General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is 38%.

Key Points

• The Global Report on Trafficking in Persons 2024 is a flagship publication by the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC), which analyzes global trafficking trends using data collected from 142 countries.
• Based on the data collected for the year 2022, the report identifies that children constituted 38% of all detected victims of human trafficking worldwide.
• The report highlights a significant disparity in age demographics across regions, noting that in low-income countries, children make up the majority of detected victims, while in high-income regions, adults remain the primary detected group.
• The 38% global figure reflects a persistent and alarming trend where children are increasingly targeted for forced labor, sexual exploitation, and forced criminality.
• The findings indicate that the share of children among detected victims has remained high, with girls often being trafficked for sexual exploitation and boys frequently being used for forced labor in sectors like agriculture and mining.

 Additional Information

• United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC):
• Established in 1997 through a merger between the United Nations Drug Control Programme and the Centre for International Crime Prevention.
• It acts as the custodian of the Palermo Protocol, which is the primary international legal instrument to prevent, suppress, and punish trafficking in persons, especially women and children.
• The Global Report on Trafficking in Persons is published biennially to inform Member States and the international community about evolving trafficking patterns and response effectiveness.
• Trafficking Trends:
• The report also notes the impact of climate change and armed conflicts as major drivers that increase the vulnerability of children to traffickers.
• In addition to forced labor, the 2024 report emphasizes the rise of online recruitment and the use of digital technologies by traffickers to exploit minors.

The correct answer is Stoichiometry.

Key Points

• Stoichiometry is the section of chemistry that involves the quantitative calculation of the masses and volumes of reactants and products participating in a chemical reaction.
• The concept is fundamentally based on the Law of Conservation of Mass, which necessitates that the total mass of reactants must equal the total mass of products, as atoms are only rearranged during a reaction.
• The term is etymologically derived from the Greek words 'stoicheion', meaning element, and 'metron', meaning measure, effectively signifying the measurement of chemical elements.
• It utilizes balanced chemical equations and stoichiometric coefficients to establish molar ratios, which serve as conversion factors to determine the theoretical yield of a chemical process.
• These calculations are essential in industrial chemistry for optimizing feedstock amounts and predicting the efficiency of large-scale chemical syntheses.

 Additional Information

• Mole fraction:
• Defined as the ratio of the number of moles of a particular component to the total number of moles of all substances present in a solution or mixture.
• It is a dimensionless quantity and is independent of temperature changes.
• Mass per cent:
• A concentration expression representing the mass of a solute divided by the total mass of the solution, multiplied by 100.
• It is commonly used in commercial chemical labeling to denote the purity or concentration of reagents.
• Molarity:
• Determined by the number of moles of solute dissolved in exactly one liter of solution (moles per liter).
• Unlike molality, molarity is temperature-dependent because the volume of a liquid expands or contracts with temperature fluctuations.

The correct answer is Karnataka.

Key Points

• The Karnataka cricket team emerged as the champions of the 2024-25 Vijay Hazare Trophy, which is India's premier List A domestic cricket tournament.
• The final match was contested on January 18, 2025, at the Kotambi Stadium in Vadodara, Gujarat, where Karnataka faced Vidarbha.
• Batting first, Karnataka posted a formidable total of 348/6 in their 50 overs, primarily driven by a magnificent century from Smaran Ravichandran, who scored 105 runs.
• Supporting the innings were Krishnan Shrijith and Abhinav Manohar, who contributed quickfire scores of 78 and 79 runs respectively to bolster the total.
• In the second innings, Vidarbha was bowled out for 312 in 48.2 overs, despite a fighting century of 110 runs by their opener Dhruv Shorey.
• The bowling performance for Karnataka was clinical, with Vasuki Koushik, Prasidh Krishna, and Abhilash Shetty each claiming three wickets to secure a 36-run victory.
• This win marked Karnataka's fifth title in the competition, making them the joint-most successful team in the national era of the tournament along with Tamil Nadu.
• Under the captaincy of Mayank Agarwal, Karnataka ended a five-year title drought in the BCCI-organized limited-overs domestic circuit.

