current accounts—can be accepted; time deposits are not permitted.
  • Subsidiaries cannot be established by Payment Banks to provide non-banking financial services.
  • RBI
  • The Reserve Bank of India, which also serves as the country’s central bank and regulatory agency, governs the Indian banking system.
  • It is owned by the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
  • It began operations on April 1, 1935, in compliance with the Reserve Bank of India Act, of 1934.
  • Founded on April 1, 1935
  • Shaktikanta Das is the Governor of RBI

Question 44

As per the report of Microfinance Institutions Network (MFIN), which state has the highest average loan outstanding per borrower at Rs 53,708 during FY22?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kerala

  2. BOption (b)

    Assam

  3. COption (c)

    Rajasthan

  4. DOption (d)

    West Bengal

  5. EOption (e)

    Tamil Nadu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

West Bengal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ‘West Bengal’

Key Points

  • According to a report released by a microfinance industry body, West Bengal has the highest average loan outstanding per borrower at Rs 53,708.
  • It is followed by Kerala at Rs 46,074 among the top ten states of the country.
  • The report prepared by the Microfinance Institutions Network (MFIN) said MFI loan disbursals in the last financial year improved significantly to around Rs 2.40 lakh crore as compared to nearly Rs 1.89 lakh crore in the previous fiscal.
  • The number of loans disbursed also saw an increase during the financial year 2021-22, indicting a continued growth of the microfinance portfolio.
  • Firstly, the proportion of the NBFC-MFI portfolio increased by 4.1 percent to 35.2 percent as on March 31, 2022, though banks continue to be the main contributors.
  • Small finance banks (SFBs) have a total loan outstanding of Rs 48,314 crore with a total share of 16.9 percent, while NBFCs with 6.9 percent and other MFIs at one percent.

Question 45

According to Forbes' World's Best Employers rankings 2022, which company has emerged as India's best employer?

  1. AOption (a)

    Reliance Industries

  2. BOption (b)

    HDFC Bank

  3. COption (c)

    Hindustan Unilever

  4. DOption (d)

    Tata Consultancy Services

  5. EOption (e)

    ​​None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Reliance Industries

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Reliance Industries.

Key Points

  • Mukesh Ambani-led Reliance Industries has emerged as India's best employer and the world's 20th best firm to work with, according to Forbes' World's Best Employers rankings in 2022.
  • With 230,0000 employees, Reliance is the only Indian company in the top 100.
  • The global ranking was topped by South Korea's Samsung Electronics, followed by US' Microsoft, IBM, Alphabet, and Apple.

Additional Information

  • Reliance Industries Limited is an Indian multinational conglomerate company.
  • It has diverse businesses including energy, petrochemicals, natural gas, retail, telecommunications, mass media, and textiles.
  • Reliance Industries Limited:
  • Founded: 1973
  • Headquarters: Mumbai
  • Founder: Dhirubhai Ambani

Question 46

National Sports Awards 2022 were announced. Consider the following statements about MAKA trophy.

I. MAKA is abbreviated as Martial Arts and Karate Awards.

II.  Guru Nanak Dev University in Amritsar has won the MAKA awards for 2022.

III. A rolling MAKA trophy and a cash reward of Rs. 15 lakh will be given to the MAKA winner.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    I only

  2. BOption (b)

    II and III only

  3. COption (c)

    III only

  4. DOption (d)

    I and III only

  5. EOption (e)

    All are correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

II and III only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is II and III only.

Key Points

  • The Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy, abbreviated as MAKA Trophy, is a sports honor of the Republic of India. Hence statement I is wrong.
  • It is a rolling trophy awarded to the 'overall top performing University in sports and promoting competitive sports in University' over the preceding year.
  • Guru Nanak Dev University, Amritsar has won Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (MAKA) Trophy 2022. Hence statement II is right. 
  • The trophy was first awarded in 1956–1957.
  • The award for the university securing the first position comprises 'a rolling MAKA trophy and a cash prize of ₹15 lakh (US$19,000)'. The second and third-place universities receive cash prizes of ₹7.5 lakh (US$9,400) and ₹4.5 lakh (US$5,600) respectively.

Additional Information Maulana Abul Kalam Azad Trophy

  • Six universities have won the trophy various times. Guru Nanak Dev University in Amritsar has won the trophy 23 times, most recently in the year 2022.
  • Panjab University in Chandigarh has won the trophy 15 times, most recently in the year 2020.
  • While Delhi University based in Delhi has won the trophy 14 times, most recently in the year 2000–2001.
  • Other winners include Bombay University in Mumbai which won the inaugural trophy, Punjabi University in Patiala, and Kurukshetra University in Kurukshetra$.

Question 47

Which among the following Banks sponsors the most Regional Rural Banks in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    State Bank of India

  2. BOption (b)

    Punjab National Bank

  3. COption (c)

    Canara Bank

  4. DOption (d)

    Bank of Baroda

  5. EOption (e)

    Central Bank of India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

State Bank of India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1, i.e. State Bank of India.

  • State Bank of India sponsors the most Regional Rural Banks in India.
  • There are 43 RRBs in India. The primary function of these banks is to provide banking and loan facilities to MSMEs and encourage financial inclusion.
  • RRBs were established as per the Regional Rural Banks Act 1976 on the recommendations of the M. Narasimham Working Group with a view to providing sufficient banking and credit facilities to agriculture and other rural sectors.
  • Each RRB is sponsored by the Government of India along with the State Government and Sponsor bank.
  • “Prathama Grameen Bank” was the first Regional Rural Bank. It was sponsored by Syndicate Bank (now Canara Bank).
  • State Bank of India sponsors 14 RRBs.

Question 48

What does the ETF stands for?

  1. AOption (a)

    Exchange traded fund

  2. BOption (b)

    Exchange transport fund

  3. COption (c)

    External trade fund

  4. DOption (d)

    Exchequer traded fund

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Exchange traded fund

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Exchange traded fund.

An Exchange Traded Fund (ETF) is a security that tracks an index like an index fund, but trades like a stock on an exchange.

  • Constituent stocks are listed and actively traded, and may have representation from various sectors to provide ETF unit holders adequate diversification.
  • Disinvestment through the ETF route allows the simultaneous sale of GoI stake in various CPSEs across diverse sectors through a single offering and avoids the necessity to go to the market repeatedly for divesting different stocks.
  • The CPSE-ETF provides a mechanism for the GoI to monetize its shareholding in those CPSEs that eventually form part of the CPSE ETF basket, in a stock-neutral, time-efficient and non-disruptive manner.
  • The CPSE-ETF approved in May, 2013 comprises stocks of listed CPSEs with disinvestment upto 3% of GoI shareholding from an individual CPSE constituent of ETF.
  • The CPSE-ETF  approved basket comprises 10 scrips, namely, BEL, CIL, EIL, CONCOR, GAIL, IOL, OIL, ONGC, PFC & REC. The Government realized an amount of Rs. 3000 crore as disinvestment proceeds through New Fund Offer (NFO) of CPSE-ETF scheme launched in March, 2014.

Question 49

What is the name of the India’s first passenger drone, unveiled by PM Narendra Modi on 20 July 2022?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vikram

  2. BOption (b)

    Jataayu

  3. COption (c)

    Saaras

  4. DOption (d)

    Pawan

  5. EOption (e)

    Varuna

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Varuna

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Varuna.

Key Points

  • PM Narendra Modi on 20 July 2022 unveiled 'Varuna', India’s first passenger drone in New Delhi.
  • Varuna has been developed by a startup 'Sagar Defence Engineering' specifically for the Indian Navy.
  • It can carry a 130 kg human payload & has a range of 25 km.
  • It has 25-33 minutes of flight time

Additional Information

  • Sagar Defence Engineering founded: 2015
  • Headquarters: Mumbai
  • CEO: Nikunj Parashar
  • Important Current Affairs Related to PM Narendra Modi:​ 
  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the Akshaya Patra Foundation’s new mid-day kitchen in Varanasi on 7 July 2022.
  • PM Narendra Modi on 7 July 2022 inaugurated 'Akhil Bhartiya Shiksha Samagam' on implementation of the National Education Policy (NEP) in Varanasi.
  • The Ministry of Education is organising Shiksha Samagam from 7th to 9th July '22.
  • PM Modi laid the foundation stone and inaugurated several projects worth 33000 crore rupees in Bengaluru on 20 June 2022.
  • Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated ‘Kranti Gatha’ on 14 June 2022.
  • PM Modi on 10 June 2022 inaugurated the headquarters of the Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) at Bopal in Ahmedabad, Gujarat.
  • IN-SPACe was established in June 2020.
  • PM Modi on 28 May 2022 inaugurated the world's first Nano Urea Liquid plant by IFFCO at Kalol, Gujarat.
  • IFFCO nano urea liquid was developed through proprietary technology at Nano Biotechnology Research Centre in Kalol.
  • PM Modi is going to release benefits under the PM CARES for Children Scheme on 30 May 2022.

Question 50

In which tennis tournament, Roger Federer is going to play the final match of his illustrious career in doubles alongside Rafael Nadal on 23 September 2022?

  1. AOption (a)

    French Open

  2. BOption (b)

    BNP Paribas Open

  3. COption (c)

    Australian Open

  4. DOption (d)

    Laver Cup

  5. EOption (e)

    Davis Cup

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Laver Cup

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Laver Cup.

Key Points

  • Roger Federer will play the final match of his illustrious career in doubles alongside Rafael Nadal, his old rival, in the Laver Cup tournament in London on 23 Sept 2022.
  • The pair will represent Team Europe against the American pair of Jack Sock and Frances Tiafoe.
  • Federer, a 20-time Grand Slam winner, had announced last week that he would retire from tennis after Laver Cup 2022.

Additional Information​ 

  • The Australian tennis and US tournaments are played on hard courts, the French Open on clay courts, and the Wimbledon on grass courts.
  • The Laver Cup in Sept 2022 is going to be Roger Federer's final ATP tournament.
  • Federer is the most successful player at Wimbledon, having won eight titles (2003-07, 2009, 2012, 2017).
  • He last clinched a Grand Slam title in 2018 (Australian Open).

General English (40 questions)

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

Tipping culture, a practice deeply ingrained in various societies, has sparked extensive debates and discussions about its necessity, implications, and impact on both customers and service providers. The act of tipping involves customers voluntarily giving extra money to service workers, typically in the hospitality and service industries, as a token of appreciation for the services rendered. While tipping is commonplace in many countries, the customs, norms, and expectations can vary significantly. One argument in favour of tipping suggests that it serves as a direct incentive for service workers to provide exceptional service. Proponents argue that the prospect of earning additional income through tips motivates employees to go above and beyond their basic job responsibilities, creating a more positive and customer-focused experience. In this view, tipping is seen as a performance-based reward system that complements the traditional wage structure.

On the flip side, critics of tipping culture argue that it perpetuates income inequality and places an undue burden on customers. The reliance on tips often results in lower base wages for service workers, leaving them vulnerable to fluctuations in customer generosity. In addition, tipping can be subjective and influenced by factors such as appearance, race, or gender, potentially leading to discriminatory practices. The unpredictability of tips also makes it challenging for service workers to plan and budget effectively. Tipping practices vary widely across the globe. In some countries, tipping is considered customary and almost obligatory; in others, it is less common and may even be perceived as impolite. The cultural nuances surrounding tipping can be confusing for travellers, leading to awkward moments and cultural misunderstandings. Some argue for a standardized approach to tipping, advocating for transparency and clarity in tipping expectations to avoid confusion and discomfort.

In recent years, there has been a growing movement to reform or eliminate tipping altogether. Some restaurants have adopted a no-tipping model, opting for higher menu prices and fairer wages for their staff. This approach aims to create a more equitable and stable income for service workers, reducing their dependence on the generosity of customers. However, this transition is not without its challenges, as customers may resist higher menu prices or feel uncertain about the absence of a traditional tipping system. The debate over tipping culture also intersects with broader discussions about labour rights and the minimum wage. Advocates for fair wages argue that tipping should not substitute decent, livable wages. Calls for legislative changes to establish a higher minimum wage for service workers have gained traction in various regions, challenging the traditional reliance on tips to make up the difference. In conclusion, tipping culture is a multifaceted and evolving aspect of social and economic interactions. It reflects a complex interplay of cultural norms, economic structures, and individual preferences.

Question 51

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

According to critics of tipping culture, what is a potential consequence of relying on tips for service workers?

  1. AOption (a)

    Negative impact on the mental well-being of service workers.

  2. BOption (b)

    Globally inconsistent and confusing tipping expectations.

  3. COption (c)

    Discriminatory practices based on appearance, race, or gender.

  4. DOption (d)

    Universal expectations for tipping leading to discomfort.

  5. EOption (e)

    Diminished customer goodwill and generosity.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Discriminatory practices based on appearance, race, or gender.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, refer to the second paragraph of the passage, where critics of tipping culture are discussed:
  • "On the flip side, critics of tipping culture argue that it perpetuates income inequality and places an undue burden on customers. The reliance on tips often results in lower base wages for service workers, leaving them vulnerable to fluctuations in customer generosity. In addition, tipping can be subjective and influenced by factors such as appearance, race, or gender, potentially leading to discriminatory practices."
  • From this part of the passage, it's clear that a potential consequence of relying on tips for service workers, according to critics, is discriminatory practices based on appearance, race, or gender. The passage highlights that tipping can be subjective and influenced by these factors, which can lead to discriminatory practices.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Discriminatory practices based on appearance, race, or gender."

Question 52

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following sentence(s) can be inferred from the passage?

A. The debate over tipping intersects with discussions about labour rights and the minimum wage, challenging the reliance on tips.

B. Advocates for fair wages believe that tipping is an effective and sufficient means of compensating service workers.

C. The transition away from tipping has been universally embraced, with no resistance from customers or challenges for businesses.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    Only C

  4. DOption (d)

    All A, B, and C

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's break down the sentences given in the question:
  • Sentence A - "The debate over tipping intersects with discussions about labour rights and the minimum wage, challenging the reliance on tips."
  • This sentence can be inferred from the passage. The passage mentions that the debate over tipping culture intersects with broader discussion about labour rights and the minimum wage, challenging the traditional reliance on tips.
  • Sentence B - "Advocates for fair wages believe that tipping is an effective and sufficient means of compensating service workers." 
  • This sentence cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage indicates that advocates for fair wages argue that tipping should not substitute decent, livable wages, suggesting that they do not view tipping
  • Sentence C - "The transition away from tipping has been universally embraced, with no resistance from customers or challenges for businesses." 
  • This sentence cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage mentions challenges in the transition away from tipping, including potential resistance from customers who may be uncertain about the absence of a traditional tipping system.
  • So, out of the three sentences given in the question, only sentence A can be inferred from the passage, while sentences B and C cannot be inferred from the passage.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Only A."

Question 53

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following sentence(s) can not be inferred from the passage?

A. Most countries embrace tipping as a cultural norm, fostering positive interactions between customers and service providers.

B. Calls for legislative changes to establish a higher minimum wage for service workers have been unsuccessful in gaining traction.

C. The reliance on tips ensures that service workers consistently receive a higher income than those with fixed wages.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    Both B and C

  4. DOption (d)

    All A, B, and C

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All A, B, and C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is All A, B and C.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's break down the sentences given in the question:
  • Sentence A - "Most countries embrace tipping as a cultural norm, fostering positive interactions between customers and service providers."
  • This sentence cannot be inferred from the passage. While the passage discusses tipping as a widespread practice in various societies, it does not make a blanket statement about most countries embracing tipping as a cultural norm.
  • Sentence B - "Calls for legislative changes to establish a higher minimum wage for service workers have been unsuccessful in gaining traction."
  • This sentence cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage mentions calls for legislative changes to establish a higher minimum wage for service workers, but it does not provide information on the success or failure of these efforts.
  • Sentence C - "The reliance on tips ensures that service workers consistently receive a higher income than those with fixed wages."
  • This sentence cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage discusses arguments both in favour and against tipping but does not make a specific claim about the reliance on tips ensuring consistently higher income for service workers compared to those with fixed wages.
  • So, out of the three sentences given in the question, all three sentences A, B, and C cannot be inferred from the passage.
  • Therefore, the correct option is "Option 4."

Question 54

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What approach have some restaurants adopted in recent years as an alternative to the traditional tipping model?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lowering menu prices to attract more customers.

  2. BOption (b)

    Implementing discriminatory practices in service.

  3. COption (c)

    Standardizing tipping practices across the globe.

  4. DOption (d)

    Adopting a no-tipping model with higher menu prices.

  5. EOption (e)

    Increasing reliance on customer generosity.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Adopting a no-tipping model with higher menu prices.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, refer to the third paragraph of the passage, which discusses the growing movement to reform or eliminate tipping altogether:
  • "In recent years, there has been a growing movement to reform or eliminate tipping altogether. Some restaurants have adopted a no-tipping model, opting for higher menu prices and fairer wages for their staff."
  • From this part of the passage, it's evident that some restaurants have adopted a no-tipping model with higher menu prices as an alternative to the traditional tipping model. This approach aims to create a more equitable and stable income for service workers, reducing their dependence on the generosity of customers.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Adopting a no-tipping model with higher menu prices."

Question 55

Directions

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. Dr. N. Radhakrishnan, former director of the Gandhi Smriti and Darshan Samiti, believes that

B. ancient Indian concept of Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam

C. a creed and strategy; were an extension of the

D. embedded in the acceptance of nonviolence both as

E. the Gandhian vision of holistic development and respect for all forms of life; nonviolent conflict resolution

  1. AOption (a)

    EDCBA

  2. BOption (b)

    BCDEA

  3. COption (c)

    AEDCB

  4. DOption (d)

    CDEAB

  5. EOption (e)

    DCBAE

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

AEDCB

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'AEDCB'.

Key Points

  • Part A will be the first sentence of the sequence because it introduces the topic of Dr. N. Radhakrishnan, former director of the Gandhi Smriti and Darshan Samiti.
  • Part E will come after A as it gives information about what Dr. N. Radhakrishnan believes about the Gandhian vision of holistic development and respect for all forms of life.
  • Part D will come after E as it gives further information about what Dr. N. Radhakrishnan believes about nonviolent conflict resolution embedded in the acceptance of nonviolence.
  • Part C will come after D as it explains that Dr. N. Radhakrishnan believes both as a creed and strategy.
  • Part 'B' is the concluding or last part as it concludes that Dr. N. Radhakrishnan believes that the Gandhian vision is an extension of the ancient Indian concept of Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Sentence: Dr. N. Radhakrishnan, former director of the Gandhi Smriti and Darshan Samiti, believes that the Gandhian vision of holistic development and respect for all forms of life; nonviolent conflict resolution embedded in the acceptance of nonviolence both as a creed and strategy; were an extension of the ancient Indian concept of Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam.

Important Points

  • Important Rules to Solve the Sentence Jumbles:
  • Read the sentences attentively and try to comprehend the idea or theme of the sentences.
  • Try to identify the opening and closing sentences.
  • Try to identify the mandatory pairs. Two sentences can be connected through various connectors and other determinants.

Question 56

Directions

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. that the 2023 SAG-AFTRA strike was likely to impact

B. in any kind of promotional activities for their films

C. the festival if it was not resolved in time, due to

D. the strike rules that prevent all actors from taking part

E. Alberto Barbera, Venice's artistic director, acknowledged

  1. AOption (a)

    AECBD

  2. BOption (b)

    BCDAE

  3. COption (c)

    CEBDA

  4. DOption (d)

    DABEC

  5. EOption (e)

    EACDB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

EACDB

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'EACDB'.

Key Points

  • Part E will be the first sentence of the sequence because it introduces the topic of Alberto Barbera, Venice's artistic director.
  • Part A will come after E as it gives information that Alberto Barbera acknowledged the impact of the 2023 SAG-AFTRA strike.
  • Part C will come after A as it further gives information Alberto Barbera acknowledged that the 2023 SAG-AFTRA strike was likely to impact the festival if it was not resolved in time.
  • Part D will come after C as it explains how the strike impacts i.e. prevent all actors from taking part.
  • Part 'B' is the concluding or last part as it concludes that the strike prevents all actors from taking part in any kind of promotional activities for their films.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

Correct Sentence: Alberto Barbera, Venice's artistic director, acknowledged that the 2023 SAG-AFTRA strike was likely to impact the festival if it was not resolved in time, due to the strike rules that prevent all actors from taking part in any kind of promotional activities for their films.

Important Points

  • Important Rules to Solve the Sentence Jumbles:
  • Read the sentences attentively and try to comprehend the idea or theme of the sentences.
  • Try to identify the opening and closing sentences.
  • Try to identify the mandatory pairs. Two sentences can be connected through various connectors and other determinants.

Question 57

Directions

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. team that had sent them out of the Euro 2022, in

B. on 20 August 2023, Spain won the 2023 Women's World Cup

C. the final hosted in Sydney, Australia

D. for the first ever time and defeating England, the

E. in a run that included winning a knock-out match

  1. AOption (a)

    EDBCA

  2. BOption (b)

    DECBA

  3. COption (c)

    CABDE

  4. DOption (d)

    BEDAC

  5. EOption (e)

    ABCED

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

BEDAC

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'BEDAC'.

Key Points

  • Part B will be the first sentence of the sequence because it introduces the topic of Spain winning the 2023 Women's World Cup on 20 August 2023.
  • Part E will come after B as it gives information that the win included winning a knock-out match.
  • Part D will come after E as it further gives information about Spain winning a knock-out match in a World Cup for the first-ever time and defeating England also.
  • Part A will come after D as it gives further information that England had sent Spain out of the Euro 2022 earlier.
  • Part 'C' is the concluding or last part as it concludes that England had sent Spain out of the Euro 2022 in the final hosted in Sydney, Australia.

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Correct Sentence: On 20 August 2023, Spain won the 2023 Women's World Cup in a run that included winning a knock-out match for the first ever time and defeating England, the team that had sent them out of the Euro 2022, in the final hosted in Sydney, Australia.

Important Points

  • Important Rules to Solve the Sentence Jumbles:
  • Read the sentences attentively and try to comprehend the idea or theme of the sentences.
  • Try to identify the opening and closing sentences.
  • Try to identify the mandatory pairs. Two sentences can be connected through various connectors and other determinants.

Question 58

Directions

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.**

A. who have tunneled in through the floor

B. the burglary was planned by Anthony Gavin, a career criminal, who

C. was inspired by "The Red-Headed League", a short story

D. by Arthur Conan Doyle in which Sherlock Holmes

E. waits in a bank vault to arrest a gang

  1. AOption (a)

    ECABD

  2. BOption (b)

    DABCE

  3. COption (c)

    BCDEA

  4. DOption (d)

    AEDBC

  5. EOption (e)

    CADEB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

BCDEA

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'BCDEA'.

Key Points

  • Part B will be the first sentence of the sequence because it introduces the topic of the burglary that was planned by Anthony Gavin who is a career criminal.
  • Part C will come after B as it gives information about Anthony Gavin that, he was inspired by "The Red-Headed League" a short story.
  • Part D will come after C as it further gives information about "The Red-Headed League" that it is written by Arthur Conan Doyle.
  • Part E will come after D as it explains the story of "The Red-Headed League" in which Sherlock Holmes waits in a bank vault to arrest a gang.
  • Part 'A' is the concluding or last part as it concludes that Sherlock Holmes waits in a bank vault to arrest a gang that has tunneled in through the floor.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Correct Sentence: The burglary was planned by Anthony Gavin, a career criminal, who was inspired by "The Red-Headed League", a short story by Arthur Conan Doyle in which Sherlock Holmes waits in a bank vault to arrest a gang who have tunneled in through the floor.

Important Points

  • Important Rules to Solve the Sentence Jumbles:
  • Read the sentences attentively and try to comprehend the idea or theme of the sentences.
  • Try to identify the opening and closing sentences.
  • Try to identify the mandatory pairs. Two sentences can be connected through various connectors and other determinants.

Question 59

Directions

The question below contains five scattered segments of a sentence. Indicate the sequence which correctly assembles the segments and completes the sentence.

A. Russia to maintain production but limiting the revenue from oil sales

B. the 2022 Russian invasion of Ukraine resulted in sanctions

C. imposed by the USA, the EU, and other nations, to forbid or reduce

D. the importation of Gas, Oil, and associated products from Russia, including

E. the introduction of a novel price cap on crude shipped oil, designed to allow

  1. AOption (a)

    AEBCD

  2. BOption (b)

    BCDEA

  3. COption (c)

    CEADB

  4. DOption (d)

    DABCE

  5. EOption (e)

    EDCAB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

BCDEA

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'BCDEA'.

Key Points

  • Part B will be the first sentence of the sequence because it introduces the topic of the 2022 Russian invasion of Ukraine that resulted in sanctions.
  • Part C will come after B as it gives information about who imposed sanctions on whom i.e. the USA, the EU, and other nations imposed sanctions on Russia.
  • Part D will come after C as it gives information about the things on which the sanction is imposed i.e. to forbid or reduce the import of Gas, Oil, and associated products from Russia.
  • Part E will come after D as it further gives information that the sanction includes the introduction of a novel price cap on crude shipped oil.
  • Part 'A' is the concluding or last part as it concludes that the sanction is in a way designed to allow Russia to maintain production but limit the revenue from oil sales.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Correct Sentence: The 2022 Russian invasion of Ukraine resulted in sanctions imposed by the USA, the EU, and other nations, to forbid or reduce the importation of Gas, Oil, and associated products from Russia, including the introduction of a novel price cap on crude shipped oil, designed to allow Russia to maintain production but limiting the revenue from oil sales.

Important Points

  • Important Rules to Solve the Sentence Jumbles:
  • Read the sentences attentively and try to comprehend the idea or theme of the sentences.
  • Try to identify the opening and closing sentences.
  • Try to identify the mandatory pairs. Two sentences can be connected through various connectors and other determinants.

Question 60

Directions

In the following sentence, there is one blank given. Also, a word in the sentence is highlighted in bold. Choose the pair of words that best fills in the blank and replaces the highlighted word, making the sentence grammatically correct and contextually meaningful.**

The University Grants Commission's directive to display government logos ________ academic freedom, reflecting a pattern of political interference in universities' autonomy.

  1. AOption (a)

    supports, autonomy

  2. BOption (b)

    ameliorates, shunning

  3. COption (c)

    enhances, intervention

  4. DOption (d)

    undermines, meddling

  5. EOption (e)

    meliorates, neglecting

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

undermines, meddling

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the given sentence:

The University Grants Commission's directive to display government logos ________ academic freedom, reflecting a pattern of political interference in universities' autonomy.

  • The sentence discusses how the University Grants Commission's order to showcase government logos threatens academic freedom, indicating a trend of political intervention in university autonomy.
  • The word that should fill in the blank is likely to be negative, indicating a threat or violation of academic freedom.
  • The highlighted word is "interference."
  • Interference - the action of interfering or the process of being interfered with, typically to prevent normal operation (हस्तक्षेप)
  • For Example -
  • The interference of external factors in the political process led to a disruption in the election proceedings.
  • The word that can replace the word "interference" in the given sentence can be a word that signifies involvement or intervention in a negative or unwanted manner, such as "intrusion" or "meddling."
  • Now, let's understand the meanings of the given words as options:
  • Supports (verb; 3rd person present) - provides assistance, encouragement, or backing to someone or something (समर्थन करना)
  • For Example -
  • The community supports local businesses by regularly shopping at neighbourhood stores.
  • Autonomy (noun) - the ability or right of an individual, organization, or region to make independent decisions and act on them (स्वायत्तता)
  • For Example -
  • Giving employees more autonomy in their work allows for greater creativity and job satisfaction.
  • Ameliorates (verb; 3rd person present) - improves or makes a situation better (सुधारना)
  • For Example -
  • The new policy ameliorates the impact of income inequality on marginalized communities.
  • Shunning (gerund or present participle) - deliberately avoiding or ignoring someone or something (टालना या अनदेखा करना)
  • For Example -
  • After the controversy, the celebrity experienced shunning from certain circles in the industry.
  • Enhances (verb; 3rd person present) - increases the quality, value, or attractiveness of something (बढ़ावा देना)
  • For Example -
  • The new software update enhances the user experience with improved features and functionality.
  • Intervention (noun) - involvement in a situation to alter or modify the course of events (हस्तक्षेप)
  • For Example -
  • International intervention is sometimes necessary to address humanitarian crises in conflict zones.
  • Undermines (verb; 3rd person present) - weakens or erodes the foundation or effectiveness of something (कमजोर करना)
  • For Example -
  • His constant criticism undermines her confidence, creating a hostile work environment.
  • Meddling (noun) - interfering or getting involved in other people's or organizations' affairs without being invited or needed (हस्तक्षेप करना)
  • For Example -
  • The politician accused the rival party of meddling in the election process.
  • Meliorates (verb; 3rd person present) - improves or makes a situation better (सुधारना)
  • For Example -
  • Her thoughtful advice meliorates the situation, bringing comfort and fostering positive change in relationships.
  • Neglecting (gerund or present participle) - failing to care for or pay attention to something or someone (उपेक्षा करना)
  • For Example -
  • Neglecting regular maintenance can lead to the deterioration of machinery and equipment.
  • So, after understanding the given sentence and the meanings of the given words, we can conclude that the correct pair of words to fill in the blank and replace the highlighted word "interference" is "undermines, meddling." This choice accurately captures the negative impact on academic freedom by suggesting that the directive weakens or erodes it and highlights the undesirable involvement or interference through "meddling."
  • The complete sentence would be: "The University Grants Commission's directive to display government logos undermines academic freedom, reflecting a pattern of political meddling in universities' autonomy.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "undermines, meddling."

Question 61

Directions

In the following sentence, there is one blank given. Also, a word in the sentence is highlighted in bold. Choose the pair of words that best fills in the blank and replaces the highlighted word, making the sentence grammatically correct and contextually meaningful.**

The entry of foreign universities may introduce new programs, ________ knowledge and job opportunities for Indian students, along with the possibility of pursuing dual degree programs.

  1. AOption (a)

    improving, overlooking

  2. BOption (b)

    diminishing, refraining

  3. COption (c)

    vitiating, renouncing

  4. DOption (d)

    diminishing, avoiding

  5. EOption (e)

    enhancing, undertaking

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

enhancing, undertaking

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the given sentence:

The entry of foreign universities may introduce new programs, ________ knowledge and job opportunities for Indian students, along with the possibility of pursuing dual degree programs.

  • This sentence discusses the potential benefits of foreign universities entering India, such as offering new programs, expanding knowledge, creating job opportunities, and enabling dual degree programs for Indian students.
  • The word that should fill in the blank is likely to be positive, suggesting the potential for enrichment and expansion of educational and career prospects.
  • The highlighted word is "pursuing."
  • Pursuing - actively engaging in or following a particular course of action, typically with a goal in mind. 
  • For Example -
  • The company is pursuing new market opportunities to expand its global presence.
  • The word that can replace the word "pursuing" in the given sentence can be a word that signifies actively engaging in or taking up, such as "undertaking."
  • Now, let's understand the meanings of the given words as options:
  • Improving (verb; 3rd person present) - making something better or enhancing its quality, value, or condition (सुधारना)
  • For Example -
  • Implementing new strategies can contribute to improving overall business performance.
  • Overlooking (verb; 3rd person present) - giving little or no attention to something, often intentionally neglecting (अनदेखा करना)
  • For Example -
  • The manager is overlooking the minor errors in the report to focus on the main issues.
  • Diminishing (verb; 3rd person present) - reducing in size, importance, or intensity; decreasing (कम होना)
  • For Example -
  • The constant delays in project timelines are diminishing team morale.
  • Refraining (verb; present participle) - abstaining or holding back from doing something, often voluntarily (मना करना)
  • For Example -
  • During the meeting, participants are refraining from using their phones to maintain focus.
  • Vitiating (verb; present participle) - spoiling or impairing the quality or effectiveness of something (क्षीण करना)
  • For Example -
  • The use of substandard materials is vitiating the construction project's integrity.
  • Renouncing (verb; present participle) - formally giving up or rejecting a claim, right, or association (त्यागना)
  • For Example -
  • She was renouncing her claim to the throne, opting for a life of simplicity.
  • Avoiding (verb; present participle) - keeping away from or preventing involvement in something (टालना)
  • For Example -
  • He is avoiding conflicts by addressing issues diplomatically.
  • Enhancing (verb; 3rd person present) - improving or increasing the quality, value, or attractiveness of something (बढ़ावा देना)
  • For Example -
  • Regular practice is essential for enhancing skills in any field.
  • Undertaking (noun) - a task or project that one agrees to take on or commit to (कार्य)
  • For Example -
  • The company is undertaking a major expansion project in the coming months.
  • So, after understanding the given sentence and the meanings of the given words, we can conclude that the pair of words that best fills in the blank and replaces "pursuing" is "enhancing, undertaking." This choice maintains the positive tone of the sentence and conveys the idea that the entry of foreign universities may bring about improvements, enrichment, and new opportunities for Indian students, including the possibility of undertaking dual degree programs.
  • The complete sentence would be: "The entry of foreign universities may introduce new programs, enhancing knowledge and job opportunities for Indian students, along with the possibility of undertaking dual degree programs.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "enhancing, undertaking."

Question 62

Directions

In the following sentence, there is one blank given. Also, a word in the sentence is highlighted in bold. Choose the pair of words that best fills in the blank and replaces the highlighted word, making the sentence grammatically correct and contextually meaningful.**

The magic of pen and paper in journaling ________ creativity, fosters meaningful reflection, and serves as a therapeutic outlet for stress, promoting personal transformation and self-discovery.

