The correct answer is None of these.

Key Points

• In KLEMS K stand for Capital.
• KLEMS K- capital, L- labor, E- energy, M- materials, and S- service.
• The database is part of a research project supported by the Reserve Bank of India to analyze productivity performance in the Indian economy at disaggregated industry level.
• Its main objective is to create sustainable growth, employment, and productivity database in the industry.
• Measuring productivity at the Industry Level and generating statistics and other essential information as inputs to evaluate goals related to productivity and economic growth potential.

The correct answer is 140th.

Key Points

• New Delhi has been placed 112th on the list of the most liveable city in the world.
• Followed by Mumbai at 117th, Chennai at 142nd, and Ahmedabad at 146th positions respectively.
• The most livable city according to the index is Vienna, Austria followed by Copenhagen (Denmark) and Zurich (Switzerland).
• Damascus, Syria worst liveable city in the world in 2022.
• Osaka city of Japan is the only Asian country to secure a position in the best top 10 countries according to the Global Liveability Index 2022.

Additional Information

• Global Liveability Report is published by the Economic Intelligence Unit.
• Economic Intelligence Unit is an organization that provides research and advisory services to assist entrepreneurs, financiers, and government officials.
• It was founded in 1946 and its headquarter is located in London, England.
• ​Global Liveability ranking is based on their performance and is dependent on various parameters like Education, Environment, Healthcare, the standard of living, etc.
• The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs published the report on the Ease of Living Index India.

The correct answer is Russia.

Key Points

• The Sberbank is majorly owned by Russia.
• It is a Russian majority state-owned banking and financial services company.
• The majority shareholder of Sberbank is the Russian National Wealth Fund which is managed by the Government of Russia.
• It was established in 1841.
• Its headquarter is located in Moscow.
• It was founded under the Central Bank of the Russian Federation.

Important Points

• ​Russia (The Russian Federation) is the world's largest country.
• Russia is the only country in the world that is a transcontinental nation that spread in both Asia and Eastern Europe continent.
• Capital: Moscow
• President: Vladimir Putin
• Prime minister: Mikhail Mishustin
• Population: 14.34 crores
• Currency: Russian Ruble

The correct answer is Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.

Key Points

• The States’ Startup Ranking is an annual report presented by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.
• The idea of the framework was first launched in February 2018.
• Gujarat and Karnataka have secured a position as the ‘best performers’ in Category A, while Meghalaya was nominated as the ‘best performer’ in Category B.
• Category A consists of states and Union territories with a population of over 1 Crore.
• Category  B consists of states and Union territories with a population under 1 Crore.
• Further, it is also divided into best performers, top performers, leaders, aspiring leaders, and emerging startup ecosystems.
• Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) comes under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
• Anurag Jain is the current head of Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.
• Piyush Goyal is the chairperson of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Additional Information

• The Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion was founded in 1995 and renamed as the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.
• ​The Board of Investments is the lead investment promotion agency of the Philippine government.
• The Department of Trade and Industry's main aim is to develop policies and programs aimed at sustaining the growth and development of the Philippine economy.

The correct answer is World Economic Forum.

Key Points

• The World Economic Forum has launched a new Education 4.0 India Report.
• World Economic Forum partnered with UNICEF and YuWaah (Generation Unlimited India) for the final report.
• The report explains how digital and other technologies can address learning gaps and make education accessible to all.
• It tracks the progress and findings of the Education 4.0 India initiative, which focuses on how Fourth Industrial Revolution technologies can enhance learning and reduce inequalities in access to education among children in India.
• The report basically aims to address the disparities in India’s education sector and to empower and engage young people.
• A UNICEF-initiated YuWaah is a global platform, that aims to prepare young people to transition from education and learning to productive work.

Additional Information

• ​World Economic Forum (WEF) is an international organization that works on projects and initiatives that make a real difference.
• Klaus Schwab founded the World Economic Forum in 1971.
• Its headquarters is located in Cologny, Switzerland.
• Borge Brende is the current president of the World Economic Forum.

The correct answer is Switzerland.

Key Points

• Holcim Limited is a Switzerland-based multinational company.
• Adani Group will acquire 63.1 percent of Ambuja Cements along with related assets.
• The value for the Holcim stake and open offer consideration for Ambuja Cements and ACC is $10.5 billion, which makes this the largest-ever acquisition by the Adani Group
• The new Ambuja Cements board comprises Gautam Adani as chairman.
• With this Adani Group becomes India's second-largest cement maker.
• Ultratech Cement of Aditya Birla Group is the largest cement company in India.

The correct answer is 1952.

Key Points

• In 1952 government officially declared the extinction of Cheetahs from the country.
• The cheetah is believed to have disappeared from India in 1947 when they hunted down and shot the last three recorded Asiatic cheetahs in India.
• Hunting was a major contributing factor to the cheetah’s extinction.
• In 2022 Cheetahs bring from Namibia to India's Kuno-Palpur National Park in Madhya Pradesh.
• The International Union for the Conservation of Nature (IUCN) declared Cheetahs as “Vulnerable” and The Asiatic cheetah has been listed as Critically Endangered.
• Namibia today maintains the largest population of wild cheetahs.

Additional Information

• ​The International Union for the Conservation of Nature is an international organization working in the field of nature conservation and ensuring that any use of natural resources is equitable and ecologically sustainable.
• IUCN divides threatened species into three categories: Vulnerable, Endangered, and Critically Endangered.
• The motto of IUCN is 'United for Life and Livelihoods'.
• Founded: 1948
• Headquarters: Gland, Switzerland
• Founder: Julian Huxley
• Director General: Bruno Oberle

The correct answer is Nirmala Sitharaman.

Key Points

• Nirmala Sitharaman unveiled the Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2015-2020. Back then she was Minister of State for Commerce & Industry.
• In September 2022 the government decided to extend the existing five-year foreign trade policy by another six months because of global economic uncertainty and currency volatility.
• These are the main key points of FTP 2015-2020:
• It provides a framework for increasing exports of goods and services.
• Generation of employment and increasing value addition in the country. Inauguration of the ‘Make in India’ program.
• It introduces two schemes: The Merchandise Exports from India Scheme and the Services Exports from India Scheme.
• E-Commerce exports of handloom products, etc.
• Facilitating & Encouraging Export of Defense Exports.
• Work towards paperless working in a 24x7 environment.

Additional Information

• Syama Prasad Mukherjee was the first Minister of Commerce and Industry.
• Piyush Goyal is the current officeholder of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
• In 1957 Ministry of Commerce and Consumer Industries and the Ministry of Heavy Industries were merged to form the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

The correct answer is India.

Key Points

• India is the world's second-largest cement producer in the world.
• In 2021, it amounted to a distant 330 million metric tons of production.
• China produces an estimated 2.5 billion metric tons in 2021 almost equates to over half of the world's cement.
• Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, and Nepal are India's top Cement importers.
• Madhya Pradesh is the largest cement producer with 23 plants in India followed by Andhra Pradesh with 19 plants.
• Satna, Madhya Pradesh knowns as the cement city in India.

The correct answer is Constellation.

Key Points

• In 2016 The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and its commercial wing ANTRIX renamed the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) as NAVIC.
• NAVIC stands for Navigation in Indian Constellation.
• Navigation with the Indian Constellation works as the Indian version of GPS.
• It was first approved in 2006 but became operational only in 2018.
• Presently, it consists of 08 satellites, that cover the whole of India and up to 1,500 km from its boundaries.

Additional Information

• ​​Indian Space Research Organisation:
• Founded: 1969
• Headquarters: Bengaluru
• Founder: Vikram Sarabhai
• President (current): S Somanath

The correct answer is Only D. 

Key Points

• ​The Global Innovation Index 2022 rankings released by World Intellectual Property Organization. Hence, statement A is incorrect.
• In 2022, India was ranked 40th position out of 132 countries. Hence, statement B is incorrect.
• Switzerland is the most innovative economy in the world in 2022 ranked 01st on the list. Hence, statement C is incorrect.
• India and Turkiye enter the top 40 for the first time as innovation leaders. Hence, statement D is correct.

Additional Information

• World Intellectual Property Organization published the Global Innovation Index ranking the countries and their economies through innovational measures, environments, and outputs.
• It was first published in 2007 by INSEAD and World Business, a British magazine until 2020. In 2021 it was published by the World Intellectual Property Organization.
• ​The theme for 2022 is What is the future of innovation-driven growth?
• In 2021 India was ranked 46th on the list.
• Consecutively, Switzerland has ranked first from 2011 up to 2022.
• South Korea is the only Asian country holding the 06th position in the top 10 in 2022.

Important Points

• ​World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO):
• Founded: 14 July 1967
• Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland
• Director General: Daren Tang;

The correct answer is Research on banks and financial crises.

Key Points

• Ben S Bernanke, Douglas W Diamond, and Philip H Dybvig have won the Nobel Economics Science Prize for Research on banks and financial crises.
• Their research analyses have been of great practical importance in regulating financial markets and dealing with financial crises.
• Ben S. Bernanke was the former chair of the U.S. Federal Reserve.
• Amartya Sen was awarded the Nobel Economics Prize in 1998.

Additional Information

• In 1901 the first Nobel Prizes were awarded.
• Originally, Nobel Prize has been given in Physics, Chemistry, Physiology or Medicine, Literature, and Peace.
• Later Nobel Prize for Economics Sciences was instituted in 1968 and was first awarded in 1969.
• The Nobel Prize is given in the name of Alfred Nobel, a Swedish scientist.
• The Nobel Prizes in Physics, Chemistry, Medicine, and Literature are awarded in Stockholm, Sweden.
• While the Nobel Peace Prize is awarded in Oslo, Norway.
• The Nobel Prize is presented every year on 10th December.

The correct answer is 2022.

Key Points

• The PCA Framework for Non-Banking Financial Companies came into effect in 2022.
• The Reserve Bank of India has introduced the prompt corrective action framework for non-banking financial companies (NBFCs).
• Its goal is to address the issue of non-performing assets in India's banking system.
• Based on the recommendations of the Financial Stability and Development Council's working group on Resolution Regimes for Financial Institutions in India and the Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission, the framework was reviewed in 2017.
• The Capital Adequacy Ratio, known as the capital-to-risk-weighted-assets ratio, is used to protect depositors and promote financial system stability and efficiency around the world.

The correct answer is R Gandhi.

Key Points

• Former RBI Deputy Governor R Gandhi has been appointed as part-time chairman of Yes Bank.
• RBI has approved his appointment as the Non-Executive (Parttime) Chairman of the Bank for a period of 3 years effective from September 20, 2022.
• Gandhi is currently a financial sector policy expert and adviser.
• He was a Deputy Governor of the RBI for three years from 2014 to 2017.