 Additional Information

• Saurashtra:
• This team was the champion of the 2022-23 edition of the Vijay Hazare Trophy.
• Saurashtra is noted for its strong pace-bowling depth and has become a consistent contender in Indian domestic cricket.
• Tamil Nadu:
• Historically one of the strongest white-ball teams in India, they have won the Vijay Hazare Trophy 5 times.
• The state is known for producing specialized limited-overs cricketers and has a high success rate in the Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy (T20) as well.
• Mumbai:
• Mumbai holds the record for the most titles (8) during the tournament's initial Ranji One Day Trophy (zonal) phase.
• The association has the most successful legacy in Ranji Trophy (First-Class) history, with over 40 titles to its name.
• Vijay Hazare Trophy:
• Named after the legendary cricketer Vijay Hazare, the tournament was officially launched as a national competition in 2002-03.
• It follows the 50-over format and serves as a vital scouting platform for the Indian Premier League (IPL) and the Indian National Team.

The correct answer is 1985-86.

Key Points

• The Technology Mission on Oilseeds (TMO) was launched by the Government of India in May 1986, falling within the 1985-86 fiscal cycle's planning phase, to achieve self-sufficiency in edible oils.
• The mission was a critical part of the Seventh Five Year Plan (1985-1990), aimed at reducing the heavy financial burden of edible oil imports on the national exchequer.
• It integrated four distinct functional prongs: improvement of crop production technology, better post-harvest technology, strengthening input support services for farmers, and ensuring remunerative prices through marketing and processing support.
• The success of this mission is historically highlighted by the surge in production from 10.83 million tonnes in 1985-86 to a record 18.03 million tonnes in 1988-89.
• This massive growth in oilseed productivity is widely recognized as the Yellow Revolution in the Indian agricultural sector.

 Additional Information

• Evolution of the Mission:
• The scope of the mission was expanded in 1990 to include Pulses, renaming it the Technology Mission on Oilseeds and Pulses (TMOP).
• In 1991-92, Oil Palm was brought under its ambit, and Maize was added in 1995-96.
• The Integrated Scheme of Oilseeds, Pulses, Oilpalm and Maize (ISOPOM) was later launched in 2004 by merging these individual programs.
• Major Oilseeds in India:
• The mission primarily targeted nine oilseeds: Groundnut, Mustard, Soybean, Sunflower, Safflower, Sesame, Niger, Castor, and Linseed.
• Gujarat and Rajasthan emerged as leading producers of Groundnut and Rapeseed-Mustard respectively during the post-mission era.
• Key Figures:
• Sam Pitroda is often credited as one of the key advisors who spearheaded the Technology Missions under the leadership of Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi.

The correct answer is Negligible intermolecular forces and high compressibility.

Key Points

• Matter in the gaseous state consists of particles that are far apart from each other, resulting in maximum intermolecular spaces compared to solids and liquids.
• Due to these large distances, the intermolecular forces of attraction between gas particles are negligible, allowing them to move freely and randomly in all directions at high velocities.
• The presence of vast empty spaces between molecules allows gases to be easily squeezed into smaller volumes when pressure is applied, leading to high compressibility.
• Gases lack a definite shape and a definite volume; they expand to completely fill whatever container they are placed in, exerting uniform pressure on the container walls.
• The kinetic energy of gas molecules is significantly higher than that of molecules in the solid or liquid states, which contributes to their rapid diffusion and lack of structural rigidity.

 Additional Information

• Solid State:
• Characterized by strong intermolecular forces that keep particles in fixed positions.
• Possesses high rigidity, a fixed shape, and a definite volume.
• The compressibility is negligible because particles are already closely packed.
• Liquid State:
• Particles have intermediate intermolecular forces, allowing them to slide past one another.
• Maintains a definite volume but takes the shape of the container (no fixed shape).
• Liquids are generally considered incompressible for most practical purposes, though slightly more compressible than solids.
• Comparison of Density:
• Gases generally have the lowest density among the three primary states of matter because their mass is spread over a much larger volume.
• This property, combined with high mobility, makes them essential in applications like LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas) and CNG (Compressed Natural Gas) storage.

The correct answer is Raichur.