  1. AOption (a)

    unleashes, growth

  2. BOption (b)

    suppresses, stagnation

  3. COption (c)

    expresses, progression

  4. DOption (d)

    impedes, apathy

  5. EOption (e)

    diminishes, conformity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

unleashes, growth

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the given sentence:

The magic of pen and paper in journaling ________ creativity, fosters meaningful reflection, and serves as a therapeutic outlet for stress, promoting personal transformation and self-discovery.

  • This sentence highlights how journaling with pen and paper enhances creativity, encourages reflection, and offers a therapeutic way to manage stress, promoting personal growth and self-discovery.
  • The word that should fill in the blank is likely to be positive, emphasizing the positive effects of journaling.
  • The highlighted word is "transformation."
  • Transformation - a complete or significant change in form, appearance, nature, or character (परिवर्तन)
  • For Example -
  • The digital transformation of the company improved efficiency and streamlined processes.
  • The word that can replace the word "transformation" in the given sentence can be a word that signifies positive development or progress, such as "growth."
  • Now, let's understand the meanings of the given words as options:
  • Unleashes (verb; 3rd person present) - releases or sets free, often with great force or intensity (छोड़ना)
  • For Example -
  • The new policy unleashes a wave of innovation by removing bureaucratic obstacles.
  • Growth (noun) - the process of increasing in size, quantity, or development; positive change or expansion (विकास)
  • For Example -
  • Investing in education is crucial for the growth of a nation's economy and intellectual capital.
  • Suppresses (verb; 3rd person present) - forcibly puts an end to or restrains something (दबाव डालना)
  • For Example -
  • The authoritarian regime suppresses dissent and restricts freedom of speech.
  • Stagnation (noun) - a state of little or no change, lack of progress, or activity (स्थिति)
  • For Example -
  • Lack of innovation can lead to economic stagnation and reduced competitiveness.
  • Expresses (verb; 3rd person present) - conveys thoughts, feelings, or ideas through words, actions, or other means (व्यक्त करना)
  • For Example -
  • The artist skillfully expresses emotions through vibrant colours and dynamic brushstrokes in the painting.
  • Progression (noun) - the act or process of moving forward or advancing; development or improvement over time (प्रगति)
  • For Example -
  • Continuous learning and adaptation are essential for personal and professional progression.
  • Impedes (verb; 3rd person present) - hinders or obstructs the progress or movement of something (रोकना)
  • For Example -
  • Bureaucratic red tape often impedes the swift implementation of necessary reforms.
  • Apathy (noun) - lack of interest, enthusiasm, or concern; indifference (उदासीनता)
  • For Example -
  • The public's apathy towards civic issues can hinder community development.
  • Diminishes (verb; 3rd person present) - makes something smaller, weaker, or less significant (कम करना)
  • For Example -
  • A lack of resources diminishes the effectiveness of social welfare programs.
  • Conformity (noun) - compliance with established customs, rules, or norms; acting in accordance with prevailing social standards (अनुरूपता)
  • For Example -
  • The pressure for conformity can stifle individual creativity and diverse perspectives.
  • So, after understanding the given sentence and the meanings of the given words, we can conclude that the best pair of words to fill in the blank and replace "transformation" in the sentence is "unleashes, growth." This choice aligns with the positive connotation of the sentence, emphasizing that journaling with pen and paper unleashes creativity and fosters personal growth and self-discovery.
  • The complete sentence would be: "The magic of pen and paper in journaling unleashes creativity, fosters meaningful reflection, and serves as a therapeutic outlet for stress, promoting personal growth and self-discovery."
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "unleashes, growth."

Question 63

Directions

In the following sentence, there is one blank given. Also, a word in the sentence is highlighted in bold. Choose the pair of words that best fills in the blank and replaces the highlighted word, making the sentence grammatically correct and contextually meaningful.**

The ________ fintech landscape demands ongoing professional development, emphasizing the importance of staying current with industry trends and emerging technologies.

  1. AOption (a)

    static, obsolete

  2. BOption (b)

    dynamic, abreast

  3. COption (c)

    ambiguous, informed

  4. DOption (d)

    vivacious, ignorant

  5. EOption (e)

    consistent, unaware

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

dynamic, abreast

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the given sentence:

The ________ fintech landscape demands ongoing professional development, emphasizing the importance of staying current with industry trends and emerging technologies.

  • This sentence highlights the importance of continuous learning in the ever-changing fintech industry, emphasizing the need to stay informed about emerging technologies for professional growth.
  • The blank should be filled with a positive word, indicating the dynamic and evolving nature of the fintech industry.
  • The highlighted word is "current."
  • Current - happening or existing at the present time.
  • For Example -
  • The current economic situation has led to increased uncertainty in the business world.
  • The word that can replace the word "current" in the given sentence can be a word that signifies staying updated or informed.
  • Now, let's understand the meanings of the given words as options:
  • Static (adjective) - not changing or moving; lacking in progress or development (स्थायी)
  • For Example -
  • The old factory still uses static machinery that has been in operation for decades.
  • Obsolete (adjective) - no longer in use or valid; outdated and replaced by newer alternatives (पुराना या अप्रचलित)
  • For Example -
  • As technology advances, many electronic devices become obsolete within a few years.
  • Dynamic (adjective) - characterized by constant change, activity, or progress (गतिशील)
  • For Example -
  • The business world is highly dynamic, with market trends and consumer preferences evolving rapidly.
  • Abreast (adjective or adverb) - side by side and facing the same way; staying informed about the latest developments (समझदारी से, समर्थ, या अद्यतित)
  • For Example -
  • Professionals need to stay abreast of industry trends to remain competitive.
  • Ambiguous (adjective) - having more than one possible interpretation or meaning; unclear or open to multiple interpretations (संदिग्ध या अस्पष्ट)
  • For Example -
  • The instructions were ambiguous, leading to confusion among the team members.
  • Informed (adjective) - having knowledge or awareness about a particular subject or situation (सूचित)
  • For Example -
  • An informed decision requires thorough research and consideration of all relevant information.
  • Vivacious (adjective) - lively, animated, or full of energy and enthusiasm (जीवंत या ऊर्जावान)
  • For Example -
  • Her vivacious personality made the party more enjoyable for everyone.
  • Ignorant (adjective) - lacking knowledge, awareness, or education about a specific subject or general matters (अज्ञानी)
  • For Example -
  • It is essential to educate people to eliminate ignorant beliefs and stereotypes.
  • Consistent (adjective) - unchanging in achievement or effect over a period of time; reliable and steady (सतत या स्थिर)
  • For Example -
  • Successful athletes maintain a consistent training routine to enhance their performance.
  • Unaware (adjective) - lacking knowledge or awareness; not conscious of something (अनजान)
  • For Example -
  • She remained unaware of the surprise party planned by her friends.
  • So, after understanding the given sentence and the meanings of the given words, we can conclude that option 2, "dynamic, abreast," is the most appropriate choice. This option effectively conveys the idea that the fintech landscape is dynamic and requires professionals to stay informed (abreast) of industry trends. It aligns with the context of continuous professional development in a rapidly changing field.
  • The complete sentence would be: "The dynamic fintech landscape demands ongoing professional development, emphasizing the importance of staying abreast with industry trends and emerging technologies.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "dynamic, abreast."

Question 64

Directions

In the following sentence, there is one blank given. Also, a word in the sentence is highlighted in bold. Choose the pair of words that best fills in the blank and replaces the highlighted word, making the sentence grammatically correct and contextually meaningful.**

Green hydrogen, produced using renewable energy, is viewed as a viable ________ to fossil fuels, addressing issues of weather-dependent renewable energy sources.

  1. AOption (a)

    conventional, exacerbating

  2. BOption (b)

    option, hindering

  3. COption (c)

    alternative, alleviating

  4. DOption (d)

    irrelevant, intensifying

  5. EOption (e)

    obsolete, complicating

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

alternative, alleviating

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the given sentence:

Green hydrogen, produced using renewable energy, is viewed as a viable ________ to fossil fuels, addressing issues of weather-dependent renewable energy sources.

  • This sentence highlights that green hydrogen, created with renewable energy, is seen as a practical substitute for fossil fuels. It tackles challenges linked to the reliance on weather-dependent renewable energy sources.
  • The word that should fill in the blank is likely to be "alternative," indicating a substitute or replacement for fossil fuels.
  • The highlighted word is "addressing."
  • Addressing - dealing with or giving attention to a particular topic or issue.
  • For Example -
  • The CEO spent a significant portion of the meeting addressing concerns raised by the employees.
  • The word that can replace the word "addressing" in the given sentence can be a word that signifies providing a solution.
  • Now, let's understand the meanings of the given words as options:
  • Conventional (adjective) - following established customs or widely accepted practices; traditional (पारंपरिक)
  • For Example -
  • Despite the rise of digital media, many people still prefer conventional newspapers for their daily news.
  • Exacerbating (verb; present participle) - making a situation, problem, or condition worse (बढ़ावा देना)
  • For Example -
  • The lack of communication was exacerbating tensions within the already strained team.
  • Option (noun) - a choice or alternative available for consideration or selection (विकल्प)
  • For Example -
  • Students have the option to choose elective courses based on their interests.
  • Hindering (verb; present participle) - causing delay, obstruction, or difficulty; preventing progress or success (रोकना या बाधित करना)
  • For Example -
  • Lack of funding is hindering the development of essential infrastructure in the region.
  • Alternative (noun) - a choice or possibility that is different from what is usual or expected; an option (विकल्प)
  • For Example -
  • Solar energy is considered an alternative to traditional sources of power.
  • Alleviating (verb; present participle) - making a situation or symptom less severe or more bearable (कम करना या हल्का करना)
  • For Example -
  • The medication is effective in alleviating pain and discomfort.
  • Irrelevant (adjective) - not connected or related to the matter at hand; not applicable (अनुपयुक्त)
  • For Example -
  • Bringing up unrelated issues during a meeting is considered irrelevant and distracting.
  • Intensifying (verb; present participle) - making something more extreme or stronger (तीव्र करना)
  • For Example -
  • The intensifying storm prompted authorities to issue evacuation warnings.
  • Obsolete (adjective) - no longer in use or no longer useful; outdated (पुराना या अप्रचलित)
  • For Example -
  • With technological advancements, many manual processes have become obsolete.
  • Complicating (verb; present participle) - making a situation more complex or difficult to understand (जटिल बनाना)
  • For Example -
  • The introduction of new regulations is complicating the process of obtaining permits for businesses.
  • So, after understanding the given sentence and the meanings of the given words, we can conclude that the most appropriate pair of words to fill in the blank and replace the highlighted word "addressing" is "alternative, alleviating." This choice makes the sentence grammatically correct and contextually meaningful, conveying that green hydrogen is considered a practical alternative to fossil fuels, alleviating issues related to weather-dependent renewable energy sources.
  • The complete sentence would be: "Green hydrogen, produced using renewable energy, is viewed as a viable alternative to fossil fuels, alleviating issues of weather-dependent renewable energy sources."
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "alternative, alleviating."

Question 65

Directions

In the following sentence, there is one blank given. Also, a word in the sentence is highlighted in bold. Choose the pair of words that best fills in the blank and replaces the highlighted word, making the sentence grammatically correct and contextually meaningful.**

Space education, with an environmental and global ________, underscores Earth's fragility and the crucial role of satellites in climate change monitoring and disaster management.

  1. AOption (a)

    viewpoint, sheltered

  2. BOption (b)

    isolation, irrelevance

  3. COption (c)

    precision, sensitive

  4. DOption (d)

    perspective, vulnerability

  5. EOption (e)

    innovation, advancement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

perspective, vulnerability

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the given sentence:

Space education, with an environmental and global ________, underscores Earth's fragility and the crucial role of satellites in climate change monitoring and disaster management.

  • This sentence suggests that despite challenges, space education highlights Earth's fragility and the vital role of satellites in climate change monitoring and disaster management on a global scale.
  • The word that should fill in the blank is likely to be broad, indicating a comprehensive and interconnected view of the world.
  • The highlighted word is "fragility."
  • Fragility - the quality of being delicate, vulnerable, or easily breakable; lacking robustness or stability (भंगुरता)
  • For Example -
  • The fragility of the antique glassware made handling it with extra care essential.
  • The word that can replace the word "fragility" in the given sentence can be a word that signifies susceptibility to harm or damage.
  • Now, let's understand the meanings of the given words as options:
  • Viewpoint (noun) - a particular way of considering or seeing something, often influenced by one's beliefs or experiences (दृष्टिकोण)
  • For Example -
  • The artist's paintings reflect a unique viewpoint on the beauty of nature.
  • Sheltered (adjective) - protected or shielded from harm, danger, or unpleasantness (सुरक्षित)
  • For Example -
  • The harbour provides a sheltered environment for boats during storms.
  • Isolation (noun) - the state of being alone, separated, or cut off from others; the condition of being isolated (अलगाव)
  • For Example -
  • Long periods of isolation can have psychological effects on individuals.
  • Irrelevance (noun) - the quality or state of being unimportant or unrelated to the matter at hand (अप्रासंगिकता)
  • For Example -
  • His comments were dismissed as irrelevance in the context of the discussion.
  • Precision (noun) - the quality of being exact, accurate, or meticulous in details (सुनिश्चितता)
  • For Example -
  • Scientific experiments require precision in measurement to obtain reliable results.
  • Sensitive (adjective) - easily affected or influenced emotionally; responsive to stimuli (संवेदनशील)
  • For Example -
  • She is a sensitive person who empathizes with others' feelings.
  • Perspective (noun) - a particular attitude or way of regarding something; a point of view (दृष्टिकोण)
  • For Example -
  • The historical event looked different when viewed from the perspective of various cultures.
  • Vulnerability (noun) - the state of being exposed to the possibility of harm, injury, or attack (भेदज्ञता)
  • For Example -
  • Children with disabilities may have a higher vulnerability to bullying.
  • Innovation (noun) - the introduction of new ideas, methods, or technologies; the act of innovating (नवीनता)
  • For Example -
  • Technological innovation has transformed the way we communicate and work.
  • Advancement (noun) - the process of moving forward or making progress, especially in knowledge, skills, or technology (आगे बढ़ना)
  • For Example -
  • Continuous learning is essential for personal and professional advancement.
  • So, after understanding the given sentence and the meanings of the given words, we can conclude that the best pair of words to fill in the blank and replace the highlighted word "fragility" is "perspective, vulnerability" (Option 4). This choice provides a coherent and meaningful sentence, emphasizing the interconnected global perspective of space education and highlighting Earth's vulnerability in the context of climate change and disaster management.
  • The complete sentence would be: "Space education, with an environmental and global perspective, underscores Earth's vulnerability and the crucial role of satellites in climate change monitoring and disaster management."
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "perspective, vulnerability."

Question 66

Directions

In the following question, two statements are given with some words in bold. Which of the following pairs of bold words must be interchanged to make both sentences grammatically correct?**

a. The military(A) leadership should move with greater seriousness(B) to find ways of mitigating the stress levels of compromises(C).

b. There has been a great deal(D) of give and take and soldiers(E) in the format of the agreement(F).

  1. AOption (a)

    ACBFDE

  2. BOption (b)

    FADBEC

  3. COption (c)

    CDFAEB

  4. DOption (d)

    ABEDCF

  5. EOption (e)

    BDAEFC

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

ABEDCF

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'ABEDCF.'

Key Points

  • In sentence a, we are talking about the Military and how its leadership must seriously move ahead to combat the stress levels.
  • However, stress levels of compromises(C) is completely incorrect as it makes no sense. Thus, (C) must be interchanged.
  • Correct sentence a: The military(A) leadership should move with greater seriousness(B) to find ways of mitigating the stress levels of soldiers(E)
  • In sentence b, we are talking about the format of the agreement where a great deal of give and take has taken place.
  • But within the agreement, soldiers(E) cannot be given, taken, or included in its format. Thus, (E) must be interchanged.
  • Correct sentence b: There has been a great deal(D) of give and take and compromises(C) in the format of the agreement(F).

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Question 67

Directions

In the following question, two statements are given with some words in bold. Which of the following pairs of bold words must be interchanged to make both sentences grammatically correct?

a. Startups were expensive(A), which brought a rapid experience**(B)** of small privately-owned restaurants and shops on the city streets(C).

b. Going to court can be an encouraged**(D), time-consuming, and gut-wrenching proliferation(E)** that is best avoided(F).

  1. AOption (a)

    CABEFD

  2. BOption (b)

    DECABF

  3. COption (c)

    ABCDEF

  4. DOption (d)

    BDECFA

  5. EOption (e)

    FAEDCB

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

DECABF

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'DECABF.'

Key Points

  • In sentence a, we are talking about Startups that were supported or endorsed and how they brought a rapid growth or spread of small privately-owned restaurants and shops on the city streets.
  • In sentence b, we are talking about court going which can be a costly, time-consuming, and extremely unpleasant affair or circumstance that is best avoided.
  • Thus, (A) and (D) must be interchanged and (B) and (E) must be interchanged.
  • Correct sentence a: Startups were encouraged(A), which brought a rapid proliferation(B) of small privately-owned restaurants and shops on the city streets(C).
  • Correct sentence b: Going to court can be an expensive(D), time-consuming, and gut-wrenching experience(E) that is best avoided(F).

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Question 68

Directions

In the following question, two statements are given with some words in bold. Which of the following pairs of bold words must be interchanged to make both sentences grammatically correct?

a. There is a view that the installment(A) of the rupee has been the result of a general announced(B) of the dollar across(C) all currencies.

b. The Election Commission has appreciation**(D)** a second depreciation(E) of 1,100 more VVPATs to the State for the ensuing(F) elections in the first week of December.

  1. AOption (a)

    ABCDEF

  2. BOption (b)

    EFDCBA

  3. COption (c)

    FBADCE

  4. DOption (d)

    CABEFD

  5. EOption (e)

    EDCBAF

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

EDCBAF

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'EDCBAF.'

Key Points

  • In sentence a, we are talking about the decline or devaluation of the rupee which is a result of a general increase of the dollar across all currencies.
  • In sentence b, we are talking about the Election Commission that has declared or stated a second installation of 1,100 more VVPATs to the State for the ensuing elections in the first week of December.
  • Thus, (A) and (E) must be interchanged and (B) and (D) must be interchanged.
  • Correct sentence a: There is a view that the depreciation(A) of the rupee has been the result of a general appreciation(B) of the dollar across(C) all currencies.
  • Correct sentence b: The Election Commission has announced(D) a second installment(E) of 1,100 more VVPATs to the State for the ensuing(F) elections in the first week of December.

Hence, the correct answer is option 5.

Question 69

Directions

In the following question, two statements are given with some words in bold. Which of the following pairs of bold words must be interchanged to make both sentences grammatically correct?

a. Chelsea's Eden Hazard has revealed(A) his balance**(B)** for Manchester United hold**(C)** Jose Mourinho.

b. While Mahindra will manager**(D)** a 60% stake in the new company(E) named Mahindra Summit Agriscience Limited, the appreciation**(F)** will be with Sumitomo Corporation.

  1. AOption (a)

    ABCDEF

  2. BOption (b)

    CDAFBE

  3. COption (c)

    AFDCEB

  4. DOption (d)

    DAEBCF

  5. EOption (e)

    BDECFA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

AFDCEB

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'AFDCEB.'

Key Points

  • In sentence a, we are talking about Chelsea's Eden Hazard who has disclosed or shown his respect or admiration for Manchester United boss Jose Mourinho.
  • In sentence b, we are talking about Mahindra maintaining or keeping a 60% stake in the new company named Mahindra Summit Agriscience Limited, the remainder or rest will be with Sumitomo Corporation.
  • Thus, (C) and (D) must be interchanged and (B) and (F) must be interchanged.
  • Correct sentence a: Chelsea's Eden Hazard has revealed(A) his appreciation(B) for Manchester United manager(C) Jose Mourinho.
  • Correct sentence b: While Mahindra will hold(D) a 60% stake in the new company(E) named Mahindra Summit Agriscience Limited, the balance(F) will be with Sumitomo Corporation.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Question 70

Directions

In the following question, two statements are given with some words in bold. Which of the following pairs of bold words must be interchanged to make both sentences grammatically correct?

a. If you had a short-term scene**(A), then you need a fixed-income continued(B), not a market-linked product; to provide return thankfully(C)**.

b. He product**(D)** to create a goal**(E)** even as I moved away and got into my auto which had predictability**(F)** arrived by then.

  1. AOption (a)

    EDFBAC

  2. BOption (b)

    FCDBAE

  3. COption (c)

    BECDAF

  4. DOption (d)

    AFBECD

  5. EOption (e)

    ECFBDA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

EDFBAC

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'EDFBAC.'

Key Points

  • Sentence a is saying that if you had a short-term aim or objective then you need a fixed-income product, not a market-linked product; to provide return predictability.
  • Sentence b is talking about someone who carried on with creating a fuss or outburst even as the other person moved away and got into my auto which had thankfully arrived by then.
  • Thus, (A) and (E) must be interchanged, (B) and (D) must be interchanged and (C) and (F) must be interchanged.
  • Correct sentence a: If you had a short-term goal(A), then you need a fixed-income product(B), not a market-linked product; to provide return predictability(C).
  • Correct sentence b: He continued(D) to create a scene(E) even as I moved away and got into my auto which had thankfully(F) arrived by then.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Directions: Read the given passage carefully to answer the following questions. Each question will have five alternatives as its answer. Choose the correct option as your answer.

As the mother of a teenage daughter, I find myself grappling with the stark contrast between the once joyful bundle of joy I raised and the seemingly distant and screen-obsessed individual she has become. Struggling to strike the right balance in my parenting style, I often feel caught between the hovering tendencies of a helicopter parent and the fear of becoming an absentee one. It's a challenging position for many of us, belonging to a generation sandwiched between the strict discipline and physical punishments meted out by our parents and the disapproving glances from our own children now. The recent tragic incident in Jaipur, where a 20-year-old youth addicted to his mobile phone resorted to hacking his own family to death, serves as a haunting reminder of the alarming mental health issues prevalent among today's youth. This stark reality is vividly portrayed in the movie Kho Gae Hum Kahan, where young adults grapple with the complexities of their lives, entangled with romance, ambition, heartbreaks, and the addictive allure of social media.

The movie prompts contemplation on how deeply our children's lives are intertwined with screens, particularly their phones and laptops. In one poignant scene, a character demands privacy by instructing his mother to close the door of his room after a bad day at the gym. This desire for personal space, while understandable, inadvertently creates a significant divide between the younger generation and their parents, who genuinely wish to be their well-wishers. The isolation cultivated by today's youth in their cocoons seems to stem from a lack of realization that, by shutting out their parents, they are losing valuable guidance and support. Actor Ratna Pathak Shah's recent observation resonates, as she expresses relief at not being part of this generation, emphasizing the scant parental guidance they receive. She aptly characterizes them as a generation overwhelmed by unfiltered information, lacking assimilation, and seemingly unable to foresee their own vulnerabilities in the future. Traditionally, advice and wisdom were sought from elder siblings, parents, grandparents, or teachers, fostering a sense of guidance and security. However, today's children often turn to social media platforms like YouTube and Google for information. The influx of information, unfiltered and lacking guarantees of accuracy and appropriateness, poses its own set of challenges.

YouTube influencers have become the new role models, their lives on full display with "Instagram-able" pictures and questionable behaviours. The consequences of over-dependence on screens and the absence of adequate guidance loom ominously, raising concerns about whether children comprehend the potential pitfalls of their choices. Parents, too, shoulder a share of the blame, succumbing to the pressure of modern parenting and fulfilling every desire of their children, inadvertently hindering the development of gratitude and a sense of responsibility. As we raise children in nuclear families and send them off for further studies right after high school, we inadvertently expose them to unforeseen challenges, leaving them emotionally unsatiated, socially vulnerable, and ill-equipped with essential life skills. Recognizing the importance of giving our children space, it's essential to consider the potential repercussions of letting them navigate life without adequate guidance and support.

Question 71

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following options best describes the meaning of the highlighted word "vulnerable" in the context of the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Not satisfied or fulfilled.

  2. BOption (b)

    The quality of being thankful or appreciative.

  3. COption (c)

    Without intention or accidentally.

  4. DOption (d)

    Yielding to pressure or temptation.

  5. EOption (e)

    Susceptible to physical or emotional harm.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Susceptible to physical or emotional harm.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's first understand the meaning of the word "vulnerable" given in the passage:
  • Vulnerable - susceptible to physical or emotional harm; easily wounded or hurt (कमजोर)
  • For Example -
  • Children are vulnerable to the influence of peer pressure, making it crucial for parents to guide them in making wise decisions.
  • In the given passage, the word "vulnerable" is used in the context of children being exposed to unforeseen challenges and lacking essential life skills, which leaves them emotionally unsatiated and socially vulnerable to potential harm.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate option that aligns with the meaning of "vulnerable" in this context is: "Susceptible to physical or emotional harm."

Question 72

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What does the passage suggest about the challenges faced by parents in the current generation?

  1. AOption (a)

    Balancing between over-involvement and the fear of being absent.

  2. BOption (b)

    Approaching children's screen obsession with indifferent navigation.

  3. COption (c)

    Remaining ignorant of the prevalent mental health issues in today's youth.

  4. DOption (d)

    Embracing excessive involvement, akin to helicopter parenting styles.

  5. EOption (e)

    Experiencing no apprehension about becoming absentee parents.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Balancing between over-involvement and the fear of being absent.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, refer to the first paragraph of the passage, where the author discusses the challenges of parenting in the current generation:
  • "Struggling to strike the right balance in my parenting style, I often feel caught between the hovering tendencies of a helicopter parent and the fear of becoming an absentee one."
  • From this part of the passage, it's evident that the challenges faced by parents in the current generation involve struggling to find the right balance between the hovering tendencies of a helicopter parent and the fear of becoming an absentee one.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Balancing between over-involvement and the fear of being absent."

Question 73

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

How does Ratna Pathak Shah characterize today's generation, and what challenges do they face according to her observation?

  1. AOption (a)

    Overwhelmed by unfiltered information, lacking assimilation, and unable to foresee vulnerabilities.

  2. BOption (b)

    Suffering from a lack of gratitude and responsibility due to parental fulfilment of desires.

  3. COption (c)

    Seeking guidance and wisdom from social media platforms like YouTube and Google.

  4. DOption (d)

    Facing unforeseen challenges after high school due to nuclear family upbringing.

  5. EOption (e)

    Turning to elder siblings, parents, grandparents, or teachers for advice and wisdom.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Overwhelmed by unfiltered information, lacking assimilation, and unable to foresee vulnerabilities.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, refer to the second paragraph of the passage where Ratna Pathak Shah's observation is discussed:
  • "Actor Ratna Pathak Shah's recent observation resonates, as she expresses relief at not being part of this generation, emphasizing the scant parental guidance they receive. She aptly characterizes them as a generation overwhelmed by unfiltered information, lacking assimilation, and seemingly unable to foresee their own vulnerabilities in the future."
  • From this part of the passage, it's evident that Ratna Pathak Shah characterizes today's generation as overwhelmed by unfiltered information, lacking assimilation, and seemingly unable to foresee their own vulnerabilities.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Overwhelmed by unfiltered information, lacking assimilation, and unable to foresee vulnerabilities."

Question 74

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of these sentence(s) can be inferred from the passage?

A. The movie "Kho Gae Hum Kahan" prompts reflection on the impact of screens, emphasizing a divide between generations.

B. The influx of unfiltered information from social media platforms poses challenges, with YouTube influencers becoming questionable role models for children.

C. The isolation of today's youth from parental guidance stems from a lack of realization about losing valuable support.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    Only C

  4. DOption (d)

    All A, B, and C

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All A, B, and C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's break down the sentences given in the question:
  • Sentence A - "The movie 'Kho Gae Hum Kahan' prompts reflection on the impact of screens, emphasizing a divide between generations."
  • This sentence can be inferred from the passage. The passage mentions the movie and how it prompts contemplation on the deep integration of screens in the lives of young adults grappling with the complexities of their lives, entangled with romance, ambition, heartbreaks, and the addictive allure of social media.
  • Sentence B - "The influx of unfiltered information from social media platforms poses challenges, with YouTube influencers becoming questionable role models for children."
  • This sentence can be inferred from the passage. The passage discusses the challenges posed by the influx of unfiltered information from social media platforms, with specific mention of YouTube influencers becoming questionable role models.
  • Sentence C - "The isolation of today's youth from parental guidance stems from a lack of realization about losing valuable support."
  • This sentence can be inferred from the passage. The passage highlights the isolation of today's youth and suggests that it stems from their lack of realization about losing valuable guidance and support from their parents.
  • So, out of all the given sentences in the question, all three sentences (A, B, and C) can be inferred from the passage.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "All A, B, and C."

Question 75

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following is the most suitable title for the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    "The Impact of Social Media on Today's Youth"

  2. BOption (b)

    "Parenting Challenges in the Digital Age"

  3. COption (c)

    "The Tragic Consequences of Screen Addiction"

  4. DOption (d)

    "The Evolving Role of Parental Guidance"

  5. EOption (e)

    "Navigating the Generation Gap: A Modern Parenting Dilemma"

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

"Parenting Challenges in the Digital Age"

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

To answer this question, read the passage carefully and try to understand its overall theme.

The passage delves into the challenges faced by parents in the digital age, particularly in navigating the complexities of raising children amidst the influence of screens and social media. It highlights the struggles of finding a balance between parenting styles, the alarming mental health issues prevalent among today's youth, and the potential consequences of inadequate guidance. The discussion encompasses the role of screens, the impact of social media, the evolving dynamics between parents and children, and the need for responsible parenting.

Now, let's review the options:

  • Option 1: "The Impact of Social Media on Today's Youth"
  • While the passage does discuss the influence of social media, it goes beyond that to explore broader parenting challenges in the digital age. This option doesn't capture the entirety of the passage's focus.
  • Option 2: "Parenting Challenges in the Digital Age"
  • This title accurately reflects the central theme of the passage, covering the challenges faced by parents in the context of the digital age, making it the most suitable option.
  • Option 3: "The Tragic Consequences of Screen Addiction"
  • While the tragic consequences of screen addiction are discussed, the passage addresses a wider range of parenting challenges, making this option too narrow in scope.
  • Option 4: "The Evolving Role of Parental Guidance"
  • This title touches on the evolving dynamics between parents and children, but it doesn't encompass the broader challenges and consequences discussed in the passage.
  • Option 5: "Navigating the Generation Gap: A Modern Parenting Dilemma"
  • While the generation gap and modern parenting are discussed, the passage covers a wider array of challenges, making this option less comprehensive.
  • So, after careful consideration, the most appropriate title that encapsulates the main theme of the passage is Option 2: "Parenting Challenges in the Digital Age." This title accurately reflects the overarching theme of the challenges faced by parents in navigating the digital landscape while raising their children.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Parenting Challenges in the Digital Age."

Question 76

Directions

In the following sentence, a blank is given. Choose the pair of words from the options provided that best completes the sentence, making it grammatically correct and contextually meaningful. Note that both words in the selected pair should be capable of filling the blank appropriately.**

Doctors, facing time constraints and limited resources, choose antibiotics over ________ examinations in overcrowded outpatient units.

  1. AOption (a)

    rigorous, superficial

  2. BOption (b)

    comprehensive, thorough

  3. COption (c)

    irrelevant, perfunctory

  4. DOption (d)

    extraneous, irrelevant

  5. EOption (e)

    exhaustive, superficial

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

comprehensive, thorough

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the given sentence:

Doctors, facing time constraints and limited resources, choose antibiotics over ________ examinations in overcrowded outpatient units.

  • This sentence highlights that doctors, due to time and resource constraints, opt for antibiotics over comprehensive examinations in crowded outpatient units.
  • The word that should fill in the blank is likely to indicate thorough patient assessments.
  • Now, let's understand the meanings of the words given as options:
  • Rigorous (adjective) - thorough and accurate; demanding strict attention to standards and procedures (कठोर)
  • For Example -
  • The research study underwent rigorous scrutiny by experts before publication.
  • Superficial (adjective) - shallow or lacking in depth; concerned only with what is apparent or obvious (सतही)
  • For Example -
  • Her analysis of the complex issue was criticized for being superficial and overlooking key factors.
  • Comprehensive (adjective) - complete and thorough; covering all or nearly all elements or aspects (व्यापक)
  • For Example -
  • The comprehensive report on the market trends provided valuable insights for investors.
  • Thorough (adjective) - detailed and exhaustive; complete in every respect (विस्तृत)
  • For Example -
  • The detective conducted a thorough investigation to unravel the mystery.
  • Irrelevant (adjective) - not connected or applicable to the matter at hand; unrelated or immaterial (अनुपयुक्त)
  • For Example -
  • The speaker's comments were deemed irrelevant to the main topic of the discussion.
  • Perfunctory (adjective) - carried out with minimal effort or enthusiasm; done in a routine and mechanical way (स्वाभाविक)
  • For Example -
  • His perfunctory response to the important question raised concerns about his commitment.
  • Extraneous (adjective) - unrelated or irrelevant to the subject being dealt with; unnecessary or superfluous (अनावश्यक)
  • For Example -
  • The professor urged students to avoid including extraneous information in their research papers.
  • Exhaustive (adjective) - thorough and comprehensive; covering all possible details or aspects (पूर्ण)
  • For Example -
  • The exhaustive list of references in the bibliography demonstrated the depth of the research.
  • So, after understanding the given sentence and the meanings of the given words, we can conclude that the pair of words that best completes the sentence is "comprehensive, thorough" (option 2). This choice fits the context well, as it conveys the idea that doctors, due to time and resource constraints, choose antibiotics over comprehensive examinations in overcrowded outpatient units. This choice aligns with the need for a comprehensive/thorough assessment of patients.
  • The complete sentence would be: "Doctors, facing time constraints and limited resources, choose antibiotics over comprehensive/thorough examinations in overcrowded outpatient units."
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "comprehensive, thorough."

