General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is ₹50,000.

Key Points

• In a landmark ruling in 2025, the Supreme Court of India reinforced the financial security of women by setting a permanent monthly alimony benchmark of ₹50,000 for a divorced wife who remains unmarried.
• The Apex Court emphasized that maintenance is not a matter of charity but a fundamental right derived from the principle of Social Justice, ensuring that a woman is not left in a state of destitution after the dissolution of marriage.
• The judgment clarified that the amount of ₹50,000 was determined considering the rising Cost of Living and the Inflation Index, aiming to provide a basic standard of living that aligns with the husband's financial status and the wife's previous lifestyle.
• This decision is rooted in the interpretation of Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CrPC), now integrated into the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), which mandates the husband to provide support to a wife who is unable to maintain herself.
• The court highlighted that the 'unmarried' status of the divorced wife necessitates continuous support until her remarriage or change in financial circumstances, making the ₹50,000 sum a fixed monthly obligation for the respondent.

 Additional Information

• Permanent Alimony:
• It refers to the allowance ordered by the court to be paid by one spouse to the other after the Decree of Divorce is passed.
• Under Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the court has the authority to grant permanent alimony and maintenance at the time of passing any decree.
• Factors Influencing Alimony Quantum:
• Standard of Living: The Supreme Court has consistently held that a wife is entitled to the same comfort level she enjoyed in her Matrimonial Home.
• Financial Capacity: The Net Taxable Income, assets, and liabilities of the husband are critical determinants for the final amount.
• Duration of Marriage: Longer durations often lead to higher alimony settlements due to the increased dependency established over time.
• Interim Maintenance:
• Distinguished from permanent alimony, this is the amount paid during the pendency of the Matrimonial Suit to cover immediate legal and living expenses.

The correct answer is President of India.

Key Points

• The Speaker Pro Tem is a temporary post created to preside over the first few sittings of a newly elected Lok Sabha until a permanent Speaker is elected.
• According to Article 99 of the Indian Constitution, every member of either House of Parliament must, before taking their seat, make and subscribe an oath or affirmation before the President or some person appointed by him.
• The President of India appoints the Speaker Pro Tem and administers the oath of office to him/her, usually at the Rashtrapati Bhavan, before the first session of the new House begins.
• By convention, the most senior member of the Lok Sabha (in terms of number of years/terms served) is chosen for this position to ensure the smooth transition of parliamentary proceedings.
• The primary duties of the Speaker Pro Tem include presiding over the first meeting of the Lok Sabha, administering the oath to all other newly elected members, and enabling the election of the permanent Speaker.

 Additional Information

• Chief Justice of India:
• Responsible for administering the oath of office to the President of India under Article 60.
• Does not have a constitutional role in the administration of oaths for members of the Legislature.
• Vice President of India:
• Acts as the Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
• The oath of the Vice President is administered by the President or a person appointed by him.
• Cabinet Secretary:
• The highest-ranking civil servant and the administrative head of the Cabinet Secretariat.
• Functions as the chief coordinator of the Government of India but holds no constitutional authority regarding parliamentary oaths.
• Nature of Office:
• The office of Speaker Pro Tem is strictly temporary and ceases to exist the moment the House elects its permanent Speaker under Article 93.

The correct answer is Konkan → Karnataka → Malabar.

Key Points

• The Western Coastal Plain of India is a narrow strip of land situated between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea, extending from the Gulf of Kachchh in the north to Kanyakumari in the south.
• The Konkan Coast constitutes the northern segment of the western coastline. It stretches from Daman in the north to Goa in the south, covering the coastal districts of Maharashtra and Goa. It is characterized by a rugged and indented coastline.
• The Karnataka Coast, also referred to as the Kanara Coast, is the middle section located south of the Konkan region. It extends from Goa to Mangalore along the state of Karnataka.
• The Malabar Coast forms the southernmost part of the western coastal plains, stretching from Mangalore to the southern tip of the peninsula at Kanyakumari. This region primarily falls within the state of Kerala and is known for its extensive backwaters or Kayals.
• Therefore, the correct geographical sequence from north to south along the western coast is the Konkan Coast, followed by the Karnataka Coast, and finally the Malabar Coast.