Key Points

• The Bahmani Sultanate was a Persianate Muslim state founded in 1347 by Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah, also known as Hasan Gangu, after he revolted against the Delhi Sultanate under Muhammad bin Tughlaq.
• Geographically, the kingdom dominated the Deccan plateau, extending from the Tapti River and the borders of Mandu (the capital of the Malwa Sultanate) in the north to the Krishna River in the south.
• The town of Raichur, situated in the fertile Raichur Doab between the Krishna and Tungabhadra rivers, served as the definitive southern frontier and a permanent military flashpoint between the Bahmani and Vijayanagara empires.
• Throughout its existence until its fragmentation into the five Deccan Sultanates (Ahmadnagar, Berar, Bidar, Bijapur, and Golconda) around 1527, the kingdom maintained its southern limit primarily at Raichur.
• Historical records from the era of Mahmud Gawan, the famous Prime Minister (Peshwa) of the Bahmani Kingdom, confirm that the territorial administration was organized into Tarafs (provinces), with the southern reaches heavily fortified to guard the Raichur region.

 Additional Information

• Incorrect Options Breakdown:
• Madurai:
• Located in the deep south of the Tamil region, it was the capital of the Pandyan Empire and later the Madurai Sultanate.
• It was annexed by the Vijayanagara Empire during the 14^th century and never formed the boundary of the Bahmani state.
• Mysore:
• This region was part of the Hoysala Empire and subsequently became a crucial province of the Vijayanagara Empire.
• It later emerged as an independent kingdom under the Wodeyar dynasty long after the Bahmani decline.
• Tiruchirapalli:
• Situated in central Tamil Nadu, this city was far south of the Krishna River boundary.
• It was a major stronghold for the Cholas and later the Nayaka governors of Vijayanagara.

The correct answer is Part V.

Key Points

• The Parliament is the supreme legislative organ of the Union government in India, occupying a pre-eminent and central position in the Indian democratic political system due to the adoption of the parliamentary form of government.
• Articles 79 to 122 in Part V of the Constitution of India specifically deal with the organization, composition, duration, officers, procedures, privileges, and powers of the Parliament.
• Under Article 79, the Parliament of the Union consists of the President and two Houses: the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) and the House of the People (Lok Sabha).
• Part V, titled 'The Union', is the largest part of the Indian Constitution, covering Articles 52 to 151, which also include the Union Executive, the Union Judiciary (Supreme Court), and the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
• The Indian Parliament is a bicameral legislature, a feature inspired by the British Constitution, though the Indian President is not a member of either House, unlike the British Monarch who is a constituent part of the Parliament.

 Additional Information

• Part VI
• Focuses on 'The States' and covers Articles 152 to 237, detailing the State Executive, State Legislature, and High Courts.
• Part VII
• Contained provisions related to States in Part B of the First Schedule; however, it was repealed by the 7^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956, during the reorganization of states.
• Part VIII
• Deals with the administration of Union Territories through Articles 239 to 242, outlining the powers of the President and appointed administrators.

The correct answer is V.D. Savarkar.

Key Points

• Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, popularly known as Veer Savarkar, along with his brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar, founded the Abhinav Bharat Society in 1904.
• The organization originated from Mitra Mela, a secret revolutionary group established in Nasik in 1899, which was later renamed to Abhinav Bharat (Young India Society).
• It was modeled after Giuseppe Mazzini’s 'Young Italy' and functioned as a secret society focused on achieving Indian independence through armed rebellion and the assassination of British officials.
• The society had a significant presence in Maharashtra and London, where Savarkar continued his revolutionary activities while studying at Gray's Inn.
• The group was involved in the Nasik Conspiracy Case of 1909, following the assassination of the British District Magistrate A.M.T. Jackson by Anant Laxman Kanhere.
• The subsequent investigation led to the arrest of V.D. Savarkar in 1910, resulting in his deportation to the Cellular Jail in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands for two life terms totaling 50 years.

 Additional Information

• Khudiram Bose:
• He was a young revolutionary from Bengal and a member of the Anushilan Samiti.
• He was executed in 1908 for his role in the Muzaffarpur bombing attempt on Magistrate Douglas Kingsford.
• Shyamji Krishna Varma:
• An Indian revolutionary and lawyer who founded the India House and the Indian Home Rule Society in London in 1905.
• He published the journal 'The Indian Sociologist' to spread nationalist ideas among Indian students abroad.
• Lala Har Dayal:
• A key revolutionary figure who founded the Ghadar Party in San Francisco in 1913.
• His movement aimed to incite an armed uprising among Indian expatriates and soldiers against British rule during World War I.