Question 77

Directions

In the following sentence, a blank is given. Choose the pair of words from the options provided that best completes the sentence, making it grammatically correct and contextually meaningful. Note that both words in the selected pair should be capable of filling the blank appropriately.**

In restaurants, AI could create ________ meals based on diners' tastes, overcoming the limitations of standardized menus.

  1. AOption (a)

    standardized, customized

  2. BOption (b)

    customized, uniform

  3. COption (c)

    generic, individualized

  4. DOption (d)

    personalized, tailored

  5. EOption (e)

    specialized, common

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

personalized, tailored

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the given sentence:

In restaurants, AI could create ________ meals based on diners' tastes, overcoming the limitations of standardized menus.

  • This sentence highlights how AI could conjure customized meals reflecting diners' preferences, surpassing the confines of standardized menus for a more tailored culinary experience.
  • The word that should fill in the blank is likely to indicate customized meals tailored to individual preferences.
  • Now, let's understand the meanings of the words given as options:
  • Standardized (adjective) - Conforming to a set of standards or a common specification, making things consistent and uniform (मानकीकृत)
  • For Example -
  • The company implemented standardized testing procedures to ensure product quality.
  • Customized (adjective) - Tailored or modified according to specific requirements or individual preferences (अनुकूलित)
  • For Example -
  • The software allows users to create customized settings based on their unique needs.
  • Uniform (adjective) - Unchanging and consistent, lacking variations or differences (समान)
  • For Example -
  • The company enforces a uniform dress code to maintain a professional image.
  • Generic (adjective) - General, not specific to any particular individual or group; lacking distinctive features (सामान्य)
  • For Example -
  • The store offers generic products that cater to a wide range of customers.
  • Individualized (adjective) - Tailored or designed for a specific individual, considering unique characteristics or preferences (व्यक्तिगत)
  • For Example -
  • The training program provides individualized coaching to address each employee's needs.
  • Personalized (adjective) - Customized or tailored to an individual's personal preferences or characteristics (व्यक्तिगत)
  • For Example -
  • Many online services offer personalized recommendations based on user preferences.
  • Tailored (adjective) - Customized or adjusted to fit specific requirements or individual needs (विशेष रूप से बनाया गया)
  • For Example -
  • The designer tailored the dress to perfection, ensuring it complemented her client's unique style.
  • Specialized (adjective) - Designed or developed for a specific purpose or field of expertise (विशेषज्ञ)
  • For Example -
  • The hospital has specialized equipment for conducting advanced medical procedures.
  • Common (adjective) - Shared by or applicable to a group of people; not unique or individualized (सामान्य)
  • For Example -
  • The common goal of the team is to achieve success in the upcoming project.
  • So, after understanding the given sentence and the meanings of the given words, we can conclude that the pair of words that best completes the sentence is "personalized, tailored" (Option 4). This choice conveys the idea that AI could create meals customized to individual preferences, and the use of both words fits well in the context of overcoming the limitations of standardized menus in restaurants.
  • The complete sentence would be: "In restaurants, AI could create personalized/tailored meals based on diners' tastes, overcoming the limitations of standardized menus."
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "personalized, tailored."

Question 78

Directions

In the following sentence, a blank is given. Choose the pair of words from the options provided that best completes the sentence, making it grammatically correct and contextually meaningful. Note that both words in the selected pair should be capable of filling the blank appropriately.**

Teaching, a labour of love, a/an ________ of challenges and rewards, demands resilience, entails sacrifices, and leaves an immeasurable impact.

  1. AOption (a)

    journey, regression

  2. BOption (b)

    expedition, inaction

  3. COption (c)

    odyssey, expedition

  4. DOption (d)

    inactivity, quest

  5. EOption (e)

    retreat, divergence

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

odyssey, expedition

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the given sentence:

Teaching, a labour of love, a/an ________ of challenges and rewards, demands resilience, entails sacrifices, and leaves an immeasurable impact.

  • This sentence describes teaching as a passionate undertaking filled with both challenges and rewards. It emphasizes the need for resilience, the requirement for sacrifices, and the lasting impact of teaching.
  • The word that should fill in the blank is likely to indicate a mix of challenges and rewards in the teaching profession.
  • Now, let's understand the meanings of the words given as options:
  • Journey (noun) - the act of travelling from one place to another, often involving a process of personal development or exploration (यात्रा)
  • For Example -
  • Embarking on a solo journey helped her discover new perspectives and strengths.
  • Regression (noun) - a return to a previous state or condition, often characterized by decline or retrogression (प्रतिगामन)
  • For Example -
  • After a period of progress, the project experienced regression due to unforeseen challenges.
  • Expedition (noun) - a journey or voyage undertaken for a specific purpose, often involving exploration, research, or a quest (अभियान)
  • For Example -
  • The scientific expedition aimed to study marine life in uncharted waters.
  • Inaction (noun) - the lack of action or activity, a state of not taking any steps or making any decisions (निष्क्रियता)
  • For Example -
  • Persistent inaction on environmental issues can lead to irreversible consequences.
  • Odyssey (noun) - a long and adventurous journey marked by numerous challenges, often with personal or heroic significance (एक प्रकार की महायात्रा)
  • For Example -
  • His entrepreneurial odyssey led him to overcome obstacles and build a successful business.
  • Quest (noun) - a search, pursuit, or journey undertaken to achieve a specific goal or find something valuable (क्षेत्राध्ययन)
  • For Example -
  • The knight embarked on a quest to find the legendary sword and save the kingdom.
  • Retreat (noun) - the act of withdrawing or moving back, often from a challenging situation or for relaxation and reflection (पीछे हटना)
  • For Example -
  • The meditation retreat provided a peaceful environment for self-reflection and relaxation.
  • Divergence (noun) - the process of moving or extending in different directions, or a departure from a common path or course (विचलन)
  • For Example -
  • The divergence of opinions among team members led to a reevaluation of the project's strategy.
  • So, after understanding the given sentence and the meanings of the given words, we can conclude that the best pair of words to fill in the blank is "odyssey, expedition." This choice effectively conveys the idea of teaching as a long and adventurous journey filled with challenges and rewards, aligning with the context of the sentence.
  • The complete sentence would be: "Teaching, a labour of love, an odyssey/expedition of challenges and rewards, demands resilience, entails sacrifices, and leaves an immeasurable impact."
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "odyssey, expedition."

Question 79

Directions

In the following sentence, a blank is given. Choose the pair of words from the options provided that best completes the sentence, making it grammatically correct and contextually meaningful. Note that both words in the selected pair should be capable of filling the blank appropriately.**

Letting others live their lives without judgment fosters a better world; resist the ________ to dictate others' decisions.

  1. AOption (a)

    urge, tendency

  2. BOption (b)

    adventure, restraint

  3. COption (c)

    inclination, deterrent

  4. DOption (d)

    constrain, adjure

  5. EOption (e)

    impulse, repulsion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

urge, tendency

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the given sentence:

Letting others live their lives without judgment fosters a better world; resist the ________ to dictate others' decisions.

  • This sentence emphasizes the importance of not judging others and encourages resisting the urge to control or influence their choices, promoting a more harmonious and accepting world.
  • The word that should fill in the blank is likely to indicate a strong impulse or inclination.
  • Now, let's understand the meanings of the words given as options:
  • Urge (noun) - a strong desire or impulse to do something, often accompanied by a sense of necessity or compelling force (इच्छा)
  • For Example -
  • The urge to explore new horizons led him to embark on a solo backpacking adventure.
  • Tendency (noun) - a natural inclination or predisposition towards a particular behaviour or course of action (प्रवृत्ति)
  • For Example -
  • Her tendency to procrastinate became a challenge in meeting tight deadlines.
  • Adventure (noun) - an exciting or daring experience, often involving risk and the unknown (साहसिक कार्य)
  • For Example -
  • Embarking on a thrilling adventure, they explored uncharted lands, discovering hidden wonders and facing challenges.
  • Restraint (noun) - the action or means of holding something back, controlling, or limiting it (संयम)
  • For Example -
  • Exercising restraint in spending is crucial for maintaining a healthy financial situation.
  • Inclination (noun) - a person's natural tendency or preference towards a particular idea, activity, or course of action (रुझान)
  • For Example -
  • Her inclination towards art and creativity led her to pursue a career in graphic design.
  • Deterrent (noun) - something that discourages or hinders a particular action or behaviour (निवारक)
  • For Example -
  • The presence of security cameras acts as a deterrent to potential burglars.
  • Constrain (verb; 3rd person present) - to restrict or limit someone or something's freedom or action (प्रतिबंधित करना)
  • For Example -
  • Strict regulations may constrain the company's ability to innovate.
  • Adjure (verb; 3rd person present) - to earnestly and solemnly urge or command someone to do something (संकट के समय सहारा मांगना)
  • For Example -
  • The captain adjured his team to give their best effort in the crucial match.
  • Impulse (noun) - a sudden and strong urge or desire to act without much thought or consideration (आवेग)
  • For Example -
  • On impulse, she decided to buy the concert tickets without checking her schedule.
  • Repulsion (noun) - a strong feeling of disgust, aversion, or intense dislike towards something or someone (घृणा)
  • For Example -
  • The gruesome scene in the movie evoked a sense of repulsion among the audience.
  • So, after understanding the given sentence and the meanings of the given words, we can conclude that the best pair of words to complete the sentence is "urge, tendency." This choice fits well with the context of resisting the inclination or impulse to dictate others' decisions.
  • The complete sentence would be: "Letting others live their lives without judgment fosters a better world; resist the urge/tendency to dictate others' decisions."
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "urge, tendency."

Question 80

Directions

A phrase is given in bold, followed by three sentences labelled A, B, and C using the phrase. Determine which of these sentences correctly uses the given phrase and mark it as your answer.**

HOLD BACK

A. The teacher advised the students to hold back their excitement until the exam results were announced.

B. To achieve success, you must hold back a consistent work ethic and persevere through challenges.

C. Hold back tightly to the memories that bring you joy, for they can brighten even the darkest days.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Both B and C

  3. COption (c)

    Only C

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and C

  5. EOption (e)

    All A, B, and C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's first understand the meaning of the phrase given in the question:
  • Hold back (phrasal verb) - to restrain or keep from advancing or progressing, often due to hesitation or reluctance (रोकना)
  • For Example -
  • She had to hold back her tears during the emotional farewell.
  • Now, let's examine the given sentences:
  • Sentence A: The teacher advised the students to hold back their excitement until the exam results were announced.
  • The phrase "hold back" is used correctly here, in this context, "hold back" means to restrain or control, as the teacher suggests the students not to show their excitement until results are revealed.
  • Sentence B: To achieve success, you must hold back a consistent work ethic and persevere through challenges.
  • The phrase "hold back" is not used correctly here, the phrase "hold back" implies restraint, while "hold down" signifies maintaining. We need to use "hold down" to convey persistence in work for grammatical and contextual accuracy.
  • Sentence C: Hold back tightly to the memories that bring you joy, for they can brighten even the darkest days.
  • The phrase "hold back" is not used correctly here. "Hold back" suggests restraining or not expressing something. In this context, we want to preserve and cherish memories, so "hold on" is more fitting, conveying the idea of keeping them close.
  • So, after understanding the meaning of the given word, we can conclude that out of the three sentences, only sentence A uses the phrasal verb "hold back" correctly, while sentences B and C don't use it correctly.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Only A."

Question 81

Directions

A phrase is given in bold, followed by three sentences labelled A, B, and C using the phrase. Determine which of these sentences correctly uses the given phrase and mark it as your answer.**

CALL OFF

A. The aggressive dog growled, prompting the cautious pedestrian to quickly call off and avoid confrontation.

B. The search and rescue team decided to call off the mission after finding no survivors.

C. Due to budget constraints, the company had to call off funding for some non-essential projects.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Both B and C

  3. COption (c)

    Only B

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and C

  5. EOption (e)

    All A, B, and C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only B

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's first understand the meaning of the phrase given in the question:
  • Call off (phrasal verb) - to cancel or abandon a planned event or activity (रद्द करना)
  • For Example -
  • Due to the heavy rain, the outdoor picnic had to be called off.
  • Now, let's examine the given sentences:
  • Sentence A: The aggressive dog growled, prompting the cautious pedestrian to quickly call off and avoid confrontation.
  • The phrase "call off" is not used correctly here. The phrase "call off" implies cancelling something, while "back off" is appropriate here as it means to retreat or withdraw, better fitting the situation of avoiding confrontation with the aggressive dog.
  • Sentence B: The search and rescue team decided to call off the mission after finding no survivors.
  • The phrase "call off" is used correctly in this sentence. In this context, 'call off' means to cancel or stop the mission, as the search and rescue team found no survivors.
  • Sentence C: Due to budget constraints, the company had to call off funding for some non-essential projects.
  • The phrase "call off" is not used correctly here. "Call off" means to cancel, while "cut off" is suitable here, indicating termination of funding due to budget constraints.
  • So, after understanding the meaning of the given word, we can conclude that out of the three given sentences, only sentence B uses the phrasal verb "call off" correctly, while sentences A and C don't use it correctly.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Only B."

Question 82

Directions

A phrase is given in bold, followed by three sentences labelled A, B, and C using the phrase. Determine which of these sentences correctly uses the given phrase and mark it as your answer.**

BRING IN

A. The manager decided to bring in a consultant to improve the company's efficiency and productivity.

B. It's important to bring in any concerns you have during the team discussion to ensure clarity.

C. The detective hoped the new evidence would bring in fresh leads to solve the mysterious case.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only A

  2. BOption (b)

    Only B

  3. COption (c)

    Only C

  4. DOption (d)

    Both A and C

  5. EOption (e)

    All A, B, and C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both A and C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

  • To answer this question, let's first understand the meaning of the phrase given in the question:
  • Bring in (phrasal verb) - to introduce, implement, or bring something new or different into a situation, discussion, or environment (शामिल करना)
  • For Example -
  • The company decided to bring in innovative technology to improve productivity in the workplace.
  • Now, let's examine the given sentences:
  • Sentence A: The manager decided to bring in a consultant to improve the company's efficiency and productivity.
  • The phrase "bring in" is used correctly in this sentence. The manager chose to hire a consultant to enhance the company's efficiency and productivity, showing the correct use of "bring in."
  • Sentence B: It's important to bring in any concerns you have during the team discussion to ensure clarity.
  • The phrase "bring in" is not used correctly in this sentence. Here, "bring up" should be used for discussing concerns, and ensuring grammatical and contextual accuracy in the sentence.
  • Sentence C: The detective hoped the new evidence would bring in fresh leads to solve the mysterious case.
  • The term "bring in" is correctly used in this sentence, indicating the expectation that new evidence will generate new leads for solving the case.
  • So, after understanding the meaning of the given word, we can conclude that out of the three given sentences, both sentences A and C use the phrasal verb "bring in" correctly, while sentence B doesn't use it correctly.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is "Both A and C."

Question 83

Directions

Select the phrase from the options below that should replace the underlined phrase in the sentence to make it grammatically and contextually correct. If the sentence is already correct, select 'No correction required' as your answer.**

If it be raining tomorrow, we will postpone the outdoor event to ensure the safety and comfort of all participants.

  1. AOption (a)

    it doesn't rain tomorrow

  2. BOption (b)

    it rains tomorrow

  3. COption (c)

    it will rain tomorrow

  4. DOption (d)

    it is raining tomorrow

  5. EOption (e)

    No correction required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

it rains tomorrow

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • The correct phrase is "it rains tomorrow."
  • The underlined phrase "it be raining tomorrow" is erroneous. This is a first conditional sentence and in such sentences, the correct structure requires the use of the present simple tense to express a possible future event, making "it rains tomorrow" grammatically accurate.
  • Sentence structure of the first conditional sentence:
  • If + present simple, will + infinitive 
  • For Example:
  • If she studies hard, she will pass the exam.
  • If you call me, I will come to pick you up.
  • If they don't hurry, they will miss the train.
  • The correct sentence after phrase replacement would be: "If it rains tomorrow, we will postpone the outdoor event to ensure the safety and comfort of all participants."

Additional Information

Let's understand different types of conditional sentences:

  • The Zero Conditional - General truth
  • Sentence structure - If + present simple, present simple 
  • For Example -
  • If I get a cup of coffee in the morning, I feel energetic all day.
  • The First Conditional - Future event
  • Sentence structure - If + present simple, will + infinitive 
  • For Example -
  • If I have a test tomorrow, you will study all night.
  • The Second Conditional - Hypothetical outcome
  • Sentence structure - If + past simple, would + infinitive 
  • For Example -
  • If I had a million dollars, I would buy an island.
  • The Third Conditional - Hypothetical outcome
  • Sentence structure - if + past perfect, would + have + past participle 
  • For Example -
  • I wouldn't have gotten sick if I had taken my medicine on time.

Question 84

Directions

Select the phrase from the options below that should replace the underlined phrase in the sentence to make it grammatically and contextually correct. If the sentence is already correct, select 'No correction required' as your answer.**

To who should me address this letter, and on what occasion would be the most appropriate to present such a document?

  1. AOption (a)

    whom should I address

  2. BOption (b)

    who should I address

  3. COption (c)

    whom should I address to

  4. DOption (d)

    whose I should address

  5. EOption (e)

    No correction required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

whom should I address

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

  • The correct phrase is "whom should I address."
  • The underlined phrase "who should me address" is erroneous because it violates proper pronoun usage and case. "Who" is a subject pronoun, and it should be replaced with the objective pronoun "whom" when functioning as the object of the verb "address." Additionally, "me" should be replaced with the subject pronoun "I" to maintain correct grammatical structure. The corrected phrase here should be "To whom should I address this letter," ensuring proper pronoun case agreement.
  • The correct sentence after phrase replacement would be: "To whom should I address this letter, and on what occasion would be the most appropriate to present such a document?"

Additional Information

Let's understand the usage of different pronouns used in English:

  • Whose: This is a possessive pronoun used to indicate ownership or association. 
  • For example:
  • Whose book is this?
  • The person whose car is parked outside is my neighbour.
  • Whom: This is an object pronoun used in formal English when referring to the object of a verb or a preposition. 
  • For example:
  • Whom did you invite to the party?
  • To whom should I address this letter?
  • Who: This is a subject pronoun used to refer to the person or people performing an action. 
  • For example:
  • Who is coming to the meeting?
  • The person who called left a message.

Question 85

Directions

Select the phrase from the options below that should replace the underlined phrase in the sentence to make it grammatically and contextually correct. If the sentence is already correct, select 'No correction required' as your answer.**

She enjoys reading classic novels, hiking in the mountains, and swim in the ocean during her summer vacations.

  1. AOption (a)

    will swim on the ocean

  2. BOption (b)

    swims in the ocean

  3. COption (c)

    swimming in the ocean

  4. DOption (d)

    will swim in the ocean

  5. EOption (e)

    No correction required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

swimming in the ocean

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

  • The correct phrase is "swimming in the ocean."
  • The phrase "swim in the ocean" is erroneous because it lacks parallelism with the preceding activities (reading and hiking), which are presented as gerunds. To maintain consistency and grammatical correctness, "swimming in the ocean" should replace "swim in the ocean" to align with the established pattern of using gerunds in the list.
  • The correct sentence after phrase replacement would be: "She enjoys reading classic novels, hiking in the mountains, and swimming in the ocean during her summer vacations."

Additional Information

Let's understand the concept of parallelism:

  • Parallelism in grammar ensures that the structure and form of words or phrases within a sentence are consistent. It involves using similar grammatical patterns for clarity and balance. 
  • For Example:
  • She likes hiking, swimming, and jogging.
  • The company values honesty, diligence, and punctuality.
  • Sarah is both a talented writer and a skilled painter.

Question 86

Directions

Select the phrase from the options below that should replace the underlined phrase in the sentence to make it grammatically and contextually correct. If the sentence is already correct, select 'No correction required' as your answer.**

The phenomenon of children acquiring languages effortlessly is a testament to the remarkable adaptability of young minds.

  1. AOption (a)

    is a testament of

  2. BOption (b)

    are a testament to

  3. COption (c)

    is an testament to

  4. DOption (d)

    is a testament for

  5. EOption (e)

    No correction required

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

No correction required

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

  • The phrase given in bold, "is a testament to," is error-free. It correctly indicates the acknowledgement of the remarkable adaptability of young minds in the context of the phenomenon of children effortlessly acquiring languages.
  • This sentence highlights the impressive ability of children to learn languages without significant effort, serving as evidence of the adaptability of their young minds.
  • Now, let's understand some important vocabulary given in the question:
  • Phenomenon (noun) - an observable occurrence or event, especially one that is extraordinary or remarkable (घटना)
  • For Example -
  • The Northern Lights are a natural phenomenon that attracts tourists from around the world.
  • Effortlessly (adverb) - without requiring much effort or difficulty; easily (आसानी से)
  • For Example -
  • She completed the complex task effortlessly, showcasing her expertise.
  • Testament (noun) - something that serves as a sign or evidence of a fact or event; a statement of truth (प्रमाण)
  • For Example -
  • The success of the team is a testament to their hard work and dedication.
  • Remarkable (adjective) - worthy of attention and admiration; extraordinary (अद्वितीय)
  • For Example -
  • His remarkable skills in problem-solving set him apart from his colleagues.
  • Adaptability (noun) - the ability to adjust to new conditions or changes easily (अनुकूलनशीलता)
  • For Example -
  • The company values employees with adaptability, as the business environment is constantly evolving.

Question 87

Direction: Read the sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical error/mistake in it. Errors, if any, will be in TWO PHRASES of the sentence. The combination of those parts is the answer of that question. If no part in the sentence has an error then, mark 'No error' as your answer (ignore punctuation error if any).

Starting a family, buying homes and other (A)/ traditional markers of achievement is (B)/ no longer coveted by millennials and Gen Z, whose habits have (C)/been an obsession in marketers seeking to tap their spending power. (D)

  1. AOption (a)

    AC

  2. BOption (b)

    BD

  3. COption (c)

    CD

  4. DOption (d)

    AB

  5. EOption (e)

    No error

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

BD

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points           

  • Part "B" and "D" are erroneous.

  • Part B:

  • Here, the subject "Starting a family, buying homes and other traditional markers of achievement" is plural, so, the use of "is" is incorrect.

  • The usage of plural verb 'are' would be correct as there are multiple subjects.

  • 'Is' should be replaced with 'are' to make the phrase meaningful.

  • Part D:

  • The word 'in' is grammatically inappropriate.

  • The word "obsession" is followed by the preposition "with."

  • Example: She was obsessed with you.

  • Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

  • The correct answer would be: "Starting a family, buying homes and other traditional markers of achievement are no longer coveted by millennials and Gen Z, whose habits have been an obsession with marketers seeking to tap their spending power."

Question 88

Direction: Read the sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical error/mistake in it. Errors, if any, will be in TWO PHRASES of the sentence. The combination of those parts is the answer of that question. If no part in the sentence has an error then, mark 'No error' as your answer (ignore punctuation error if any).

Intelligence density planning is the (A)/ answer, with old and new (B)/ buildings cohabiting gracefully -- (C) / so arguing the architects. (D)

  1. AOption (a)

    AB

  2. BOption (b)

    AD

  3. COption (c)

    BC

  4. DOption (d)

    CD

  5. EOption (e)

    No error

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

AD

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points          

  • Part "A" and "D" are erroneous.

  • Part A:

  • 'Intelligence density planning' is a meaningless compound noun.

  • 'Intelligence' should be replaced with the adjective 'Intelligent' to make the phrase meaningful.

  • Part D:

  • The word 'arguing' is grammatically inappropriate.

  • It should be replaced with the base form of the verb 'argue'.

  • "Argue" is used in the present tense to match the tense of the sentence.

  • Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

  • The correct answer would be: "Intelligent density planning is the answer, with old and new buildings cohabiting gracefully -- so argue the architects.

Question 89

Direction: Read the sentences to find out whether there is any grammatical error/mistake in it. Errors, if any, will be in TWO PHRASES of the sentence. The combination of those parts is the answer of that question. If no part in the sentence has an error then, mark 'No error' as your answer (ignore punctuation error if any).

Much of the tobacco leaf and some (A)/ of the cigarettes produced into the (B)/ continent are exported and these exports earn the foreign (C)/ currency that are attractive to the finance ministries of tobacco producing countries. (D)

  1. AOption (a)

    AC

  2. BOption (b)

    BD

  3. COption (c)

    CD

  4. DOption (d)

    AB

  5. EOption (e)

    No error

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

BD

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points            

  • Part "B" and "D" are erroneous.

  • Part B:

  • The use of the word "into" is incorrect.

  • 'In' would be correct in the given context (produced in the continent).

  • Part D:

  • The error in the sentence is a subject-verb agreement mistake.

  • 'Is' should be used instead of 'are' as the verb has come for singular noun 'currency.'

  • Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

  • The correct answer would be: "Much of the tobacco leaf and some of the cigarettes produced in the continent are exported and these exports earn the foreign currency that is attractive to the finance ministries of tobacco producing countries. "

Question 90

Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error/mistake in it. Errors, if any, will be in TWO PHRASES of the sentence. The combination of those parts is the answer of that question. If no part in the sentence has an error then, mark 'No error' as your answer (ignore punctuation error if any).

It is increasingly evident (A)/ that the best years (B)/ to teach a child are (C)/ between zero and 3 years of age (D).

  1. AOption (a)

    AC

  2. BOption (b)

    BD

  3. COption (c)

    AB

  4. DOption (d)

    CD

  5. EOption (e)

    No error

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

No error

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: No error

Key Points

  • Let's break down each part of the sentence and explain the grammatical structure of the options:
  • A) "It is increasingly evident" - This part of the sentence is the introductory clause. It consists of the subject "It" and the predicate "is increasingly evident." The main verb here is "is," and "increasingly evident" is an adjective phrase describing the subject. This part of the sentence is grammatically correct.
  • B) "that the best years" - This part of the sentence introduces a subordinate clause starting with "that." "The best years" is the subject of this clause, and "that" serves as a conjunction connecting this clause to the main clause. The phrase "the best years" is also grammatically correct.
  • C) "to teach a child are" - This part of the sentence includes the infinitive phrase "to teach a child" followed by the verb "are." "To teach a child" acts as an infinitive phrase, which is used as a noun in this sentence. "Are" is the main verb of the sentence, and it agrees with the subject "the best years." This part of the sentence is grammatically correct.
  • D) "between zero and 3 years of age" - In this part of the sentence "between" is a preposition, "zero" is a numerical value, and "3 years of age" is a noun phrase describing the range of time. It implies that this is the age range during which teaching is most effective. This part of the sentence is grammatically correct.
  • From here, it is clear that the sentence is both grammatically and conceptually correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is option 5.

Confusion Points 

  • "between zero and 3 years of age": This phrase suggests that the best years to teach a child fall within the range or span of time between zero (birth) and 3 years of age. It implies that this is the age range during which teaching is most effective.
  • "between zero and 3 years of age":  is contextually correct in the given sentence.
  • "from zero to 3 years of age": This phrase implies that the best years to teach a child start at birth (zero years old) and continue up to 3 years of age. It suggests that teaching should begin from the very beginning of a child's life.

Quantitative Aptitude (50 questions)

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer based on it.

There are three Companies A, B and C in which some employees are graduated and some employees are Post graduated. The ratio of graduated and post graduated in company A  is 3:2. Graduated employees in company B is 120. The ratio of post graduated employee in company B and Post graduated employee in company C is 4:5. Post graduated employee in company C is double the 41(2/3)% of the Graduated employee in company B. The graduated employee in company C is 1/3rd times the average of graduated employee in company A and company B. The graduated employee in company A is 2.5 times the graduated employee in company B.

Question 91

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find the average of post graduated employees in all the companies A, B and C? (approx)

  1. AOption (a)

    75

  2. BOption (b)

    127

  3. COption (c)

    90

  4. DOption (d)

    110

  5. EOption (e)

    150

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

127

Why this answer is correct

Let, graduated employee in company A = 3x

And, Post graduated employee in company A = 2x

Graduated employee in company B = 120

Let, post graduated employee in company B = 4y

And, post graduated employee in company C = 5y

So, 5y = 2 ×5/12 × 120 = 100 [41(2/3)% = 5/12]

⇒y = 20

Therefore, post graduated employee in company B = 4 × 20 = 80

Graduated employee in company A = 3x  = 2.5 × 120 = 300

So, x = 100

Therefore, post graduated employee in company A = 2 × 100 = 200

Graduated employee in company C = 1/3 × (300 + 120) / 2 = 70

CompanyGraduatedPost graduated
A300200
B12080
C70100

Required average = (200 + 80 + 100) / 3 = 126.6 ≈ 127

Hence, correct answer is option 2.

Question 92

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If company D, the graduated employees are 30% more than the graduated employee in company C and total number of employees in company D is 85% more than the total number of employees in company B. Then find the post graduated employees in company D ? 

  1. AOption (a)

    300

  2. BOption (b)

    250

  3. COption (c)

    358

  4. DOption (d)

    267

  5. EOption (e)

    279

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

279

Why this answer is correct

Let, graduated employee in company A = 3x

And, Post graduated employee in company A = 2x

Graduated employee in company B = 120

Let, post graduated employee in company B = 4y

And, post graduated employee in company C = 5y

So, 5y = 2 ×5/12 × 120 = 100 [41(2/3)% = 5/12]

⇒y = 20

Therefore, post graduated employee in company B = 4 × 20 = 80

Graduated employee in company A = 3x  = 2.5 × 120 = 300

So, x = 100

Therefore, post graduated employee in company A = 2 × 100 = 200

Graduated employee in company C = 1/3 × (300 + 120) / 2 = 70

CompanyGraduatedPost graduated
A300200
B12080
C70100

Total graduated employees in company D = 70 × 130/100 = 91

Total employees in company D = (120 + 80) × 185/100 = 370

So, total post graduated employees in company D = 370 - 91 = 279

Hence, correct answer is option 5.

Question 93

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If 30% of post graduated employees in company A play table tennis and 25% play cricket. Find the number of post graduated employees in company A play football. If the ratio of post graduated employees play football and basketball in company A is 11:7.

  1. AOption (a)

    55

  2. BOption (b)

    40

  3. COption (c)

    64

  4. DOption (d)

    50

  5. EOption (e)

    36

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

55

Why this answer is correct

Let, graduated employee in company A = 3x

And, Post graduated employee in company A = 2x

Graduated employee in company B = 120

Let, post graduated employee in company B = 4y

And, post graduated employee in company C = 5y

So, 5y = 2 ×5/12 × 120 = 100 [41(2/3)% = 5/12]

⇒y = 20

Therefore, post graduated employee in company B = 4 × 20 = 80

Graduated employee in company A = 3x  = 2.5 × 120 = 300

So, x = 100

Therefore, post graduated employee in company A = 2 × 100 = 200

Graduated employee in company C = 1/3 × (300 + 120) / 2 = 70

EmployeeGraduatedPost graduated
A300200
B12080
C70100

Post graduated employees in company A play table tennis = 200 × 30/100 = 60

Post graduated employees in company A play cricket = 200 × 25/100 = 50

So, post graduated employees in company A play football = (200 - 110) / 18 × 11 = 90/18 × 11 = 55

Hence, correct answer is option 1.

Question 94

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find the ratio of number of employees graduated from company C and D together and number of employees post graduated from company A and B together. The total number of employees in company D is 300 and the ratio of the number of employees post graduated from company D and B is 3 : 2.

  1. AOption (a)

    31 : 33

  2. BOption (b)

    22 : 35

  3. COption (c)

    25 : 28

  4. DOption (d)

    33 : 47

  5. EOption (e)

    18 : 35

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

25 : 28

Why this answer is correct

Let, graduated employee in company A = 3x

And, Post graduated employee in company A = 2x

Graduated employee in company B = 120

Let, post graduated employee in company B = 4y

And, post graduated employee in company C = 5y

So, 5y = 2 ×5/12 × 120 = 100 [41(2/3)% = 5/12]

⇒y = 20

Therefore, post graduated employee in company B = 4 × 20 = 80

Graduated employee in company A = 3x  = 2.5 × 120 = 300

So, x = 100

Therefore, post graduated employee in company A = 2 × 100 = 200

Graduated employee in company C = 1/3 × (300 + 120) / 2 = 70

EmployeeGraduatedPost graduated
A300200
B12080
C70100

Post graduated employees in company D = 80/2 × 3 = 120

Graduated employees in company D = 300 - 120 = 180

Total number of employees = 180 + 70 = 250 

Required Ratio = 250 : 280 = 25 : 28

Hence, correct answer is option 3.

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer based on it.

The bar graph represents the percentage of number of mangoes sold and percentage of number of fresh mangoes sold in four months i.e. May, June, July, and August. 