Additional Information

• The Reserve Bank of India, chiefly known as RBI, is India's central bank and regulatory body responsible for the regulation of the Indian banking system.
• It is under the ownership of the Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
• It is responsible for the control, issue, and maintaining the supply of the Indian rupee.
• Founded: 1 April 1935, Kolkata
• Ownership: Ministry of Finance, Government of India
• Governor: Shaktikanta Das

The solution is Rs 10 crore.

Key Points

• GST-registered businesses with an annual turnover of Rs 10 crore or more will have to generate e-invoices for B2B transactions from October 1, the finance ministry said. Currently, businesses with a turnover of Rs 20 crore and above are required to generate an electronic invoice for all B2B transactions.
• The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) on August 1 notified lowering the e-invoice threshold to Rs 10 crore and above from October 1. The GST Council, comprising finance mini

The correct answer is 420 kilometers.

Key Points

• A SpaceX rocket soared into orbit from Florida carrying the next long-term International Space Station crew, with a Russian cosmonaut, two Americans and a Japanese astronaut flying together in a demonstration of US-Russian teamwork in space despite Ukraine war tensions.

About The Crew Members:

• SpaceX Crew5 astronauts, Russian cosmonaut Anna Kikina, NASA astronaut Josh Cassada, NASA astronaut Nicole Mann and Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency astronaut Koichi Wakata pose for a photo as they leave the Operations and Checkout building before heading to Launch Pad 39-A at the Kennedy Space Center in Cape Canaveral, for a mission to the International Space Station.

The ISS Mission:

• The mission, designated Crew-5, marks the fifth full-fledged ISS crew NASA has flown aboard a SpaceX vehicle since the private rocket venture founded by Tesla CEO Elon Musk began sending US astronauts aloft in May 2020. The SpaceX launch vehicle, consisting of a Falcon 9 rocket topped with a Crew Dragon capsule dubbed Endurance, lifted off into clear skies at noon from NASA’s Kennedy Space Center in Cape Canaveral. The two-stage, 23-story-tall Falcon 9 ascended from the launch tower as its nine Merlin engines roared to life in billowing clouds of vapor and a reddish-orange fireball.

The Russian Cosmonaut:

• The mission is notable for the inclusion of Anna Kikina, 38, the lone female cosmonaut on active duty with Roscosmos, making it the first spaceflight with a Russian launched from US soil in two decades. As the spacecraft entered Earth’s orbit, Kikina radioed her thanks to NASA, Roscosmos and their International Space Station partners for “giving us this great opportunity.”

About The International Space Station(ISS):

• ISS, the length of a football field, has been continuously occupied since 2000, operated by a U.S.-Russian-led consortium that includes Canada, Japan and 11 European countries. It was born in part to improve relations between Washington and Moscow following the Soviet Union’s collapse and the end of Cold War rivalries that spurred the original American-Soviet space race.

The correct answer is July 2022.

In News

• The government should scrap the windfall profit tax on domestically-produced crude oil as the levy is adversely impacting the capex-intensive exploration of oil and gas, FICCI said in its recommendation for the forthcoming annual budget.

Key Points

• India first imposed windfall profit taxes on 01 July 2022, joining a growing number of nations that tax super normal profits of energy companies.
• At that time, a ₹23,250 per tonne ($40 per barrel) windfall profit tax on domestic crude production was levied.
• The new tax, which was also slapped on the export of petrol, diesel and ATF, is calibrated every fortnight in step with international oil prices.
• Industry chamber FICCI in its recommendations for the Budget, said such levy is in addition to all other existing levies.
• It is recommended that the Special Additional Excise Duty (SAED) on petroleum crude should be removed or if there is a need to continue the levy for some time as an extraordinary measure then the rate be changed to an ad-valorem levy of 20% of incremental crude price over $100.
• IT also said that the windfall tax was over and above the heavy burden of royalty (20% of oil price for onshore fields and 10% for offshore areas) and oil industry development (OID) cess (20% of oil price).

Additional Information

• A windfall tax is a higher tax rate on profits that ensue from a sudden windfall gain to a particular company or industry.
• There have been windfall taxes in various countries across the world, including Mongolia, Australia, and on wind power in Turkey.
• Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry (FICCI):
• ​It was established in 1927, on the advice of Mahatma Gandhi by Indian businessman G.D. Birla and Purshottamdas Thakurdas.
• It is the largest, one of the oldest and the apex business organisation in India.
• It is a non-government, not-for-profit organisation.
• Headquarters: New Delhi
• FICCI President: Sanjiv Mehta

The correct answer is ‘Rs 660’

Key Points

• Union Labour and Employment Minister Bhupender Yadav launched the ‘Donate-a-Pension’ programme under Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan (PM-SYM) for people to contribute to the pension fund of their support staff.
• The Minister launched the ‘Donate-a-Pension’ programme at my residence by donating to the gardener.
• It is an initiative under (PM-SYM) pension scheme where citizens can donate the premium contribution of their immediate support staff such as domestic workers, drivers, helpers etc. Under PM-SYM, Workers of the unorganised sector in the age group of 18-40 years can register themselves.
• The beneficiary has to deposit a minimum of Rs 660 to 2400 every year depending on their age. After attaining the age of 60 years they will receive the minimum assured pension of Rs 3,000 per month.
• The ‘Donate-a-Pension’ programme which was launched today is part of many initiatives by the Labour Ministry to be launched in the ‘Iconic Week’ being celebrated by the Ministry from March 7 to 13.
• These activities include celebrating 25 crore registrations under e-SHRAM, launching e-SHRAM on the UMANG app across India.

The correct answer is 250 billion.

Key Points

• India can achieve exports target of $650 billion in the current financial year, the Minister of Commerce and Industry, Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution and Textiles, Piyush Goyal.
• Chairing a review meeting of all major Export Promotion Councils (EPCs), Goyal said the $400 billion target of merchandise exports is within sight and the services sector should strive for$250 billion exports, during various FTA negotiations.
• The country has already achieved $300 billion merchandise exports in the first nine months of the financial year and expressed hope that the country can set a much higher target in the last quarter of FY22.

The correct answer is Mikhail Gorbachev.

Key Points

• The former Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev passed away in August 2022.
• Mr. Gorbachev became general secretary of the Soviet Communist Party and de facto leader of the country in 1985.
• At the time, he was the youngest member of the ruling council known as the Politburo.
• He won the Nobel Peace Prize for negotiating a historic nuclear arms pact with US leader Ronald Reagan.

Additional Information

• It is the largest country in the world by area.
• It is encompassing one-eighth of Earth's inhabitable landmass.
• Russia extends across eleven time zones and borders sixteen sovereign nations.
• Russia:
• President: Vladimir Putin
• Capital: Moscow
• Currency: Russian ruble
• Prime minister: Mikhail Mishustin
• Continent: Europe, Asia

The correct answer is Victoria.

Key Points

• The Australian state of Victoria will host the 2026 Commonwealth Games.
• The 2026 Games will be held in four regional hubs in the towns of Geelong, Ballarat, Bendigo and Gippsland.
• The state has confirmed 16 sports for the Games so far, including aquatics, cycling, and Twenty20 cricket.
• The 2022 Commonwealth Games are due to be held in Birmingham, England, from July 28 to August 8, 2022.

Important Points

• It will be the sixth time that Australia has staged the Commonwealth Games and the second time in Victoria after Melbourne hosted the 2006 event.
• The opening ceremony will be held at Australia's largest sports stadium, the Melbourne Cricket Ground, which can hold more than 100,000 spectators.
• The Games, held every four years, attract more than 4,000 athletes from the 54 nations of the Commonwealth, almost all of whom are former territories of the British Empire.

The correct answer is 8.39.

Key Points

• Dropping below the double-digit mark for the first time since March 2021, Wholesale Price-based Inflation (WPI) for October eased to 8.39% in October from 10.70% in September 2022.
• The vegetable prices segment eased to 17.61% in the reported period against 39.66% in September.
• The fuel and power segment eased to 23.17% in October from 32.61% in the preceding month.

Important Points

• WPI inflation stood at 19 month low level amid ease in the food articles segment which slipped to 8.33 per cent in October.
• The manufactured products segment also eased to 4.42 per cent in October from 6.34 per cent a month ago.
• The prices of cereals spiked to 12.03 per cent in October from 11.91 per cent in September.
• During the same period, paddy rose to 6.63 per cent from 5.79 per cent and that of wheat rose to 16.25 per cent from 16.09 per cent.
• Eggs, meat & fish rose to 3.97 per cent from 3.63 per cent a month ago.

The correct answer is Canara Bank.

• Canara Bank will be the lead sponsor of National Asset Reconstruction Company Limited (NARCL) or a bad bank with a 12 percent stake in the entity.
• A bad bank refers to a financial institution that takes over the bad assets of lenders and undertakes resolution.
• The bank has sought approval from the Reserve Bank of India for participating in NARCL as a sponsor contributing a 12 percent stake.

The correct answer is SIDBI.

Key Points

• Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) has collaborated with TP Renewable Microgrid (TPRMG), a subsidiary of Tata Power, to launch 1,000 green energy enterprises across the country.
• The initiative is aimed at promoting sustainable entrepreneurship models and empowering rural entrepreneurs.
• The ‘Sustainable is Attainable’ program of Tata Power and the ‘Empowering MSMEs’ campaign of SIDBI are the driving forces behind this partnership.

Additional Information

• The entrepreneurs shortlisted under the initiative will have to complete a capacity-building activity organized by TPRMG to receive an impetus called Go REsponsive, ENterprise incentive (GREENi) from SIDBI.
• The latter will also assist rural entrepreneurs in credit linkages to facilitate loans and financing to set up or expand their businesses through its PRAYAAS scheme or partner institutions.
• TPRMG will be responsible to shortlist entrepreneurs both from their existing Microgrid network and from new areas to provide them with affordable green energy solutions and technical knowledge.
• This innovative program intends to develop skills to enable low-carbon futures for rural entrepreneurs and economies and to assist in the Ease of Doing Business in rural parts of the country.
• CEO and MD, Tata Power: Praveer Sinha.
• CMD, SIDBI: Sivasubramanian Ramann.

The correct answer is Indore.

Key Points 

Swachh Survekshan, 2022:

• Swachh Survekshan has been conducted since 2016 and is the world’s largest urban sanitation and cleanliness survey.
• It has been instrumental in fostering a spirit of healthy competition among towns and cities to improve their service delivery to citizens and towards creating cleaner cities.
• It is conducted under the ambit of the Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban).