The correct answer is Bengaluru.

Key Points

• The All Living Things Environmental Film Festival (ALT EFF) is India’s premier film festival dedicated exclusively to environmental issues, conservation, and sustainable living. In December 2025, the festival successfully concluded its annual edition with a significant physical presence in Bengaluru.
• Bengaluru served as a primary hub for the festival’s physical screenings and interactive sessions, utilizing prominent venues such as the Bangalore International Centre (BIC) to host filmmakers, environmentalists, and the general public.
• The 2025 edition focused on the theme of Collective Action and Climate Resilience, showcasing over 50 films from across the globe that highlighted the intersection of humanity and the natural world.
• The festival in Bengaluru was characterized by impactful panel discussions and Q&A sessions that addressed localized environmental challenges, such as urban water management, biodiversity loss in the Western Ghats, and the city’s evolving waste management systems.
• By integrating cinematic storytelling with academic and grassroots dialogue, the festival aimed to transform passive awareness into active environmental advocacy among the city’s diverse demographic.

 Additional Information

• About ALT EFF:
• Founding and Vision: Founded in 2020, the festival was established to fill the gap in environmental communication in India, using film as a medium to reach audiences beyond traditional scientific or activist circles.
• Format: While the festival has a strong pan-India virtual presence, it has increasingly moved toward a hybrid model with flagship physical screenings in major cities like Mumbai, Delhi, and Bengaluru.
• Selection Criteria: The festival juries typically look for films that demonstrate high cinematographic quality combined with a rigorous scientific or social foundation regarding environmental crises.
• Global Reach: It often collaborates with international organizations and film institutes to bring global perspectives on the Anthropocene and Ecological Justice to Indian audiences.

The correct answer is Space applications with SHAKTI.

Key Points

• The IRIS chip is a specialized semiconductor device developed through a high-profile collaboration between the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the Indian Institute of Technology Madras (IIT-Madras).
• The core of this chip is based on the SHAKTI processor architecture, which represents India's first indigenously designed family of microprocessors.
• Specifically designed for space applications, the IRIS chip is engineered to handle the unique and harsh conditions of outer space, including extreme temperature fluctuations and high-energy radiation environments.
• The chip utilizes the RISC-V (Reduced Instruction Set Computer) open-source architecture, allowing for a customizable and secure hardware design that is not dependent on proprietary foreign technologies.
• The integration of SHAKTI into space-grade hardware like the IRIS chip is a major milestone for the Atmanirbhar Bharat (Self-Reliant India) initiative in the semiconductor and aerospace sectors.
• It is primarily used in satellite subsystems, such as the On-Board Computer (OBC), telemetry, and telecommand units, where high reliability and power efficiency are critical for mission success.

 Additional Information

• SHAKTI Processor Project
• Development: Developed by the RISE (Reconfigurable Intelligent Systems Engineering) group at IIT-Madras.
• Core Classes: The project includes various classes such as the E-class for tiny IoT devices and the C-class for controller applications, which are often the basis for the IRIS SoC.
• Strategic Importance: By using an indigenous core, ISRO ensures that the hardware is free from hidden vulnerabilities or 'backdoors' typically associated with commercial off-the-shelf components.
• RISC-V Ecosystem
• This is an open-standard Instruction Set Architecture (ISA) that provides the flexibility needed to add custom extensions for cryptography or radiation hardening without the heavy licensing fees of architectures like ARM.
• Incorrect Options Analysis
• Commercial smartphones: These devices generally use ARM-based processors from companies like Qualcomm or MediaTek that are optimized for high-speed multimedia and 5G connectivity rather than the specialized reliability of IRIS.
• Gaming consoles: These require massive GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) power and high clock speeds for 3D rendering, which is outside the functional scope of the IRIS space-grade processor.
• Automotive systems: While SHAKTI variants can be used in the automotive sector for engine control units (ECUs), the IRIS variant is specifically custom-built for the rigorous standards of ISRO missions.