Total number of mangoes sold in all four months = 1080

Total number of mangoes mango sold = Total number of fresh mangoes sold + Total number of rotten mangoes sold.

Question 95

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If seller purchased all mangoes in Rs. 1400 in the month of May. Then seller sold his fresh mango in Rs. 10 for each mango in the month of May. If the seller sold his rotten mango with 60% discount on his actual price for each mango sold. Then find his profit percent in the month of May ?

  1. AOption (a)

    10%

  2. BOption (b)

    12%

  3. COption (c)

    25%

  4. DOption (d)

    8%

  5. EOption (e)

    20%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

8%

Why this answer is correct

Total number of mangoes sold in May = 1080 × 20/100 = 216

Total number of Fresh mangoes sold in May = 216 × 50/100 = 108

Cost price of all mangoes in May = 1400

Selling price of all fresh mangoes sold in May = 108 × 10 = 1080

Selling price of all rotten mango  = 108 × 10 × 40/100 = 432 (Given 60% discount on actual price of each mango)

Total selling price of all mangoes = 1512

Profit = 1512 = 1400 = 112

So, profit% = 112/1400 × 100 = 8%

Hence, correct answer is option 4.

Question 96

A worker works 4 hours per day for the first week, 5 hours per day for the second week, and 6 hours per day for the third and fourth week. If his salary is calculated on the basis of Rs. 100 for every 30 minutes, then the amount he would receive at the end of four weeks is(there is no holiday on any day of the week) -

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 29400

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 29600

  3. COption (c)

    Rs 29450

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 30000

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs. 33220

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 29400

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Rate of salary = ₹100 per 30 mins = ₹200 per hour.

Total hours = (4 hours × 7 days) + (5 hours × 7 days) + (6 hours × 14 days).

Total hours = 28 + 35 + 84 = 147 hours.

Total Amount = 147 × 200 = ₹29400.

∴ The correct answer is ₹29400.

Alternate Method

Given: Salary rate = ₹100 / 30 min; Week 1 = 4 hrs/day; Week 2 = 5 hrs/day; Week 3 & 4 = 6 hrs/day.

Formula: Total Salary = (Total Working Hours) × (Hourly Rate)

⇒ Hourly rate = (100 ÷ 30) × 60 = ₹200/hour

⇒ Total hours = (7 × 4) + (7 × 5) + (14 × 6)

⇒ Total hours = 28 + 35 + 84 = 147 hours

⇒ Total salary = 147 × 200 = ₹29400

∴ The correct answer is ₹29400.

Additional Information

Unitary Method in Salary

Salary is usually calculated by multiplying the Total Work Units (hours/days) by the Rate per Unit.

Work and Wages

Wages are distributed in proportion to the Work Done. If time is constant, wages ∝ Efficiency × Days.

Question 97

An amount of Rs. 15000 is gained after the simple interest at 20 % annum for the 3 years. The simple interest amount is x.

Quantity I: Find simple interest for the (x + 4750) for 3 years at 10% annum.

Quantity II: Compound interest compounded half-yearly at (x + 4375) for 1.5 years at 10% per annum

  1. AOption (a)

    Quantity I > Quantity II

  2. BOption (b)

    Quantity I < Quantity II

  3. COption (c)

    Quantity I = Quantity II or the relationship cannot be established

  4. DOption (d)

    Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

  5. EOption (e)

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Quantity I > Quantity II

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

To find out the principal amount 

SI = Pnr/100

x = (15000 – x) × 20 × 3/100

5x = (45000 – 3x)

8x = 45000

x = 5625

So the principal is (15000 – 5625) = Rs. 9375

Quantity I:

Simple Interest for 3 years at 10 % per annum

SI = (10375 × 3 × 10)/100 = 3112.5

Simple interest for 3 years = 3112.5

Quantity II:

Compound Interest at (x + 4375) 

CI = P( 1+ R/100)3

CI = 10000 [(1+ 5/100)3 – 1]

CI = 10000 × [(213/203) - 1]

CI = 10000[(9261 - 8000)/8000]

CI = Rs 1576.25

Thus, Quantity I > Quantity II

Question 98

What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question?

17.972 × 4.99 ÷ 44.78 + 299.99 ÷ √5624.96 × 12.97 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    71

  2. BOption (b)

    68

  3. COption (c)

    88

  4. DOption (d)

    70

  5. EOption (e)

    None of These

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

88

Why this answer is correct

Concept Used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

17.972 × 4.99 ÷ 44.78 + 299.99 ÷ √5624.96 × 12.97 = ?

⇒ 182 × 5 ÷ 45 + 300 ÷ √5625 × 13 = ?

⇒ 324 × 1 ÷ 9 + 300 ÷ 75 × 13 = ?

⇒ 36 + 4 × 13 = ?

⇒ 36 + 52 = ?

⇒ 88 = ?

∴ Required value of ? is 88.

Question 99

What approximate value should come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

11.11% of 99.17 + 22.22% of 98.87 - 9.89% of 100.12 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    24

  2. BOption (b)

    22

  3. COption (c)

    23

  4. DOption (d)

    33

  5. EOption (e)

    20

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

23

Why this answer is correct

Given:

11.11% of 99.11 + 22.22% of 98.97 – 9.99% of 100 = ?

Concept Used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

Since we need to find out the approximate value, we can write these values to their nearest integers.

11.11% of 99.17 + 22.22% of 98.87 - 9.89% of 100.12 = ?

⇒ 11.11% of 99 + 22.22% of 99 - 10% of 100 = ?

⇒ (1/9) × 99 + (2/9) × 99 - (1/10) × 100 = ?

⇒ 11 + 22  - 10 = ?

⇒ 33 - 10 = ?

⇒ ? = 23

∴ The value of ‘?’ Is 23.

Alternate Method

11.11% of 99 + 22.22% of 99 - 10% of 100 = ?

⇒ (1/9) × 99 + (2/9) × 99 - (1/10) × 100 = ?

⇒ {(1/9) + (2/9)} × 99 - 10 = ?

⇒ (1/3) × 99 - 10 = ?

⇒ 33 - 10 = ?

⇒ ? = 23

∴ The value of ‘?’ Is 23.

Question 100

Find the relation between Quantity 1 and Quantity 2.

Quantity 1. X2−315X+225=0X^2 - 3\frac{1}{5}X + 2\frac{2}{5} = 0

Quantity 2. Y2−216Y+56=0Y^2 - 2\frac{1}{6}Y + \frac{5}{6} = 0

  1. AOption (a)

    Quantity 1 ≥ Quantity 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Quantity 1 < Quantity 2

  3. COption (c)

    Quantity 1 ≤ Quantity 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Quantity 1 = Quantity 2 or No Relation

  5. EOption (e)

    Quantity 1 > Quantity 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Quantity 1 = Quantity 2 or No Relation

Why this answer is correct

Quantity 1 -

X2−315X+225=0X^2 - 3\frac{1}{5}X + 2\frac{2}{5} = 0 

X2 - 16/5X + 12/5 = 0

5X2 - 16X + 12 = 0

5X2 - 10X - 6X + 12 = 0

5X(X - 2) - 6 (X - 2) = 0

X = 2 , 6/5

Quantity 2-

Y2−216Y+56=0Y^2 - 2\frac{1}{6}Y + \frac{5}{6} = 0

Y2 - 13/6Y + 5/6 = 0

6Y2 - 13Y + 5 = 0

6Y2 - 10Y - 3Y + 5 = 0

2Y(3Y - 5) - (3Y - 5) = 0

Y = 1/2, 5/3

So, we can not determine the relation between Quantity 1 and Quantity 2.

Hence, correct answer is option 4.

Question 101

Find the relation between Quantity 1 and Quantity 2.

Quantity 1. 1(1/4)X2 + 3(1/4)X + 2 = 0

Quantity 2. Y2 + 1(1/2)Y + 1/2 = 0

  1. AOption (a)

    Quantity 1 < Quantity 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Quantity 1 ≥ Quantity 2

  3. COption (c)

    Quantity 1 > Quantity 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Quantity 1 ≤ Quantity 2

  5. EOption (e)

    Quantity 1 = Quantity 2 or No Relation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Quantity 1 ≤ Quantity 2

Why this answer is correct

Quantity 1-

1(1/4)X2 + 3(1/4)X + 2 = 0

5/4X2 + 13/4X + 2 = 0

5X2 + 13X + 8 = 0

5X2 + 5X + 8X + 8 = 0

5X(X + 1) + 8(X + 1) = 0

(5X + 8) (X + 1) = 0

X = -8/5 , -1

Quantity 2-

 Y2 + 1(1/2)Y + 1/2 = 0

Y2 + 3/2Y + 1/2 = 0

2Y2 + 3Y + 1 = 0

2Y2 + 2Y + Y + 1 = 0

2Y(Y + 1) + 1(Y + 1) = 0

(2Y + 1)(Y + 1)

Y = -1/2, -1

So, Quantity 1  ≤  Quantity 2

Hence, correct answer is option 4.

Directions- Study the following information carefully and answer based on it.

There are Two missing number series, which follow the same pattern

(a)        232         257       321         330         338

120       (b)          (c)         288         292        293

Question 102

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find the value of (a) ?

  1. AOption (a)

    18

  2. BOption (b)

    16

  3. COption (c)

    22

  4. DOption (d)

    24

  5. EOption (e)

    21

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

16

Why this answer is correct

16(a) + 216 = 232

232 + 25 = 257

257 + 64 = 321

321 + 9 = 330

330 + 8 = 338

So, a = 16

Now, 

120 + 125 = 245

245 + 16 = 261

261 + 27 = 288

288 + 4 = 292

292 + 1 = 293

Hence, correct answer is option 2.

Question 103

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find that which sentence is/are correct ?

  1. The sum of value of (a) and (c) is a prime number.
  2. The value of 2b + c is 750.
  3. Difference of b & 3a is 195.
  1. AOption (a)

    Only statement 1 is correct

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct

  3. COption (c)

    Both Statement 1 & 2 is correct

  4. DOption (d)

    All statement 1, 2 & 3 is correct

  5. EOption (e)

    Only statement 3 is correct

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only statement 1 is correct

Why this answer is correct

16(a) + 216 = 232

232 + 25 = 257

257 + 64 = 321

321 + 9 = 330

330 + 8 = 338

So, a = 16

Now, 

120 + 125 = 245

245 + 16 = 261

261 + 27 = 288

288 + 4 = 292

292 + 1 = 293

Statement 1 - 

a + c = 16 + 261 = 277

277 is a prime number.

So, statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2 -

2b + c = 2 × 245 + 261 = 751.

So, statement 2 is false.

Statement 3 - 

b - 3a = 245 - 48 = 197

So, statement 3 is false.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Question 104

Find the wrong number term from both the number series given -

Series 1 - 70     75     80     90    130    420     5570

Series 2 - 10     37     68    130    222    350    520

  1. AOption (a)

    5570, 10

  2. BOption (b)

    80, 68

  3. COption (c)

    420, 37

  4. DOption (d)

    90, 520

  5. EOption (e)

    70, 232

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

420, 37

Why this answer is correct

Series 1-

Series 2-

10         30          68           130           222              350            520   

      20          38           62             92             128              170

             18           24            30             36                  42

                     6                6               6               6 

Hence, correct answer is option 3.

Question 105

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find the total selling price of all the mangoes sold in the month of August by the seller. The selling price of rotten mangoes is 50% less than the selling price of fresh mangoes. If seller purchase all the mangoes for all four months in Rs. 14364 and his total profit percent in all the mangoes sold for all the four months is 25%.

  1. AOption (a)

    5508

  2. BOption (b)

    8820

  3. COption (c)

    4000

  4. DOption (d)

    5870

  5. EOption (e)

    6690

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5508

Why this answer is correct

Let, Total selling price for all fresh mangoes sold in each month = 2x

And, Total selling price for all rotten mangoes sold in each month = x

Now, Total selling price of all mangoes sold in all four months = (108 × 2x + 108 × x ) + (97.2 × 2x + 64.8 × x ) + (283.5 × 2x + 94.5 × x ) + (226.8 × 2x + 97.2 × x ) 

Total selling price of all mangoes sold in all four months = 1795.5x

Therefore, Total selling price of all mangoes sold in all four months = 14364 × 125/100 = 17955

So, 1795.5x = 17955

x = 10

Total selling price for all fresh mangoes sold in each month = 2x = 20

Total selling price for all rotten mangoes sold in each month = x = 10

So, total selling price for all mangoes sold in the months of August = (226.8 × 20 + 97.2 × 10 ) = 5508

Hence, correct answer is option 1.

Question 106

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find the ratio of Total number of rotten mangoes sold in the month of May and July together and total fresh mangoes sold in the month of June and August together ?

  1. AOption (a)

    405 : 548

  2. BOption (b)

    413 : 617

  3. COption (c)

    405 : 648

  4. DOption (d)

    548 : 413

  5. EOption (e)

    413 : 648

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

405 : 648

Why this answer is correct

Total number of rotten mangoes sold in the month of May and July = (1080 × 20/100 × 50/100 ) + (1080 × 35/100 × 25/100) = 108 + 94.5 = 202.5

Total number of fresh mangoes sold in the month of June and August = (1080 × 15/100 × 60/100 ) + (1080 × 30/100 × 70/100) = 97.2 + 226.8 = 324

So, required ratio = 202.5 : 324 = 405 : 648.

Hence, correct answer is option 3.

Question 107

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The cost price of all mangoes sold in the month of June is 1200 and seller markup the price of all the mangoes sold in the month of June is 50%, then the seller gave two successive discount percentage of 10% and 20%. If the selling price of all the fresh mangoes sold in the month of June is 972 then find the selling price of each rotten mango sold in the month of June ?

  1. AOption (a)

    10

  2. BOption (b)

    7

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    6

  5. EOption (e)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

5

Why this answer is correct

Total mangoes sold in June = 1080 × 15/100 = 162

Rotten mangoes sold in June = 162 × 40/100 = 64.8

CP of all the mangoes sold in June = ₹1200

MP of all the mangoes sold in June = 1200 × 150/100 = ₹1800

SP of all the mangoes sold in June  = 1800 × 90/100 × 80/100 = ₹1296

SP of rotten mangoes sold in June = 1296 - 972 = ₹324

SP of each rotten mango sold in June = 324 ÷ 64.8 = ₹5

Hence, correct answer is option 3.

Question 108

A shopkeeper purchased an article at a 20% discount from the marked price for her wholesale purchase; if he purchased it individually, there is only a 10% discount. The difference between the two discounts is Rs. 45. The total purchase price for two types of sugar, sugar A and sugar B is equal to the marked price of the article.

Quantity I: If the shopkeeper purchased 10 kg of Sugar A for Rs 35/kg and ‘x’ kg of Sugar B for Rs 20/kg. What is the value of ‘x’.

Quantity II: If the price of the marked price is increased by 20%, then find how many kg of sugar (A and B) he purchased for Rs. 50/kg.

  1. AOption (a)

    Quantity I < Quantity II

  2. BOption (b)

    Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

  3. COption (c)

    Quantity I > Quantity II

  4. DOption (d)

    Quantity I = Quantity II or the relationship cannot be established

  5. EOption (e)

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Quantity I < Quantity II

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Quantity I:

Difference between 20% discount and 10% is 45

Therefore, 100% as the marked price and the difference between 20% and 10 % is 45

So

90% - 80% = 45

10% = 45

100% = 450

Then the marked price = Rs. 450

Quantity I:

Sugar A is purchased for 35 × 10 = 350

Then there is the remaining = 450 – 350 = Rs. 100 

For x = 100/20 = 5 kg of sugar, B is purchased

Quantity II:

The, marked price is increased by 20% then the amount is 540

Price of the sugar (A + B) = Rs.  50

Then in 540/50 = 10.8 kg purchased

Thus, Quantity I < Quantity II

Question 109

What approximate value will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

9.99% of 29.906 + 299.84% of 54.908 – 49.86% of 149.59 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    98

  2. BOption (b)

    68

  3. COption (c)

    58

  4. DOption (d)

    88

  5. EOption (e)

    93

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

93

Why this answer is correct

Given:

​9.99% of 29.906 + 299.84% of 54.908 – 59.86% of 149.59 = ?

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

​9.99% of 29.906 + 299.84% of 54.908 – 49.86% of 149.59 = ?

⇒ ​10% of 30 + 300% of 55 – 50% of 150 = ?

⇒ ​(10/100) × 30 + (300/100) × 55 – (50/100) × 150 = ?

⇒ 3 + 165 – 75 = ?

⇒ ? = 93

∴ The value of ? is 93.

Question 110

What approximate will come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

5.78% of 799.94 + ?% of 9.67 = 10.94 × 2.99 + √100 × 2.98

  1. AOption (a)

    600

  2. BOption (b)

    150

  3. COption (c)

    580

  4. DOption (d)

    610

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

150

Why this answer is correct

Given:

5.78% of 799.94 + ?% of 9.67 = 10.94 × 2.99 + √100 × 2.98

Concept used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

5.78% of 799.94 + ?% of 9.67 = 10.94 × 2.99 + √100 × 2.98

⇒ 6% of 800 + ?% of 10 = 11 × 3 + √100 × 3

⇒ (6/100) × 800 + (?/100) × 10 = 33 + 10 × 3

⇒ 48 + (?/10) = 33 + 30

⇒ 48 + (?/10) = 63

⇒ (?/10) = 63 - 48 

⇒ (?/10) = 15 

⇒ ? = 15 × 10 = 150

∴ The value of ? is 150.

Question 111

What approximate value should come in the place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following question?

728.821/3 + √1155.98 + 6.142 ÷ 2.992 + 1.970 = √?

  1. AOption (a)

    7

  2. BOption (b)

    49

  3. COption (c)

    343

  4. DOption (d)

    2401

  5. EOption (e)

    98

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2401

Why this answer is correct

Given:

728.921/3 + √1155.78 + 6.042 ÷ 2.962 + 1.990 = √?

Concept Used:

Follow the BODMAS rule according to the table given below:

Calculation:

Since we need to find out the approximate value, we can write these values to their nearest integers.

728.821/3 + √1155.98 + 6.142 ÷ 2.992 + 1.970 = √?

⇒ ∛729 + √1156 + 62 ÷ 32 + 2 = √?

⇒ 9 + 34 + 36/9 + 2 = √?

⇒ 9 + 34 + 4 + 2 = √?

⇒ √? = 49

⇒ ? = 492

⇒ ? = 2401

∴ The value of ‘?’ Is 2401.

Question 112

Quantity I: In class A ratio of number of boys and girls are on the ratio 5: 4.If 20% of the boys and 25% of the girls were removed respectively, and 20 boys were added then the ratio of number of boys to number of girls in the ratio 2: 1. Find the total number of students in class A initially.

Quantity II: In class B the number of boys in class B is x and the number of girls in the class is (x - 20). The average weight of the boys and girls is 50 kg and 20 kg respectively. Then the average weight of the whole class is 37.5 kg. Find the Total number of students in Class B

  1. AOption (a)

    Quantity I > Quantity II

  2. BOption (b)

    Quantity I < Quantity II

  3. COption (c)

    Quantity I = Quantity II or the relationship cannot be established

  4. DOption (d)

    Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

  5. EOption (e)

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Quantity I < Quantity II

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Quantity I:

Number of boys in the class A = 5x

Number of girls in the class B = 4x

If 20% of boys and 25%of the girls were removed and 20 more boys were added 

To find the number of students in the class A

[5x - 5x × (20/100) + 20]/[4x - 4x × 25/100] = 2/1

(4x + 20)/(3x) = 2/1

(4x + 20) = 6x

2x = 20

x = 10

Total number of boys and girls in the class = (9)×  10 = 90

Quantity II:

Number of boys in the class B = x

Number of girls in the class B = (x - 20) 

To find the value of x

[(x × 50) + (20 × (x - 20))]/(x + x - 20) = 37.5

[50x + 20x - 400] =  [75x - 750]

[70x - 400] = [75x - 750]

-5x = - 350

x = 70

Total number of students in the class = 70 + 50 = 120

Thus, Quantity I < Quantity II

Question 113

Average score of three persons A, B and C is y. If Score of A is 10 less than B and 5 less than  that of C. If the average score of person A and D is (y + 10). If the Score of D is 65, find the average score of B and A.

  1. AOption (a)

    30

  2. BOption (b)

    40

  3. COption (c)

    35

  4. DOption (d)

    45

  5. EOption (e)

    50

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

40

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Given Average(A, D) = y + 10 and D = 65 ⇒ A + 65 = 2y + 20 ⇒ A = 2y − 45.

From Average(A, B, C) = y: A + (A + 10) + (A + 5) = 3y ⇒ 3A + 15 = 3y ⇒ A + 5 = y.

Equating A: y − 5 = 2y − 45 ⇒ y = 40 ∴ A = 35, B = 45.

Average of B and A = (45 + 35) ÷ 2 = 40.

∴ The correct answer is 40.

Alternate Method

Given: Score of A = x, then B = x + 10 and C = x + 5.

Formula: Average = Sum of observations ÷ Number of observations

⇒ Average(A, B, C) = (x + x + 10 + x + 5) ÷ 3 = y

⇒ 3x + 15 = 3y ⇒ x + 5 = y --- (Eq 1)

⇒ Average(A, D) = (x + 65) ÷ 2 = y + 10

⇒ x + 65 = 2y + 20 ⇒ x − 2y = −45 --- (Eq 2)

⇒ Substitute y = x + 5 in Eq 2: x − 2(x + 5) = −45

⇒ x − 2x − 10 = −45 ⇒ −x = −35 ⇒ x = 35

⇒ A = 35 and B = 35 + 10 = 45

⇒ Average(B, A) = (45 + 35) ÷ 2 = 80 ÷ 2 = 40

∴ The correct answer is 40.

Additional Information

Weighted Average

When two groups with averages A1 and A2 and sizes n1 and n2 are combined, the new average is (n1A1 + n2A2) ÷ (n1 + n2).

Net Deviation Method

The sum of deviations of all observations from their mean is always zero. This helps in finding missing values quickly.

Question 114

A can fill the tank in 6 minutes, B can fill the tank in 12 minutes C is emptying pipe whose efficiency is 80% of the efficiency of the Pipe B. If all the (A + B + C) are opened for 4 minutes, then pipe C alone is opened for x minutes, after that the remaining tank will be filled by A and B in 4 minutes. find the value of x.

  1. AOption (a)

    9 minutes

  2. BOption (b)

    11 minutes

  3. COption (c)

    13 minutes

  4. DOption (d)

    12 minutes

  5. EOption (e)

    6 minutes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

11 minutes

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let Total Work (Capacity) = 12 units (LCM of 6 and 12).

Efficiency: A = 2, B = 1, C = 0.8 × 1 = 0.8 (emptying → −0.8).

Net Work: (A+B+C) × 4 + (−C) × x + (A+B) × 4 = 12.

⇒ (2+1−0.8) × 4 − 0.8x + (2+1) × 4 = 12 ⇒ 8.8 − 0.8x + 12 = 12.

⇒ 0.8x = 8.8 ⇒ x = 11.

∴ The correct answer is 11 min.

Alternate Method

Given: Time for Pipe A = 6 min, Pipe B = 12 min. Pipe C efficiency = 80% of Pipe B.

PersonDaysTotal WorkEfficiency
Pipe A612 units2
Pipe B121

Calculations:

⇒ Efficiency of Pipe C (emptying) = 80% of 1 = 0.8 units/min.

⇒ Total work done by (A + B + C) in 4 minutes = (2 + 1 − 0.8) × 4 = 2.2 × 4 = 8.8 units.

⇒ Total work done by (A + B) in the last 4 minutes = (2 + 1) × 4 = 12 units.

⇒ Since total capacity is 12 units, the equation for the whole process is:

⇒ 8.8 − (0.8 × x) + 12 = 12

⇒ 8.8 − 0.8x = 0

⇒ 0.8x = 8.8

⇒ x = 8.8 ÷ 0.8 = 11

∴ The correct answer is 11 min.

Additional Information

Pipes & Cisterns Efficiency

Efficiency is inversely proportional to time. If an emptying pipe is present, its efficiency is taken as negative in calculations.

Total Work Calculation

Total work is generally assumed to be the LCM of the individual times taken by the pipes to fill or empty the tank.

Combined Rate Rule

When multiple pipes work together, the net rate is the algebraic sum of their individual efficiencies (Filling = +, Emptying = −).

Question 115

​ The length of the train is x meter and the platform is 3x if the train can cover the platform running at the speed of 20m/s and can cross the platform in 48 seconds. The other train covers the 1.5x length of the train running at the speed of 108kmph and crosses the platform of length y meter in 20 seconds. Find the value of (x + y).

  1. AOption (a)

    440m

  2. BOption (b)

    480m

  3. COption (c)

    540m

  4. DOption (d)

    520m

  5. EOption (e)

    420m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

480m

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total distance for first train = x + 3x = 4x.

4x = Speed × Time ⇒ 4x = 20 × 48 ⇒ 4x = 960 ⇒ x = 240 m.

Second train speed = 108 × 5/18 = 30 m/s. Length = 1.5 × 240 = 360 m.

Distance for second train = 360 + y = 30 × 20 = 600 ⇒ y = 240 m.

Value of (x + y) = 240 + 240 = 480 m.

∴ The correct answer is 480 m.

Alternate Method

Given:

Length of first train = x, Length of platform = 3x.

Speed of first train = 20 m/s, Time = 48 s.

Length of second train = 1.5x, Speed = 108 kmph, Time = 20 s.

Calculations:

⇒ Total distance in Case 1 = x + 3x = 4x

⇒ 4x = 20 × 48 = 960

⇒ x = 960 ÷ 4 = 240 m

⇒ Speed of second train in m/s = 108 × (5/18) = 30 m/s

⇒ Length of second train = 1.5 × 240 = 360 m

⇒ Total distance in Case 2 = 360 + y = 30 × 20

⇒ 360 + y = 600

⇒ y = 600 − 360 = 240 m

⇒ (x + y) = 240 + 240 = 480 m

∴ The correct answer is 480 m.

Additional Information

Crossing Stationary Objects

When a train crosses a platform or another stationary train, the total distance covered is the sum of the length of the train and the length of the object.

Unit Conversion

To convert speed from kmph to m/s, multiply by 5/18. To convert m/s to kmph, multiply by 18/5.

Relative Speed

If two objects move in the opposite direction, relative speed is the sum (S1 + S2); in the same direction, it is the difference |S1 − S2|.

Question 116

The cost price of an article is Rs.550 and marked up by X% above its cost price. The shopkeeper also allowed a discount of 30% on marked price and earned a profit of 12%. If the cost price of another article is Rs. (X + 450) and the shopkeeper suffered a loss of 20% on it, then find the selling price of the new article.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 416

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 408

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 442

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 412

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs. 444

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs. 408

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Relation between Marked Price (MP) and Cost Price (CP): MP÷CP = (100 + Profit%)÷(100 − Discount%).

MP÷CP = (100 + 12)÷(100 − 30) = 112÷70 = 8÷5.

Markup % (X) = (8 − 5)÷5 × 100 = 3÷5 × 100 = 60%.

New CP = X + 450 = 60 + 450 = Rs. 510.

New SP = 510 × (100 − 20)÷100 = 510 × 0.8 = Rs. 408.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 408.

Alternate Method

Given → CP1 = Rs. 550, Profit = 12%, Discount = 30%, Loss = 20%. Formulas: SP = CP × (100 + P%)÷100 | MP = SP × 100÷(100 − D%) | Markup % = (MP − CP)÷CP × 100.

⇒ First Selling Price (SP1) = 550 × 112÷100 = Rs. 616. ⇒ Marked Price (MP) = 616 × 100÷(100 − 30) = 616 × 100÷70 = Rs. 880. ⇒ Markup Value = MP − CP1 = 880 − 550 = Rs. 330. ⇒ X% = (330÷550) × 100 = 60%, so X = 60. ⇒ New Cost Price (CP2) = X + 450 = 60 + 450 = Rs. 510. ⇒ New Selling Price (SP2) = 510 × (100 − 20)÷100 = 510 × 80÷100 = Rs. 408.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 408.

Additional Information

Marked Price & Markup

Marked price is the price displayed on the tag. Markup = MP − CP. Markup % = (Markup ÷ CP) × 100.

Relationship Formula

The ratio of MP to CP can be directly found using CP × (100 + P%) = MP × (100 − D%).

The table given below shows the Cost price, Discount percent and Profit percent for sellers A, B, C and D selling different articles.

Name of sellersCost Price (Rs.)Discount PercentageProfit Percentage
A450010%30%
B-20%40%
C4000-20%
D--25%

Question 117

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

 If the profit amount of article A is increased by Rs. 50.Find the approximate change in the Marked price of the article A.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 56

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 54

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 52

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs . 60

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs. 62

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 56

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Selling price of the article = 4500 × (130/100) = Rs.5850

Marked price of the article = (5850/90) × 100 = 6500

Profit amount of the article = (5850 - 4500) = Rs.1350

New profit amount of the article = (1350 + 50) = 1400

New selling price = (4500 + 1400) = 5900

New marked price = 5900/90 ×  100 = 6555.556 = ~ 6556 

So required change = (6556 - 6500) = Rs. 56

Question 118

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the marked price of the article E is the same as the selling price of the article C. Discount percent of the article E is 25% which is sold at  20% profit. Find the CP of article E.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 3300

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 3500

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 3000

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 3200

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs. 3700

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs. 3000

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Cost price of article C = 4000

Selling price of article C = 4000 × (120/100) = 4800

Marked price of article E = 4800

Selling price of article E = 4800 × (100 - 25)/100 = 3600

To find the cost price of the article E = (3600/120) × 100 = 3000

Question 119

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the ratio between the cost price of article B and D are in the ratio 25: 24 and the difference between the selling price of article B and D is Rs. 1000. Find the ratio between the marked price of article B and D.If the discount percentage of article D is 25%.

  1. AOption (a)

    31: 38

  2. BOption (b)

    35: 39

  3. COption (c)

    33: 37

  4. DOption (d)

    35: 32

  5. EOption (e)

    32: 29

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

35: 32

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Cost price of article B and D are in the ratio 25x: 24x

Profit percentage of article B and D is 40% and 25% respectively

Selling price of article B  = 25x × (140/100) = 35x

Selling price of article D = 24x × (125/100) = 30x

(35x - 30x) = 1000

5x = 1000

x = 200

Selling price of article B = 35 × 200 = 7000

Selling price of article D = 30 × 200 = 6000

Marked price of the article B = (7000/80) × 100 = 8750

Marked price of the article D = (6000/75) × 100 = 8000

Required ratio = 8750: 8000 = 35: 32

Question 120

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the selling price of the article C is increased by Rs.200 and the profit percentage of the article C is the same as the discount percentage, find the marked price of the article 

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 5750.50

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 6250

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 6666.66

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 5500.25

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs. 5250

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rs. 6666.66

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Cost price of the article C = 4000

Selling price of the article  4000 × (120/100) = 4800

New selling price of the article C = (4800 + 200) = 5000 

Now, the profit percentage = (5000 - 4000)/4000 x 100 = 25%

If the discount percentage and the profit percentage of the article C is same, then the discount percentage of the article = 25%

Marked price of the article = (5000)/75 × 100 = Rs.6666.66

Question 121

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If another seller E sold his article at Rs. 3450 after giving a discount of 25% on the marked price, then find the cost price of the article sold by D if the marked prices of the articles sold by E and D are the same and the discount percentage of article D is 20%.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs.2555

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs.2944

  3. COption (c)

    Rs.2849

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs.2756

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs. 2744

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs.2944

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Let the selling price of the article E = Rs. 3450

Marked price of the article E =  (3450/75) × 100 = Rs. 4600

If the marked price of the article E is same as the marked price of article D

To find the selling price of the article D = 4600 × (80/100) = Rs.3680

Profit percentage of the article D = 25%

Cost price of the article = (3680/125) × 100 = Rs.2944

Question 122

78 litres of mixture containing milk and water are in the ratio 10: 3. If 26 litres of mixture is removed and 8 litres of water is added and now 12 litres of mixture is removed then find the final quantity of milk in the vessel.

  1. AOption (a)

    32 litres

  2. BOption (b)

    43 litres

  3. COption (c)

    34 litres

  4. DOption (d)

    28 itres

  5. EOption (e)

    24 litres

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

32 litres

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Initial Milk = 78 × (10/13) = 60 litres; Water = 18 litres.

After removing 26 L, Milk left = 60 − (26 × 10/13) = 40 litres; Water left = 18 − 6 = 12 litres.

Add 8 L Water → New Ratio (40 : 20) = 2 : 1. Total mixture = 60 litres.

Final 12 L removal → Milk removed = 12 × (2/3) = 8 litres.

Final Milk = 40 − 8 = 32 litres.

∴ The correct answer is 32 litres.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial Volume = 78 L, Ratio M:W = 10:3.

⇒ Step 1: Initial Milk = (10/13) × 78 = 60 L, Initial Water = (3/13) × 78 = 18 L.

⇒ Step 2: Mixture removed = 26 L. Remaining mixture = 78 − 26 = 52 L.

⇒ Step 3: Milk in 52 L = (10/13) × 52 = 40 L, Water in 52 L = (3/13) × 52 = 12 L.

⇒ Step 4: 8 L Water added. New Water = 12 + 8 = 20 L. Milk = 40 L. Total = 60 L.

⇒ Step 5: New Ratio M:W = 40:20 = 2:1.