 Additional Information

• Kathiawar Coast:
• This section is located in Gujarat, specifically around the Saurashtra peninsula. It lies to the north of the Konkan Coast and is bounded by the Gulf of Kachchh and the Gulf of Khambhat.
• Comparison with the Eastern Coast:
• The Eastern Coastal Plain is broader than the western coast and is divided into the Northern Circars (between the Mahanadi and Krishna rivers) and the Coromandel Coast (stretching from the Krishna river to Kanyakumari).
• Geomorphological Features:
• The western coast is an example of a submerged coast, which provides natural deep-water harbors. Major ports such as Kandla, Mumbai, Marmagao, and Kochi are located along this coastline.

The correct answer is Application software.

Key Points

• Application software consists of programs designed to perform specific tasks for users, rather than simply managing the computer system itself.
• Microsoft Word is categorized as a word processor used for creating, editing, and formatting text documents.
• Microsoft Excel is a spreadsheet application utilized for data organization, mathematical calculations, and financial analysis using a grid of cells.
• Microsoft PowerPoint is a presentation program that allows users to create visual slide decks for business or educational purposes.
• These programs are considered end-user software because they allow individuals to produce specific outputs like documents, charts, and presentations.
• Application software requires an Operating System to run, as it does not communicate directly with the computer hardware.

 Additional Information

• System software:
• Responsible for managing and controlling the hardware components so that application software can perform its tasks.
• Core examples include Operating Systems (OS) like Windows 11, Linux, and macOS, as well as utility software like disk defragmenters.
• Hardware components:
• The physical, tangible parts of a computer system such as the Central Processing Unit (CPU), Hard Disk Drive (HDD), and Monitor.
• Booting programs:
• Specific sets of instructions, such as the BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) or UEFI, that load the operating system into the RAM when the computer is turned on.

The correct answer is Mesolithic.

Key Points

• The Mesolithic phase, also referred to as the Middle Stone Age, represents a transitional period between the Palaeolithic and Neolithic eras, beginning approximately around 10,000 BCE in India.
• The most defining technological advancement of this period was the production of microliths, which are tiny, highly specialized stone tools made from crypto-crystalline silica such as chert, chalcedony, agate, and jasper.
• These tools are typically very small, ranging from 1 cm to 8 cm in length, and are classified into geometrical shapes (like triangles, trapezes, and lunates or crescents) and non-geometrical shapes.
• Microliths were rarely used alone; they were designed to be hafted into wooden or bone handles to create composite tools like spearheads, arrowheads, knives, and sickles.
• In the Indian context, major Mesolithic sites include Bagor in Rajasthan (one of the largest Mesolithic sites), Adamgarh in Madhya Pradesh, Langhnaj in Gujarat, and Sarai Nahar Rai in Uttar Pradesh.
• This era witnessed a shift towards more efficient hunting-gathering and the early beginnings of animal domestication, as evidenced by findings at Bagor and Adamgarh.

 Additional Information

• Lower Palaeolithic
• Characterized by the Acheulian culture involving large, heavy stone tools.
• Common implements included hand-axes, cleavers, and choppers used for butchering and digging.
• Middle Palaeolithic
• Marked by a transition to flake-based tool industries.
• Key tools included scrapers, borers, and points made using the Levallois technique.
• Early Iron Age
• Associated with the introduction of iron metallurgy following the Bronze Age.
• In India, this period is often linked with the Painted Grey Ware (PGW) culture in the North and Megalithic cultures in the South.

The correct answer is Gandhi-Irwin Pact.

Key Points

• The Gandhi-Irwin Pact was a landmark political agreement signed on March 5, 1931, between Mahatma Gandhi and the Viceroy of India, Lord Irwin, before the Second Round Table Conference in London.
• The pact led to the suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement, which had gained massive momentum following the Salt Satyagraha and the Dandi March of 1930.
• Key provisions of the pact included the release of all political prisoners not charged with violence, the return of confiscated properties to their owners, and the right of people in coastal villages to make salt for personal consumption without paying tax.
• In exchange, the Indian National Congress agreed to discontinue the movement and participate in the Second Round Table Conference to discuss constitutional reforms for India.
• The pact was significant as it placed the Indian National Congress on an equal footing with the British Government for the first time during negotiations.