Swachh Survekshan Awards 2022:

• More than 1 lakh Population: Indore, the city of lakes and palaces, walked away with the Cleanest City title, while Surat was adjudged the second cleanest city, for the second time in a row, Navi Mumbai bagged the third spot.
• Less than 1 lakh Population: Panchgani and Karad from Maharashtra bagged the first and third positions respectively, while Patan from Chhattisgarh bagged the second position.
• Best Ganga Town: Haridwar in Uttarakhand received the award for the best Ganga town in more than one lakh population cities.
• Fast Mover City Award: Shivamogga in Karnataka.
• The title of 5-star Garbage Free city was conferred to
• Surat,
• Bhopal,
• Mysuru,
• Vishakhapatnam,
• Navi Mumbai and
• Tirupati.

The correct answer is ‘Gujarat’

Key Points

• The department for the promotion of industry and internal trade (DPIIT) has published the ranking of states and Union territories in providing strong ecosystem for startups.
• The states' startup ranking 2021 was released by Commerce and Industry Minister Piyush Goyal.
• Gujarat, Meghalaya, and Karnataka have emerged as the best performer states in developing a startup ecosystem for budding entrepreneurs.
• Kerala, Maharashtra, Odisha, and Telangana were categorized as top performers.
• A total of 24 states and 7 Union territories (UTs) participated in the exercise.
• The states and Union territories (UTs) were ranked under five categories -- best performers, top performers, leaders, aspiring leaders, and emerging startup ecosystems.
• The rankings are based on the initiatives taken to develop the startup ecosystem for promoting budding entrepreneurs.

The correct answer is BSNL.

Key Points

• The Indian government has given Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL), a state-run telco, a sovereign guarantee of Rs 19,000 crore.
• Through this, BSNL would be able to restructure its debt along with that of MTNL's (Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited) debt. According to an ET Telecom report, BSNL and MTNL have a combined debt of Rs 60,000 crore.
• Over Rs 33,000 crore debt is in the books of BSNL, and the remaining is of MTNL.
• The report mentions that a similar amount will be offered to BSNL again in the next financial year.

The correct answer is Shura Kitata.

• Shura Kitata (Ethiopian) defeated World record holder Eliud Kipchoge (Kenya) & won London Marathon, 2020.
• In women's, Brigid Kosgei (Kenya) defended her title.

Important Points

• London Marathon:
• It was the 40th edition of the London Marathon.
• Distance to be covered: 26.2 miles.
• It is an annual marathon event held in London.
• It was founded by athletes Chris Brasher and John Disley in 1981.
• Race Formats:
• 10km (6.21 miles).
• Half Marathon: 21.1km (13.1 miles).
• Marathon: 42.2km (26.2 miles).
• Ultra-Marathon:  > 42.2km.
• The Biggest 5 marathon races in the world: Berlin, Boston, Chicago, London and New York City.
• Eluid Kipchoge: 
• In 2016, he became the fastest ever runner at the London Marathon.
• He made a record to complete the course in a track in 2:03:05 hrs time.
• He holds the world record for the event of 2:01:39 hrs time which he ran in Berlin in 2018.
• Marathon entered the Olympics in 1896.
• The marathon was instituted in commemoration of the Greek soldier Pheidippides.
• He was a messenger from the Battle of Marathon to Athens, who reported the victory.

Additional Information

• Shura Kitata (Ethiopian):
• He won the race in a time of 2:05:41.
• He won a silver medal in both New York & London marathon in 2018.
• Vincent Kipchumba (Kenya):
• He won:
• Adana Half Marathon (2019).
• Vienna City Marathon (2019).
• Amsterdam Marathon (2019).
• Runner up in London Marathon (2020) in 2:05:42.

The correct answer is Skimming.

Key Points

• Skimming is a type of fraud where a small electronic device is used to steal debit/credit card information during an authorised banking transaction.
• Skimming is an illegal practice used by identity thieves to capture credit card information from a cardholder surreptitiously.
• Fraudsters often use a device called a skimmer that can be installed at gas pumps or ATM machines to collect card data.
• Some machines act like point-of-sale technology. An acquired card is swiped, and a touchpad allows the user to enter a security code.
• Card users are warned to keep their cards in their sight at all times and to cover the pin pad when inputting security codes at ATMs.

Additional Information

• Phishing is a fraudulent attempt to obtain sensitive information or data, such as usernames, passwords and credit card details.
• When the user is tricked into downloading a Trojan horse or other malware onto his mobile through SMS is called Smishing.
• Voice phishing or vishing is the criminal practice of using social engineering over the telephone system to gain access to private personal and financial information from the public for the purpose of financial reward.

The correct answer is All of the above.

Key Points

• The Union government appointed Ratan Tata, former Supreme Court judge K.T. Thomas, and former Lok Sabha Deputy Speaker Kariya Munda as trustees of the PM CARES Fund.

PM-CARES Fund

• The government has set up the Prime Minister’s Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations Fund (PM-CARES Fund) to deal with any kind of emergency or distress situation like posed by the Covid-19 pandemic.
• The Fund is a public charitable trust with the Prime Minister as its Chairman. Other Members include Defence Minister, Home Minister and Finance Minister. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Fund enables micro-donations as a result of which a large number of people will be able to contribute with the smallest of denominations. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It will strengthen disaster management capacities and encourage research on protecting citizens.
• Contribution to PM - CARES Fund Qualifies as CSR (Corporate Social Responsibility) Expenditure. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• The fund consists entirely of voluntary contributions from individuals or organisations and does not get any budgetary support.
• Donations to PM CARES Fund would qualify for 100% exemption under the Income Tax Act, 1961.
• PM CARES Fund has also got exemption under the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) and a separate account for receiving foreign donations has been opened.
• This is consistent with respect to the Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund (PMNRF).
• PMNRF has also received foreign contributions as a public trust since 2011.

Concept:

Football:

• Football or soccer is a team sport that is played between two teams of 11 players.
• The players typically kick the ball around a rectangular surface known as a pitch using their feet.

Explanation:

Indian Super League:

• The Hero Indian Super League is the official name of the Indian Super League, which is a professional men's association football league in India.
• On October 21, 2013, the competition was established with the goal of developing football in India and broadening its appeal there.
• With eight teams, the competition got underway in October 2014.
• There are 11 clubs in the league, and each season typically lasts from November to March.

Thus, in October 2014 the Indian Super League begin.

Additional Information

IPL:

• A men's T20 franchise cricket league in India is called the Indian Premier League.
• Ten teams representing seven Indian cities and three Indian states compete in it every year.
• The Board of Control for Cricket in India established the league in 2007.

The correct answer is the Stock Exchange Banks.

• Scheduled banks are those which are included in the Second Schedule to the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
• The banks in India include:
• Central Bank i.e. RBI
• Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs)
• SBI and its assosciates.
• Nationalized Banks.
• Scheduled Private Sector Banks
• Scheduled Small Finance Banks
• Scheduled Payments Banks
• Scheduled Regional Rural Banks
• Scheduled Foreign Banks in India
• Scheduled Co-operative Banks
• Scheduled State Co-operative Banks
• Scheduled Urban Co-operative Banks
• There is no bank like Stock Exchange Banks.
• Stock Exchange is a place where shares or securities of publicly listed companies are traded.
• India has 2 stock exchanges namely, the Bombay Stock Exchange (oldest in Asia) and National Stock Exchange.
• They are managed by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
• SEBI was established in April 1992 to regulate the stock market.
• Madhabi Puri Buch is the current chairman of SEBI.(March 2022)

• CRA is an organisation that defines the creditworthiness of an individual, organisation or countries and these are regulated by SEBI(Securities and Exchange Board of India). Different credit rating agencie use different methods to evaluate the credit score with the highest score as AAA and lowest as C/D.
• Standard and Poors, Fitch and Moody's are the big three credit rating agencies.
• SIDBI(Small industrial Development Bank of India)-It is a developmental bank focusing on the MSME (Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise) segment.
• SIDBI HQ- Lucknow
• SIDBI Chairman-  Shri Sivasubramanian Ramann

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 4 only.

In News

• India’s foreign exchange reserves fell to $532.66 billion in the week through September 30, their lowest level since July 2020, the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) weekly statistical supplement showed.
• The country’s reserves declined for the ninth consecutive week. They were $537.52 billion at the end of the previous week ended September 23.

Key PointsForeign Exchange Reserves

• The Special Drawing Rights (SDR) is a forex reserve asset created by the IMF to supplement the official reserves of its member countries.
• The SDR is not a currency.
• It is a potential claim on the freely usable currencies of IMF members.
• As such, SDRs can provide a country with liquidity.
• India's Foreign Exchange Reserves comprise Foreign Currency Assets, Gold, SDR's and Reserve tranche position with International Monetary Fund (IMF).
• Foreign currency assets include investments in US Treasury bonds, Bonds/Treasury Bills of other selected Governments, deposits with foreign central banks, foreign commercial banks etc.
• A reserve tranche is a part of the country’s forex reserve.
• A reserve tranche is a portion of the required quota of currency each member country must provide to the International Monetary Fund (IMF) that can be utilized for its own purposes—without a service fee or economic reform conditions.
• NRI Deposits are not components of Forex Reserve.
• NRI Deposit accounts are maintained in Indian rupees (INR).
• This means that when you deposit the money in the NRE Account, the foreign currency is converted to Indian rupees at the prevailing foreign exchange rates. Hence, option 1 is correct.

The correct answer is Rajasthan.

Key Points

• Kumbhalgarh also known as the Great Wall of India is a Mewar fortress on the westerly range of Aravalli Hills, just about 48 km from Rajsamand city in the Rajsamand district of Rajasthan.
• It is a World Heritage Site (Declared by UNESCO in 2013) and included in Hill Forts of Rajasthan.
• It was built during the 15th century by Rana Kumbha.
• The chief architect who built this fort was Mandan, who documented his style of work in his text, Rajvallabh.
• The fort is among the largest fort complexes in the world.

 Rana Kumbha

• Kumbhakarna Singh popularly known as Maharana Kumbha was the Maharana of the Mewar kingdom in India.
• He belonged to the Sisodia clan of Rajputs.
• Rana Kumbha is known for his illustrious military career against various sultanates and patronization of art and music and architecture.

As of October 2022, there are a total of 9 UNESCO World Heritage Sites in Rajasthan.