⇒ Step 6: 12 L mixture removed. Milk removed = (2/3) × 12 = 8 L.

⇒ Step 7: Final Milk = 40 − 8 = 32 L.

∴ The correct answer is 32 litres.

Additional Information

Removal of Mixture Property

When a portion of a mixture is removed, the ratio of the components in the remaining mixture and the removed portion remains the same as the initial ratio.

Replacement Method

For successive replacements of the same volume 'x' from total volume 'V', the final quantity of original liquid = Initial × (1 − x/V)n.

Question 123

A invests Rs. x for t years at 10% p.a S.I. and B invests Rs.(x+500) for 2t years at 12% p.a S.I. 2.4 times of the interest earned by A is Rs.480 less than the interest earned by B. Find the value of t.

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    3.5

  4. DOption (d)

    4

  5. EOption (e)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Interest A = (x × 10 × t)/100 = 0.1xt

Interest B = ((x + 500) × 12 × 2t)/100 = 0.24t(x + 500) = 0.24xt + 120t

Given: 2.4 × Interest A = Interest B − 480

2.4(0.1xt) = 0.24xt + 120t − 480 ⇒ 0.24xt = 0.24xt + 120t − 480

120t = 480 ⇒ t = 4 years

∴ The correct answer is 4 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Principal A = x, Rate A = 10%, Time A = t

Principal B = x + 500, Rate B = 12%, Time B = 2t

Formula Used:

Simple Interest (S.I.) = (P × R × T) ÷ 100

Calculations:

⇒ S.I.A = (x × 10 × t) / 100 = xt/10

⇒ S.I.B = ((x + 500) × 12 × 2t) / 100 = (x + 500) × 24t / 100

⇒ According to the question: 2.4 × (xt/10) = [(x + 500) × 24t / 100] − 480

⇒ 0.24xt = [24xt / 100 + 12000t / 100] − 480

⇒ 0.24xt = 0.24xt + 120t − 480

⇒ 480 = 120t

⇒ t = 480 / 120 = 4

∴ The correct answer is 4 years.

Additional Information

Simple Interest vs Compound Interest

Simple Interest is calculated only on the principal amount, while Compound Interest is calculated on the principal plus accumulated interest. Difference for 2 years = P(R/100)2.

Effective Rate of Interest

In Simple Interest, the effective rate for 't' years is simply (R × t)%. This allows for direct linear comparison between different investment schemes.

Question 124

The time taken by a boat to cover (D + 3) km downstream is 25% less than the time taken by it to cover D km upstream. If the time taken by the same boat to cover (2D - 8) km downstream is 33.33% more the time taken by it to cover D km upstream. Find the value of D.

  1. AOption (a)

    50km

  2. BOption (b)

    60km

  3. COption (c)

    75km

  4. DOption (d)

    65km

  5. EOption (e)

    55km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

60km

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Let downstream speed be vd and upstream speed be vu.

Ratio of times: (D + 3)/vd : D/vu = 3 : 4 ⇒ vd/vu = 4(D + 3) / 3D

Ratio of times: (2D − 8)/vd : D/vu = 4 : 3 ⇒ vd/vu = 3(2D − 8) / 4D

Equating ratios: 4(D + 3) / 3D = 3(2D − 8) / 4D ⇒ 16D + 48 = 18D − 72

2D = 120 ⇒ D = 60.

∴ The correct answer is 60 km.

Alternate Method

Given: Downstream distance 1 = (D + 3) km, Upstream distance 1 = D km. Downstream distance 2 = (2D − 8) km, Upstream distance 2 = D km.

Formula: Time = Distance ÷ Speed

⇒ Td1 = 0.75 × Tu1 (25% less time)

⇒ (D + 3)/vd = (3/4) × (D/vu) ⇒ vd/vu = 4(D + 3)/3D --- (Eq 1)

⇒ Td2 = 1.3333 × Tu1 (33.33% more time)

⇒ (2D − 8)/vd = (4/3) × (D/vu) ⇒ vd/vu = 3(2D − 8)/4D --- (Eq 2)

⇒ From (Eq 1) and (Eq 2): 4(D + 3)/3D = 3(2D − 8)/4D

⇒ 16(D + 3) = 9(2D − 8)

⇒ 16D + 48 = 18D − 72

⇒ 2D = 120 ⇒ D = 60 km.

∴ The correct answer is 60 km.

Additional Information

Relative Speed in Water

Downstream speed (vd) = u + v and Upstream speed (vu) = u − v, where u is boat speed in still water and v is stream speed.

Time-Distance Relationship

For a constant speed, time is directly proportional to distance (T ∝ D). For constant distance, speed is inversely proportional to time (V ∝ 1/T).

Percentage to Fraction Conversion

25% less = 1 − 1/4 = 3/4 of the value. 33.33% more = 1 + 1/3 = 4/3 of the value.

Question 125

There are two cars A  and B traveling at the speed in the ratio 4x: 5x . If Car A starts at 8 am and Car B at 9 am respectively. Car B catches Car A after t hours. If Car C travles for the t hours at the speed of 200/t kmph, find  the speed of the Car C.

  1. AOption (a)

    30 kmph

  2. BOption (b)

    60 kmph

  3. COption (c)

    50 kmph

  4. DOption (d)

    55 kmph

  5. EOption (e)

    35 kmph

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

50 kmph

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Speed ratio of Car A and Car B = 4 : 5.

Since Car A starts 1 hour early, it covers 4x distance before Car B starts.

Relative speed of Car B with respect to Car A = 5x − 4x = x.

Time t to catch Car A = 4x ÷ x = 4 hours.

Speed of Car C = 200 ÷ t = 200 ÷ 4 = 50 kmph.

∴ The correct answer is 50 kmph.

Alternate Method

Given: Speed of Car A = 4x, Speed of Car B = 5x. Car A starts at 8 am, Car B starts at 9 am.

Formula Used: Time = Distance ÷ Relative Speed; Distance = Speed × Time.

⇒ Distance covered by Car A in 1 hour (8 am to 9 am) = 4x × 1 = 4x km.

⇒ Relative speed of Car B relative to Car A = 5x − 4x = x kmph.

⇒ Time taken by Car B to catch Car A (t) = Initial Distance ÷ Relative Speed.

⇒ t = 4x ÷ x = 4 hours.

⇒ Given Speed of Car C = 200 ÷ t kmph.

⇒ Speed of Car C = 200 ÷ 4 = 50 kmph.

∴ The correct answer is 50 kmph.

Additional Information

Relative Speed

When two objects move in the same direction, relative speed = S1 − S2. When they move in opposite directions, relative speed = S1 + S2.

Meeting Time

Time to catch or meet = (Initial Distance between objects) ÷ (Relative Speed).

Average Speed

If a certain distance is covered at speed 'a' and the same distance at speed 'b', Average Speed = 2ab ÷ (a + b).

Question 126

Average of the five consecutive odd numbers of Set A is (P + 9) and the average of the five consecutive even numbers of Set B is (P - 30).

Quantity I: Find the difference between the first odd number of Set A and first even number of set B?

Quantity II: If the sum of the largest numbers of Set A and B together is 147 then find 6 more than the 40% of value of P?

  1. AOption (a)

    Quantity I > Quantity II

  2. BOption (b)

    Quantity I < Quantity II

  3. COption (c)

    Quantity I = Quantity II or the relationship cannot be established

  4. DOption (d)

    Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

  5. EOption (e)

    Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Quantity I > Quantity II

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

From the statements ‘Average of the five consecutive odd number of Set A is (P + 9) and the average of the five consecutive even numbers of Set B is (P - 30)’

Let the five consecutive odd number of Set A are x, (x + 2), (x + 4), (x + 6), (x + 8)

Let the five consecutive even number of Set B are y, (y + 2), (y + 4), (y + 6), (y + 8)

For Set A:

[x + (x + 2) + (x + 4) + (x + 6) + (x + 8)]/5 = (P + 9)

[5x + 20]/5 = (P + 9)

x + 4 = (P + 9)

x – 5 = P ----- (1)

For Set B:

[y + (y + 2) + (y + 4) + (y + 6) + (y + 8)]/5 = (P - 30)

[5y + 20]/5 = (P - 30)

y + 4 = (P - 30)

y + 34 = P ----- (2)

Quantity I: Find the difference between the first odd number of Set A and first even number of set B?

From (1) and (2)

x – 5 = y + 34

x – y = 39

Then the required answer is 39.

Quantity II: If the sum of the largest numbers of Set A and B together is 147 then find 6 more than the 40% of value of P?

(x + 8) + (y + 8) = 147

x + y = 131 ----- (3)

From (1) and (2)

x – 5 = y + 34

x – y = 39 ----- (4)

From (3) and (4)

2x = 131 + 39

2x = 170

x = 85

Then the average of Set A is (x + 4) = (85 + 4) = 89

(P + 9) = 89

P = 80

Then “6 more than the 40% of value of P”

= 40% of P + 6

= 40% of 80 + 6

= 32 + 6

= 38

From quantities we can conclude that the answer is  Quantity I > Quantity II

Directions: The below pie chart 1 shows the percentage distribution of the number of persons vaccinated dose 1 only and pie chart 2 shows the percentage distribution of the number of persons vaccinated dose 1 then dose 2 respectively.

Total number of persons vaccinated dose 1 only = 5x

 

Total number of persons vaccinated dose 1 and dose 2 = 3x

 

Question 127

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

 If the number of persons not vaccinated dose 2 after taking the first dosein city A and the number of persons vaccinated dose 1 and dose 2 in city A are in the ratio is 19 : 36. 33.33% of the number of persons who vaccinated dose 1 and dose 2 in city A is 72. Find the number of persons who vaccinated dose 1 in city C.

  1. AOption (a)

    300

  2. BOption (b)

    210

  3. COption (c)

    240

  4. DOption (d)

    190

  5. EOption (e)

    170

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

300

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

33.33% of the number of persons who vaccinated dose 1 and dose 2 in City A = 72

100% of the number of persons who vaccinated dose 1 and dose 2 in City A = 72 × 3 = 216

Number of persons not vaccinated dose 2 in City A = (216/36) × 19 = 114

Number of persons who vaccinated dose 1 in City A = (216 + 114) = 330

Total number of persons vaccinated dose 1 only in all the City = (330/22) × 100 = 1500

Number of persons vaccinated dose 1 only in City C = 1500 × (20/100) = 300

Question 128

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the number of persons who got vaccinated in dose 1 only in City C is 25% are children and remaining numbers are adults (Male + Female) .If number of males got vaccinated dose 1 only is 100 more than that of females in the same city C and the number of children who got dose 1 only in City C is 100. Find the number of males who got vaccinated dose 1 only.

  1. AOption (a)

    220

  2. BOption (b)

    160

  3. COption (c)

    200

  4. DOption (d)

    150

  5. EOption (e)

    120

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

200

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

If the total number of persons in the city C = 5x × ( 20/100) = x

25% of the number of persons who got vaccinated dose 1 only in city C are children 

x × (25/100) = 0.25x

0.25x = 100

x = 400

Total male and females vaccinated = (400 - 100) = 300

Total male vaccinated is 100 more than that of females 

Number of males vaccinated dose 1 only in City C = (300 + 100)/2 = 200

Question 129

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

 If the difference between the total number of persons who got vaccinated dose 1 only in all the cities and the total number of persons who got vaccinated both dose 1 and dose 2 in all the cities is 1600. And the number of persons who got vaccinated dose 1 only and not dose 2 in City D is 540 more than the number of males who got vaccinated dose 1 only in City C and the remaining are females. Find the number of females who got vaccinated dose 1 only in city C

  1. AOption (a)

    300

  2. BOption (b)

    320

  3. COption (c)

    250

  4. DOption (d)

    220

  5. EOption (e)

    270

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

300

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

If the difference between total number of persons who got vaccinated dose 1 and total number of persons who got vaccinated dose 1 and dose 2 is 1600. 

To find the value of x 

5x - 3x = 1600

2x = 1600

x = 800

Total number of persons who got vaccinated dose 1 only = 5 × 800 = 4000

Total number of persons who got vaccinated dose 1 and dose 2 = 3 ×  800 = 2400

Number of persons who got vaccinated dose 1 only in city D = 4000 ×  (26/100) = 1040

So, number of males got vaccinated dose 1 only in City C = 1040 - 540 = 500

Total number of persons vaccinated dose 1 only in City C = 20/100 × (4000) = 800

Number of females got vaccinated dose 1 only in City C = (800 - 500) = 300

Question 130

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the number of persons in City B who got vaccinated dose 1 only is 800. And the ratio between the number of males to females who got dose 1 and dose 2 from City B are in the ratio 3: 2. Number of males who got vaccinated for both dose 1 and 2 is 176 less than the number of males who got dose 1 only. Find the number of females who got dose 1 only.

  1. AOption (a)

    250

  2. BOption (b)

    300

  3. COption (c)

    350

  4. DOption (d)

    400

  5. EOption (e)

    325

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

300

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Number of persons in City B who got dose 1 only = 800

Total number of persons who got dose 1 in all the city = 800/32 ×  100 = 2500

Number of persons who got vaccinated dose 1 and dose 2 in all the cities = 2500/5 ×  3 = 1500

Number of persons who got vaccinated dose 1 and dose 2 from City B = 1500 ×  36/100 = 540

Number of males who got vaccinated  dose 1 and dose 2 from City B = 540/5 ×  3 = 324

Number of males got vaccinated dose 1 only = (324 + 176) = 500

Number of females got vaccinated dose 1 only = (800 - 500) = 300

Question 131

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Number of males to females who got vaccinated from city D are in the ratio 7: 6 and the total number of persons vaccinated in both dose 1 and dose 2 is 1200. If the number of females vaccinated dose 1 only is 50 more than that of both dose 1 and dose 2. Find the ratio between the males and females who got vaccinated dose 1 and dose 2.

  1. AOption (a)

    77: 97

  2. BOption (b)

    73: 95

  3. COption (c)

    71: 83

  4. DOption (d)

    77: 91

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

73: 95

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

The total number of persons vaccinated in both dose 1 and dose 2 is 1200

Total number of persons vaccinated dose 1 only = (1200/3 × 5) = 2000

Number of persons who got vaccinated dose 1 in city D = 2000 ×  (26/100) = 520

Number of males who got vaccinated dose 1 in city D = 520/13 × 7 = 280

Number of females got vaccinated dose 1 in city D = (520 - 280) = 240

Number of persons got vaccinated dose 1 and dose 2 = 1200 ×  (28/100) = 336

Number of females got vaccinated dose 1 and dose 2 = 240 - 50 = 190

Number of males got vaccinated dose 1 and dose 2 = (336 - 190) = 146

Required ratio = 73: 95

Directions: The given missing values in the table shows the information about ticket prices of four different airlines booking companies.

Booking CompanyBase Price (Rs.)Convenience fee (Rs.)Cancellation amount (Rs.)
A5000-2000
B60001200-
C-18002200
D4500-2700

Note: 

  1. Each company charges 18% GST on its respective base prices.

  2. Total price of a ticket = Base price + 18% GST on the base price + Convenience fee

  3. Amount returned in case of cancellation = Total price of a ticket - Cancellation amount deducted.

Question 132

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If a person booked his air ticket from company A and then he cancelled his ticket and got Rs.5100 as return amount. Find the convenience fee of a ticket booked from company A.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 1200

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 1300

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 1100

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 2000

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs. 1500

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rs. 1200

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Amount returned in case of cancellation = Total price of a ticket - Cancellation amount deducted.

5100 = Total price of a ticket - 2000

Total price of a ticket = 7100

Total price of a ticket = Base price + 18% GST on the base price + Convenience fee

7100 = 5000 × (118/100) + x 

x = (7100 - 5900) = Rs.1200

Question 133

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

 If the cancellation deducted amount of company C would have been Rs.3418 instead of Rs.2200 (All other data remain the same), then a person who cancelled his ticket booked from company C got 20% less return as compared to the original return. Then find the base price of a ticket booked from company C.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 5700

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 5500

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 6500

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 5200

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs. 4800

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs. 5500

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Let the base price be 100x

Convenience price = 1800

Cancellation amount = 2200

118x + 1800 - 2200

(118x - 400) —--------> 1

So, 

118x + 1800 - 3418

118x - 1618 —----> 2

(118x - 400)/(118x - 1618) = 5/4

(472x - 1600) = (590x - 8090)

118x = 6490

x = 55

100x = Rs.5500

Question 134

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

 If the passenger in company B gets the amount as refund is Rs.5780. Find the average of the cancellation amount of all the companies A, B, C and D.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 2450

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 2350

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 2830

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 2380

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs. 2880

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs. 2350

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Return amount of the company B = Rs. 5780

Amount returned in case of cancellation = Total price of a ticket - Cancellation amount deducted.

5780 = 6000 ×  (118/100)  + 1200 - x 

5780 = 8280 - x 

x = Rs.2500

Average of cancellation amount of all the four companies = (2000 + 2500 + 2200 + 2700) = 9400/4 = Rs.2350

Question 135

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the amount returned to passengers by the company A and D for cancelling tickets is Rs. 5100 and Rs. 3410 respectively. Find the ratio between the convenience fees for Company A and D.

  1. AOption (a)

    1: 6

  2. BOption (b)

    3 : 2

  3. COption (c)

    3: 7

  4. DOption (d)

    3: 8

  5. EOption (e)

    7: 9

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3 : 2

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Total price of a ticket = Base price + 18% GST on the base price + Convenience fee

Amount returned in case of cancellation = Total price of a ticket - Cancellation amount deducted.

Total price of the ticket for Company A = 5000 ×  (118/100) + x

5100 = (5900 + x - 2000)

x = (5100 - 3900) = 1200

x = Rs.1200 

Total price of the ticket for Company D = 4500 ×  (118/100) + y

3410 = (4500 × 118/100 + y - 2700)

(3410 - 2610) = y

y = 800

Required ratio = 3: 2

Question 136

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If the convenience fees of Company E is x% more than the convenience fees of Company A = 1200, and the base price and cancellation charges is same as company A, then the return amount after the cancellation of tickets to Company E will be Rs. 5700. Find the value of x

  1. AOption (a)

    55%

  2. BOption (b)

    50%

  3. COption (c)

    65%

  4. DOption (d)

    60%

  5. EOption (e)

    58%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

50%

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Amount returned in case of cancellation = Total price of a ticket - Cancellation amount deducted.

Total price of a ticket = Base price + 18% GST on the base price + Convenience fee

The total price of the ticket for Company E = 5000 × (118/100) = 5900 + y 

5700 = (5900 + y - 2000)

5700 - 3900 = y

y = 1800

To find the value of x

Convenience fees of Company A = Rs. 1200

Convenience fees of Company E = Rs. 1800

To find the value of x

x = (1800 - 1200)/1200 ×  100 = 50%

Question 137

Three persons A, B, and C invested amount Rs.4000, Rs,3500 and Rs. 6500.After 6 months A invested Rs.2000 more and B invested Rs. 1500 more and after another 2 months C withdrew Rs. 1500 at the end of the year Profit share of A and B is Rs. 18500. Find the profit share of C.

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 15500

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 16000

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 13500

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs.14000

  5. EOption (e)

    Rs. 12000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Rs. 12000

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of Profit = (Capital1 × Time1 + Capital2 × Time2)

A profit unit = (4000 × 6 + 6000 × 6) = 60,000

B profit unit = (3500 × 6 + 5000 × 6) = 51,000

C profit unit = (6500 × 8 + 5000 × 4) = 72,000

Ratio A : B : C = 60 : 51 : 72 = 20 : 17 : 24

Given (A+B) = 37 units = Rs. 18,500 ⇒ 1 unit = Rs. 500

C share = 24 units = 24 × 500 = Rs. 12,000

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 12000.

Alternate Method

Given: Initial investments: A = Rs. 4000, B = Rs. 3500, C = Rs. 6500. Changes: A (+2000) at 6 months, B (+1500) at 6 months, C (−1500) at 8 months. Formulas: Profit Share Ratio = (Investment × Duration).

⇒ Calculate Profit Ratio of A, B, and C based on investment × time. ⇒ Ratio A : B : C = (4000 × 6 + 6000 × 6) : (3500 × 6 + 5000 × 6) : (6500 × 8 + 5000 × 4). ⇒ Ratio = 60000 : 51000 : 72000 = 20 : 17 : 24. ⇒ Sum of A and B's ratio parts = 20 + 17 = 37. ⇒ If 37 units = Rs. 18500, then 1 unit = 18500 ÷ 37 = 500. ⇒ Profit share of C = 24 × 500 = Rs. 12000.

∴ The correct answer is Rs. 12000.

Additional Information

Partnership Basics

In a partnership, the profit is distributed in the ratio of the product of Capital and Time period for which the capital is invested.

Variable Investment

When capital changes during the year, calculate the effective capital by multiplying each amount with its specific duration: ∑(Capital × Time).

Question 138

The population in Town A and Town B are in the ratio 2: 3. If 62.5% of the total population in the Town A is males and remaining are females. Number of females is 1200 more than that of males in Town B. If the difference between the number of females in Town A and Town B is 1500. Find the total population in the Town A and B.

  1. AOption (a)

    7500

  2. BOption (b)

    6000

  3. COption (c)

    6500

  4. DOption (d)

    7000

  5. EOption (e)

    8000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

6000

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of population A : B = 2 : 3. Let populations be 200 units and 300 units.

Town A: Males = 62.5% of 200 = 125, Females = 200 − 125 = 75.

Town B: Let Females = F, then Males = F − 1200. Total B = 2F − 1200 = 300 units.

Using |FemalesA − FemalesB| = 1500 and solving for units where 1 unit = 12.

Total Population (500 units) = 500 × 12 = 6000.

∴ The correct answer is 6000.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio A:B = 2:3. Let Town A = 200x and Town B = 300x.

Calculations:

⇒ Females in A = 100% − 62.5% = 37.5% of 200x = 75x

⇒ In Town B: Males + Females = 300x ⇒ (Females − 1200) + Females = 300x

⇒ 2 × FemalesB = 300x + 1200 ⇒ FemalesB = 150x + 600

⇒ Difference between females = |(150x + 600) − 75x| = 1500

⇒ 75x + 600 = 1500 ⇒ 75x = 900 ⇒ x = 12

⇒ Total Population = 200x + 300x = 500x

⇒ Total Population = 500 × 12 = 6000

∴ The correct answer is 6000.

Additional Information

Percentage to Fraction Conversion

62.5% is equivalent to 5/8 and 37.5% is equivalent to 3/8. Using fractions simplifies population distribution calculations.

Ratio and Proportion

If A:B = m:n, then A = mx and B = nx. The total sum is (m+n)x. This 'x' acts as the common multiplier.

Population Components

Total Population = Males + Females. If the difference (D) and total (T) are known, Larger = (T+D)/2 and Smaller = (T-D)/2.

Question 139

Person A invests an amount P at 10% rate of interest compounded annually for 2 years. B invest R amount at 10% rate of interest compounded annually for 3 years. A gets Rs. 525 as Interest and B gets Rs. 662 as interest. If A invests the same amount at a% annum and B gets the same amount at (a + 5) % per annum for 2 years at simple interest B gets Rs. 50 more than A. Find the value of a.

  1. AOption (a)

    15

  2. BOption (b)

    10

  3. COption (c)

    12

  4. DOption (d)

    16

  5. EOption (e)

    18

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

15

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Effective CI for 2 years at 10% = 21%; Given 21% of P = 525 → P = 2500.

Effective CI for 3 years at 10% = 33.1%; Given 33.1% of R = 662 → R = 2000.

Interest Difference (B − A): [2000 × (a + 5) × 2 / 100] − [2500 × a × 2 / 100] = 50.

40(a + 5) − 50a = 50 ⇒ 40a + 200 − 50a = 50 ⇒ 10a = 150 ⇒ a = 15.

∴ The correct answer is 15.

Alternate Method

Given: Rate = 10%, CIA = ₹525 (2 yrs), CIB = ₹662 (3 yrs).

Formula: CI = P[(1 + r/100)n − 1] | SI = (P × R × T) / 100

⇒ For A: 525 = P[(1.1)2 − 1] ⇒ 525 = P[0.21] ⇒ P = 525 / 0.21 = ₹2500.

⇒ For B: 662 = R[(1.1)3 − 1] ⇒ 662 = R[0.331] ⇒ R = 662 / 0.331 = ₹2000.

⇒ SI for A = (2500 × a × 2) / 100 = 50a.

⇒ SI for B = (2000 × (a + 5) × 2) / 100 = 40(a + 5).

⇒ 40(a + 5) − 50a = 50 ⇒ 40a + 200 − 50a = 50 ⇒ 10a = 150 ⇒ a = 15.

∴ The correct answer is 15.

Additional Information

Effective Rate of Compound Interest

For 2 years, effective rate = x + y + (xy/100). For 10%, it is 10 + 10 + 1 = 21%.

Simple Interest vs Compound Interest

Difference for 2 years: D = P(r/100)2. Difference for 3 years: D = P(r/100)2 × (3 + r/100).

Effective Rate for 3 years

For a rate r%, the 3-year effective CI rate is given by 3r + 3r2/100 + r3/10000 %.

Question 140

Ages of A and B are in the ratio of a: 5. And after the (a + 3) years the age of the A is equal to the present age of B. If the age of C is 20% more than the age of the B. Then fins the age of D if the average of A, B, C and D is 30. Age of A is less than the age of B and the difference between present the age of A and  B is 7

  1. AOption (a)

    30

  2. BOption (b)

    15

  3. COption (c)

    25

  4. DOption (d)

    22

  5. EOption (e)

    18

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

15

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Difference between B and A is 7 years ⇒ B − A = 7.

Given A + (a + 3) = B ⇒ B − A = a + 3.

Equating differences: a + 3 = 7 ⇒ a = 4.

Ratio A : B = 4 : 5. Since difference 1 unit = 7 years, then A = 28, B = 35.

C = 120% of 35 = 42. Total age of A, B, C, D = 30 × 4 = 120.

D = 120 − (28 + 35 + 42) = 120 − 105 = 15 years.

∴ The correct answer is 15 years.

Alternate Method

Given: Ratio A : B = a : 5, B − A = 7, and A + (a + 3) = B.

⇒ B − A = a + 3

⇒ 7 = a + 3 ⇒ a = 4

⇒ A : B = 4 : 5

⇒ Let A = 4x and B = 5x. Difference 5x − 4x = 7 ⇒ x = 7

⇒ A = 28 years, B = 35 years

⇒ Age of C = 1.2 × 35 = 42 years

⇒ Total Age (A+B+C+D) = 30 × 4 = 120 years

⇒ 28 + 35 + 42 + D = 120

⇒ 105 + D = 120 ⇒ D = 15 years

∴ The correct answer is 15 years.

Additional Information

Averages of Multiple Quantities

The sum of n observations is calculated as Sum = Average × n. If the average of 4 people is 30, their total sum is 120.

Ratio and Proportional Constant

When values are in ratio x : y, they can be represented as kx and ky, where k is the common multiplier found using given differences or sums.

Percentage Increase

If a value is P% more than X, the new value is X × (1 + P/100). Here, 20% more means 1.2 × B.

Reasoning Ability & Computer Aptitude (50 questions)

Seven persons namely –A, B, C, D, E, F and G were born in different years with the base year is taken as 2018. None of them was born before 1950 and not after 2004. Each person likes different fruits viz. Mango, Apple, Banana, Orange, Grapes, Papaya and Cherry. They were seated in a linear line facing north and no neighboring letters according to English alphabet sit together.

Note: If it is mentioned that a person’s age is considered as the last two digits of another person’s birth year, then it will be at any sequence. For example, if the age of ‘P’ is considered as last two digits of birth year of ‘Q’ which is 1975; then the age of ‘P’ might be either 75 or 57 years.

Age of C is 46 years and likes Cherry. A’s age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of G. One who likes banana sits to the immediate left of the one whose age is 46. The difference between the age of C and E is 12 years. Three person sits between A and the one who likes mango. B’s age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of E. F likes Orange. B sits to the immediate right of E. The difference between the ages of G and B is 6 years. Age of A is not less than 54 years. One who was born in 1978 likes Grapes. D sits at one of the end of the row and not a immediate neighbour of B. The difference between the ages of one who likes Orange and A is 28 years. One who likes Apple was born after the year 1972. B likes Mango. F and D were not born on adjacent years. Difference between the ages of one who likes Banana and one who likes Mango is 16 years. Four person sits between B and the one who likes orange.

Question 141

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

How many persons are younger than the one who likes mango?

  1. AOption (a)

    Five

  2. BOption (b)

    four

  3. COption (c)

    three

  4. DOption (d)

    two

  5. EOption (e)

    one

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

four

Why this answer is correct

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F and G 

Fruits: Mango, Apple, Banana, Orange, Grapes, Papaya and Cherry.

  1. Three person sits between A and the one who likes mango.  B likes Mango.

  2. Four person sits between B and the one who likes orange. F likes Orange.

  3. D sits at one of the end of the row and not a immediate neighbour of B

  4. B sits to the immediate right of E. So case 2 is not valid.

5.Age of C is 46 years and likes Cherry. i.e., age 46 means C was born in 1972.

  1. One who likes banana sits to the immediate left of the one whose age is 46.

  2. The difference between the age of C and E is 12 years. So the E was born in either 1960 or 1984.

 

8.B’s age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of E.

  1. B’s age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of E, that means in case 1c and case 1d age of B must be either 48 or 84 years but 84 is not valid as no person was born before 1950 thus as B was born in 1970. In case 1a and 1b age of B must be either 06 or 60 years but 06 is not valid as no person was born after 2004 thus as B was born in 1958.

 

  1. The difference between the ages of G and B is 6 years, that means we have four possible birth years for G.in case 1a G was born in 1964, in case 1b G was born in 1976, in case 2a G was born in 1952, in case 2b G was born in 1964. 

  2. A’s age is equal to the 11.  A’s age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of G. A was not born after 1964 (Age of A is not less than 54 years.)

Case 1a, Case 1b: Birth year of G is1952, so the age of A will be either 25 or 52. Thus, case 1a and case 1b is not valid.

Case 1c, Case 1d, Case 1e, Case 1f: Birth year of G is1964, so the age of A will be either 46 or 64. Here, 46 is not possible. So, A was born in 1954 and its age is 64.

Case 1g, Case 1h: Birth year of G is1976, so the age of A will be either 67 or 76. As no person was born before 1950, age of A will be 67 and born in 1951.

 

  1. Difference between the ages of one who likes Banana and one who likes Mango is 16 years, that means case 1d, case 1e and case 1f, case 1g and case h is not valid.

 

13.The difference between the ages of one who likes Orange and A is 28. That means F must born in 1982.

  1. One who was born in 1978 likes Grapes, that means D was born in 1978.

 

  1. One who likes Apple was born after 1972, that means E must likes Apple and G likes papaya.

Thus, the final arrangement is,

PersonsD (1978)F (1982)**A (**1954)**C (**1972)**G (**1964)**E (**1984)**B (**1970)
Age40366446543448

Thus, four persons are younger than the one who likes mango.

Question 142

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who sits third to the right of the one whose age is 36?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cherry

  2. BOption (b)

    Grapes

  3. COption (c)

    Papaya

  4. DOption (d)

    Mango

  5. EOption (e)

    Orange

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Papaya

Why this answer is correct

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F and G 

Fruits: Mango, Apple, Banana, Orange, Grapes, Papaya and Cherry.

  1. Three person sits between A and the one who likes mango.  B likes Mango.

  2. Four person sits between B and the one who likes orange. F likes Orange.

  3. D sits at one of the end of the row and not a immediate neighbour of B

  4. B sits to the immediate right of E. So case 2 is not valid.

5.Age of C is 46 years and likes Cherry. i.e., age 46 means C was born in 1972.

  1. One who likes banana sits to the immediate left of the one whose age is 46.

  2. The difference between the age of C and E is 12 years. So the E was born in either 1960 or 1984.

 

8.B’s age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of E.

  1. B’s age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of E, that means in case 1c and case 1d age of B must be either 48 or 84 years but 84 is not valid as no person was born before 1950 thus as B was born in 1970. In case 1a and 1b age of B must be either 06 or 60 years but 06 is not valid as no person was born after 2004 thus as B was born in 1958.

 

  1. The difference between the ages of G and B is 6 years, that means we have four possible birth years for G.in case 1a G was born in 1964, in case 1b G was born in 1976, in case 2a G was born in 1952, in case 2b G was born in 1964. 

11. A’s age is equal to the 11.  A’s age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of G. A was not born after 1964 (Age of A is not less than 54 years.)

Case 1a, Case 1b: Birth year of G is1952, so the age of A will be either 25 or 52. Thus, case 1a and case 1b is not valid.

Case 1c, Case 1d, Case 1e, Case 1f: Birth year of G is1964, so the age of A will be either 46 or 64. Here, 46 is not possible. So, A was born in 1954 and its age is 64.

Case 1g, Case 1h: Birth year of G is1976, so the age of A will be either 67 or 76. As no person was born before 1950, age of A will be 67 and born in 1951.

 

  1. Difference between the ages of one who likes Banana and one who likes Mango is 16 years, that means case 1d, case 1e and case 1f, case 1g and case h is not valid.

 

13.The difference between the ages of one who likes Orange and A is 28. That means F must born in 1982.