 Additional Information

• Poona Pact (1932):
• This was an agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar on behalf of the depressed classes and upper-caste Hindus.
• It resulted in the reservation of seats for the Depressed Classes in provincial and central legislatures instead of separate electorates.
• Lucknow Pact (1916):
• An agreement reached between the Indian National Congress and the All India Muslim League at a joint session held in Lucknow.
• It established a joint front to demand self-government from the British and accepted the principle of separate electorates for Muslims.
• Lahore Session (1929):
• Presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru, this session is famous for passing the resolution of Purna Swaraj or Complete Independence, which set the stage for the Civil Disobedience Movement.

The correct answer is It was intended to divide people on communal lines and weaken the growing nationalist movement..

Key Points

• The Partition of Bengal was announced on July 19, 1905, by the then Viceroy of India, Lord Curzon, and it officially came into effect on October 16, 1905.
• While the British administration cited administrative convenience as the official reason, the actual strategic intent was to stifle the rising tide of Indian nationalism, as Bengal was the nerve center of political consciousness and anti-colonial resistance.
• The territorial reorganization was designed to create a communal rift by establishing a Muslim-majority province in the East (Eastern Bengal and Assam) and a Hindu-majority province in the West (Western Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha).
• By making the Bengali-speaking population a minority in their own province and fostering religious divisions, the colonial government aimed to implement the classic Divide and Rule policy to weaken the unified front of the Indian National Congress.
• Nationalist leaders recognized this as a deliberate attempt to destroy Bengali unity and communal harmony, leading to the launch of the Swadeshi and Boycott movements, which marked a new phase in the struggle for Swaraj.

 Additional Information

• Swadeshi Movement:
• It was a direct reaction to the 1905 Partition, emphasizing the use of indigenous goods and the burning of foreign-made cloth to exert economic pressure on the British.
• 1911 Annulment:
• Due to the intense and sustained political agitation, the partition was eventually annulled by Lord Hardinge during the Delhi Durbar in 1911.
• Administrative Rationale:
• The British argued that the Bengal Presidency was too large, with a population of nearly 78 million, making it difficult for a single Lieutenant-Governor to manage effectively.
• Shift of Capital:
• In 1911, alongside the annulment of the partition, the British shifted the capital of colonial India from Calcutta to Delhi to ensure better administrative control and move away from the revolutionary hotbed of Bengal.

The correct answer is Protozoan.

Key Points

• Malaria is a life-threatening infectious disease caused by parasites of the genus Plasmodium. These parasites are microscopic, single-celled eukaryotic organisms classified as protozoans.
• The infection is primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito. The mosquito serves as the vector, carrying the parasite from one human host to another.
• During the bite, the mosquito injects the parasite in the form of sporozoites into the bloodstream. These sporozoites travel to the liver, where they mature and multiply.
• After the liver stage, the parasites (now called merozoites) enter the red blood cells (erythrocytes). Their multiplication inside these cells leads to the destruction of the red blood cells, which is a hallmark of the disease.
• The clinical symptoms, including recurring high fever, chills, and sweating, are caused by the release of a metabolic waste product called hemozoin when the infected red blood cells rupture.

 Additional Information

• Bacteria:
• These are prokaryotic organisms that cause diseases such as Typhoid, Tuberculosis, and Cholera. Unlike malaria, bacterial infections are generally treated with antibiotics.
• Fungi:
• Fungi are eukaryotic organisms that include yeasts and molds. They are responsible for common skin diseases like Ringworm and Athlete’s foot, but they do not cause malaria.
• Virus:
• Viruses are non-living infectious particles that require a host cell to replicate. They cause diseases like Dengue, Hepatitis, and COVID-19. While Dengue is also mosquito-borne, its pathogen is a virus, not a protozoan.
• There are several species of Plasmodium that cause malaria in humans, including P. falciparum, P. vivax, P. ovale, and P. malariae, with P. falciparum being the most lethal.

Therefore, the pathogen responsible for the transmission and development of malaria is a protozoan.

The correct answer is Hubballi.