Additional Information 

• As of 2022, there are 40 World Heritage Sites located in India.
• Out of these**, 32 are cultural, 7 are natural,** and one the Khangchendzonga National Park is of mixed type.
• India has the sixth-largest number of sites in the world.

Madhya Pradesh

• Three sites in Madhya Pradesh have been declared World Heritage Sites by UNESCO:
• The Khajuraho Group of Monuments (1986)
• Buddhist Monuments at Sanchi (1989)
• The Rock Shelters of Bhimbetka (2003)
• The city of Gwalior and Orchha(2020) ( Not included as world heritage sites, pilot cities for the Historic Urban Landscape program and survey )

Gujrat

• UNESCO World Heritage Sites in GUJARAT
• Rani ki Vav (2014)
• Champaner-Pavagadh Archaeological Park (2004)
• Old Ahmedabad (2017)
• Dholavira (updated in 2022).

Himachal Pradesh

• UNESCO World Heritage Sites in Himachal Pradesh
• The thousand-year-old Buddhist monastery of Tabo in Spiti with its fine wall paintings and stucco statues has been declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO.
• The village of Pragpur with its age-old and well-preserved architecture and cobbled streets has been declared a 'Heritage village'.

The correct answer is Falguni Nayar.

Key Points

• The list of Hurun Richest Self-Made Women In The World 2022 released by the Hurun Research Institute.
• According to the list, there are 124 Self-Made Women Billionaires in World and China contributes to two-thirds of the world’s self-made women billionaires with 78 followed by the United States with 25 and the United Kingdom with 5.
• Falguni Nayar, Founder and Chief Executive Officer of Nykaa, is ranked 10th with a wealth of USD 7.6 billion. She is the only Indian among the top 10.
• Radha Vembu, co-founder & product manager of Zoho is the second-richest self-made woman billionaire in India with US$ 3.9 bn & ranked 25th in the global list. Radha Vembu is top in India, and second across the world, in the list of Biggest Risers.

Additional Information

• Hurun Report is a leading research group established in London in 1998.
• It has presence in India, China, France, the UK, the USA, Australia, Japan, Canada and Luxembourg.
• Hurun Report is the largest compiler of the rich list globally.

The correct answer is All of the above

• RBI analyses the performance of any bank on the basis of its profitability, asset quality, and capital.
• Asset quality is the potential credit risk associated with the loan and investment.
• If the loan given by a bank is paid on time then the asset quality is in good condition.
• A non-performing asset (NPA) is a loan or advance for which the principal or interest payment remained overdue for a period of 90 days.
• Banks are required to classify NPAs further into Substandard, Doubtful, and Loss assets:
• Substandard assets*:* Assets which has remained NPA for a period less than or equal to 12 months.
• Doubtful assets*:* An asset would be classified as doubtful if it has remained in the substandard category for a period of 12 months.
• Loss assets*:* As per RBI, “Loss asset is considered uncollectible and of such little value that its continuance as a bankable asset is not warranted, although there may be some salvage or recovery value.”

The correct answer is ₹2,00,000.

Key Points

• Rs. 2,00,000 is the minimum amount that can be remitted through Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS).
• The acronym "RTGS" stands for Real-Time Gross Settlement, which can be described as a mechanism where fund transfers are settled continuously and in real-time, individually on a transaction basis (without netting).
• "Real-Time" means the delivery of instructions at the time of receipt; "Gross Settlement" means the settlement of instructions for the transfer of funds happens separately.
• The RTGS system is intended specifically for large-value transactions.

The correct answer is 2, 3, and 4

Key Points

• All Scheduled Commercial Banks, Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs), and Payment Banks are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India.

Additional Information

• A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956 engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition of shares/stocks/bonds/debentures/securities issued by Government or local authority or other marketable securities of a like nature, leasing, hire-purchase, insurance business, chit business but does not include any institution whose principal business is that of agriculture activity, industrial activity, purchase or sale of any goods (other than securities) or providing any services and sale/purchase/construction of the immovable property
• The demarcation of the regulatory structure for NBFCs in the different layers shall be based on certain fundamental triggers such as Comprehensive Risk Perception, Size of Operations, and Activities of NBFCs. All existing types of NBFCs will be defined in terms of following layers:

Base Layer

• Non-deposit-taking NBFCs below the asset size of ₹1000 crore
• NBFCs undertaking the following activities will always remain in the Base Layer of the Regulatory Structure:
• NBFC-Peer to Peer Lending Platform (NBFC-P2P)
• NBFC-Account Aggregator (NBFC-AA)
• Non-Operative Financial Holding Company (NOFHC)
• NBFCs that are not availing public funds and do not have any customer interface.

Middle Layer

• All deposit-taking NBFCs (NBFC-Ds), irrespective of the asset sizeNon-deposit taking NBFCs with asset size of ₹1000 crore and above.

The correct answer is e-FAST.

Key Points

• NITI Aayog, in collaboration with World Resources Institute (WRI), India, launched the country’s first national electric freight platform – e-FAST India (Electric Freight Accelerator for Sustainable Transport – India).
• Supported by the World Economic Forum, CALSTART, and RMI India, the platform brings different stakeholders together, from across the freight ecosystem.
• It will help strengthen partnerships and identify and support innovative freight solutions.

Additional Information

• The platform also aims to raise awareness of freight electrification bolstered by on-ground demonstration pilots and evidence-based research.
• It will also support scalable pilots and inform policies aimed at accelerating freight electrification in India.
• The launch of the e-FAST India platform witnessed participation from major automobile industry players, logistics companies, development banks, and fin-tech companies.
• The launch was followed by WRI India unveiling its Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) EValuator.
• The TCO Evaulator is an intuitive excel-based application.
• It analyses cost components and performance parameters of light/medium/heavy-duty freight and compares electric variants with their diesel/petrol/CNG counterparts, to identify their impact on TCO per km.

The correct answer is Canara.

Key Points

• The National Asset Reconstruction Company Limited (NARCL) has received a license from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), enabling it to start operations as a so-called bad bank, an entity formed to take over and dispose of the identified stressed assets worth Rs 2 lakh crore of commercial banks.
• NARCL a government entity, has been incorporated on 7th July 2021 with majority stake held by Public Sector Banks and balance by private banks with Canara Bank being the sponsor bank. It is registered with the Reserve Bank of India as an Asset Reconstruction Company under Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002.

Additional Information

• NARCL started with total capital of Rs 6,000 crore; it was incorporated in Mumbai in July 2021.
• SBI, Union Bank of India and Indian Bank have picked up a 13.27 percent stake each in NARCL. Punjab National Bank has acquired a 12 percent stake.
• IDRCL is a service company/operational entity established to manage stressed assets and engage with market professionals including turnaround experts.
• Public sector banks and state-owned financial institutions will own a 49 per cent stake in the entity and the rest by private sector lenders.
• The government-promoted bad bank National Asset Reconstruction Company of India Ltd (NARCL) offered to acquire five distressed loan accounts, including those of Future Retail and GTL Ltd in August 2022.

The correct answer is Mumbai.

Key Points

• The National Stock Exchange’s subsidiary NSE Indices has announced to launch of one more index under the Nifty Bharat Bond Index series in December 2022.
• The Bharat Bond Index series follows a target maturity date structure wherein each index in the series measures.
• The performance of a portfolio of AAA-rated bonds issued by government-owned entities maturing in a specific year.
• NSE Headquarters: Mumbai

Additional Information

• National Stock Exchange of India Limited is the leading stock exchange under the ownership of various groups of domestic and global financial institutions, public and privately owned entities, and individuals.
• Founded: 1992
• Chairperson: Girish Chandra Chaturvedi
• MD & CEO: Ashishkumar Chauhan
• Indices: NIFTY 50, NIFTY Next 50, NIFTY 500

The correct answer is Harivansh Rai Bachchan.

Key Points

• Saraswati Samman is instituted by KK Birla Foundation.
• It was instituted in 1991.
• Harivansh Rai Bachchan was the first recipient of this award in 1991.
• It is an annual award for outstanding prose or poetry literary works in any of the 22 languages of India listed in Schedule VIII of the Constitution of India.
• The award carries a cash award of 15 lakh rupees, a citation and a plaque
• Eminent Sindhi writer Vasdev Mohi was conferred with 29th Saraswati Samman.
• He was selected for this prestigious literary award for his short stories collection - Chequebook.
• It is a collection of short stories that talks about the agonies and sufferings of marginalized sections of the society.

The correct answer is 1,2, and 5.

Key Points

• The 2022 Nobel Prize in Chemistry has been jointly awarded to Carolyn Bertozzi, Morton Meldal & Barry Sharpless for their work on snipping molecules together, known as 'click chemistry'.
• Their work is used to explore cells & track biological processes and can be applied in cancer treatment drugs.
• Barry Sharpless also won a Nobel Prize in 2001 for his work on chirally catalysed oxidation reactions.

Additional Information

• Nobel Prize is a prestigious prize awarded separately in six different fields “to those who, during the preceding year, have conferred the greatest benefit to humankind”.
• Originally, the prize was awarded in the fields of Physics, Chemistry, Physiology or Medicine, Literature, and Peace.
• Later in 1968, a sixth prize was added in the field of economic sciences.
• The Prize is officially not a Nobel Prize but it is called as "The Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel".
• It was established by Sveriges Riksbank (Sweden’s central bank).
• Alfred Nobel was a Swedish chemist, engineer, and industrialist most famously known for the invention of dynamite.
• The first Nobel Prize was given on 10 December 1901.

• Through the RCAP, the Committee seeks to ensure full, timely and consistent implementation of the Basel III framework, and thus to contribute to global financial stability.
• The RCAP monitors adoption of Basel III standards by member jurisdictions (timeliness), assesses implementation across member jurisdictions (consistency) and assesses implementation across banks (outcomes).
• The RCAP also supports the Financial Stability Board's (FSB) monitoring of the implementation of the agreed G20 financial reforms.

The correct answer is 35.

Key Points

• Ready Forward Contracts (Repos) are mechanisms under which the Reserve Bank lends on a short-term basis to banks on the security of the government bonds (Repo).
• Banks undertake to repurchase the security at a later date overnight or a few days.
• The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) released the Monetary Policy Statement, 2022-23 Resolution of the MPC.
• RBI’s MPC also hiked the repo rate by 35 basis points (bps) or 0.35% to 6.25%  from 5.9% with immediate effect.
• The dispensation of enhanced Held to Maturity limit (23%) of deposits wrt the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) securities was extended by the MPC up to March 31, 2024.

The correct answer is All of the above. 