  1. One who was born in 1978 likes Grapes, that means D was born in 1978.

 

  1. One who likes Apple was born after 1972, that means E must likes Apple and G likes papaya.

Thus, the final arrangement is,

PersonsD (1978)F (1982)A (1954)C (1972)G (1964)E (1984)B (1970)
Age40366446543448

Thus**, papaya** sits third to the right of the one whose age is 36.

Question 143

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who among the following is the eldest?

I. One who likes apple

II. One who likes banana

III. One who born is 1954

IV. A

  1. AOption (a)

    Both I and III

  2. BOption (b)

    Both II and III

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and IV

  4. DOption (d)

    I, III and IV

  5. EOption (e)

    II, III and IV

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

II, III and IV

Why this answer is correct

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F and G 

Fruits: Mango, Apple, Banana, Orange, Grapes, Papaya and Cherry.

  1. Three person sits between A and the one who likes mango.  B likes Mango.

  2. Four person sits between B and the one who likes orange. F likes Orange.

  3. D sits at one of the end of the row and not a immediate neighbour of B

  4. B sits to the immediate right of E. So case 2 is not valid.

5.Age of C is 46 years and likes Cherry. i.e., age 46 means C was born in 1972.

  1. One who likes banana sits to the immediate left of the one whose age is 46.

  2. The difference between the age of C and E is 12 years. So the E was born in either 1960 or 1984.

 

8.B’s age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of E.

  1. B’s age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of E, that means in case 1c and case 1d age of B must be either 48 or 84 years but 84 is not valid as no person was born before 1950 thus as B was born in 1970. In case 1a and 1b age of B must be either 06 or 60 years but 06 is not valid as no person was born after 2004 thus as B was born in 1958.

 

  1. The difference between the ages of G and B is 6 years, that means we have four possible birth years for G.in case 1a G was born in 1964, in case 1b G was born in 1976, in case 2a G was born in 1952, in case 2b G was born in 1964. 

11. A’s age is equal to the 11.  A’s age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of G. A was not born after 1964 (Age of A is not less than 54 years.)

Case 1a, Case 1b: Birth year of G is1952, so the age of A will be either 25 or 52. Thus, case 1a and case 1b is not valid.

Case 1c, Case 1d, Case 1e, Case 1f: Birth year of G is1964, so the age of A will be either 46 or 64. Here, 46 is not possible. So, A was born in 1954 and its age is 64.

Case 1g, Case 1h: Birth year of G is1976, so the age of A will be either 67 or 76. As no person was born before 1950, age of A will be 67 and born in 1951.

 

  1. Difference between the ages of one who likes Banana and one who likes Mango is 16 years, that means case 1d, case 1e and case 1f, case 1g and case h is not valid.

 

13.The difference between the ages of one who likes Orange and A is 28. That means F must born in 1982.

  1. One who was born in 1978 likes Grapes, that means D was born in 1978.

 

  1. One who likes Apple was born after 1972, that means E must likes Apple and G likes papaya.

Thus, the final arrangement is,

PersonsD (1978)F (1982)A (1954)C (1972)G (1964)E (1984)B (1970)
Age40366446543448

Thus, II, III and IV is the answer.

Question 144

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the sum of the age of the persons sitting at both the ends?

  1. AOption (a)

    78

  2. BOption (b)

    88

  3. COption (c)

    80

  4. DOption (d)

    76

  5. EOption (e)

    86

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

88

Why this answer is correct

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F and G 

Fruits: Mango, Apple, Banana, Orange, Grapes, Papaya and Cherry.

  1. Three person sits between A and the one who likes mango.  B likes Mango.

  2. Four person sits between B and the one who likes orange. F likes Orange.

  3. D sits at one of the end of the row and not a immediate neighbour of B

  4. B sits to the immediate right of E. So case 2 is not valid.

5.Age of C is 46 years and likes Cherry. i.e., age 46 means C was born in 1972.

  1. One who likes banana sits to the immediate left of the one whose age is 46.

  2. The difference between the age of C and E is 12 years. So the E was born in either 1960 or 1984.

 

8.B’s age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of E.

  1. B’s age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of E, that means in case 1c and case 1d age of B must be either 48 or 84 years but 84 is not valid as no person was born before 1950 thus as B was born in 1970. In case 1a and 1b age of B must be either 06 or 60 years but 06 is not valid as no person was born after 2004 thus as B was born in 1958.

 

  1. The difference between the ages of G and B is 6 years, that means we have four possible birth years for G.in case 1a G was born in 1964, in case 1b G was born in 1976, in case 2a G was born in 1952, in case 2b G was born in 1964. 

11. A’s age is equal to the 11.  A’s age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of G. A was not born after 1964 (Age of A is not less than 54 years.)

Case 1a, Case 1b: Birth year of G is1952, so the age of A will be either 25 or 52. Thus, case 1a and case 1b is not valid.

Case 1c, Case 1d, Case 1e, Case 1f: Birth year of G is1964, so the age of A will be either 46 or 64. Here, 46 is not possible. So, A was born in 1954 and its age is 64.

Case 1g, Case 1h: Birth year of G is1976, so the age of A will be either 67 or 76. As no person was born before 1950, age of A will be 67 and born in 1951.

 

  1. Difference between the ages of one who likes Banana and one who likes Mango is 16 years, that means case 1d, case 1e and case 1f, case 1g and case h is not valid.

 

13.The difference between the ages of one who likes Orange and A is 28. That means F must born in 1982.

  1. One who was born in 1978 likes Grapes, that means D was born in 1978.

 

  1. One who likes Apple was born after 1972, that means E must likes Apple and G likes papaya.

Thus, the final arrangement is,

PersonsD (1978)F (1982)A (1954)C (1972)G (1964)E (1984)B (1970)
Age40366446543448

Thus, the sum of the age of the persons sitting at both the ends is 88.

Question 145

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who sits to the immediate left of the one who likes cherry?

  1. AOption (a)

    One whose age is 36

  2. BOption (b)

    One who likes mango

  3. COption (c)

    One whose age is 48

  4. DOption (d)

    One who likes apple

  5. EOption (e)

    One who likes banana

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

One who likes banana

Why this answer is correct

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F and G 

Fruits: Mango, Apple, Banana, Orange, Grapes, Papaya and Cherry.

  1. Three person sits between A and the one who likes mango.  B likes Mango.

  2. Four person sits between B and the one who likes orange. F likes Orange.

  3. D sits at one of the end of the row and not a immediate neighbour of B

  4. B sits to the immediate right of E. So case 2 is not valid.

5.Age of C is 46 years and likes Cherry. i.e., age 46 means C was born in 1972.

  1. One who likes banana sits to the immediate left of the one whose age is 46.

  2. The difference between the age of C and E is 12 years. So the E was born in either 1960 or 1984.

 

8.B’s age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of E.

  1. B’s age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of E, that means in case 1c and case 1d age of B must be either 48 or 84 years but 84 is not valid as no person was born before 1950 thus as B was born in 1970. In case 1a and 1b age of B must be either 06 or 60 years but 06 is not valid as no person was born after 2004 thus as B was born in 1958.

 

  1. The difference between the ages of G and B is 6 years, that means we have four possible birth years for G.in case 1a G was born in 1964, in case 1b G was born in 1976, in case 2a G was born in 1952, in case 2b G was born in 1964. 

11. A’s age is equal to the 11.  A’s age is equal to the last two digits of birth year of G. A was not born after 1964 (Age of A is not less than 54 years.)

Case 1a, Case 1b: Birth year of G is1952, so the age of A will be either 25 or 52. Thus, case 1a and case 1b is not valid.

Case 1c, Case 1d, Case 1e, Case 1f: Birth year of G is1964, so the age of A will be either 46 or 64. Here, 46 is not possible. So, A was born in 1954 and its age is 64.

Case 1g, Case 1h: Birth year of G is1976, so the age of A will be either 67 or 76. As no person was born before 1950, age of A will be 67 and born in 1951.

 

  1. Difference between the ages of one who likes Banana and one who likes Mango is 16 years, that means case 1d, case 1e and case 1f, case 1g and case h is not valid.

 

13.The difference between the ages of one who likes Orange and A is 28. That means F must born in 1982.

  1. One who was born in 1978 likes Grapes, that means D was born in 1978.

 

  1. One who likes Apple was born after 1972, that means E must likes Apple and G likes papaya.

Thus, the final arrangement is,

PersonsD (1978)F (1982)A (1954)C (1972)G (1964)E (1984)B (1970)
Age40366446543448

Thus, One who likes banana sits to the immediate left of the one who likes cherry.

Question 146

Direction: The following question consists of three statements numbered I, II and III. Decide if data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question below.

L, M, N, O, P and Q are six people living on six different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered 1, the one above that is numbered 2 and so on. Also, these 6 people like 6 different subjects namely English, Hindi, Physics, Chemistry, Zoology and Mathematics. N lives on 2nd floor and likes Zoology. M who lives on 5th floor likes chemistry. Q likes English. O lives on top floor. Which subject the one likes who lives on 4th floor?

I. Q does not live immediately below the one who likes Chemistry.

II. L, who resides on the 4th floor, lives below O and above Q.

III. The one who likes Mathematics lives above L.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only statement I is sufficient to find the answer

  2. BOption (b)

    Only statement II is sufficient to find the answer

  3. COption (c)

    Only statement I and III are sufficient to find the answer

  4. DOption (d)

    All three statements are sufficient to find the answer

  5. EOption (e)

    All of the statements together are not sufficient to find the answer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

All of the statements together are not sufficient to find the answer

Why this answer is correct

Given- Six people L, M, N, O, P and Q.

Six different subjects- English, Hindi, Physics, Chemistry, Zoology and Mathematics.

Q likes English.

FloorsPersonsSubjects
6O
5MChemistry
4
3
2NZoology
1

 

From statement- I,

Case-I

FloorsPersonsSubjects
6O
5MChemistry
4
3
2NZoology
1QEnglish

 

Case-II

FloorsPersonsSubjects
6O
5MChemistry
4
3QEnglish
2NZoology
1

 

From statement II, cannot place Q because we don’t know where Q lives.

FloorsPersonsSubjects
6O
5MChemistry
4L
3
2NZoology
1

 

From statement- III, cannot place the one who likes Mathematics because we don’t know where L lives.

FloorsPersonsSubjects
6O
5MChemistry
4
3
2NZoology
1

 

Combining three statements,

Case- I

FloorsPersonsSubjects
6OMathematics
5MChemistry
4L
3
2NZoology
1QEnglish

 

Case-II

FloorsPersonsSubjects
6OMathematics
5MChemistry
4L
3QEnglish
2NZoology
1

 

All of the statements together are not sufficient to find the answer.

Directions: Read the given information carefully and answer the questions.

There are 12 members A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L each have decided to visit different places i.e. country or city in the months of January, February, March, April, May, and June in the given years i.e., 2022 and 2025 but not necessarily in the same order. One person will visit only one place.

E visited Qatar in January. H will visit Los Angeles in April of even-numbered year. Egypt is the last place to be visited. C will visit Dubai which is scheduled in February. B will visit Bhutan which is exactly between A and D and all three A, B, and D all visit in the same year. Zambia will be visited immediately before Japan. Germany will be visited immediately before Bhutan. G will visit between L and K. Tokyo will be visited exactly between the visits in which B and F will visit. The first place to be visited is France. K will visit Canada and I will visit Japan. K will visit before I. Egypt is visited by either F or I. J will visit before I and there will be no places to visit between them. L will visit in 2022. One person will visit Monaco in the month having the least number of days.(February month will be considered as 28 days only).

Question 147

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who among the following visited which country in February 2022?

  1. AOption (a)

    K, Canada

  2. BOption (b)

    G, Tokyo

  3. COption (c)

    I, Japan

  4. DOption (d)

    G, Monaco

  5. EOption (e)

    A, Germany

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

G, Monaco

Why this answer is correct

Members: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L.

Places: France, Monaco, Canada, Los Angeles, Zambia, Japan, Qatar, Dubai, Germany, Bhutan, Tokyo and Egypt.

Months: January, February, March, April, May and June.

Years: 2022 and 2025.

  1. E visited Qatar in January.
  2. H will visit Los Angeles in April of an even-numbered year. i.e, on 2024.
CASE 1CASE 2
YearMonthsPersonsPlacesPersonsPlaces
2022JanuaryEQatar
February
March
AprilHLos AngelesHLos Angeles
May
June
2025JanuaryEQatar
February
March
April
May
June

 

3. Egypt is the last place to be visited. Egypt is visited by either F or I.  4.  C will visit Dubai which is scheduled on February. 

CASE 1CASE 2CASE 1aCASE 2a
YearMonthsPersonsPlacesPersonsPlacesPersonsPlacesPersonsPlaces
2022JanuaryEQatarEQatar
FebruaryCDubaiCDubai
March
AprilHLos AngelesHLos AngelesHLos AngelesHLos Angeles
May
June
2025JanuaryEQatarEQatar
FebruaryCDubaiCDubai
March
April
May
JuneI/FEgyptI/FEgyptI/FEgyptI/FEgypt

 

5. The first places to be visited is France. So, CASE 1 and CASE 1a is eliminated. 6. One person will visit Monaco in the month having least number of days. i.e., February.

CASE 2CASE 2a
YearMonthsPersonsPlacesPersonsPlaces
2022JanuaryFranceFrance
FebruaryCDubaiMonaco
March
AprilHLos AngelesHLos Angeles
May
June
2025JanuaryEQatarEQatar
FebruaryMonacoCDubai
March
April
May
JuneI/FEgyptI/FEgypt

 

7.  B will visit Bhutan which is exactly between A and D which all visit in the same year.

CASE 2CASE 2iCASE 2a
YearMonthsPersonsPlacesPersonPlacesPersonsPlaces
2022JanuaryFranceFranceFrance
FebruaryCDubaiCDubaiMonaco
March
AprilHLos AngelesHLos AngelesHLos Angeles
May
June
2025JanuaryEQatarEQatarEQatar
FebruaryA/DMonacoMonacoCDubai
MarchBBhutanA/DA/D
AprilA/DBBerlinBBhutan
MayA/DA/D
JuneI/FEgyptI/FEgyptI/FEgypt

 

8. Germany will be visited immediately before Bhutan. So, CASE 2 is eliminated. 9. Zambia will be visited immediately before Japan. I will visit Japan. So, F will visit Egypt.

CASE 2iCASE 2a
YearMonthsPersonPlacesPersonsPlaces
2022JanuaryFranceFrance
FebruaryCDubaiMonaco
March
AprilHLos AngelesHLos Angeles
MayZambiaZambia
JuneIJapanIJapan
2025JanuaryEQatarEQatar
FebruaryMonacoCDubai
MarchA/DGermanyA/DGermany
AprilBBhutanBBhutan
MayA/DA/D
JuneFEgyptFEgypt

 

10. K will visit Canada 11. J will visit before I and there will be no country between them. 

CASE 2iCASE 2a
YearMonthsPlacesCountriesPersonsPlaces
2022JanuaryFranceFrance
FebruaryCDubaiMonaco
MarchKCanadaKCanada
AprilHLos AngelesHLos Angeles
MayJZambiaJZambia
JuneIJapanIJapan
2025JanuaryEQatarEQatar
FebruaryMonacoCDubai
MarchA/DGermanyA/DGermany
AprilBBhutanBBhutan
MayA/DA/D
JuneFEgyptFEgypt

 

12. Tokyo will be visited exactly between the visits in which B and F will visit. 13. G will visit between L and K. So, Case 2i is eliminated.

The final arrangement is,

CASE 2a
YearMonthsPersonsPlaces
2022JanuaryLFrance
FebruaryGMonaco
MarchKCanada
AprilHLos Angeles
MayJZambia
JuneIJapan
2025JanuaryEQatar
FebruaryCDubai
MarchA/DGermany
AprilBBhutan
MayA/DTokyo
JuneFEgypt

 

Thus, G visited Monaco in February 2022

Question 148

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which among the following is True?

  1. AOption (a)

    J visited Zambia in May 2025

  2. BOption (b)

    F visited Egypt in June 2022

  3. COption (c)

    E visited Qatar in February 2025

  4. DOption (d)

    L visited Canada in January 2022

  5. EOption (e)

    B visited Bhutan in April 2025

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

B visited Bhutan in April 2025

Why this answer is correct

Members: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L.

Places: France, Monaco, Canada, Los Angeles, Zambia, Japan, Qatar, Dubai, Germany, Bhutan, Tokyo and Egypt.

Months: January, February, March, April, May and June.

Years: 2022 and 2025.

  1. E visited Qatar in January.
  2. H will visit Los Angeles in April of an even-numbered year. i.e, on 2024.
CASE 1CASE 2
YearMonthsPersonsPlacesPersonsPlaces
2022JanuaryEQatar
February
March
AprilHLos AngelesHLos Angeles
May
June
2025JanuaryEQatar
February
March
April
May
June

 

3. Egypt is the last place to be visited. Egypt is visited by either F or I.  4.  C will visit Dubai which is scheduled on February. 

CASE 1CASE 2CASE 1aCASE 2a
YearMonthsPersonsPlacesPersonsPlacesPersonsPlacesPersonsPlaces
2022JanuaryEQatarEQatar
FebruaryCDubaiCDubai
March
AprilHLos AngelesHLos AngelesHLos AngelesHLos Angeles
May
June
2025JanuaryEQatarEQatar
FebruaryCDubaiCDubai
March
April
May
JuneI/FEgyptI/FEgyptI/FEgyptI/FEgypt

 

5. The first places to be visited is France. So, CASE 1 and CASE 1a is eliminated. 6. One person will visit Monaco in the month having least number of days. i.e., February.

CASE 2CASE 2a
YearMonthsPersonsPlacesPersonsPlaces
2022JanuaryFranceFrance
FebruaryCDubaiMonaco
March
AprilHLos AngelesHLos Angeles
May
June
2025JanuaryEQatarEQatar
FebruaryMonacoCDubai
March
April
May
JuneI/FEgyptI/FEgypt

 

7.  B will visit Bhutan which is exactly between A and D which all visit in the same year.

CASE 2CASE 2iCASE 2a
YearMonthsPersonsPlacesPersonPlacesPersonsPlaces
2022JanuaryFranceFranceFrance
FebruaryCDubaiCDubaiMonaco
March
AprilHLos AngelesHLos AngelesHLos Angeles
May
June
2025JanuaryEQatarEQatarEQatar
FebruaryA/DMonacoMonacoCDubai
MarchBBhutanA/DA/D
AprilA/DBBerlinBBhutan
MayA/DA/D
JuneI/FEgyptI/FEgyptI/FEgypt

 

8. Germany will be visited immediately before Bhutan. So, CASE 2 is eliminated. 9. Zambia will be visited immediately before Japan. I will visit Japan. So, F will visit Egypt.

CASE 2iCASE 2a
YearMonthsPersonPlacesPersonsPlaces
2022JanuaryFranceFrance
FebruaryCDubaiMonaco
March
AprilHLos AngelesHLos Angeles
MayZambiaZambia
JuneIJapanIJapan
2025JanuaryEQatarEQatar
FebruaryMonacoCDubai
MarchA/DGermanyA/DGermany
AprilBBhutanBBhutan
MayA/DA/D
JuneFEgyptFEgypt

 

10. K will visit Canada 11. J will visit before I and there will be no country between them. 

CASE 2iCASE 2a
YearMonthsPlacesCountriesPersonsPlaces
2022JanuaryFranceFrance
FebruaryCDubaiMonaco
MarchKCanadaKCanada
AprilHLos AngelesHLos Angeles
MayJZambiaJZambia
JuneIJapanIJapan
2025JanuaryEQatarEQatar
FebruaryMonacoCDubai
MarchA/DGermanyA/DGermany
AprilBBhutanBBhutan
MayA/DA/D
JuneFEgyptFEgypt

 

12. Tokyo will be visited exactly between the visits in which B and F will visit. 13. G will visit between L and K. So, Case 2i is eliminated.

The final arrangement is,

CASE 2a
YearMonthsPersonsPlaces
2022JanuaryLFrance
FebruaryGMonaco
MarchKCanada
AprilHLos Angeles
MayJZambia
JuneIJapan
2025JanuaryEQatar
FebruaryCDubai
MarchA/DGermany
AprilBBhutan
MayA/DTokyo
JuneFEgypt

 

Thus, B visited Bhutan in April 2025 is the answer.

Question 149

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who among the following will visit in June?

  1. AOption (a)

    One who visited Egypt

  2. BOption (b)

    One who visited Japan

  3. COption (c)

    F

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II

  5. EOption (e)

    All I , II and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

All I , II and III

Why this answer is correct

Members: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L.

Countries: France, Monaco, Canada, Los Angeles, Zambia, Japan, Qatar, Dubai, Germany, Berlin, Tokyo and Egypt.

Months: January, February, March, April, May and June.

Years: 2024 and 2025.

YearMonthsPersonsCountries
2024January
February
March
April
May
June
2025January
February
March
April
May
June

 

  1. E visited Qatar in January.
  2. H will visit Los Angeles on April of even numbered year. i.e, on 2024.
CASE 1CASE 2
YearMonthsPersonsCountriesPersonsCountries
2024JanuaryEQatar
February
March
AprilHLos AngelesHLos Angeles
May
June
2025JanuaryEQatar
February
March
April
May
June

 

3. Egypt is the last country to be visited. Egypt is visited by either F or I.  4.  C will visit Dubai which is scheduled on February. 

CASE 1CASE 2CASE 1aCASE 2a
YearMonthsPersonsCountriesPersonsCountriesPersonsCountriesPersonsCountries
2024JanuaryEQatarEQatar
FebruaryCDubaiCDubai
March
AprilHLos AngelesHLos AngelesHLos AngelesHLos Angeles
May
June
2025JanuaryEQatarEQatar
FebruaryCDubaiCDubai
March
April
May
JuneI/FEgyptI/FEgyptI/FEgyptI/FEgypt

 

5. The first country to be visited is France. So, CASE 1 and CASE 1a is eliminated. 6. One person will visit Monaco in the month having least number of days. i.e., February.

CASE 2CASE 2a
YearMonthsPersonsCountriesPersonsCountries
2024JanuaryFranceFrance
FebruaryCDubaiMonaco
March
AprilHLos AngelesHLos Angeles
May
June
2025JanuaryEQatarEQatar
FebruaryMonacoCDubai
March
April
May
JuneI/FEgyptI/FEgypt

 

7.  B will visit Bhutan which is exactly between A and D which all visit in the same year.

CASE 2CASE 2iCASE 2a
YearMonthsPersonsCountriesPersonCountriesPersonsCountries
2024JanuaryFranceFranceFrance
FebruaryCDubaiCDubaiMonaco
March
AprilHLos AngelesHLos AngelesHLos Angeles
May
June
2025JanuaryEQatarEQatarEQatar
FebruaryA/DMonacoMonacoCDubai
MarchBBhutanA/DA/D
AprilA/DBBerlinBBerlin
MayA/DA/D
JuneI/FEgyptI/FEgyptI/FEgypt

 

8. Germany will be visited immediately before Berlin. So, CASE 2 is eliminated. 9. Zambia will be visited immediately before Japan. I will visit Japan. So, F will visit Egypt.

CASE 2iCASE 2a
YearMonthsPersonCountriesPersonsCountries
2024JanuaryFranceFrance
FebruaryCDubaiMonaco
March
AprilHLos AngelesHLos Angeles
MayZambiaZambia
JuneIJapanIJapan
2025JanuaryEQatarEQatar
FebruaryMonacoCDubai
MarchA/DGermanyA/DGermany
AprilBBhutanBBhutan
MayA/DA/D
JuneFEgyptFEgypt

 

10. K will visit Canada 11. J will visit before I and there will be no country between them. 

CASE 2iCASE 2a
YearMonthsPersonCountriesPersonsCountries
2024JanuaryFranceFrance
FebruaryCDubaiMonaco
MarchKCanadaKCanada
AprilHLos AngelesHLos Angeles
MayJZambiaJZambia
JuneIJapanIJapan
2025JanuaryEQatarEQatar
FebruaryMonacoCDubai
MarchA/DGermanyA/DGermany
AprilBBhutanBBhutan
MayA/DA/D
JuneFEgyptFEgypt

 

12. Tokyo will be visited exactly between the visits in which B and F will visit. 13. G will visit between L and K. So, Case 2i is eliminated.

The final arrangement is,

CASE 2a
YearMonthsPersonsCountries
2024JanuaryLFrance
FebruaryGMonaco
MarchKCanada
AprilHLos Angeles
MayJZambia
JuneIJapan
2025JanuaryEQatar
FebruaryCDubai
MarchA/DGermany
AprilBBhutan
MayA/DTokyo
JuneFEgypt

 

One who visited Japan, Egypt and F visited in June.

Thus, All I, II and III is the answer.

Question 150

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which are the countries visited between G and C?

I. Zambia

II. Egypt

III. Qatar

IV. Bhutan

V. Japan

  1. AOption (a)

    I, II and III

  2. BOption (b)

    I, IV and V

  3. COption (c)

    I, III and V

  4. DOption (d)

    II, III, IV

  5. EOption (e)

    III, IV, V

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

I, III and V

Why this answer is correct

Members: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L.

Places: France, Monaco, Canada, Los Angeles, Zambia, Japan, Qatar, Dubai, Germany, Bhutan, Tokyo and Egypt.

Months: January, February, March, April, May and June.

Years: 2022 and 2025.

  1. E visited Qatar in January.
  2. H will visit Los Angeles in April of an even-numbered year. i.e, on 2024.
CASE 1CASE 2
YearMonthsPersonsPlacesPersonsPlaces
2022JanuaryEQatar
February
March
AprilHLos AngelesHLos Angeles
May
June
2025JanuaryEQatar
February
March
April
May
June

 

3. Egypt is the last place to be visited. Egypt is visited by either F or I.  4.  C will visit Dubai which is scheduled on February. 

CASE 1CASE 2CASE 1aCASE 2a
YearMonthsPersonsPlacesPersonsPlacesPersonsPlacesPersonsPlaces
2022JanuaryEQatarEQatar
FebruaryCDubaiCDubai
March
AprilHLos AngelesHLos AngelesHLos AngelesHLos Angeles
May
June
2025JanuaryEQatarEQatar
FebruaryCDubaiCDubai
March
April
May
JuneI/FEgyptI/FEgyptI/FEgyptI/FEgypt

 

5. The first places to be visited is France. So, CASE 1 and CASE 1a is eliminated. 6. One person will visit Monaco in the month having least number of days. i.e., February.

CASE 2CASE 2a
YearMonthsPersonsPlacesPersonsPlaces
2022JanuaryFranceFrance
FebruaryCDubaiMonaco
March
AprilHLos AngelesHLos Angeles
May
June
2025JanuaryEQatarEQatar
FebruaryMonacoCDubai
March
April
May
JuneI/FEgyptI/FEgypt

 

7.  B will visit Bhutan which is exactly between A and D which all visit in the same year.

CASE 2CASE 2iCASE 2a
YearMonthsPersonsPlacesPersonPlacesPersonsPlaces
2022JanuaryFranceFranceFrance
FebruaryCDubaiCDubaiMonaco
March
AprilHLos AngelesHLos AngelesHLos Angeles
May
June
2025JanuaryEQatarEQatarEQatar
FebruaryA/DMonacoMonacoCDubai
MarchBBhutanA/DA/D
AprilA/DBBerlinBBhutan
MayA/DA/D
JuneI/FEgyptI/FEgyptI/FEgypt

 

8. Germany will be visited immediately before Bhutan. So, CASE 2 is eliminated. 9. Zambia will be visited immediately before Japan. I will visit Japan. So, F will visit Egypt.

CASE 2iCASE 2a
YearMonthsPersonPlacesPersonsPlaces
2022JanuaryFranceFrance
FebruaryCDubaiMonaco
March
AprilHLos AngelesHLos Angeles
MayZambiaZambia
JuneIJapanIJapan
2025JanuaryEQatarEQatar
FebruaryMonacoCDubai
MarchA/DGermanyA/DGermany
AprilBBhutanBBhutan
MayA/DA/D
JuneFEgyptFEgypt

 

10. K will visit Canada 11. J will visit before I and there will be no country between them. 

CASE 2iCASE 2a
YearMonthsPlacesCountriesPersonsPlaces
2022JanuaryFranceFrance
FebruaryCDubaiMonaco
MarchKCanadaKCanada
AprilHLos AngelesHLos Angeles
MayJZambiaJZambia
JuneIJapanIJapan
2025JanuaryEQatarEQatar
FebruaryMonacoCDubai
MarchA/DGermanyA/DGermany
AprilBBhutanBBhutan
MayA/DA/D
JuneFEgyptFEgypt

 

12. Tokyo will be visited exactly between the visits in which B and F will visit. 13. G will visit between L and K. So, Case 2i is eliminated.

The final arrangement is,

CASE 2a
YearMonthsPersonsPlaces
2022JanuaryLFrance
FebruaryGMonaco
MarchKCanada
AprilHLos Angeles
MayJZambia
JuneIJapan
2025JanuaryEQatar
FebruaryCDubai
MarchA/DGermany
AprilBBhutan
MayA/DTokyo
JuneFEgypt

 

Zambia, Qatar, Japan are visited between G and C.

Thus, I, III and V is the answer.

Directions: A number arrangement machine when given an input of words/numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and steps of rearrangement.

Input: def  81  ght  49  aqr  93  pqv  36  zub  56

Step 1: aqrs  def  81  ght  49  93  pqv  zub  56  36

Step 2 :defe  aqrs  81  ght 93  pqv   zub  56  36 49

Step 3: ghtu  defe   aqrs  93  pqv  zub  56  36  49  81

Step 4: pqvu   ghtu   defe   aqrs  93   zub  36  49  81  56

Step 5: zubc  pqvu  ghtu  defe  aqrs  36  49  81  56  93

Step 6: 21Z 21Z  21P  21G 21G  10D  $01A  36  49  81  56  93

Step 7: 01A 01A  lOD  21G 21G  21P  $21Z  36  49  81  56  93

Step 7 is the last step

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate steps for the given input.

INPUT:  zub  81  yae  94  trt  49  egh  25  mot 18

Question 151

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

How many elements are there between S06Y and 18 is Step 6?

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    4

  4. DOption (d)

    5

  5. EOption (e)

    6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

6

Why this answer is correct

On decoding the given input,

  1. Words: arranged in alphabetical order by adding letter next to the last letter of the word in 1st, 3rd, 5th steps and in 2nd, 4th steps previous letter of the last letter of the word
  2. Number: first perfect squares are arranged and the non-perfect ones
  3. In last step, isaddedalongwiththeplacedvalueaddedofthevowelspresentinaparticularwordandfirstletteroftheword.Forexample,(zubc–21forplacevalueof′U′so is added along with the placed value added of the vowels present in a particular word and first letter of the word. For example, (zubc – 21 for place value of 'U' so 21Z)
  4. Finally they are arranged in alphabetical order.

On applying the codes on the given input, we get

INPUT:  zub  81  yae  94  trt  49  egh  25  mot 18

Step 1: eghi  zub  81  yae  94  trt  49  mot  18  25

Step 2 : mots  eghi  zub  81  yae  94  trt  18  25  49

Step 3: trtu  mots  eghi   zub  yae   94  18  25  49  81

Step 4:  yaed   trtu   mots   eghi   zub   25  49  81  18  94

Step 5: zubc  yaed   trtu  mots  eghi  25  49  81  18  94

Step 6: S21Z   S06Y  21T 21T  15M  $14E  25  49  81  18  94

Step 7: 14E 14E  15M  21T21T 06Y  $21Z  25  49  81  18  94 ( Final step)

Thus, there are 6 elements between S06Y and 18 in Step 6.

Question 152

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the sum of last three numbers in Step 3?

  1. AOption (a)

    145

  2. BOption (b)

    160

  3. COption (c)

    163

  4. DOption (d)

    155

  5. EOption (e)

    140

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

155

Why this answer is correct

On decoding the given input,

  1. Words: arranged in alphabetical order by adding letter next to the last letter of the word in 1st, 3rd, 5th steps and in 2nd, 4th steps previous letter of the last letter of the word
  2. Number: first perfect squares are arranged and the non-perfect ones
  3. In last step, isaddedalongwiththeplacedvalueaddedofthevowelspresentinaparticularwordandfirstletteroftheword.Forexample,(zubc–21forplacevalueof′U′so is added along with the placed value added of the vowels present in a particular word and first letter of the word. For example, (zubc – 21 for place value of 'U' so 21Z)
  4. Finally they are arranged in alphabetical order.

On applying the codes on the given input, we get

INPUT:  zub  81  yae  94  trt  49  egh  25  mot 18

Step 1: eghi  zub  81  yae  94  trt  49  mot  18  25

Step 2 : mots  eghi  zub  81  yae  94  trt  18  25  49

Step 3: trtu  mots  eghi   zub  yae   94  18  25  49  81

Step 4:  yaed   trtu   mots   eghi   zub   25  49  81  18  94

Step 5: zubc  yaed   trtu  mots  eghi  25  49  81  18  94

Step 6: S21Z   S06Y  21T 21T  15M  $14E  25  49  81  18  94

Step 7: 14E 14E  15M  21T21T 06Y  $21Z  25  49  81  18  94 ( Final step)

Sum - 25 + 49 + 81  = 155

Hence, the correct answer is 155.

Question 153

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which part of the input in correct in Step 5?