Key Points

• The South Western Railway (SWR) is one of the 19 railway zones in India, which was created by reorganizing the existing Southern Railway and South Central Railway zones.
• The zone officially commenced its operations on April 1, 2003, with its headquarters established in Hubballi (formerly known as Hubli) in the state of Karnataka.
• Geographically, the South Western Railway zone covers a vast majority of the railway network in Karnataka, and extends its jurisdiction to parts of Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Goa.
• The administrative structure of this zone is divided into three functional divisions: Hubballi, Bengaluru, and Mysuru.
• Hubballi is a significant railway landmark, as it houses one of the oldest and largest Carriage and Wagon Workshops in the Indian Railways network, established in 1885.
• The city is also home to the Shree Siddharoodha Swamiji Hubballi Junction, which holds the record for the world s longest railway platform as of 2023.

 Additional Information

• Jaipur:
• It serves as the headquarters of the North Western Railway (NWR) zone.
• This zone was also formed in 2002 and comprises divisions like Jaipur, Ajmer, Bikaner, and Jodhpur.
• Mumbai:
• Mumbai is a major railway nerve center, hosting the headquarters for two zones: the Central Railway (CR) at Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj Terminus and the Western Railway (WR) at Churchgate.
• Jabalpur:
• Located in Madhya Pradesh, it is the headquarters of the West Central Railway (WCR) zone.
• The WCR zone includes the Jabalpur, Bhopal, and Kota divisions.

The correct answer is It resulted from reduced trade and rising land grants replacing cash payments..

Key Points

• The post-Gupta period (6^th century CE to 1000 CE) was characterized by a distinct shift from a centralized monetary economy to a decentralized agrarian structure.
• A primary cause for the decline in metallic coinage was the slump in long-distance trade, particularly with the Roman Empire and Central Asia, which reduced the influx of gold and silver.
• Economic historians like R.S. Sharma argue that the emergence of Indian Feudalism led to the practice of land grants. Rulers began donating land to Brahmins (Agraharas) and state officials as a substitute for cash salaries.
• This transition promoted a closed, self-sufficient village economy where local production met local needs, significantly diminishing the necessity for a circulating metallic currency for daily transactions.

 Additional Information

• Currency Alternatives:
• While high-value gold and silver coins became scarce, cowrie shells (shells used as money) and copper coins became the standard medium for small-scale local exchange.
• Gupta Coinage:
• The Gupta Dynasty was famous for its high-quality gold coins (Dinaras); however, toward the end of their rule, coins showed increasing debasement (mixing gold with inferior metals), signaling economic distress.
• Urban Decay:
• The decline of trade led to urban centers falling into ruin, forcing merchants and artisans to move to rural areas, which further solidified land-based wealth over monetary wealth.

The correct answer is 2003.

Key Points

• The 89^th Constitutional Amendment Act was enacted in the year 2003 to bifurcate the combined National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
• This amendment specifically aimed at creating a dedicated National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) under Article 338 of the Indian Constitution.
• The act also inserted a new Article 338A, which led to the establishment of the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST).
• This legislative change was passed by the Parliament in 2003 and received the Presidential assent shortly thereafter, officially coming into force on February 19, 2004.
• Before this amendment, the 65^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1990 had replaced the one-man Special Officer with a multi-member National Commission for SCs and STs.

 Additional Information

• National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC):
• It is a constitutional body responsible for safeguarding the interests of the Scheduled Castes in India.
• The commission consists of a Chairperson, a Vice-Chairperson, and three other members, all of whom are appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal.
• Their primary function is to investigate and monitor all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the Scheduled Castes under the Constitution or any other law.
• The commission has all the powers of a civil court while investigating any matter or inquiring into any complaint.
• Reasons for Bifurcation:
• The social and educational conditions of Scheduled Tribes were considered significantly different from Scheduled Castes, as STs often face issues related to geographical isolation and cultural preservation, whereas SCs face issues related to social exclusion like untouchability.
• Separating the commissions allowed for a more focused approach toward the specific development and welfare schemes tailored for each group.

Therefore, the correct option is 2.

The correct answer is Only 2, 3 and 4.