Key Points

• The goal of the National Logistics Policy is to lower the cost of logistics from its current 14% of GDP to less than 10% by 2022 despite the highly fragmented nature of India’s logistics industry.
• The policy aims to make Indian goods more competitive while also promoting economic growth and expanding job possibilities.
• The Policy establishes a broad, multi-jurisdictional, cross-sectoral framework for the growth of the entire logistics ecosystem in an effort to address concerns of high cost and inefficiency.
• These sectors is considered while designing the logistic policy:
• Roads
• Railways
• Airways

Additional Information

• ​The World Bank is an international financial institution that provides loans and grants to the governments of low and middle-income countries.
• Headquarters: Washington, D.C
• President: David Malpass
• Founded: July 1944
• Motto: Working for a World Free of Poverty
• Subsidiaries: International Finance Corporation, MORE
• Parent organization: United Nations
• Founders: John Maynard Keynes, Harry Dexter White

The correct answer is 'Hyderabad'.

Key Points

• Goldsikka ATM is India's first Gold ATM and World's first real-time gold ATM allow people to withdraw gold coins just like cash from this gold ATM using their debit or credit cards.
• The gold ATM was recently launched in Begumpet, Hyderabad.
• Goldsikka Pvt Ltd a gold distributor company, installed its first gold ATM on December 3 in collaboration with OpenCube Technologies Pvt Ltd-a Hyderabad-based startup for technology support.
• The gold ATM enables customers to buy gold without going to a physical jewellery store. It is available 24x7 and allows customers to buy gold within budget.
• It has a capacity of storing 5kgs and offers eight options for the quantity of gold starting from 0.5 grams to 100 grams.

Additional Information

• All of the gold currency found at Gold ATMs is 24-carat gold, which is regarded as the purest type of gold.
• Additionally, it displays the current gold price to keep clients informed of changes in the market.
• No one may purchase less than 0.5 gms or more than 100 gms.

The correct answer is ​Ukraine.

Important Points 

• About North Atlantic Treaty Organization:
• It is an intergovernmental military alliance.
• Established by the Washington treaty.
• Treaty that was signed on 4 April 1949.
• Headquarters: Brussels, Belgium.
• Headquarters of Allied Command Operations — Mons, Belgium.
• Composition:
• Since its founding, the admission of new member states has increased the alliance from the original 12 countries to 30.
• The most recent member state to be added to NATO was North Macedonia on 27 March 2020.
• NATO membership is open to “any other European state in a position to further the principles of this Treaty and to contribute to the security of the North Atlantic area.”

The correct answer is Only 1.

Key Points

• Prime Minister Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) is implemented by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) functioning as the nodal agency at the national level.
• The maximum cost of the project/unit admissible in the manufacturing sector is ₹ 25 lakhs and in the business/service sector, it is ₹ 10 lakhs.

Additional Information

• At the state level, the scheme is implemented through State KVIC Directorates, State Khadi and Village Industries Boards (KVIBs), District Industries Centres (DICs) and banks.
• Categories of Beneficiary’s Rate of subsidy under PMEGP (of project cost) -
  

Area (location of project/unit) General category 15%(Urban), 25%(Rural), Special 25%(Urban), 35%(Rural)

(including SC/ ST/ OBC/ Minorities/Women, Ex-servicemen, Physically handicapped, NER, Hill and Border areas, etc.)

• The balance amount of the total project cost will be provided by the banks in the form of term loans and working capital.

The correct answer is 'decisive'.

Key Points

• The sentence talks about a move by the CEO that significantly boosted the company's performance.
• Therefore, the most appropriate word for the given blank would be 'decisive'.
• 'Decisive' refers to the ability to make decisions quickly and effectively. (निर्णायक, ठोस)
• Example: A decisive victory in the battle marked a turning point in the war.
• Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

The complete sentence would be: In a decisive move, the CEO implemented significant changes to boost company performance.

Additional Information Let's understand the meaning of the other options: 

• Naive: Lacking experience, wisdom, or sophistication; innocent and trusting. (सादा, भोला-भाला)
• Oxymoronic: A figure of speech in which contradictory terms are combined, typically for emphasis or to express a paradox. (विरोधाभासी)
• Pummel: To repeatedly and forcefully strike or beat, typically with the fists. (मारना, पीटना)
• Sudden: Occurring or done quickly and unexpectedly; without warning. (अचानक, आकस्मिक)

The correct answer is 'cognizant'.

Key Points

• The given sentence talks about the manager being aware of the challenges faced by the team and working on solutions.
• Therefore, the most appropriate word for the given blank would be 'cognizant'.
• 'Cognizant' means aware, knowledgeable, or informed about something. (जानकार)
• Example: Employees should be cognizant of company policies to ensure a smooth working environment.
• Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 1'.

The complete sentence would be: The manager is cognizant of the challenges the team is facing and is working on solutions.

Additional Information Let's understand the meaning of the other given options -

• Potent: Having great power, influence, or effectiveness; strong and impactful. (प्रबल, शक्तिशाली)
• Liable: Responsible by law; likely to experience or do something undesirable, such as being legally responsible for a debt. (उत्तरदाता, जिम्मेदार)
• Palpable: Perceptible or easily noticeable; capable of being touched or felt. (स्पर्शयोग्य, सुस्पष्ट)
• Accountable: Responsible or answerable for one's actions; required to justify decisions or conduct to someone. (जवाबदेह, जिम्मेदार)

The correct answer is 'Impute'.

Key Points

• The given sentence talks about the prosecutor's attempts to hold the CEO responsible for the financial fraud.
• Therefore, the most appropriate word for the given sentence would be 'impute'.
• 'Impute' means to attribute or ascribe a quality, especially a fault or undesirable trait, to someone or something. (दोष लगाना) 
• Example: It is unfair to impute blame on her without proper evidence.
• Hence, the correct answer is 'Option 3'.

The complete sentence would be: The prosecutor attempted to impute the responsibility for the financial fraud to the CEO.

Additional Information Let's understand the meaning of the other given options -

• Dilute: To make a substance thinner or weaker by adding water or another solvent. (पतला करना, घोलना)
• Force: To compel or make someone or something do something against their will; strength or energy as an attribute of physical action or movement. (मजबूर करना - Verb, बल - Noun)
• Impasse: A situation in which no progress is possible, especially because of disagreement; a deadlock or stalemate. (गतिरोध, विवाद स्थिति)
• Desiccate: To remove the moisture from something; to dry thoroughly. (शुष्क करना, सूखा होना)

The correct answer is 'Articulate.'

Key Points

• The given sentence is talking about, the ability of the President to express his thoughts and feelings in front of millions of people.
• Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is, 'Articulate'.
• Also, the use of the word ''thoughts'' in the sentence indicates the use of the word 'articulate' in the blank.
• The word 'Articulate' means To say something clearly or to express your ideas or feelings. ( )
• Example: When I get nervous, it is very hard for me to articulate my thoughts.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

Complete Sentence: The president is known for his ability to articulate his thoughts in front of millions of people.

Additional Information

• Let us explore  the other options:
• Reluctant means Not wanting to do something because you are not sure it is the right thing to do. (कोई विशेष कार्य करने का अनिच्‍छुक उसके औचित्‍य में कुछ संदेह के कारण)
• Dubious means Not sure or certain. (अनिश्चित, शंकालु, सशंक, संदिग्‍ध)
• Indecisive means Not able to make decisions easily. (शीघ्र निर्णय करने में असमर्थ)
• Diffident means Not having confidence in your own strengths or abilities. (आत्‍मसंशयी, अपनी शक्ति या योग्‍यता में विश्‍वास न रखने वाला; आत्‍मविश्‍वासहीन)

The correct answer is 'Unconscious.'

Key Points

• The given sentence is talking about, a boy who finally came out of his coma.
• Therefore, the most appropriate word to be filled in the blank is, 'Unconscious'.
• Also, the use of the word ''coma'' in the sentence indicates the use of the word 'unconscious' in the blank.
• The word 'Unconscious' means Comatose and unaware of what is going on. (बेहोश, बेसुध, अचेत, किसी बात से अनजान, किसी बात से बेख़बर)
• Example: The robber knocked the man unconscious and ran off with his briefcase.
  

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Complete Sentence: Finally coming out of his coma, the boy was alert and no longer unconscious.

Additional Information

• Let us explore  the other options:
• Intentional means Done on purpose; deliberate. (सोद्देश्‍य किया गया; साभिप्राय)
• Voluntary means Done or given because you want to do it, not because you have to do it. (अपनी इच्‍छा से न कि विवशता से किया या दिया गया; स्‍वैच्‍छिक)
• Convenient means Suitable or practical for a particular purpose; not causing difficulty. (विशेष उद्देश्‍य की दृष्टि से उपयुक्त या व्‍यावहारिक; आसान, सुविधाजनक)
• Unfortunate means Not lucky. (दुर्भाग्य)

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

To answer this question, first, let's look at the given phrases in the table:

• A. The study highlighted the ecological benefits of the initiative,
• This phrase discusses the positive environmental outcomes of a project.
• B. She excelled in mathematics,
• This phrase highlights her exceptional performance and skill in math.
• C. The team showcased remarkable skill and unity,
• This phrase praises the team's exceptional teamwork and abilities.
• D. its innovative approach helped it swiftly recover from challenges.
• This phrase praises how a new way of doing things helped overcome problems.
• E. dominating the tournament against larger opponents.
• This phrase highlights success despite facing bigger competitors in the tournament.
• F. his volunteer work significantly contributed to the community's welfare.
• This phrase highlights how someone helped their community through volunteering.

Now, let's understand the meanings of the given connectors in the question:

• i. in the final analysis
• It means "when everything has been considered" or "ultimately."
• For Example:
• In the final analysis, hard work and dedication determine success.
• ii. to the contrary
• It means "opposite to what has been stated" or "contrary to expectations."
• For Example:
• She expected him to be upset, but to the contrary, he was quite understanding.
• iii. albeit few in number
• It means "although" or "even though" with emphasis on a small quantity.
• For Example:
• The participants, albeit few in number, displayed immense enthusiasm.
• So, after understanding the given phrases and the connectors, we can conclude that only the combination C-iii-E can make a grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence.
• The complete coherent sentence would be: "Albeit few in number, the team showcased remarkable skill and unity, dominating the tournament against larger opponents."
• This sentence praises a small team for their impressive talent and teamwork, overpowering bigger rivals in a tournament.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "C-iii-E."