The correct answer is Dadabhai Naoroji.

Key Points

• Dadabhai Naoroji, widely known as the Grand Old Man of India, was a prominent nationalist leader and the first Indian to be elected to the British House of Commons in 1892.
• He authored the groundbreaking book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India, published in 1901, which provided a comprehensive economic critique of British imperialism.
• In this work, Naoroji introduced the Drain of Wealth theory, explaining how India's capital and resources were systematically transferred to Britain through home charges, pensions, and unfair trade policies.
• He was the first to attempt an estimation of India's National Income in 1867-68, calculating the per capita income to be merely 20 rupees, which highlighted the extreme deprivation of the Indian masses.
• His efforts shifted the focus of the Indian National Congress toward economic issues, eventually leading to the demand for Swaraj (Self-rule) during the Calcutta Session of 1906.

 Additional Information

• Pherozeshah Mehta
• He was a leading moderate leader and one of the founding members of the Indian National Congress.
• Known as the Lion of Bombay, he played a crucial role in the Bombay Municipal Corporation and legal reforms.
• Bal Gangadhar Tilak
• A prominent extremist leader who declared Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.
• He used journals like Kesari and Mahratta to mobilize the masses and authored Gita Rahasya while in prison.
• Mahatma Gandhi
• The architect of India's non-violent independence movement, leading major campaigns like the Quit India Movement.
• His famous literary works include Hind Swaraj and his autobiography, The Story of My Experiments with Truth.

The correct answer is Prime Minister.

Key Points

• According to Article 74(1) of the Indian Constitution, there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President, who shall act in accordance with such advice.
• In the Parliamentary system of government followed in India, the Prime Minister is the Real Executive Authority (de facto executive), whereas the President is the Nominal Executive Authority (de jure executive).
• Under Article 75, the Prime Minister is appointed by the President, and other ministers are appointed by the President only on the advice of the Prime Minister.
• The Prime Minister plays a pivotal role in the Union Council of Ministers as he presides over its meetings, allocates and reshuffles various portfolios among the ministers, and can ask a minister to resign at any time.
• The resignation or death of the Prime Minister automatically dissolves the Council of Ministers, emphasizing his position as the keystone of the cabinet arch.

 Additional Information

• President:
• As per Article 52, there shall be a President of India who is the First Citizen and the head of the Indian State.
• All executive actions of the Government of India are formally taken in his name under Article 53, though he acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
• Attorney General of India:
• Appointed by the President under Article 76, the Attorney General is the highest law officer in the country.
• While he has the right to participate in Parliamentary proceedings, he is not a member of the Union Council of Ministers.
• Union Home Minister:
• A key member of the Union Council of Ministers responsible for the Ministry of Home Affairs and internal security.
• The Home Minister functions under the overall leadership and direction of the Prime Minister.

The correct answer is Gulamgiri.

Key Points

• Jyotirao Phule, a prominent social reformer from Maharashtra, wrote the book Gulamgiri (meaning slavery) in 1873.
• Phule dedicated his book to the American movement to free slaves, specifically to those Americans who had fought to abolish slavery during the American Civil War (1861−1865).
• By dedicating the book to the anti-slavery activists in America, Phule established a conceptual link between the condition of the lower castes (Shudras and Ati-Shudras) in India and the Black slaves in the United States.
• The book is written in a dialogue form between Jyotiba and a character named Dhondiba, critiquing the Brahmanical hegemony and the caste system in Indian society.
• Phule used this work to argue that the Aryans were foreigners who established a system of caste discrimination to subjugate the indigenous people of India.

 Additional Information

• Satyarth Prakash:
• This book was written by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1875.
• It is a core text of the Arya Samaj and emphasizes the supreme authority of the Vedas while advocating for social reforms like the rejection of idol worship and ritualism.
• The Cultivator's Whipcord:
• Commonly known as Shetkarayacha Aasud, it was authored by Jyotirao Phule and published in 1883.
• The text highlights the systematic exploitation of Indian peasants by the British bureaucracy and moneylenders.
• Stripurushtulna:
• Written by Tarabai Shinde in 1882, it is considered one of the first modern feminist texts in India.
• It provides a sharp critique of the double standards applied to men and women in 19^th-century patriarchal society.
• Satyashodhak Samaj:
• Founded by Jyotirao Phule on September 24, 1873, to promote education and social rights for oppressed classes and women.