Key Points

• Marathi: As of December 2022, this language did not hold the official classical status. Although the Maharashtra Government submitted a proposal based on the Rangnath Pathare Committee report, the Union Cabinet only granted it Classical Language status later in October 2024. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• Tamil: It was the very first language in India to be accorded the Classical Language status in 2004. The criteria for this selection include high antiquity of early texts and a recorded history spanning over 1500 to 2000 years. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Sanskrit: This language was declared classical in 2005. It is recognized for its extraordinary contribution to Indian heritage, particularly through the Vedas, Upanishads, and classical literature that influenced several other linguistic traditions. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Odia: It was officially added to the list in February 2014, becoming the sixth language to receive this distinction. It was the first language from the Indo-Aryan group, other than Sanskrit, to be recognized as classical during that period. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

 Additional Information

• As of December 2022, there were a total of six languages recognized as classical by the Ministry of Culture:
• Tamil (declared in 2004).
• Sanskrit (declared in 2005).
• Kannada (declared in 2008).
• Telugu (declared in 2008).
• Malayalam (declared in 2013).
• Odia (declared in 2014).
• The Linguistic Experts Committee, constituted by the Ministry of Culture, evaluates the eligibility of languages based on original literary traditions that are not borrowed from another speech community.
• Benefits of this status include the establishment of a Center of Excellence for Studies in Classical Languages and the provision for the University Grants Commission (UGC) to create professional chairs in Central Universities for these specific languages.

The correct answer is Geneva, Switzerland.

Key Points

• The 353^rd Session of the Governing Body of the International Labour Organization (ILO) is scheduled to be held in March 2025.
• This session, like most regular meetings of the executive council, takes place at the ILO Headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland.
• The Governing Body is the executive organ of the ILO and meets three times a year, specifically in March, June, and October/November, to make decisions on ILO policy, the agenda of the International Labour Conference, and the draft Programme and Budget.
• During these sessions, representatives discuss global labor standards, the protection of workers rights, and the implementation of international labor conventions.

 Additional Information

• International Labour Organization (ILO):
• It was founded in 1919 under the Treaty of Versailles as an affiliated agency of the League of Nations.
• In 1946, it became the first specialized agency associated with the United Nations (UN).
• The organization is unique due to its tripartite structure, which involves governments, employers, and workers from 187 Member States in its decision-making processes.
• The ILO was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1969 for its work in improving fraternity and peace among nations through social justice.
• The current Director-General of the ILO (as of 2024-2025) is Gilbert F. Houngbo, who was elected by the Governing Body.

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

Key Points

• The Khelo India Water Sports Festival 2025 was officially organized in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir, primarily hosted at the Water Sports Center located on the banks of Nigeen Lake and Dal Lake.
• Madhya Pradesh emerged as the dominant force in the competition, securing the highest number of gold medals across various aquatic disciplines, which cemented its position at the top of the overall medal tally.
• The state contingent displayed exceptional prowess in Canoeing, Kayaking, and Rowing, sweeping several podium finishes in both the men’s and women’s categories.
• This victory is a testament to the state’s focused investment in aquatic sports, outperforming other prominent states like Kerala and Maharashtra that have traditionally been strong in water-based events.
• The festival was part of the Khelo India initiative by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, aimed at promoting specialized sporting disciplines and identifying Olympic-level talent at the grassroots level.

 Additional Information

• Infrastructure and Training Excellence:
• The Madhya Pradesh State Water Sports Academy, based in Bhopal, is credited with the state’s success; it provides international-standard high-performance training and features world-class equipment for athletes.
• The academy has a history of producing athletes who represent India at the Asian Games and World Championships, particularly in Slalom and Sprint events.
• The 2025 Festival in Srinagar served as a crucial qualifying and scouting ground for upcoming national and international aquatic championships.
• While Kerala is famous for its Vallam Kali (Snake Boat Race) and Maharashtra for its coastal sports, Madhya Pradesh has successfully created a systematic technical training model that prioritizes Olympic-format water sports.

The correct answer is Climate Smart Cities Assessment Framework.