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

To answer this question, first, let's look at the given phrases in the table:

• A. The project progressed smoothly without any major hiccups
• This phrase expresses that the project went well without big problems.
• B. The conference required exhaustive preparation
• This phrase indicates the need for thorough planning and readiness for the conference.
• C. The initial experiment yielded inconclusive results
• This phrase indicates that the first test didn't give clear or definite outcomes.
• D. the added stress of last-minute changes in the schedule.
• This phrase refers to feeling pressure from sudden schedule changes.
• E. she persevered with unwavering determination to achieve her goals.
• This phrase praises her strong, persistent drive to reach her goals.
• F. the overall message of the artwork remained enigmatic.
• This phrase suggests that the main idea of the artwork is unclear.

Now, let's understand the meanings of the given connectors in the question:

• i. not to mention
• It means "in addition to," introducing something noteworthy.
• For Example:
• The house is spacious, not to mention its stunning view of the mountains.
• ii. in consequence
• It means "as a result" or "due to this."
• For Example:
• He missed the train; in consequence, he arrived late to the meeting.
• iii. ergo
• It means "therefore" or "consequently," indicating a logical conclusion.
• For Example:
• She studied hard; ergo, she aced the exam.
• So, after understanding the given phrases and the connectors, we can conclude that only the combination B-i-D can make a grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence.
• The complete coherent sentence would be: "The conference required exhaustive preparation, not to mention the added stress of last-minute changes in the schedule."
• This sentence points out the extensive prep needed for a conference, along with stress from sudden schedule changes.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "B-i-D."

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

To answer this question, first, let's look at the given phrases in the table:

• A. The demand increased significantly,
• This phrase indicates a notable rise in the need for something.
• B. The company experienced financial growth;
• This phrase indicates the company made more money or improved financially.
• C. The artist claimed inspiration from chaos
• This phrase suggests the artist finds creativity in disorder or unpredictability.
• D. she had to rearrange all her meetings, causing significant inconvenience.
• This phrase indicates the trouble caused by changing her meeting schedule.
• E. her paintings displayed serene and harmonious compositions.
• This phrase praises the peaceful and balanced nature of her artwork.
• F. it sparked a divisive debate among the community.
• This phrase indicates that people disagreed strongly about a certain topic.

Now, let's understand the meanings of the given connectors in the question:

• i. conversely
• It means "in contrast" or "on the other hand," presenting an opposite idea.
• For Example:
• She loves hot weather; conversely, her brother prefers colder climates.
• ii. accordingly
• It means "as a result of" or "in accordance with," indicating a logical consequence.
• For Example:
• She studied diligently, and accordingly, she scored well on the test.
• iii. insofar as
• It means "to the extent that" or "as far as," specifying the limit or degree of something.
• For Example:
• He agreed to help insofar as his time allowed amidst his busy schedule.
• So, after understanding the given phrases and the connectors, we can conclude that only the combination C-i-E can make a grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence.
• The complete coherent sentence would be: "The artist claimed inspiration from chaos; conversely, her paintings displayed serene and harmonious compositions."
• The sentence describes an artist finding calm and balance in their work despite drawing inspiration from disorder and turmoil.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "C-i-E."

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

To answer this question, first, let's look at the given phrases in the table:

• A. She excelled in academics
• This phrase praises her high performance and achievements in her studies.
• B. His vibrant artwork bursts with colour,
• This phrase praises the lively and colourful nature of his art.
• C. Both candidates possess commendable skills;
• This phrase acknowledges the impressive abilities of both candidates.
• D. her leadership skills in extracurricular activities were exceptional.
• This phrase praises her outstanding abilities in leading outside school.
• E. revolutionizing the way we live and work.
• This phrase suggests changing how we do things significantly for improvement.
• F. she adapted by refining his time management skills.
• This phrase highlights her improvement in managing her time efficiently.

Now, let's understand the meanings of the given connectors in the question:

• i. henceforth
• It means "from this point forward" or "from now on."
• For Example:
• Henceforth, all employees must clock in using the new system.
• ii. albeit
• It means "although" or "even though," introducing a concession or contrast.
• For Example:
• She enjoyed the trip, albeit it was shorter than expected.
• iii. furthermore
• It means "moreover" or "in addition," introducing extra information or emphasizing a point.
• For Example:
• He was skilled at coding; furthermore, his problem-solving abilities were remarkable.
• So, after understanding the given phrases and the connectors, we can conclude that only the combination A-iii-D can make a grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence.
• The complete coherent sentence would be: "She excelled in academics; furthermore, her leadership skills in extracurricular activities were exceptional."
• This sentence praises someone for being great in studies and having outstanding leadership abilities in activities outside of school.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "A-iii-D."

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

To answer this question, first, let's look at the given phrases in the table:

• A. She faced criticism for her unorthodox methods
• This phrase describes disapproval of her unconventional approaches or techniques.
• B. We decided to proceed with the outdoor event
• The phrase mentions that they chose to go ahead with an outdoor event.
• C. She politely declined due to prior commitments
• This phrase mentions that she said no politely because of previous plans.
• D. fostering a sense of possibility within the community.
• This phrase mentions encouraging hope and potential in the community.
• E. their perseverance remained unshaken throughout the challenging project.
• This phrase highlights their unwavering determination during a difficult project.
• F. she persisted, eventually proving their effectiveness.
• This phrase highlights her determination and success despite the challenges faced.

Additional Information

Now, let's understand the meanings of the given connectors in the question:

• i. in lieu of
• It means "instead of" or "in place of."
• For Example:
• He chose to have fruit salad in lieu of a dessert.
• ii. nonetheless
• It means "however" or "nevertheless," indicating contrast or contradiction.
• For Example:
• It was raining; nonetheless, they decided to go for a walk.
• iii. be that as it may
• It means "despite that" or "nevertheless," acknowledging a point but continuing the argument.
• For Example:
• He didn't like the plan, but, be that as it may, he agreed to go along with it.
• So, after understanding the given phrases and the connectors, we can conclude that only the combination B-ii-F can make a grammatically and contextually meaningful sentence.
• The complete coherent sentence would be: "She faced criticism for her unorthodox methods; nonetheless, she persisted, eventually proving their effectiveness."
• This sentence highlights someone facing criticism but persevering to show that their unconventional methods were effective in the end.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "A-ii-F."

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's first understand the context in which the highlighted word "feasible" is used in the passage:

"Furthermore, optimizing the utilization of blood and its products becomes more feasible through such innovative approaches, minimizing losses due to expiration and ensuring maximal utilization."

• This sentence discusses that innovative methods, like the hub and spoke model, can enhance the efficient use of blood and its derivatives, reducing wastage due to expiry and ensuring maximum utilization in healthcare, benefiting more people.
• Now, let's understand the meaning of the highlighted word "feasible" and the words given as options to replace it:
• Feasible - capable of being done, achieved, or accomplished; possible within practical constraints (संभाव्य)
• For Example -
• After careful planning, the team concluded that the project was feasible within the given budget and timeline.
• Suitable - appropriate or fitting for a particular purpose, person, or occasion; well-suited (उपयुक्त)
• For Example -
• The candidate's experience and skills made her highly suitable for the managerial role.
• Implausible - not seeming reasonable or likely to happen; improbable (असंभावनीय)
• For Example -
• The theory presented by the researcher seemed implausible without substantial evidence to support its claims.
• Attainable - able to be achieved or obtained, within reach (प्राप्तियोग्य)
• For Example -
• With dedication and effort, the set targets became attainable for the team.
• Unrealistic - not based on reality or practicality; improbable or impractical (अवास्तविक)
• For Example -
• Setting a goal to become a billionaire overnight is unrealistic and doesn't align with practical expectations.
• So, after understanding the context in which the highlighted word is used and the meaning of all the given words, we can conclude that "attainable" is the appropriate word to replace the highlighted word "feasible"  because it captures the essence of making something achievable in the context of improving blood distribution and utilization, as highlighted in the passage.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "attainable."

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

• To answer this question, let's refer to Dr. Khan's statements in the passage, specifically discussing the role of public-private partnerships (PPPs) in addressing global disparities in blood collection and distribution:
• "Dr. Khan: Absolutely, Dr. Patel. One crucial avenue to address these inequities lies in establishing robust public-private partnerships (PPPs). Collaborations between leading industry players harbour immense potential in devising innovative models for blood collection and distribution. The hub and spoke model, for instance, stands out as a promising solution."
• From this part of the passage, it's evident that PPPs play a crucial role in addressing global disparities in blood collection and distribution by collaborating with industry players to devise innovative models such as the hub and spoke model. These partnerships aim to bridge gaps in blood availability, particularly in resource-constrained settings, thereby enhancing accessibility to blood and its derivatives.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "They collaborate to devise innovative models for blood collection and distribution."

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

• To answer this question, let's refer to Dr. Patel's statement regarding the advantages of implementing the hub and spoke model in the passage:
• "Implementing models like the hub and spoke can revolutionize blood distribution, ensuring safer and more efficient utilization, particularly in community health centres and smaller hospitals, even in geographically challenging terrains."
• From this part of the passage, it's evident that Dr. Patel highlights the ability of the hub and spoke model to ensure safer and more efficient utilization of blood, especially in smaller healthcare facilities and challenging geographical locations. The emphasis is on enhancing distribution and utilization, minimizing losses due to storage-related degradation.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "Its ability to minimize losses due to storage-related degradation."

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

• To answer this question, let's break down the sentences given in the question:
• Sentence A - "Dr. Khan was inspired to pursue medicine after a life-changing incident involving a blood transfusion in their childhood."
• This sentence cannot be inferred from the passage. There is no information provided in the passage regarding Dr. Khan's personal motivations or experiences that led them to pursue medicine.
• Sentence B - "Inadequate blood collection in various regions, including low-income countries, poses a significant challenge in providing essential medical resources."
• This sentence can be inferred from the passage. Dr. Khan discusses the profound global disparities in blood collection, especially in regions like the WHO African region and low-income countries, highlighting the challenges these disparities pose in providing essential medical resources.
• Sentence C - "The hub and spoke model is a promising solution to enhance the accessibility and availability of blood in Low- and Middle-Income Countries (LMIC)."
• This sentence can be inferred from the passage. Dr. Khan and Dr. Patel discuss the potential of establishing robust public-private partnerships (PPPs) and specifically mention the hub and spoke model as a promising solution to bridge critical gaps in blood availability and distribution in Low- and Middle-Income Countries (LMIC).
• So, out of the three sentences given in the question, sentences B and C can be inferred from the passage, while sentence A cannot be inferred from the passage.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "None of these."

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

To answer this question, read the passage carefully and try to understand its overall theme. 