  1. AOption (a)

    mots   yaed   trtu   eghi  25  49

    ×

    duplicate options found. English Question 1 options 2,4

  2. BOption (b)

    yaed    eghi   trtu  mots  25  49

  3. COption (c)

    mots  eghi   yaed   trtu    25  49

  4. DOption (d)

    yaed   trtu  mots  eghi  25  49

  5. EOption (e)

    yaed   eghi mots  trtu   25  49

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

yaed   trtu  mots  eghi  25  49

Why this answer is correct

On decoding the given input,

  1. Words: arranged in alphabetical order by adding letter next to the last letter of the word in 1st, 3rd, 5th steps and in 2nd, 4th steps previous letter of the last letter of the word
  2. Number: first perfect squares are arranged and the non-perfect ones
  3. In last step, isaddedalongwiththeplacedvalueaddedofthevowelspresentinaparticularwordandfirstletteroftheword.Forexample,(zubc–21forplacevalueof′U′so is added along with the placed value added of the vowels present in a particular word and first letter of the word. For example, (zubc – 21 for place value of 'U' so 21Z)
  4. Finally they are arranged in alphabetical order.

On applying the codes on the given input, we get

INPUT:  zub  81  yae  94  trt  49  egh  25  mot 18

Step 1: eghi  zub  81  yae  94  trt  49  mot  18  25

Step 2 : mots  eghi  zub  81  yae  94  trt  18  25  49

Step 3: trtu  mots  eghi   zub  yae   94  18  25  49  81

Step 4:  yaed   trtu   mots   eghi   zub   25  49  81  18  94

Step 5: zubc  yaed   trtu  mots  eghi  25  49  81  18  94

Step 6: S21Z   S06Y  21T 21T  15M  $14E  25  49  81  18  94

Step 7: 14E 14E  15M  21T21T 06Y  $21Z  25  49  81  18  94 ( Final step)

Step 7: 14E 14E  15M  21T21T 06Y  $21Z  25  49  81  18  94 ( Final step)

Thus, yaed   trtu  mots  eghi  25  49 is the correct answer.$

Question 154

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following is true?

  1. AOption (a)

    94 is to the immediate left of 25 in Step 3

  2. BOption (b)

    81 is the last element in  Step 4

  3. COption (c)

    The sum of last two element is 116 in Step 6.

  4. DOption (d)

    eghi  81  yae  zub  is the correct format in Step 1

  5. EOption (e)

    15Missecondtothe leftof25Step615M is second to the  left of 25 Step 6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

15Missecondtothe leftof25Step615M is second to the  left of 25 Step 6

Why this answer is correct

On decoding the given input,

  1. Words: arranged in alphabetical order by adding letter next to the last letter of the word in 1st, 3rd, 5th steps and in 2nd, 4th steps previous letter of the last letter of the word
  2. Number: first perfect squares are arranged and the non-perfect ones
  3. In last step, isaddedalongwiththeplacedvalueaddedofthevowelspresentinaparticularwordandfirstletteroftheword.Forexample,(zubc–21forplacevalueof′U′so is added along with the placed value added of the vowels present in a particular word and first letter of the word. For example, (zubc – 21 for place value of 'U' so 21Z)
  4. Finally they are arranged in alphabetical order.

On applying the codes on the given input, we get

INPUT:  zub  81  yae  94  trt  49  egh  25  mot 18

Step 1: eghi  zub  81  yae  94  trt  49  mot  18  25

Step 2 : mots  eghi  zub  81  yae  94  trt  18  25  49

Step 3: trtu  mots  eghi   zub  yae   94  18  25  49  81

Step 4:  yaed   trtu   mots   eghi   zub   25  49  81  18  94

Step 5: zubc  yaed   trtu  mots  eghi  25  49  81  18  94

Step 6: S21Z   S06Y  21T 21T  15M  $14E  25  49  81  18  94

Step 7: 14E 14E  15M  21T21T 06Y  $21Z  25  49  81  18  94 ( Final step)

Thus, $15M is second to the  left of 25 Step 6 is the correct answer.$

Question 155

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

In which step "eghi   zub  25 49"  is in this format?

  1. AOption (a)

    Step 2

  2. BOption (b)

    Step 3

  3. COption (c)

    Step 4

  4. DOption (d)

    Step 5

  5. EOption (e)

    Step 6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Step 4

Why this answer is correct

On decoding the given input,

  1. Words: arranged in alphabetical order by adding letter next to the last letter of the word in 1st, 3rd, 5th steps and in 2nd, 4th steps previous letter of the last letter of the word
  2. Number: first perfect squares are arranged and the non-perfect ones
  3. In last step, $ is added along with the placed value added of the vowels present in a particular word and first letter of the word. For example, (zubc – 21 for place value of ‘U’ so $21Z)
  4. Finally they are arranged in alphabetical order.

On applying the codes on the given input, we get

INPUT:  zub  81  yae  94  trt  49  egh  25  mot 18

Step 1: eghi  zub  81  yae  94  trt  49  mot  18  25

Step 2 : mots  eghi  zub  81  yae  94  trt  18  25  49

Step 3: trtu  mots  eghi   zub  yae   94  18  25  49  81

Step 4:  yaed   trtu   mots   eghi   zub   25  49  81  18  94

Step 5: zubc  yaed   trtu  mots  eghi  25  49  81  18  94

Step 6: S21Z   S06Y  21T 21T  15M  $14E  25  49  81  18  94

Step 7: 14E 14E  15M  21T21T 06Y  $21Z  25  49  81  18  94 ( Final step)

Thus,  "eghi   zub  25 49" is in step 4.

Direction: Study the information given carefully and answer the question given below.

P # Q means P is the father of Q.

P % Q means P is the mother of Q.

P $ Q means P is the husband of Q.

P @ Q means P is the wife of Q.

P + Q means P is the son of Q.

P * Q means P is the daughter of Q.

P & Q means P is the sister of Q.

P = Q means P is the brother of Q.

P $ U % T & V # Q, W * R # S % Q

Question 156

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

How S is related to U?

  1. AOption (a)

    Son

  2. BOption (b)

    Daughter-in-law

  3. COption (c)

    Sister-in-law

  4. DOption (d)

    Son-in-law

  5. EOption (e)

    Daughter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Daughter-in-law

Why this answer is correct

  1. P $ U means P is husband of U.

  2. U % T means U is mother of T.

  3. T & V means T is sister of V.  

  4. V # Q means V is father of Q.

 

 

  1. W * R means W is daughter of R.

  2. R # S means R is father of S.

  3. S % Q means S is mother of Q.

 

Combining we get,

 

Hence, S is daughter-in-law of U.$

Question 157

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find the incorrect relation.

I) V is the sister-in-law of W.

II) U is the mother-in-law of V.

III) S is the sister-in-law of T.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II

  3. COption (c)

    Only III

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II

  5. EOption (e)

    Both I and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both I and II

Why this answer is correct

  1. P $ U means P is husband of U.

  2. U % T means U is mother of T.

  3. T & V means T is sister of V.  

  4. V # Q means V is father of Q.

 

  1. W * R means W is daughter of R.

  2. R # S means R is father of S.

  3. S % Q means S is mother of Q.

 

Combining we get,

 

Hence, both I and II are incorrect.$

Question 158

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

How many male members are there in the family?

  1. AOption (a)

    3

  2. BOption (b)

    4

  3. COption (c)

    5

  4. DOption (d)

    Either 3 or 4

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Either 3 or 4

Why this answer is correct

  1. P $ U means P is husband of U.

  2. U % T means U is mother of T.

  3. T & V means T is sister of V.  

  4. V # Q means V is father of Q.

  5. W * R means W is daughter of R.

  6. R # S means R is father of S.

  7. S % Q means S is mother of Q.

Combining we get,

As, Q's gender is unknown therefore the total number of male members is not known. 

Hence, it can be either 3 or 4.$

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

The first 16 letters of the alphabetical series are coded from 1 to 16 in such a way that A can be coded as either 1 or 16, and B can be coded as either 2 or 15 ........ O can be coded either 15 or 2, and P can be coded either 16 or 1. But no two letters can be coded as the same number.

Further, it is known that -

I) Vowels are coded as a single digit.

II) The letters whose sum of digits of the possible codes is the same are coded as their place value. 

III) The 8th, 6th, 9th and 11th letters of the word 'TRADEJACKSHON' are not coded as their place value. 

Also, the following conditions are applied -

1) If both the first and last letters of a word are consonant then the code of the first letter will use as the code of the last letter. This condition will not be applicable if the first and last letters are adjacent to each other as per the English alphabet series.

2) If both the first and last letters of a word are vowels then codes will be interchanged. This condition will not be applicable if the word has repetitive vowels.

3) If there are two consecutive vowels in the word, then the code of each vowel is replaced by the code of the immediate next letter in the English alphabetical order. This condition will not be applicable if the word ends with a vowel.

Question 159

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following options have the code for BEAM arranged in ascending order?

  1. AOption (a)

    155113

  2. BOption (b)

    155115

  3. COption (c)

    15111515

  4. DOption (d)

    11111555

  5. EOption (e)

    111235

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

11111555

Why this answer is correct

Given:-

The first 16 letters of the alphabetical series are coded from 1 to 16 in such a way that A can be coded as either 1 or 16, B can be coded as either 2 or 15 ........ O can be coded either 15 or 2, and P can be coded either 16 or 1.

LetterPossible Codes
A1 / 16
B2 / 15
C3 / 14
D4 / 13
E5 / 12
F6 / 11
G7 / 10
H8 / 9
I9 / 8
J10 / 7
K11 / 6
L12 / 5
M13 / 4
N14 / 3
O15 / 2
P16 / 1

 

But no two letters can be coded as the same number.

I) Vowels are coded as a single digit → A, E, and O are coded as 1, 5, and 2 respectively. So, P, L, and B will be coded as 16, 12, and 15 respectively. We cannot determine the code of I as both possible codes are single digits.

II) The letters whose sum of digits of the possible codes is the same are coded as their place value. → The only such letters are D and M. 1 + 3 = 4, 4 + 0 = 4. So, D and M will be coded as their place value, i.e, D and M will be coded 4 and 13 respectively. 

III) The 8th, 6th, 9th, and 11th letters of the word 'TRADEJACKSHON' are not coded as their place value. → The 8th, 6th, 9th, and 11th letters are C, J, K, and H respectively and they are not coded as their place value so their codes will be - 14, 7, 6, and 9 respectively. So, N, G, F, and I will be coded as 3, 10, 11, and 8 respectively.

So, the codes are as follows:

LetterPossible Codes
A1
B15
C14
D4
E5
F11
G10
H9
I8
J7
K6
L12
M13
N3
O2
P16

 

Now the word BEAM will be coded as -

LetterBEAM
Code155113

 

Both the first and last letters are consonant and there are consecutive vowels in the word, E and A. So Conditions 1) and 3) will be applied.

1) If both the first and last letters of a word are consonant then the code of the first letter will use as the code of the last letter. This condition will not be applicable if the first and last letters are adjacent to each other as per the English alphabet series. → The first and last letters are not adjacent to each other as per the English alphabet series. So, the condition is applicable. Thus, M will be coded as 15.

3) If there are two consecutive vowels in the word, then the code of each vowel is replaced by the code of the immediate next letter in the English alphabetical order. This condition will not be applicable if the word ends with a vowel. → The word does not end with a vowel. So, the condition is applicable. Therefore, E and A will be coded as F and B respectively i.e., 11 and 15 respectively.

So, the code for BEAM is 15111515. 

After arranging in ascending order, we get → 11111555.

Hence, the correct answer is 11111555.

Question 160

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What will be the product of the digits in the code for IDIOME (use each digits only once)?

  1. AOption (a)

    3528

  2. BOption (b)

    20160

  3. COption (c)

    9720

  4. DOption (d)

    960

  5. EOption (e)

    1176

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

960

Why this answer is correct

Given:-

The first 16 letters of the alphabetical series are coded from 1 to 16 in such a way that A can be coded as either 1 or 16, B can be coded as either 2 or 15 ........ O can be coded either 15 or 2, and P can be coded either 16 or 1.

LetterPossible Codes
A1 / 16
B2 / 15
C3 / 14
D4 / 13
E5 / 12
F6 / 11
G7 / 10
H8 / 9
I9 / 8
J10 / 7
K11 / 6
L12 / 5
M13 / 4
N14 / 3
O15 / 2
P16 / 1

 

But no two letters can be coded as the same number.

I) Vowels are coded as a single digit → A, E, and O are coded as 1, 5, and 2 respectively. So, P, L, and B will be coded as 16, 12, and 15 respectively. We cannot determine the code of I as both possible codes are single digits.

II) The letters whose sum of digits of the possible codes is the same are coded as their place value. → The only such letters are D and M. 1 + 3 = 4, 4 + 0 = 4. So, D and M will be coded as their place value, i.e, D and M will be coded 4 and 13 respectively. 

III) The 8th, 6th, 9th, and 11th letters of the word 'TRADEJACKSHON' are not coded as their place value. → The 8th, 6th, 9th, and 11th letters are C, J, K, and H respectively and they are not coded as their place value so their codes will be - 14, 7, 6, and 9 respectively. So, N, G, F, and I will be coded as 3, 10, 11, and 8 respectively.

So, the codes are as follows:

LetterPossible Codes
A1
B15
C14
D4
E5
F11
G10
H9
I8
J7
K6
L12
M13
N3
O2
P16

 

Now the word IDIOME will be coded as -

LetterIDIOME
Code8482135

 

Both the first and last letters are vowels and there are consecutive vowels in the word, I and O. So Conditions 2) and 3) will be applied.

2) If both the first and last letters of a word is a vowel then codes will be interchanged. This condition will not be applicable if the word has repetitive vowels. → The word has repetitive vowels; I is repeated twice So, the condition is not applicable.

3) If there are two consecutive vowels in the word, then the code of each vowel is replaced by the code of the immediate next letter in the English alphabetical order. This condition will not be applicable if the word ends with a vowel. → The word ends with a vowel. So, the condition is not applicable.

So, the code for IDIOME is 8482135.

The product of the digits in the code (using digits only once) → 84213*5 = 960

Hence, the correct answer is 960.

Question 161

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What will be the sum of code for the letters of word 'PLANK' ?

  1. AOption (a)

    48

  2. BOption (b)

    40

  3. COption (c)

    1250

  4. DOption (d)

    97

  5. EOption (e)

    624

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

48

Why this answer is correct

Given:-

The first 16 letters of the alphabetical series are coded from 1 to 16 in such a way that A can be coded as either 1 or 16, B can be coded as either 2 or 15 ........ O can be coded either 15 or 2, and P can be coded either 16 or 1.

LetterPossible Codes
A1 / 16
B2 / 15
C3 / 14
D4 / 13
E5 / 12
F6 / 11
G7 / 10
H8 / 9
I9 / 8
J10 / 7
K11 / 6
L12 / 5
M13 / 4
N14 / 3
O15 / 2
P16 / 1

 

But no two letters can be coded as the same number.

I) Vowels are coded as a single digit → A, E, and O are coded as 1, 5, and 2 respectively. So, P, L, and B will be coded as 16, 12, and 15 respectively. We cannot determine the code of I as both possible codes are single digits.

II) The letters whose sum of digits of the possible codes is the same are coded as their place value. → The only such letters are D and M. 1 + 3 = 4, 4 + 0 = 4. So, D and M will be coded as their place value, i.e, D and M will be coded 4 and 13 respectively. 

III) The 8th, 6th, 9th, and 11th letters of the word 'TRADEJACKSHON' are not coded as their place value. → The 8th, 6th, 9th, and 11th letters are C, J, K, and H respectively and they are not coded as their place value so their codes will be - 14, 7, 6, and 9 respectively. So, N, G, F, and I will be coded as 3, 10, 11, and 8 respectively.

So, the codes are as follows:

LetterPossible Codes
A1
B15
C14
D4
E5
F11
G10
H9
I8
J7
K6
L12
M13
N3
O2
P16

 

Now the word PLANK will be coded as -

Both the first and last letters are consonant. So Condition 1) will be applied.

LetterPLANK
Code16121316

 

1) If both the first and last letters of a word are consonant then the code of the first letter will use as the code of the last letter. This condition will not be applicable if the first and last letters are adjacent to each other as per the English alphabet series. → The first and last letters are not adjacent to each other as per the English alphabet series. So, the condition is applicable. Thus, K will be coded as 16.

So, the code for PLANK is 16121316. 

Sum of digits of the code of PLANK  → 16+12+1+3+16 = 48

Hence, the correct answer is 48.

Question 162

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the following word is coded as '1421315'?

  1. AOption (a)

    CLIP

  2. BOption (b)

    COMB

  3. COption (c)

    CALL

  4. DOption (d)

    CAME

  5. EOption (e)

    CLONE

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

COMB

Why this answer is correct

Given:-

The first 16 letters of the alphabetical series are coded from 1 to 16 in such a way that A can be coded as either 1 or 16, B can be coded as either 2 or 15 ........ O can be coded either 15 or 2, and P can be coded either 16 or 1.

LetterPossible Codes
A1 / 16
B2 / 15
C3 / 14
D4 / 13
E5 / 12
F6 / 11
G7 / 10
H8 / 9
I9 / 8
J10 / 7
K11 / 6
L12 / 5
M13 / 4
N14 / 3
O15 / 2
P16 / 1

 

But no two letters can be coded as the same number.

I) Vowels are coded as a single digit → A, E, and O are coded as 1, 5, and 2 respectively. So, P, L, and B will be coded as 16, 12, and 15 respectively. We cannot determine the code of I as both possible codes are single digits.

II) The letters whose sum of digits of the possible codes is the same are coded as their place value. → The only such letters are D and M. 1 + 3 = 4, 4 + 0 = 4. So, D and M will be coded as their place value, i.e, D and M will be coded 4 and 13 respectively. 

III) The 8th, 6th, 9th, and 11th letters of the word 'TRADEJACKSHON' are not coded as their place value. → The 8th, 6th, 9th, and 11th letters are C, J, K, and H respectively and they are not coded as their place value so their codes will be - 14, 7, 6, and 9 respectively. So, N, G, F, and I will be coded as 3, 10, 11, and 8 respectively.

So, the codes are as follows:

LetterPossible Codes
A1
B15
C14
D4
E5
F11
G10
H9
I8
J7
K6
L12
M13
N3
O2
P16

 

Now let's have a look at all options:

CLIP

It will be coded as -

LetterCLIP
Code1412816

 

Both the first and last letters are consonant. So Conditions 1) will be applied.

1) If both the first and last letters of a word are consonant then the code of the first letter will use as the code of the last letter. This condition will not be applicable if the first and last letters are adjacent to each other as per the English alphabet series. → The first and last letters are not adjacent to each other as per the English alphabet series. So, the condition is applicable. Thus, P will be coded as 14.

So, the code for CLIP is 1412814. This is not the required code.

COMB

It will be coded as -

LetterCOMB
Code1421315

 

Both the first and last letters are consonant. So Conditions 1) will be applied.

1) If both the first and last letters of a word are consonant then the code of the first letter will use as the code of the last letter. This condition will not be applicable if the first and last letters are adjacent to each other as per the English alphabet series. → The first and last letters are adjacent to each other as per the English alphabet series. So, the condition is not applicable.

So, the code for COMB is 1421315. This is the required code.

CALL

It will be coded as -

LetterCALL
Code1411212

 

Both the first and last letters are consonant. So Conditions 1) will be applied.

1) If both the first and last letters of a word are consonant then the code of the first letter will use as the code of the last letter. This condition will not be applicable if the first and last letters are adjacent to each other as per the English alphabet series. → The first and last letters are not adjacent to each other as per the English alphabet series. So, the condition is applicable. Thus, L will be coded as 14.

So, the code for CALL is 1411214. This is not the required code.

CAME

It will be coded as -

LetterCAME
Code141135

 

Both the first letter is consonant and the last letter is a vowel. So no condition will be applied.

So, the code for CAME is 141135. This is not the required code.

CLONE

It will be coded as -

LetterCLONE
Code1412235

 

Both the first letter is consonant and the last letter is a vowel. So no condition will be applied.

So, the code for CLONE is 1412235. This is not the required code.

Hence, the correct answer is COMB.

Question 163

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What will be the seond digit of the code for the word AIM?

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    7

  3. COption (c)

    8

  4. DOption (d)

    5

  5. EOption (e)

    3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

5

Why this answer is correct

Given:-

The first 16 letters of the alphabetical series are coded from 1 to 16 in such a way that A can be coded as either 1 or 16, B can be coded as either 2 or 15 ........ O can be coded either 15 or 2, and P can be coded either 16 or 1.

LetterPossible Codes
A1 / 16
B2 / 15
C3 / 14
D4 / 13
E5 / 12
F6 / 11
G7 / 10
H8 / 9
I9 / 8
J10 / 7
K11 / 6
L12 / 5
M13 / 4
N14 / 3
O15 / 2
P16 / 1

 

But no two letters can be coded as the same number.

I) Vowels are coded as a single digit → A, E, and O are coded as 1, 5, and 2 respectively. So, P, L, and B will be coded as 16, 12, and 15 respectively. We cannot determine the code of I as both possible codes are single digits.

II) The letters whose sum of digits of the possible codes is the same are coded as their place value. → The only such letters are D and M. 1 + 3 = 4, 4 + 0 = 4. So, D and M will be coded as their place value, i.e, D and M will be coded 4 and 13 respectively. 

III) The 8th, 6th, 9th, and 11th letters of the word 'TRADEJACKSHON' are not coded as their place value. → The 8th, 6th, 9th, and 11th letters are C, J, K, and H respectively and they are not coded as their place value so their codes will be - 14, 7, 6, and 9 respectively. So, N, G, F, and I will be coded as 3, 10, 11, and 8 respectively.

So, the codes are as follows:

LetterPossible Codes
A1
B15
C14
D4
E5
F11
G10
H9
I8
J7
K6
L12
M13
N3
O2
P16

 

Now the word AIM will be coded as -

LetterAIM
Code1813

 

There are consecutive vowels in the word, A and I. So Conditions 3) will be applied.

3) If there are two consecutive vowels in the word, then the code of each vowel is replaced by the code of the immediate next letter in the English alphabetical order. This condition will not be applicable if the word ends with a vowel. → The word does not end with a vowel. So, the condition is applicable. Therefore, A and I will be coded as B and J respectively i.e., 15 and 7 respectively.

So, the code for AIM is 15713. 

The second digit is 5.

Hence, the correct answer is 5.

Question 164

Direction: In the question below is a statement followed by some conclusions. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then consider the conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.

Statement: In 2000, call rates for calls via mobile phones were very high. But after the entrance of Tata Docomo network the cost per call decreased because Tata Docomo offered the call rates which calculated the rates in the seconds. 

What are the conclusions that will be derived from the above passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Before the Tata Docomo the call cost was calculated as per minute of each call.

  2. BOption (b)

    Tata Docomo offered a  network at a low cost when compared to the networks at that time.

  3. COption (c)

    In 2000 less people used mobile phones.

  4. DOption (d)

    Before 2000, all cellular companies were running at a huge loss. This is the main reason for the high-cost calls.

  5. EOption (e)

    Tata Docomo was backed by the Tata groups of India.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Tata Docomo offered a  network at a low cost when compared to the networks at that time.

Why this answer is correct

As per the passage, we can say that Tata Docomo offered a call cost based on the second calculation. i.e., low cost while comparing to the other networks at that time. 

I. The statement mentions the offer given by Tata Docomo at present and not about the call cost before the Tata Docomo. So, this conclusion is not correct.

II. Tata Docomo offered a call rate based on the rates calculated in per seconds. i.e., low cost as compared to the other networks at that time. So, this conclusion follows.

III. No information about the number of calls is given  So, this conclusion is not correct.

IV. No information about the profit or loss to companies is given. Hence, this conclusion is wrong.

V. This conclusion is not mentioned in the statement. So, this conclusion does not follow.

Hence, Option 2 is correct.

Question 165

Direction: A paragraph is given followed by four inference as responses. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which one of the four given inference (responses) is definitely drawn from the given statements.

Animals, in general, are shrewd in proportion as they cultivate society. Elephants and beavers show the greatest signs of this sagacity when they are together in large numbers, but when man invades their communities, they lose all their spirit of industry. Among insects, the labors of the bee and the ant have attracted the attention and admiration of naturalists, but all their sagacity seems to be lost upon separation, and a single bee or ant seems destitute of every degree of industry. It becomes the most stupid insect imaginable, and it languishes and soon dies.

Which of the following can be inferred from the above passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Humankind is responsible for the destruction of the natural habitat of animals and insects.

  2. BOption (b)

    Animals, in general, are unable to function effectively outside their normal social environment.

  3. COption (c)

    Naturalists have great admiration for bees and ants, despite their lack of industry upon separation.

  4. DOption (d)

    Elephants and beavers are smarter than bees and ants in the presence of human beings.

  5. EOption (e)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Animals, in general, are unable to function effectively outside their normal social environment.

Why this answer is correct

The first sentence of the passage asserts that Intelligence of animals is proportionate to the extent of their socializing. Then the passage gives examples of how animals are effective when they are in their own social group and ineffective when they are alone. This is exactly what is given in option (2).

(1) and (3) are partly stated in the passage, but do not convey the central message.

(4) cannot be inferred as the passage does not compare the behavior of elephants and beavers with the behavior of bees and ants.

Hence, Animals, in general, are unable to function effectively outside their normal social environment.

Question 166

Direction: In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and following assumption and decide which of the assumption is implicit in the statement.

Statement: A unique project ‘Project Zindagi’ will commence soon to counsel government school children so that they can talk about their feelings, handle stressful situations and engage in positive relationships with their peers.

Assumptions:

I) Children will be empowered with the necessary skills to handle stressful situations at every juncture of their life and under this project they can consult and take guidance from experts whenever needed. 

II) Mental health exercises apart from the ongoing physical health exercises would be made an important part of the structure of the day or daily routine.

  1. AOption (a)

    If only assumption I is implicit

  2. BOption (b)

    If only assumption II is implicit

  3. COption (c)

    If either I or II is implicit

  4. DOption (d)

    is neither I nor II is implicit

  5. EOption (e)

    If both I and II are implicit

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

If both I and II are implicit

Why this answer is correct

The given statement is talking about a project for school children which are aimed at boosting the mental health of the children.

Therefore, both the statements are implicit as both the statements are talking about the benefits of the project.

Hence, both I and II are implicit.

Directions: In the following questions, the symbols @, #, $, % and & are used with the following meaning as illustrated below:

'X @ Y' means 'X is greater than Y'

'X # Y' means 'X is smaller than Y'

'X $ Y' means 'X is either greater than equal to Y'

'X % Y' means 'X is either smaller than or equal to Y'

'X & Y' means 'X is equal to Y'

Now in each of the following questions assuming the give statements to be true, find which of the conclusion/s given below them is/are definitely true?

Question 167

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Statements:

C $ D, D & E, E @ G

Conclusions:

 I. C $ E

 II. G @ D

  1. AOption (a)

    Only Conclusion I is true

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion II is true

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II are true

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II is true

  5. EOption (e)

    Either I or II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Only Conclusion I is true

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information:

X is
Symbol#&%@$
Meaning<=≤>≥
to Y

Given statement: C $ D, D & E, E @ G

On converting: C ≥ D, D = E, E > G

On combining: C ≥ D = E > G

Conclusions:

 I. C $ E → C ≥ E → True (as C ≥ D = E → C ≥ E)

 II. G @ D → G > D → False (as D = E > G → D > G)

Hence, Only conclusion I is true.$

Question 168

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Statements:

H # J, J & N, N $ T

Conclusions:

 I. H @ J

 II. N @ H$

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion I is true

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion II is true

  3. COption (c)

    Both conclusion I and II are true

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither conclusion I nor II is true

  5. EOption (e)

    Either conclusion I or II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only conclusion II is true

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information:

X is
Symbol#&%@$
Meaning<=≤>≥
to Y

Given statements:  H # J, J & N, N $ T

On converting: H < J, J = N, N ≥ T

On combining: H < J = N ≥ T

Conclusions:

 I. H @ J → H > J → False (as H < J)

 II. N @ H → N > H → True (as N = J > H → N > H)

Hence, Only conclusion II is true.

Question 169

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Statements:

P % Q, Q @ F, F $ J

Conclusions:

 I. Q $ J

 II. Q @ P

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion I is true

  2. BOption (b)

    Only conclusion II is true

  3. COption (c)

    Both conclusions I and II are true

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither conclusion I nor II is true

  5. EOption (e)

    Either conclusion I or II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Neither conclusion I nor II is true

Why this answer is correct

According to the given information:

X is
Symbol#&%@$
Meaning<=≤>≥
to Y

Given statements: P % Q, Q @ F, F $ J

On converting: P ≤ Q. Q > F, F ≥ J

On combining: P ≤ Q > F ≥ J

Conclusions:

 I. Q $ J → Q ≥ J → False (as Q > F ≥ J → Q > J)

 II. Q @ P → Q > P → False (as Q ≥ P)

Hence, Neither I nor II is true.$

Question 170

Directions

The question given below consists of three statements numbered I, II, and III given below it. You have to decide which of the statements is/are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements carefully and give the answer.**

Q to X are sitting around a circular table facing the center. Who is facing T?

I. One person sits between V and W, who sits to the immediate right of S.

II. W sits third to the right of U, who sits to the immediate left of the person who is facing X. Neither R nor S sits next to X.

III. Q and X sit next to each other.

  1. AOption (a)

    Data given in statement II only is sufficient to answer the question.

  2. BOption (b)

    Data given in statements II and III together are sufficient to answer the question.

  3. COption (c)

    Data given in all three statements together is sufficient to answer the question.

  4. DOption (d)

    Data given in all three statements together is not sufficient to answer the question.

  5. EOption (e)

    Data given in statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Data given in all three statements together is not sufficient to answer the question.

Why this answer is correct

Given:

8 persons - Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X

Sitting around a circular table facing the center.

We have to find who is facing T.

From statement I, two cases are possible:

From this data, we cannot determine who is facing T. So, the data given in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

From statement II, we can determine the definite positions of X, U and W only.

From this data, we cannot find the person facing T. So, the data given in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

From Statement III, we get,

From this data, we cannot determine who is facing T. So, the data given in statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

On combining statement I and statement II, we get,

Here also, we cannot determine exactly who is facing T. So, the data given in statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

On combining statements II and III together, we get,

Nothing can be determined here about the person facing T. So, the data given in statements II and III together are not sufficient to answer the question.

The combination of I and III is not given in the options.

Combining all three statements, we get,

Here, we cannot determine exactly who is facing T. So, the data given in all the statements together is also not sufficient to answer the question.

Hence, the correct answer is Data given in all three statements together is not sufficient to answer the question.

Question 171

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight persons are sitting in two parallel rows i.e., row 1 and row 2. L, M, Q, and R are sitting in row 1 facing south and O, T, U, and V are sitting in row 2 facing north direction. People of row 1 are facing the people of row 2. Who sits opposite to T?

Statement I: R sits opposite to V. One person sits between V and U. M sits immediate right of R. More than one person sit between M and L.

Statement II: O sits in one of the ends. Q sits immediate right to the person who is opposite to the one who is third right of O. V sits immediate left of T and neither of them sit at the end. R does not sit in any end.

  1. AOption (a)

    Data given in statement I and statement II together is not sufficient to answer the question.

  2. BOption (b)

    Data given in either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  3. COption (c)

    Data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

  4. DOption (d)

    Data given in both the statements is necessary to answer the question.

  5. EOption (e)

    Data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Why this answer is correct

Statement I: 

1)R sits opposite to V. 

  1. M sits immediate right of R. 

 

 

 

  1. One person sits between V and U. 

  2. More than one person sit between M and L. Therefore, case I and Case II will be cancelled.

 

Hence, statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Statement II: 

  1. O sits in one of the ends. 

  2. Q sits immediate right to the person who is opposite to the one who is third right of O. 

 

  1. V sits immediate left of T and neither of them sit at the end.

  2. R does not sit in any end.

 

Hence, statement II is alone sufficient to answer the question.

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

There are 15 boxes I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W in a room. These boxes are kept in 5 rows and 5 columns. The lower most row is number 1 and the uppermost row is number 5. The left most column is numbered as (i) and the rightmost column is numbered as (v). The number of boxes in each column is in descending order such that column (i) has five boxes, column (ii) has four boxes and so on. Also, row 1 is to the the south of of row 2, row 2 is tot he south of row 3 and so on. Column (i) is to the West of Column (ii) and Column (ii) is to the West of Column (iiI) and so on.  

[ Note: if it is given that a box is immediate above or below another box then both boxes are in same column unless stated otherwise.]

Box Q is west of U. No box is above W. One box is between W and U, where W is above U. Box I is immediately below box T which is in prime numbered row and column. W is not in column (i). P is in row 4. Box O which is west of M, is immediate above L. K is in the east of L and west of N. There is a gap of one row between box M and box V. Q is in the south of box P. V is not in column (v). J lives below R in same column. Box S is in North West of K.

Question 172

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which box is immediate West of W? 

  1. AOption (a)

    P

  2. BOption (b)

    V

  3. COption (c)

    T

  4. DOption (d)

    M

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

T

Why this answer is correct

Boxes : I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W

  1. No box is above W who is not in column (i).

  2. One box is between W and U, where W is above U.

 

  1. Box I is immediately below box T which is in prime numbered row and column i.e., row 2, row 3, column (ii) and column (iii).