Key Points

• The Climate Smart Cities Assessment Framework (CSCAF) was launched in February 2019 by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) as a part of the Smart Cities Mission.
• It serves as a first-of-its-kind public assessment tool designed to provide a clear roadmap for Indian cities to combat climate change through planned investments and policy interventions.
• The framework evaluates urban performance across 28 indicators categorized into five key thematic areas: Energy and Green Buildings, Urban Planning, Green Cover & Biodiversity, Mobility and Air Quality, Water Management, and Waste Management.
• By using this framework, cities can assess their current climate situation and adopt data-driven strategies to improve their climate resilience and overall sustainability.
• The second version, CSCAF 2.0, was later launched in September 2020 to further refine the assessment parameters and encourage broader participation from 126 cities, including all Smart Cities and capital cities.

 Additional Information

• National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)
• Launched in June 2008, it is a comprehensive strategy created by the Prime Minister Council on Climate Change to address the challenges of global warming.
• It outlines eight national missions focusing on solar energy, enhanced energy efficiency, sustainable habitat, water, Himalayan ecosystems, green India, sustainable agriculture, and strategic knowledge for climate change.
• National Mission on Sustainable Habitat (NMSH)
• Approved in 2010, it is one of the eight core missions under the NAPCC framework managed by the MoHUA.
• It focuses on making cities sustainable by promoting energy efficiency in the residential and commercial sectors, improving urban waste management, and enhancing public transport systems.

The correct answer is Step-wells for water conservation.

Key Points

• Dholavira, located on Khadir Bet island in the Kutch Desert Wildlife Sanctuary of Gujarat, is distinguished by its extraordinary water management system.
• Archaeologists discovered a massive, rectangular step-well at the site, measuring approximately 73.4 meters in length, 29.3 meters in width, and 10 meters in depth.
• This prehistoric step-well is nearly three times the size of the Great Bath at Mohenjo-daro and represents one of the earliest and most sophisticated examples of hydraulic engineering in the ancient world.
• The site features a series of 16 interconnected reservoirs and stone-cut dams designed to conserve every drop of rainwater in an otherwise arid environment.
• The presence of these rock-cut water structures highlights the transition from simple well-culture to advanced water harvesting, making it a unique architectural hallmark of this specific Harappan city.

 Additional Information

• City Planning and Structure:
• Unlike most Harappan cities which were divided into two parts (the Citadel and the Lower Town), Dholavira was uniquely divided into three sections: the Citadel, the Middle Town, and the Lower Town.
• The city was protected by massive stone fortifications, whereas most other Indus sites primarily used mud-bricks for defensive walls.
• The Dholavira Signboard:
• One of the most significant archaeological finds at the site is a large inscription consisting of ten large-sized signs of the Harappan script, often called the Dholavira Signboard.
• This discovery is unique because most Indus Valley scripts are found on small seals or pottery fragments rather than large public displays.
• General Harappan Features:
• While complex drainage systems and large fortifications are present in Dholavira, they are common traits across major sites like Harappa, Mohenjo-daro, and Kalibangan.
• Pictorial murals are not a standard architectural feature of the Indus Valley Civilization, which focused more on terracotta figurines and steatite seals.

The correct answer is Provide rural road connectivity.

Key Points

• The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) was launched on 25^th December 2000 by the Government of India under the leadership of the then Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
• It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development to provide all-weather road access to unconnected rural habitations.
• The primary mandate is to provide a single all-weather road (with necessary culverts and cross-drainage structures) that is operable throughout the year.
• The scheme specifically targets habitations with a population size of 500 persons and above in plain areas and 250 persons and above in Hill States, Desert Areas, Tribal Areas, and Backward Districts.
• By improving rural road connectivity, the initiative aims to facilitate better access to markets, healthcare, education, and other essential social services, thereby reducing rural poverty.
• The program has expanded through subsequent phases such as PMGSY-II (launched in 2013) and PMGSY-III (approved in 2019) to consolidate and upgrade the existing Rural Through Routes.

 Additional Information

• Build national highways:
• National highways are managed by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) and the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI).
• The Bharatmala Pariyojana is the flagship program focused on the development of economic corridors and international connectivity.
• Connect Waterways:
• The development of inland waterways is governed by the Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) under the National Waterways Act, 2016.
• The Sagarmala Project focuses on port-led development and optimizing the use of India's coastline and navigable rivers.
• Promote bullet trains:
• High-speed rail development is the responsibility of the National High Speed Rail Corporation Limited (NHSRCL) under the Ministry of Railways.
• The Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed Rail (MAHSR) is India's first sanctioned bullet train project.