The conversation between Dr. Patel and Dr. Khan revolves around the challenges and disparities within the blood management system on a global scale. They highlight the importance of blood and its products in healthcare, the significant disparities in blood collection across different regions and income levels, persistent shortages impacting critical healthcare services, and the potential solutions through public-private partnerships and innovative distribution models like the hub and spoke.

• Now, let's review the options:
• Option 1: "Redefining Healthcare Priorities: The Economic Impact"
• While the passage touches upon the economic implications of blood shortages and the significance of blood in healthcare, it primarily focuses on the challenges within the blood management system rather than an overarching redefinition of healthcare priorities.
• Option 2: "The Importance of Public-Private Partnerships in Healthcare"
• The passage does discuss the role of public-private partnerships in addressing blood collection disparities and enhancing distribution. However, this title doesn't encapsulate the entirety of the passage, which also addresses other critical aspects beyond partnerships.
• Option 3: "The blood management system needs a fresh infusion"
• This option aligns most closely with the passage's central theme. The passage encapsulates the discussion around shortages, disparities, innovative models, and the need for a revamp in the blood management system.
• Option 4: "Healthcare Innovations Amidst Global Challenges"
• Although innovations in healthcare are discussed in the passage, the primary emphasis is on blood management systems specifically rather than healthcare innovations in a broader sense.
• Option 5: "Revolutionizing Healthcare Logistics: The Hub and Spoke Model"
• The hub and spoke model is indeed discussed as a potential solution, but the passage encompasses more than just the logistics aspect of healthcare, focusing on blood shortages, disparities, and the need for cultural change.
• So, after careful consideration, the most appropriate title that encapsulates the main theme of the passage is Option 3: "The Blood Management System Needs A Fresh Infusion." This title accurately reflects the challenges and the required improvements in the blood management system, which constitute the core discussion of the passage.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "The Blood Management System Needs A Fresh Infusion."

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• To address this question, let's turn to the part of the passage where Dr. Patel and Dr. Khan discuss challenges beyond logistical issues in blood management:
• "However, beyond logistics, another substantial challenge revolves around dispelling myths and misconceptions about voluntary blood donation. Targeted awareness campaigns, driven by both government and private sectors, leveraging platforms like social media and innovative tools, could play a pivotal role in reshaping perceptions and encouraging voluntary donations."
• In this segment of the passage,  Dr. Patel states that a significant challenge in blood management extends beyond logistical concerns. He emphasizes the need to dispel myths and misconceptions about voluntary blood donation. And suggests that targeted awareness campaigns by government and private sectors using social media and innovative tools are crucial in reshaping perceptions and encouraging voluntary donations.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "Dispelling myths and misconceptions about voluntary blood donation."

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

• The correct phrase is "deemed the safest city."
• The underlined phrase "deemed to be safest city" is erroneous as it lacks the definite article 'the' before the superlative adjective "safest." It should be "the safest city" to specify a particular city among others.
• Here, the phrase "deemed the safest city" corrects this error by specifying Kolkata as the safest city among others, aligning with the sentence's context and grammar.
• The correct sentence after phrase replacement would be: "Kolkata, deemed the safest city by crime statistics, instils confidence through safe streets despite underlying poverty and scepticism around reported data."

Additional Information

Let's understand the degrees of Adjectives and their usage:

• Adjectives have three degrees: positive, comparative, and superlative. The positive degree stands alone, the comparative compares two things, and the superlative compares three or more. For example:
• For Example:
• Positive: She is tall.
• Comparative: She is taller than him.
• Superlative: She is the tallest in the class.
• When forming comparatives, use "than" to compare two things. For superlatives, precede the adjective with "the" to indicate the highest degree within a group.

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• The correct phrase is "boasts a rich talent pool."
• The underlined phrase "being home for a wealth of talent" is incorrect because it uses 'being' as a continuous form of the verb 'to be,' which doesn't fit the sentence structure. Instead, 'is' is needed as a linking verb to maintain consistency in tense and structure within the sentence.
• Also, the preposition "for" should be replaced with "to" because "home to" is the correct phrase to express the idea of a place where something exists.
• Here, the correct phrase to replace the underlined phrase is "boasts a rich talent pool" as it conveys the sense of pride and possession that aligns with Bengaluru's diverse talent resources, making the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
• The correct sentence after phrase replacement would be: "Bengaluru, India's innovation hub, boasts a rich talent pool across diverse fields, yet aims to enhance research culture and collaboration for breakthroughs."

Additional Information

• When expressing abundance or richness in a particular quality or attribute, the phrase "boasts a rich" (noun) is used to highlight the abundance of that particular characteristic or feature. 
• For Example:
• Singapore boasts a rich cultural tapestry, weaving together influences from diverse ethnicities across centuries of history.
• The university's library boasts a rich collection of rare manuscripts and first-edition texts dating back several centuries.
• In this context, "boasts a rich talent pool" effectively communicates the idea of Bengaluru having a substantial concentration of talent.

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• The correct phrase is "with its academic excellence."
• The underlined phrase "with it's academically excellence," is erroneous as uses "it's" instead of "its." "It's" is a contraction of "it is" or "it has," whereas the possessive form needed here should be "its" without an apostrophe.
• Also, "academically excellence" is not grammatically correct either. The correct phrase should be "academic excellence," using the adjective 'academic' to define the noun 'excellence' instead of the adverb 'academically.'
• The correct sentence after phrase replacement would be: "Mumbai offers diverse educational opportunities, evolving institutes, prestigious universities, and vibrant city life, drawing talent nationwide with its academic excellence."

Additional Information

• Let's understand the meaning of its and it's:
• "Its" is a possessive pronoun, showing ownership, while "It's" is a contraction of "it is" or "it has."
• For Example:
• Its colour is blue. (possessive)
• It's raining heavily. (contraction for "it is")
• The dog chased its tail. (possessive)
• It's been a long day. (contraction for "it has")

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

• The correct phrase is "for six consecutive years."
• The underlined phrase "on the course of six continuing years" is erroneous as it doesn't convey the intended meaning of an uninterrupted duration.
• The correct phrase to use here is "over the course of" as it accurately denotes a span or duration throughout six years.
• Also, "continuing" should be replaced with "continuous" for grammatical accuracy as "continuing" suggests ongoing actions, while "continuous" is correct as it denotes an uninterrupted, unbroken sequence, fitting the context of consecutive, uninterrupted years better.
• Here, the phrase "for six consecutive years" accurately denotes the uninterrupted duration for which Indore has held the title of the cleanest city in India, ensuring both grammatical correctness and contextual accuracy.
• The correct sentence after phrase replacement would be: "Indore, the cleanest city in India for six consecutive years, manages waste effectively, generating bio-CNG and promoting citizen responsibility for urban hygiene."

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's break down each sentence to identify the grammatically and contextually correct ones:

• A. Witnessing a hit-and-run incident as a child instilled a deep fear of traffic rules, making me cautious at green signals.
• The sentence describes how witnessing a hit-and-run as a child made someone afraid of traffic rules, causing them to be extra careful at green lights.
• This sentence is grammatically and contextually correct.
• B. The homework task highlighted derogatory terms associated with women, revealing the absent of similar negative terms for men.
• This sentence points out unfair language biases against women, showing the lack of equivalent negative terms for men.
• The sentence is erroneous because "absent" is an adjective, not a noun and here, the noun "absence" is needed to describe the lack of negative terms for men.
• The correct sentence would be: "The homework task highlighted derogatory terms associated with women, revealing the absence of similar negative terms for men."
• C. Teaching children orderliness prevent misplacing items, maximizing study time and fostering lifelong beneficial habits through exemplary behaviour.
• This sentence highlights how teaching kids to be organized helps them avoid losing things, use study time well, and develop good habits.
• The sentence is erroneous because it lacks subject-verb agreement. Here, "teaching" is a singular subject requiring a singular verb, so "prevent" should be replaced with "prevents" to match the singular subject.
• The correct sentence would be: "Teaching children orderliness prevents misplacing items, maximizing study time and fostering lifelong beneficial habits through exemplary behaviour."
• D. Me and him will be attending the conference, hoping to enhance our understanding of quantum physics.
• This sentence mentions attending a conference to improve understanding of quantum physics together.
• This sentence is erroneous as it uses "me and him" which are objective pronouns. Instead, it should be "He and I" as subjective pronouns for the subject of the sentence.
• The correct sentence would be: "He and I will be attending the conference, hoping to enhance our understanding of quantum physics."
• So, out of the given sentences, only sentence A is grammatically and contextually correct, while all the other three sentences (B, C, and D) are erroneous.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "Only A."

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's break down each sentence to identify the grammatically and contextually correct ones:

• A. I couldn't barely make out any of the instructions, which were written in such small print that even with my glasses, it was so confusing and frustrating.
• This sentence describes someone struggling to read tiny instructions despite wearing glasses, causing confusion and frustration.
• The sentence is erroneous as it contains a double negative ("couldn't barely"), which creates confusion. It should be either "could barely make out" or "couldn't make out" to convey the intended meaning clearly.
• The correct sentence would be: "I could barely make out any of the instructions, which were written in such small print that even with my glasses, it was so confusing and frustrating."
• B. Oversight, transparency, and technology integration can enhance assessment credibility and mitigate fraudulence in the examination process.
• This sentence explores how oversight, transparency, and tech can improve trust in exams by reducing fraud.
• This sentence is grammatically and contextually correct.
• C. Clutter conceals and leads to frustration, highlighting the value of orderliness for an aesthetically pleasing and organized life.
• This sentence emphasizes how keeping things neat and organized can prevent frustration caused by clutter.
• This sentence is also grammatically and contextually correct.
• D. Online education compounds the existing issues in the education system, adding in the challenges faced by students and academia.
• This sentence highlights how online education worsens problems in education by adding new difficulties for students and teachers.
• The sentence is erroneous because "adding in" is the incorrect phrase and it should be replaced with "adding to." The correct phrasal verb is "add to" to convey the contribution.
• The correct sentence would be: "Online education compounds the existing issues in the education system, adding to the challenges faced by students and academia."
• So, out of the given sentences, only sentences B and C are grammatically and contextually correct, while sentences A and D are erroneous.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "Both B and C."