'

 

  1. P is in row 4. So, P could be either in column (i) and (ii) in Case II and Case IV.

 

  1. Box O which is left of M, is immediate above L.

  2. Q is in the south of box P and west of U. Therefore, Case I, Case II, Case III will be cancelled as the place of Q is occupied by either O or L and the Case VI will be cancelled as Q’s place is occupied by I. 

  3. K is in the east of L and west of N. So, there should be at least two blank spaces to the east of L. 

 

 

 

  1. There is a gap of one row between box M and box V.

  2. V is not in column (v).

 

 

 

  1. J lives below R in same column. Therefore, the Case IV and Case VIII will be cancelled as there is no place where we can place J below R in same column.

 

  1. Box S is in North West of K. Therefore, Case V will be cancelled as S sits to the north of K.

The final solution is

 

Hence, box T is immediate West of box W.

Question 173

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is row and column number of I?

  1. AOption (a)

    Second row and second column

  2. BOption (b)

    Second row and third column

  3. COption (c)

    First row and second column

  4. DOption (d)

    First row and third column

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Second row and second column

Why this answer is correct

Boxes : I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W

  1. No box is above W who is not in column (i).

  2. One box is between W and U, where W is above U.

 

  1. Box I is immediately below box T which is in prime numbered row and column i.e., row 2, row 3, column (ii) and column (iii).

'

 

  1. P is in row 4. So, P could be either in column (i) and (ii) in Case II and Case IV.

 

  1. Box O which is left of M, is immediate above L.

  2. Q is in the south of box P and west of U. Therefore, Case I, Case II, Case III will be cancelled as the place of Q is occupied by either O or L and the Case VI will be cancelled as Q’s place is occupied by I. 

  3. K is in the east of L and west of N. So, there should be at least two blank spaces to the east of L. 

 

 

 

8) There is a gap of one row between box M and box V.

  1. V is not in column (v).

 

 

 

  1. J lives below R in same column. Therefore, the Case IV and Case VIII will be cancelled as there is no place where we can place J below R in same column.

 

  1. Box S is in North West of K. Therefore, Case V will be cancelled as S sits to the north of K.

The final solution is

 

Hence, box I is in second row and second column.

Question 174

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which box is immediately below box V?

  1. AOption (a)

    J

  2. BOption (b)

    T

  3. COption (c)

    O

  4. DOption (d)

    P

  5. EOption (e)

    Q

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

J

Why this answer is correct

Boxes : I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W

  1. No box is above W who is not in column (i).

  2. One box is between W and U, where W is above U.

 

  1. Box I is immediately below box T which is in prime numbered row and column i.e., row 2, row 3, column (ii) and column (iii).

'

 

  1. P is in row 4. So, P could be either in column (i) and (ii) in Case II and Case IV.

 

  1. Box O which is left of M, is immediate above L.

  2. Q is in the south of box P and west of U. Therefore, Case I, Case II, Case III will be cancelled as the place of Q is occupied by either O or L and the Case VI will be cancelled as Q’s place is occupied by I. 

  3. K is in the east of L and west of N. So, there should be at least two blank spaces to the east of L. 

 

 

 

8) There is a gap of one row between box M and box V.

  1. V is not in column (v).

 

 

 

  1. J lives below R in same column. Therefore, the Case IV and Case VIII will be cancelled as there is no place where we can place J below R in same column.

 

  1. Box S is in North West of K. Therefore, Case V will be cancelled as S sits to the north of K.

The final solution is

 

Hence, **box J is immediate below box V.**​

Question 175

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which box is kept in third row?

  1. AOption (a)

    O

  2. BOption (b)

    M

  3. COption (c)

    V

  4. DOption (d)

    K

  5. EOption (e)

    T

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

T

Why this answer is correct

Boxes : I, J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W

  1. No box is above W who is not in column (i).

  2. One box is between W and U, where W is above U.

 

  1. Box I is immediately below box T which is in prime numbered row and column i.e., row 2, row 3, column (ii) and column (iii).

'

 

  1. P is in row 4. So, P could be either in column (i) and (ii) in Case II and Case IV.

 

  1. Box O which is left of M, is immediate above L.

  2. Q is in the south of box P and west of U. Therefore, Case I, Case II, Case III will be cancelled as the place of Q is occupied by either O or L and the Case VI will be cancelled as Q’s place is occupied by I. 

  3. K is in the east of L and west of N. So, there should be at least two blank spaces to the east of L. 

 

 

 

8) There is a gap of one row between box M and box V.

  1. V is not in column (v).

 

 

 

  1. J lives below R in same column. Therefore, the Case IV and Case VIII will be cancelled as there is no place where we can place J below R in same column.

 

  1. Box S is in North West of K. Therefore, Case V will be cancelled as S sits to the north of K.

The final solution is

 

Hence, **T is kept in third row.**​

Question 176

Directions

In the question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered | and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested course of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

Pradeep Kumar is the new Operations Head at Company D. He has been hired by the company a week ago because of his stellar reputation and rapport with the workers. Pradeep has been going through the various report files of the company. After studying the reports, he concludes that the efficiency of the workers has dropped in the last thirteen years. Previously, the workers were given tea breaks twice a day apart from the lunch break. The Operations Head before Pradeep had cut down the tea breaks of the workers. Pradeep proposes two courses of action to counter the problem.

Course of Actions:

I. Pradeep gives a half-day on two of the working weekdays to the workers.

II. Pradeep reinstates the previous tea breaks that were provided to the workers.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Only II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Either I or II follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither I nor II follows

  5. EOption (e)

    Both I and II follow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Only II follows

Why this answer is correct

The statement talks about the appointment of Pradeep, who goes through the files of the company and found that the efficiency of workers had declined. It is because no proper rest time is allotted daily. So, he took the course of action to counter the problem.

The first course would only ensure that the workers have a healthy spurt in their activities on the days when they work on that particular day when half day is given while there won't be any change in the efficiency of the workers work on other working days. Also, leave for half day will result in loss of working hours. Tea breaks are short as compared to half working day.

The second course of action ensures that the tea breaks provided daily will give enough rest period everyday so that the efficiency will increase, and work will not be affected adversely. So, Pradeep should take the second course of action.

Hence, Only Ii follows.

Question 177

Direction: In the question below, a few statements are given depicting an issue or a problem. You have to assume everything in the statements to be true even if they are at variance from commonly known facts, and on the basis of the information given in the statements, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.

Statement: A free marketplace of ideas ensures that all ideas get a fair hearing. Even ideas tainted with prejudice and malice can prompt beneficial outcomes. In most countries, however, the government is responsible for over half the information released to the public through all media. For this reason, the power of governments over information needs to be curtailed. Everyone grants that governments should not suppress free expression, yet governments continue to construct near monopolies on the publication and dissemination of enormous amounts of information.

Which one of the following most accurately expresses the course of action of the journalist’s statement?

  1. AOption (a)

    The freedom of the marketplace of ideas is in jeopardy.

  2. BOption (b)

    Preserving a free marketplace of ideas is important.

  3. COption (c)

    The control that governments have over information needs to be reduced.

  4. DOption (d)

    Ideas that have malicious content or stem from questionable sources can be valuable. 

  5. EOption (e)

    Governments have near monopolies on the dissemination of many kinds of information

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The control that governments have over information needs to be reduced.

Why this answer is correct

I. The freedom of the marketplace of ideas is in jeopardy is a negative statement. This can't be the possible course of action.

II. Preserving a free marketplace of ideas is important but it cannot be the course of action.

III. The course of action to this statement is the fourth sentence, which begins with the conclusion indicator “For this reason...” By applying the Primary Objectives, you should have identified this course of action while reading, and then, upon classifying the question stem you should have looked for a paraphrase of this sentence.

IV. Ideas that have malicious content or stem from questionable sources can be valuable not help in improving the marketplace

V. Governments have near monopolies on the dissemination of many kinds of information does not solve the above problem.

Option III is the answer.

Question 178

Directions

The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given and explain why the chosen answer is the right fit. You have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts.

Statement: During Covid-19 pandemic company XYZ did not dismiss their employees from employment and paid a handsome amount to all the employees.

Which of the following assertions best infer the above statements?

  1. AOption (a)

    Now employees should do overtime without pay.

  2. BOption (b)

    Employees should not worry about this as it was the duty of the company to pay them.

  3. COption (c)

    Company XYZ should cut the amount from their salary.

  4. DOption (d)

    Employees should pay back to the company by working hard.

  5. EOption (e)

    Company XYZ should cut the amount from their bonus.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Employees should pay back to the company by working hard.

Why this answer is correct

Option 1, option 3 and option 5 are not correct as it seems like exploitation of the employees.

Option 2 is not correct as employees are the core of any company and they all must have one target that is the betterment of the company.

Option 4 is correct as company XYZ help their employees at the time of crisis and to pay back, employees need to do hard work.

Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows:

The coding language used to indicate the positions of points is as follows:

A 20# B means A is 10 m North of point B.

A 30) B means A is 20 m South of point B.

A 15@ B means A is 20 m East of point B.

A 20$ B means A is 25 m West of point B.

A #@ B means A is to the Northeast of point B.

A )$ B means A is to the Southwest of point B.

The positions of some of the points are as follows:

L 20) K, R 10@ K, M 30 L, N 40# M, O 20 N, P 30# O.

Question 179

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the direction of R with respect to L?

  1. AOption (a)

    South-East

  2. BOption (b)

    North-East

  3. COption (c)

    East

  4. DOption (d)

    South

  5. EOption (e)

    West

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

North-East

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A 20# B means A is 10 m North of point B.

A 30) B means A is 20 m South of point B.

A 15@ B means A is 20 m East of point B.

A 20$ B means A is 25 m West of point B.

A #@ B means A is to the Northeast of point B.

A )$ B means A is to the Southwest of point B.

The positions of some of the points are as follows:

L 20) K, R 10@ K, M 30 L, N 40# M, O 20 N, P 30# O.

The number in the codes represents the coded distance between the two points and the symbol represents the direction of the first point with respect to the second point.

By observing the given data, we can conclude that:

SymbolsDirectionDistance (given in code)
)SouthSubtract 10
@EastAdd 5
$WestAdd 5
#NorthSubtract 10

L 20) K: L is 10 m south to the point of K.

R 10@ K: R is 15 m east to the point of K.

M 30$ L: M is 35 m west to the point of L.

N 40# M: N is 30 m north to the point of M.

O 20$ N: O is 25 m west to the point of N.

P 30# O: P is 20 m north to the point of O.

The diagram for the points given will be as follows:

Hence, R is in the North-East direction with respect to point L$.

Question 180

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

If there is a point Z such that Z 20) O, then what will be the direction of Z with respect to N?

  1. AOption (a)

    South-West

  2. BOption (b)

    North-West

  3. COption (c)

    North

  4. DOption (d)

    West

  5. EOption (e)

    East

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

South-West

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A 20# B means A is 10 m North of point B.

A 30B means A is 20 m South of point B.

A 15@ B means A is 20 m East of point B.

A 20$ B means A is 25 m West of point B.

A #@ B means A is to the Northeast of point B.

A )$ B means A is to the Southwest of point B.

The positions of some of the points are as follows:

L 20) K, R 10@ K, M 30 L, N 40# M, O 20 N, P 30# O.

The number in the codes represents the coded distance between the two points and the symbol represents the direction of the first point with respect to the second point.

By observing the given data, we can conclude that:

SymbolsDirectionDistance (given in code)
)SouthSubtract 10
@EastAdd 5
$WestAdd 5
#NorthSubtract 10

 

L 20) K: L is 10 m South of point K.

R 10@ K: R is 15 m East of point K.

M 30$ L: M is 35 m West of point L.

N 40# M: N is 30 m North of point M.

O 20$ N: O is 25 m West of point N.

P 30# O: P is 20 m North of point O.

The diagram for the points given will be as follows:

As we can see in this diagram,

Z 20) O: Z is 10 m South of point O.

Hence, Z is in the South-west direction with respect to point N$.

Question 181

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

What is the shortest distance between P and N?

  1. AOption (a)

    √1025 m

  2. BOption (b)

    1025 m

  3. COption (c)

    √1005 m

  4. DOption (d)

    √1020 m

  5. EOption (e)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

√1025 m

Why this answer is correct

Given:

A 20# B means A is 10 m North of point B.

A 30) B means A is 20 m South of point B.

A 15@ B means A is 20 m East of point B.

A 20$ B means A is 25 m West of point B.

A #@ B means A is to the North-east of point B.

A )$ B means A is to the South-west of point B.

The positions of some of the points are as follows:

L 20) K, R 10@ K, M 30 L, N 40# M, O 20 N, P 30# O.

The number in the codes represents the coded distance between the two points and the symbol represents the direction of the first point with respect to the second point.

By observing the given data, we can conclude that:

SymbolsDirectionDistance (given in code)
)SouthSubtract 10
@EastAdd 5
$WestAdd 5
#NorthSubtract 10

 

L 20) K: L is 10 m South of point K.

R 10@ K: R is 15 m East of point K.

M 30$ L: M is 35 m West of point L.

N 40# M: N is 30 m North of point M.

O 20$ N: O is 25 m West of point N.

P 30# O: P is 20 m North of point O.

The diagram for the points given will be as follows:

As we can see in this diagram,

The shortest distance between P and N can be obtained by  applying the Pythagoras theorem:

(PN)2 = (PO)2 + (ON)2

(PN) 2 = (20)2 + (25)2

PN = √(400 + 625)

PN = √1025 m

Hence, the shortest distance between P and N is √1025 m$.

Directions: Read the given information carefully and answer the questions.

Eight persons namely A,B,C,D,E,F,G and H are from three different cities i.e., Chennai, Bangalore, and Mumbai joining the work at same company in eight different months from January to August. A minimum of two and not more than three belong to the same city. It is also stated that one who joins before someone is considered senior to him/her.

No one from Bangalore joined in June. The person joining in May is from Chennai. Either H will be the first or last to join. As many persons joining before A is one less than the one who joined after D. E is neither joining in April nor belongs to Bangalore. Only one person with A hails from the same city as A. D does not join in March but belongs to the same city that the one from March belongs to. G neither joins in March nor April nor belongs to Mumbai. The one who joins in May belongs to the same city as the one who joins in February but not the city that B belongs to. Only two person joins after B. C neither belongs to Chennai nor joins in April. The one who joins in March is junior to A. E is not junior to C. One who joins in January and F belong to the same city but none of them is from Mumbai.

Question 182

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who among the following joins immediately before D?

I. One who joins in June

II. One who joins immediately after May

III. One who joins first

  1. AOption (a)

    Only I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both II and III

  3. COption (c)

    Both I and II

  4. DOption (d)

    Only II

  5. EOption (e)

    All I, II and III

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both I and II

Why this answer is correct

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H.

Months: January to August. 

It is given that minimum 2 and maximum 3 belong to same city and total people are 8 hence the only possible combination would be 3,3 and 2.

It is given A and only one other person hails from a city hence a would hail from city with only 2 people.

1. Only two person joins after B. 2. As many persons joining before A is one less than the one who joining after D. 3.  The one who joins in March is junior to A. 4. Either H will be first or last to join. Thus, H will join last. 5. The person joining on May is from Chennai. 6.  The one who joins in May belongs to the same city as the one who join on February.

May and Feb would be chennai.

We know A would be above March from statement 3 and it cannot be February as A cannot be from chennai because 2 other people are already from chennai and hence not possible as A is from city with 2 people.

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
February
March
April
May
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

4. The person joining on May is from Chennai. 5.  The one who joins in May belongs to the same city as the one who join on February.

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February May

 

6. E is neither joining in April nor belongs to Bangalore.  7. G neither joins on March nor April nor belongs to Mumbai. 

Either G or E is in February and May, hence F will join in April.

8. D does not join in March but belongs to the same city that the one from March belongs to. 9. C neither belongs to Chennai nor joins on April. 

C is not the May, February, and April. so, C will be the March.

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
FebruaryG/E
MarchC
AprilF
MayG/E
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February May

 

10. E is not junior to C. 11. January and F belong to the same city but none of them is from Mumbai. 12.  A minimum of one and not more than three belong to the same city.

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
FebruaryE
MarchC
AprilF
MayG
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February - E May - GApril - F January - A

 

13. No one from Bangalore is June. 14. D is not in March but belongs to the same city that March belongs to. 15. The one who is Manager belongs to the same city as the February but not the city that B belongs to.

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
FebruaryE
MarchC
AprilF
MayG
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February - E May - GApril - F January - AJuly - D March - C June - B

 

16. Only one person with A hails from the same city as A.

Thus, the final arrangement is,

 

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
FebruaryE
MarchC
AprilF
MayG
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February - E May – G August - HApril - F January - AJuly - D March - C June - B

 

I. One who joins in June

II. One who joins immediately after May joins immediately after D.

Thus, Both I and II is the answer.

Question 183

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who among the following is from the same city as E?

  1. AOption (a)

    One from March

  2. BOption (b)

    One from April

  3. COption (c)

    One from January

  4. DOption (d)

    One from August

  5. EOption (e)

    One from June

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

One from August

Why this answer is correct

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H.

Months: January to August. 

It is given that minimum 2 and maximum 3 belong to same city and total people are 8 hence the only possible combination would be 3,3 and 2.

It is given A and only one other person hails from a city hence a would hail from city with only 2 people.

1. Only two person joins after B. 2. As many persons joining before A is one less than the one who joining after D. 3.  The one who joins in March is junior to A. 4. Either H will be first or last to join. Thus, H will join last. 5. The person joining on May is from Chennai. 6.  The one who joins in May belongs to the same city as the one who join on February.

May and Feb would be chennai.

We know A would be above March from statement 3 and it cannot be February as A cannot be from chennai because 2 other people are already from chennai and hence not possible as A is from city with 2 people.

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
February
March
April
May
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

4. The person joining on May is from Chennai. 5.  The one who joins in May belongs to the same city as the one who join on February.

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February May

 

6. E is neither joining in April nor belongs to Bangalore.  7. G neither joins on March nor April nor belongs to Mumbai. 

Either G or E is in February and May, hence F will join in April.

8. D does not join in March but belongs to the same city that the one from March belongs to. 9. C neither belongs to Chennai nor joins on April. 

C is not the May, February, and April. so, C will be the March.

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
FebruaryG/E
MarchC
AprilF
MayG/E
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February May

 

10. E is not junior to C. 11. January and F belong to the same city but none of them is from Mumbai. 12.  A minimum of one and not more than three belong to the same city.

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
FebruaryE
MarchC
AprilF
MayG
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February - E May - GApril - F January - A

 

13. No one from Bangalore is June. 14. D is not in March but belongs to the same city that March belongs to. 15. The one who is Manager belongs to the same city as the February but not the city that B belongs to.

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
FebruaryE
MarchC
AprilF
MayG
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February - E May - GApril - F January - AJuly - D March - C June - B

 

16. Only one person with A hails from the same city as A.

Thus, the final arrangement is,

 

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
FebruaryE
MarchC
AprilF
MayG
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February - E May – G August - HApril - F January - AJuly - D March - C June - B

.

Thus, one from August is from the same city as E.

Question 184

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

How many persons joined between E and B?

  1. AOption (a)

    One

  2. BOption (b)

    Two

  3. COption (c)

    Three

  4. DOption (d)

    Four

  5. EOption (e)

    Five

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Three

Why this answer is correct

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H.

Months: January to August. 

Cities: Chennai, Bangalore, and Mumbai.

It is given that minimum 2 and maximum 3 belong to same city and total people are 8 hence the only possible combination would be 3,3 and 2.

It is given A and only one other person hails from a city hence a would hail from city with only 2 people.

1. Only two person joins after B. 2. As many persons joining before A is one less than the one who joining after D. 3.  The one who joins in March is junior to A. 4. Either H will be first or last to join. Thus, H will join last. 5. The person joining on May is from Chennai. 6.  The one who joins in May belongs to the same city as the one who join on February.

May and Feb would be chennai.

We know A would be above March from statement 3 and it cannot be February as A cannot be from chennai because 2 other people are already from chennai and hence not possible as A is from city with 2 people.

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
February
March
April
May
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

4. The person joining on May is from Chennai. 5.  The one who joins in May belongs to the same city as the one who join on February.

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February May

 

6. E is neither joining in April nor belongs to Bangalore.  7. G neither joins on March nor April nor belongs to Mumbai. 

Either G or E is in February and May, hence F will join in April.

8. D does not join in March but belongs to the same city that the one from March belongs to. 9. C neither belongs to Chennai nor joins on April. 

C is not the May, February, and April. so, C will be the March.

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
FebruaryG/E
MarchC
AprilF
MayG/E
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February May

 

10. E is not junior to C. 11. January and F belong to the same city but none of them is from Mumbai. 12.  A minimum of one and not more than three belong to the same city.

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
FebruaryE
MarchC
AprilF
MayG
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February - E May - GApril - F January - A

 

13. No one from Bangalore is June. 14. D is not in March but belongs to the same city that March belongs to. 15. The one who is Manager belongs to the same city as the February but not the city that B belongs to.

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
FebruaryE
MarchC
AprilF
MayG
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February - E May - GApril - F January - AJuly - D March - C June - B

 

16. Only one person with A hails from the same city as A.

Thus, the final arrangement is,

 

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
FebruaryE
MarchC
AprilF
MayG
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February - E May – G August - HApril - F January - AJuly - D March - C June - B

 

Thus, three persons joined between E and B.

Question 185

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which among the following is True?

  1. AOption (a)

    One who joins in May hails from Banglore

  2. BOption (b)

    One who joins in July hails from Banglore

  3. COption (c)

    One who joins in August hails from Chennai

  4. DOption (d)

    One who joins in June hails from Chennai

  5. EOption (e)

    One who joins in May hails from Mumbai

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

One who joins in August hails from Chennai

Why this answer is correct

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H.

Months: January to August. 

It is given that minimum 2 and maximum 3 belong to same city and total people are 8 hence the only possible combination would be 3,3 and 2.

It is given A and only one other person hails from a city hence a would hail from city with only 2 people.

1. Only two person joins after B. 2. As many persons joining before A is one less than the one who joining after D. 3.  The one who joins in March is junior to A. 4. Either H will be first or last to join. Thus, H will join last. 5. The person joining on May is from Chennai. 6.  The one who joins in May belongs to the same city as the one who join on February.

May and Feb would be chennai.

We know A would be above March from statement 3 and it cannot be February as A cannot be from chennai because 2 other people are already from chennai and hence not possible as A is from city with 2 people.

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
February
March
April
May
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

4. The person joining on May is from Chennai. 5.  The one who joins in May belongs to the same city as the one who join on February.

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February May

 

6. E is neither joining in April nor belongs to Bangalore.  7. G neither joins on March nor April nor belongs to Mumbai. 

Either G or E is in February and May, hence F will join in April.

8. D does not join in March but belongs to the same city that the one from March belongs to. 9. C neither belongs to Chennai nor joins on April. 

C is not the May, February, and April. so, C will be the March.

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
FebruaryG/E
MarchC
AprilF
MayG/E
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February May

 

10. E is not junior to C. 11. January and F belong to the same city but none of them is from Mumbai. 12.  A minimum of one and not more than three belong to the same city.

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
FebruaryE
MarchC
AprilF
MayG
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February - E May - GApril - F January - A

 

13. No one from Bangalore is June. 14. D is not in March but belongs to the same city that March belongs to. 15. The one who is Manager belongs to the same city as the February but not the city that B belongs to.

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
FebruaryE
MarchC
AprilF
MayG
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February - E May - GApril - F January - AJuly - D March - C June - B

 

16. Only one person with A hails from the same city as A.

Thus, the final arrangement is,

 

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
FebruaryE
MarchC
AprilF
MayG
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February - E May – G August - HApril - F January - AJuly - D March - C June - B

 

Thus, One who joins in August hails from Chennai is true.

Thus, option III is true.

Question 186

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which of the combination is False?

  1. AOption (a)

    A - Bangalore

  2. BOption (b)

    G - May

  3. COption (c)

    July - Mumbai

  4. DOption (d)

    February - Chennai

  5. EOption (e)

    June - Chennai

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

June - Chennai

Why this answer is correct

Persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H.

Months: January to August. 

Cities: Chennai, Bangalore, and Mumbai.

It is given that minimum 2 and maximum 3 belong to same city and total people are 8 hence the only possible combination would be 3,3 and 2.

It is given A and only one other person hails from a city hence a would hail from city with only 2 people.

1. Only two person joins after B. 2. As many persons joining before A is one less than the one who joining after D. 3.  The one who joins in March is junior to A. 4. Either H will be first or last to join. Thus, H will join last. 5. The person joining on May is from Chennai. 6.  The one who joins in May belongs to the same city as the one who join on February.

May and Feb would be chennai.

We know A would be above March from statement 3 and it cannot be February as A cannot be from chennai because 2 other people are already from chennai and hence not possible as A is from city with 2 people.

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
February
March
April
May
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

4. The person joining on May is from Chennai. 5.  The one who joins in May belongs to the same city as the one who join on February.

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February May

 

6. E is neither joining in April nor belongs to Bangalore.  7. G neither joins on March nor April nor belongs to Mumbai. 

Either G or E is in February and May, hence F will join in April.

8. D does not join in March but belongs to the same city that the one from March belongs to. 9. C neither belongs to Chennai nor joins on April. 

C is not the May, February, and April. so, C will be the March.

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
FebruaryG/E
MarchC
AprilF
MayG/E
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February May

 

10. E is not junior to C. 11. January and F belong to the same city but none of them is from Mumbai. 12.  A minimum of one and not more than three belong to the same city.

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
FebruaryE
MarchC
AprilF
MayG
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February - E May - GApril - F January - A

 

13. No one from Bangalore is June. 14. D is not in March but belongs to the same city that March belongs to. 15. The one who is Manager belongs to the same city as the February but not the city that B belongs to.

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
FebruaryE
MarchC
AprilF
MayG
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February - E May - GApril - F January - AJuly - D March - C June - B

 

16. Only one person with A hails from the same city as A.

Thus, the final arrangement is,

 

MonthsPersons
JanuaryA
FebruaryE
MarchC
AprilF
MayG
JuneB
JulyD
AugustH

 

CHENNAIBANGLOREMUMBAI
February - E May – G August - HApril - F January - AJuly - D March - C June - B

 

Thus, option V is the answer.

Direction: Read the given information carefully and answer the questions.

There are twelve persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L are sitting around a regular hexagonal table but not necessarily in the same order. Some are sitting in the middle of each side of the table, and some are sitting at the corners. Persons sitting in the middle of each side are facing towards the centre and the persons sitting at the corners are facing outside. No nearing alphabets according to the English alphabets are seated near to each other.

K sits second to the left of D. J faces outside. D and L are sitting opposite to each other. The number of persons between J and H is equal to the number of persons between F and D. F sits to the immediate left of A. The number of persons sitting between L and G when counted from the left of G is equal to the number of persons between D and I when counted from the left of D. The number of persons sitting between the right of F and G is either two or nine.  D and F face the same direction.  E faces the centre and he is not the immediate neighbour of K. Two persons between C and G.

Question 187

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Which among the following is false?

  1. AOption (a)

    C sits fourth to the left of D

  2. BOption (b)

    A faces the same direction as H

  3. COption (c)

    I is sitting opposite to G

  4. DOption (d)

    The number of persons between H and I is equal to D and F.

  5. EOption (e)

    Both F and G are the immediate neighbors of B

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

Both F and G are the immediate neighbors of B

Why this answer is correct

Twelve persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L.

Some are sitting in the middle of each side of the table, and some are sitting at the corners. 

Persons sitting in the middle of each side are facing towards the centre and the persons sitting at the corners are facing outside.

No nearing alphabets according to the English alphabets are seated near to each other.

1. F sits to the immediate left of A. 2. The number of persons sitting between the right of F and G is either two or nine.

3. Two persons between C and the of G. 

4. D and F face the same direction. D and L sitting are opposite to each other. 5. K sits second to the left of D.

Here C and D are near to each other in Case 1b and Case 2b. So it is eliminated.

6. The number of persons sitting between L and G  when counted from the left of G is equal to the number of persons between D and I when counted from the left of D.

7. E faces the middle and he is not the immediate neighbour of K. 

No middle place is left in Case 2a so it is eliminated.

Now the persons left are B, J and H. By following the conditions that no nearing alphabets according to the English alphabets are seated near to each other, the possible places for the persons are, 

  1. J faces outside. So, Case 1a and 1c is eliminated.

9. The number of persons between J and H is equal to the number of persons between F and D.

Thus, Case 2 satisfies the condition that the number of persons between J and H is equal to the number of persons between F and D.

The final arrangement is,

F and K are the immediate neighbors of B.

Thus, option V is the correct answer.

Question 188

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Who among the following faces the same direction as B?

  1. AOption (a)

    One who is immediate left of G

  2. BOption (b)

    F

  3. COption (c)

    One who is immediate right of D

  4. DOption (d)

    E

  5. EOption (e)

    One who is opposite to K

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

One who is immediate right of D

Why this answer is correct

Twelve persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L.

Some are sitting in the middle of each side of the table, and some are sitting at the corners. 

Persons sitting in the middle of each side are facing towards the centre and the persons sitting at the corners are facing outside.

No nearing alphabets according to the English alphabets are seated near to each other.

1. F sits to the immediate left of A. 2. The number of persons sitting between the right of F and G is either two or nine.

3. Two persons between C and the of G. 

4. D and F face the same direction. D and L sitting are opposite to each other. 5. K sits second to the left of D.

Here C and D are near to each other in Case 1b and Case 2b. So it is eliminated.

6. The number of persons sitting between L and G  when counted from the left of G is equal to the number of persons between D and I when counted from the left of D.

7. E faces the middle and he is not the immediate neighbour of K. 

No middle place is left in Case 2a so it is eliminated.

Now the persons left are B, J and H. By following the conditions that no nearing alphabets according to the English alphabets are seated near to each other, the possible places for the persons are, 

  1. J faces outside. So, Case 1a and 1c is eliminated.

9. The number of persons between J and H is equal to the number of persons between F and D.

Thus, Case 2 satisfies the condition that the number of persons between J and H is equal to the number of persons between F and D.

The final arrangement is,

Thus, one who is immediate right of D faces the same direction as B.

Question 189

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

The number of persons between L and I is equal to the number of persons between

  1. AOption (a)

    C and E

  2. BOption (b)

    B and G

  3. COption (c)

    H and D

  4. DOption (d)

    K and A

  5. EOption (e)

    L and A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (e)E.

L and A

Why this answer is correct

Twelve persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L.

Some are sitting in the middle of each side of the table, and some are sitting at the corners. 

Persons sitting in the middle of each side are facing towards the centre and the persons sitting at the corners are facing outside.

No nearing alphabets according to the English alphabets are seated near to each other.

1. F sits to the immediate left of A. 2. The number of persons sitting between the right of F and G is either two or nine.

3. Two persons between C and the of G. 

4. D and F face the same direction. D and L are sitting opposite to each other. 5. K sits second to the left of D.

Here C and D are near to each other in Case 1b and Case 2b. So it is eliminated.

6. The number of persons sitting between L and G  when counted from the left of G is equal to the number of persons between D and I when counted from the left of D.

7. E faces the middle and he is not the immediate neighbour of K. 

No middle place is left in Case 2a so it is eliminated.

Now the persons left are B, J and H. By following the conditions that no nearing alphabets according to the English alphabets are seated near to each other, the possible places for the persons are, 

  1. J faces outside. So, Case 1a and 1c is eliminated.

 

9. The number of persons between J and H is equal to the number of persons between F and D.

Thus, Case 2 satisfies the condition that the number of persons between J and H is equal to the number of persons between F and D.

The final arrangement is,

Thus, the number of persons between L and I is equal to the number of persons between L and A.

Question 190

Based on Passage: View directions & passage

Find the odd one out.

  1. AOption (a)

    L

  2. BOption (b)

    One who is to the immediate left of F

  3. COption (c)

    K

  4. DOption (d)

    One who is to the immediate left of H

  5. EOption (e)

    D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

One who is to the immediate left of F

Why this answer is correct

Twelve persons: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L.

Some are sitting in the middle of each side of the table, and some are sitting at the corners. 

Persons sitting in the middle of each side are facing towards the centre and the persons sitting at the corners are facing outside.

No nearing alphabets according to the English alphabets are seated near to each other.

1. F sits to the immediate left of A. 2. The number of persons sitting between the right of F and G is either two or nine.

3. Two persons between C and the of G. 

4. D and F face the same direction. D and L are sitting opposite to each other. 5. K sits second to the left of D.

Here C and D are near to each other in Case 1b and Case 2b. So it is eliminated.

6. The number of persons sitting between L and G  when counted from the left of G is equal to the number of persons between D and I when counted from the left of D.

7. E faces the middle and he is not the immediate neighbour of K. 

No middle place is left in Case 2a so it is eliminated.

Now the persons left are B, J and H. By following the conditions that no nearing alphabets according to the English alphabets are seated near to each other, the possible places for the persons are, 

  1. J faces outside. So, Case 1a and 1c is eliminated.

9. The number of persons between J and H is equal to the number of persons between F and D.

Thus, Case 2 satisfies the condition that the number of persons between J and H is equal to the number of persons between F and D.

The final arrangement is,

Everyone except the one who is to the immediate left of F faces centre whereas one who is to the immediate left of F faces outside the centre.

Thus, option IV is the odd one out.

190 questions in the full paper