The correct answer is Ukraine.

Key Points

• On September 4, 2025, French President Emmanuel Macron announced that 26 nations had formally committed to providing postwar security guarantees to Ukraine.
• This significant declaration was made during a summit of the 'Coalition of the Willing' held at the Élysée Palace in Paris, which was attended by Ukrainian President Volodymyr Zelenskyy.
• The plan outlines two primary pillars: rebuilding Ukraine's military capacity without restriction and establishing an international 'reassurance force' to secure its territory once a ceasefire is reached.
• The coalition's forces will deploy across land, air, and sea corridors, acting as a direct strategic deterrent to prevent any future aggression against Ukraine.

 Additional Information

• Incorrect Options Breakdown:
• Poland: A NATO member since 1999 that serves as a major logistical hub for Western aid, rather than the direct recipient of these postwar guarantees.
• Iran: A sovereign nation in Western Asia under heavy international observation, completely unrelated to this European-led defense pact.
• Palestine: A territory in the Middle East experiencing ongoing conflict, which is outside the scope of the European security framework discussed in Paris.

The correct answer is To allow the OS to determine which application should open the file.

Key Points

• A file extension is a suffix consisting of a period followed by a few characters (e.g., .exe, .pdf, .txt) that is appended to the end of a filename in an Operating System like Microsoft Windows.
• The primary function of these extensions is to assist the OS in identifying the file format and the internal structure of the data stored within the file.
• Windows utilizes a mechanism called File Association to link specific extensions with their corresponding default applications; this ensures that when a user double-clicks a file, the correct software is launched automatically.
• The Windows Registry (specifically the HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT hive) acts as a database that maps these extensions to specific executable programs, facilitating seamless human-computer interaction.
• By identifying the file type, the system can determine which icon to display and which specific actions (like Open, Edit, or Print) are available in the Context Menu for that particular file.

 Additional Information

• Evolution of File Extensions:
• The concept of extensions stems from the MS-DOS era, which followed the 8.3 filename convention (a name up to 8 characters and an extension up to 3 characters).
• While modern NTFS and exFAT file systems support much longer filenames, the extension remains the standard method for metadata identification in Windows.
• Common Extension Categories:
• Productivity: .xlsx (Excel), .pptx (PowerPoint), and .docx (Word) allow the OS to route documents to the Microsoft Office Suite.
• System & Execution: .dll (Dynamic Link Library) and .sys (System files) indicate files that are used by the system itself rather than user-facing applications.
• Media: Extensions like .mp3 (audio) and .mp4 (video) trigger media players or codecs for decompression and playback.
• User Control:
• Users can manually change associations via the Control Panel or Settings app, allowing them to choose a preferred browser for .html files or a specific editor for .py scripts.
• Although users can rename extensions, doing so does not convert the file's encoding; for example, renaming a .txt to .jpg will make the OS attempt to open it with an Image Viewer, which will fail to render the text data.

The correct answer is Manner of election of the President of India.

Key Points

• Article 368 of the Indian Constitution provides the procedure for constitutional amendments. While most amendments require a Special Majority (two-thirds of members present and voting and a majority of total membership), certain federal features require a more rigid process involving ratification by the legislatures of at least half of the States.
• The Manner of election of the President of India, covered under Articles 54 and 55, is explicitly listed under the proviso to Article 368(2). This is because the President is elected by an Electoral College that includes elected members of State Legislative Assemblies, making it a critical federal provision.
• The requirement for State Ratification ensures that the Union Parliament cannot unilaterally alter the federal structure or the balance of power between the center and the states. Other provisions requiring this include the Seventh Schedule, the Supreme Court and High Courts, and Article 368 itself.