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's break down each sentence to identify the grammatically and contextually correct ones:

• A. Higher education's expansion led to increased private colleges, causing quality decline and structure issues in the system.
• This sentence addresses how the growth of private colleges due to increased higher education led to declining quality and structural problems in the education system.
• This sentence is erroneous as the noun 'issues' in the sentence is preceded by another noun 'structure' and it should be replaced with the adjective 'structural' to correctly define the noun.
• The correct sentence would be: "Higher education's expansion led to increased private colleges, causing quality decline and structural issues in the system."
• B. She will have already completed the entire project by the time the deadline passed, ensuring meticulous details and comprehensive analysis within the stipulated time frame.
• This sentence describes someone finishing a project with thoroughness before the deadline, emphasizing detailed work and timely completion.
• The sentence is erroneous because it uses the word "passed," which should be "passes" to match the future tense of the sentence correctly.
• The correct sentence would be: "She will have already completed the entire project by the time the deadline passes, ensuring meticulous details and comprehensive analysis within the stipulated time frame."
• C. The observations underscored a global disparity regarding road laws, revealing even the powerful flouting rules with impunity.
• This sentence highlights how people worldwide, including influential figures, break road rules without consequences, showing a global imbalance in enforcement.
• This sentence is grammatically and contextually correct.
• D. Global public debt surged to USD 92 trillions by 2022, with developing countries, including India, bearing a significant burden.
• The sentence highlights a major increase in worldwide debt, especially affecting developing nations like India.
• The sentence is erroneous because it should be "USD 92 trillion" as it's a specific amount, not multiple trillions.
• The correct sentence would be: "Global public debt surged to USD 92 trillion by 2022, with developing countries, including India, bearing a significant burden."
• So, out of the given sentences, only sentence C is grammatically and contextually correct, while all the other three sentences (A, B, and D) are erroneous.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "Only C."

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

To answer this question, let's break down each sentence to identify the grammatically and contextually correct ones:

• A. Successful individuals prioritize rest as rigorously as work, acknowledging the importance of 'doing nothing' for their careers and well-being.
• This sentence highlights valuing rest as crucial for success and well-being, challenging the idea of constant work.
• This sentence is grammatically and contextually correct.
• B. Despite economic growth, India’s credit rating remains at the lowest investment grade, influenced by fiscal weakness and high debt.
• This sentence highlights India's low credit rating due to financial weaknesses despite its growing economy.
• This sentence is grammatically and contextually correct.
• C. Ego often hinders owning up to errors, especially for those in higher positions, impacting reputation and fostering disrepute.
• This sentence highlights how pride can make it hard for leaders to admit mistakes, affecting their reputation and causing distrust.
• This sentence is grammatically and contextually correct.
• D. Through dialogue and reflection, the teacher instigated a fundamental shift in the students' perception of gendered language and its implications.
• This sentence describes how a teacher changed how students view gender-specific words through conversation and thinking.
• This sentence is also grammatically and contextually correct.
• So, out of the given sentences, all sentences (A, B, C, and D) are correct.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "All A, B, C, and D."

The correct answer is option 3.

Key Points

• To answer this question, refer to the third paragraph of the passage, which delves into the recent geopolitical developments prompting shifts in sentiment toward nuclear deterrence in nations like Japan and South Korea:
• "The evolution of geopolitical dynamics challenges the Cold War-era foundations of the GNO. The U.S. approach towards nuclear proliferation has been pragmatic, occasionally turning a blind eye to certain nations acquiring nuclear capabilities. Instances like the AUKUS deal and shifts in regional dynamics raise concerns about NPT compliance. Nations like South Korea, previously considering nuclear programs, and Japan, historically anti-nuclear, display shifts in sentiment toward nuclear deterrence."
• From this part of the passage, it's evident that the shifts in sentiment toward nuclear deterrence in nations like Japan and South Korea are prompted by instances like the AUKUS deal and concerns about NPT compliance. These instances, coupled with shifts in regional dynamics, have led historically anti-nuclear nations like Japan to display a change in sentiment toward nuclear deterrence.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "Instances like the AUKUS deal and concerns about NPT compliance."

The correct answer is option 5.

Key Points

• To answer this question, let's refer to the second paragraph of the passage, which discusses the impact of changing geopolitics on key treaties:
• "The collapse of the ABM and INF treaties, while the New START agreement hangs precariously, has strained relations between the U.S. and Russia. Relations between the U.S. and Russia have deteriorated, impacting strategic stability talks and raising concerns about nuclear testing."
• From this part of the passage, it's clear that the collapse of key treaties such as the ABM and INF has strained relations between the U.S. and Russia. This strain has impacted strategic stability talks and raised concerns about nuclear testing.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "The collapse of key treaties, such as ABM and INF, strained U.S.-Russia relations, impacting stability talks."

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

• To answer this question, let's break down the sentences given in the question:
• Sentence A - "The AUKUS deal and shifts in regional dynamics will inevitably lead to these nations immediately pursuing independent nuclear programs."
• This sentence cannot be inferred from the passage. While the passage discusses concerns about shifts in regional dynamics and potential impacts on the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT), it doesn't suggest an immediate pursuit of independent nuclear programs by nations due to the AUKUS deal or regional changes.
• Sentence B - "The Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) expanded massively from its inception in 1968, becoming a cornerstone of the global nuclear order."
• This sentence can be inferred from the passage. The passage highlights how the NPT, initially signed by fewer than 60 nations in 1968, grew significantly to 191 signatories, making it a cornerstone of the global nuclear order.
• Sentence C - "The concept of 'strategic stability' and assured second-strike capability completely prevents any nuclear conflict among major powers."
• This sentence cannot be inferred from the passage. The passage discusses how the concept of 'strategic stability' and second-strike capability contributed to deterrence strategies between major powers during the Cold War, but it does not claim that these concepts completely prevent any nuclear conflict among major powers.
• So, out of the three sentences given in the question, only sentence B can be inferred from the passage, while sentences A and C cannot be inferred from the passage.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "Only B."

The correct answer is option 1.

Key Points

• To answer this question, let's examine each sentence given in the question:
• Sentence A: South Korea and Japan have maintained consistent anti-nuclear sentiments despite regional shifts in dynamics.
• This sentence is false. The passage mentions shifts in sentiment toward nuclear deterrence in both South Korea and Japan due to evolving geopolitical dynamics, suggesting a change from their historical positions of consistent anti-nuclear sentiments.
• Sentence B: Evolving geopolitical dynamics challenge Cold War-era foundations, leading to shifts in sentiment toward nuclear deterrence.
• This sentence is true. The passage explicitly discusses how changing geopolitical dynamics challenge the Cold War-era foundations of the Global Nuclear Order, prompting shifts in sentiment toward nuclear deterrence in various nations.
• Sentence C: The Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) expanded from 60 to 191 signatories, solidifying the global nuclear order.
• This sentence is true. The passage indicates that the NPT initially had fewer than 60 signatories but grew to encompass 191 signatories, emphasizing its role as a cornerstone of the global nuclear order.
• Sentence D: The overall count of nuclear arsenals reduced consistently due to arms control efforts between the U.S. and the U.S.S.R.
• This sentence is false. While arms control efforts were made between the U.S. and the U.S.S.R., the overall count of nuclear arsenals did not consistently reduce. The passage mentions that initially, the overall count grew despite these efforts.
• Sentence E: The GNO successfully maintained all treaties intact and unstrained amid changing global dynamics.
• This sentence is false. The passage highlights strains on key treaties within the Global Nuclear Order, citing collapses of treaties like ABM and INF, along with concerns about the New START agreement hanging precariously. It indicates that the GNO did not maintain all treaties intact amid changing global dynamics.
• So, out of the given sentences, sentences B and C are true, while sentences A, D and E are false.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "Both B and C are true."

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

To answer this question, read the passage carefully and try to understand its overall theme.   

The passage discusses the historical foundations and contemporary challenges facing the Global Nuclear Order (GNO). It covers the emergence of the GNO during the Cold War, its success in maintaining a nuclear taboo, arms control efforts, evolving geopolitical dynamics, strains on key treaties, and concerns about nuclear proliferation. The central focus revolves around the historical evolution of the GNO and the current strains due to changing geopolitical scenarios.

• Now, let's review the options:
• Option 1: "Nuclear Arms Control: Cold War Legacies and Current Challenges"
• This option accurately reflects the discussion on nuclear arms control, Cold War legacies, and the challenges existing in the contemporary era. However, it doesn't entirely encapsulate the broader scope of the passage, which extends beyond arms control to encompass the overall structure and challenges to the Global Nuclear Order.
• Option 2: "The Global Nuclear Order: Historical Foundations and Modern Strains"
• This option aligns closely with the passage's central theme. It effectively captures the historical evolution of the GNO, its foundations during the Cold War, and the contemporary challenges that threaten its stability. This choice comprehensively summarizes the passage's primary focus on the GNO's historical roots and present strains.
• Option 3: "The Evolution of Nuclear Proliferation: A Global Perspective"
• While the passage touches on the evolution of nuclear proliferation, its scope is not solely about the proliferation itself but also about the broader Global Nuclear Order, its successes, and contemporary challenges. Hence, this title doesn’t encapsulate the passage's complete theme.
• Option 4: "Geopolitical Shifts and the Fragility of Nuclear Stability"
• This title emphasizes geopolitical shifts and nuclear stability's fragility, which are indeed significant aspects of the passage. However, it doesn't encompass the entirety of the discussion, which also includes the historical background and the structure of the Global Nuclear Order.
• Option 5: "The U.S., China, and Russia: A Nuclear Power Struggle"
• While the relationships between these nations and their nuclear dynamics are discussed in the passage, this title overly narrows the focus to the power struggle among these specific countries, neglecting the broader context of the GNO, its historical development, and contemporary challenges.
• So, after a careful analysis of the passage and the options provided, the most fitting title that encapsulates the primary theme is Option 2: "The Global Nuclear Order: Historical Foundations and Modern Strains." This title effectively summarizes the passage's focus on the historical formation of the GNO, its evolution, and the contemporary challenges it faces, providing a comprehensive overview of the discussed content.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "The Global Nuclear Order: Historical Foundations and Modern Strains."

The correct answer is option 4.

Key Points

• To answer this question, refer to the second paragraph of the passage, which discusses the shaping of deterrence strategies between the U.S. and the U.S.S.R. despite the growth in their arsenals:
• "Arms control efforts between the U.S. and the U.S.S.R. contributed to managing their arsenals, although the overall count grew initially. The concept of 'strategic stability' and assured second-strike capability shaped their deterrence strategies, maintaining a semblance of equilibrium."
• From this part of the passage, it's evident that the concept that shaped deterrence strategies between the U.S. and the U.S.S.R., despite the growth in their arsenals, was "strategic stability" and assured "second-strike capability." This strategic approach ensured a balance and deterred each side from engaging in direct conflict by guaranteeing the ability to retaliate effectively in case of a nuclear attack.
• Therefore, the correct answer is "Strategic stability and assured second-strike capability."