The correct answer is To control fiscal deficits.

Key Points

• The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act was enacted in August 2003 to institutionalize financial discipline and reduce the fiscal deficit of the Indian government.
• Its primary objective is to ensure inter-generational equity in fiscal management and long-term macro-economic stability by achieving a balanced budget over time.
• The Act originally mandated the Central Government to reduce the fiscal deficit to a target of 3% of the GDP and to eliminate the revenue deficit entirely.
• It requires the government to lay three specific policy statements before Parliament: the Medium-term Fiscal Policy Statement, the Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement, and the Macro-economic Framework Statement.
• The act also aims to provide the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) with greater autonomy in managing inflation by prohibiting the government from borrowing directly from the RBI.

 Additional Information

• Fiscal Deficit Components:
• Fiscal Deficit is the difference between total expenditure and non-debt receipts, representing the total borrowing needs of the government.
• Revenue Deficit refers to the excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipts, signifying that the government is borrowing to fund daily consumption.
• N.K. Singh Committee (2016):
• This committee was formed to review the FRBM Act and recommended a debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% (40% for the Centre and 20% for States) by the year 2023.
• It introduced the Escape Clause, allowing the government to deviate from the fiscal deficit target by up to 0.5% in cases of national security, structural reforms, or major calamities.

The correct answer is Objectives Resolution.

Key Points

• The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is based on the Objectives Resolution, which was drafted and moved in the Constituent Assembly by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru on December 13, 1946.
• The resolution outlined the fundamental commitments of the Constituent Assembly to create an independent, sovereign, and democratic India.
• It served as a guiding roadmap for the framing of the Constitution, emphasizing values such as social, economic, and political justice, equality of status and opportunity, and freedom of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship.
• The Constituent Assembly officially and unanimously adopted the Objectives Resolution on January 22, 1947.
• The core philosophy and idealistic essence of this resolution were ultimately distilled into the Preamble, which serves as the Identity Card of the Constitution.

 Additional Information

• Fundamental Rights Resolution:
• Historically associated with the Karachi Session of the Indian National Congress in 1931, which was presided over by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and emphasized civil liberties and economic programs.
• Directive Principles Resolution:
• The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are contained in Part IV (Articles 36−51). These were borrowed from the Irish Constitution and aim to establish a welfare state.
• Fundamental Duties Resolution:
• These were not part of the original document but were added to Part IV-A (Article 51A) by the 42^nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, following the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
• The Preamble has been amended only once till date, in 1976, to include the words Socialist, Secular, and Integrity.

The correct answer is 1909.

Key Points

• The Indian Council Act of 1909 is popularly known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, named after the then Secretary of State for India, Lord Morley, and the Viceroy of India, Lord Minto.
• The most landmark and controversial provision of this Act was the introduction of separate electorates for Muslims, which allowed Muslim representatives to be elected only by Muslim voters.
• By granting communal representation, the Act effectively institutionalized the divide and rule policy, which later significantly influenced the socio-political fabric of India.
• Due to the introduction of this communal voting system, Lord Minto became known in historical texts as the Father of Communal Electorate.
• The Act increased the size of the Legislative Councils at both the Central and Provincial levels; for instance, the number of members in the Central Legislative Council was raised from 16 to 60.
• It also marked the first time an Indian was appointed to the Viceroy’s Executive Council, with Satyendra Prasad Sinha joining as a Law Member.

 Additional Information

• Indian Council Act of 1861:
• Introduced the Portfolio System, where individual members of the executive council were placed in charge of specific departments.
• Started the process of decentralization by restoring legislative powers to the Madras and Bombay presidencies.
• Authorized the Viceroy to issue ordinances in times of emergency, which would have the force of law for six months.
• Indian Council Act of 1862 (Implementation context):
• Under the provisions of the 1861 Act, Lord Canning nominated three Indians—the Raja of Benares, the Maharaja of Patiala, and Sir Dinkar Rao—to the newly constituted Legislative Council.
• 1903:
• While not associated with a specific Indian Council Act, this year is notable for the Delhi Durbar organized by Lord Curzon to celebrate the coronation of King Edward VII.