 Additional Information

• Other Rigid Provisions:
• Extent of executive power of the Union and the States (Articles 73 and 162).
• Representation of States in Parliament (provisions in the Fourth Schedule).
• Any change to the Lists in the Seventh Schedule (Union, State, and Concurrent Lists).
• Citizenship acquisition and termination:
• Provisions regarding Citizenship are governed by Part II of the Constitution and the Citizenship Act, 1955. Under Article 11, Parliament has the power to regulate citizenship by Simple Majority; thus, it does not require the rigid procedure of Article 368(2).
• Duration of Lok Sabha:
• The term of the House of the People is generally governed by Article 83. While changing the fundamental structure might require a Special Majority, it is not explicitly listed as a federal provision requiring State Ratification unless it interferes with the representation of states.

The correct answer is .dll.

Key Points

• Dynamic Link Library (DLL) is a Microsoft implementation of the shared library concept in the Windows Operating System. It contains code and data that can be used by more than one program at the same time.
• Unlike an executable (.exe), a DLL cannot be run directly; it must be called by other code that is already executing. These files allow for modular programming, where developers can separate different components of a software into unique modules.
• The primary advantage of .dll files is memory efficiency. Because multiple applications can share a single copy of a DLL loaded into the RAM, the system avoids loading duplicate code for common tasks like printing or file management.
• DLLs facilitate dynamic linking, which means the link between an application and the library is established at runtime rather than when the application is compiled. This reduces the size of the application executable files.

 Additional Information

• .drv (Device Driver):
• These files are specialized libraries used by the Operating System to communicate with hardware devices.
• They contain instructions that tell the OS how to interact with components like graphics cards, printers, or sound cards.
• .tmp (Temporary File):
• These are generated by applications or the OS to store information temporarily while a process is running or a new file is being created.
• They are usually deleted automatically once the task is finished or the program is closed to free up storage space.
• Benefits of DLL Files:
• Easier Maintenance: When a function within a DLL needs an update or a bug fix, only the DLL needs to be replaced, rather than reinstalling the entire software suite.
• Resource Sharing: DLLs allow for the sharing of resources like icons, strings, and dialog boxes across various Windows applications.
• Language Independence: A DLL written in C++ can be utilized by applications written in other languages like Visual Basic or C#.

The correct answer is Bismillah Khan - Shehnai.

Key Points

• Ustad Bismillah Khan was a legendary Indian musician who is credited with popularizing the Shehnai, a traditional wind instrument, and elevating it to the status of a classical concert instrument. He was honored with the Bharat Ratna in 2001. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Pandit Ravi Shankar was a world-renowned virtuoso and composer who was a master of the Sitar, not the Bansuri. He played a pivotal role in introducing Indian classical music to the Western world through collaborations with artists like George Harrison. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• Ustad Zakir Hussain is an internationally acclaimed percussionist and composer known for his mastery over the Tabla. He is the son of the legendary Tabla player Ustad Alla Rakha and has received the Padma Vibhushan. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
• Pandit Shiv Kumar Sharma was a prominent Indian classical musician who specialized in the Santoor, a folk instrument from Jammu and Kashmir that he successfully modified for classical music. He was not associated with the Sarod. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

 Additional Information

• Musical Instruments and Their Masters:
• Bansuri: This bamboo flute is most famously associated with maestros like Hariprasad Chaurasia and Pannalal Ghosh.
• Sarod: A fretless string instrument commonly associated with Ustad Amjad Ali Khan, Ali Akbar Khan, and Allauddin Khan.
• Sitar: Apart from Ravi Shankar, other notable players include Vilayat Khan and Nikhil Banerjee.
• Shehnai: This double-reed oboe is traditionally played during weddings and temple processions due to its considered auspicious sound.

The correct answer is Two different bodies.

Key Points

• According to Newton's Third Law of Motion, for every action, there is always an equal and opposite reaction.
• Action and reaction forces represent the mutual interaction between two objects; they never occur in isolation but always in pairs.
• The fundamental property of these forces is that the action force is exerted by the first body on the second, while the reaction force is exerted by the second body back on the first. Therefore, they act on two different bodies.
• Because these forces act on distinct objects, they do not result in a net force of zero on a single body. This is why a person can walk: the foot pushes the ground backward (action on ground), and the ground pushes the foot forward (reaction on person).
• These forces are simultaneous, meaning there is no time lag between the application of the action and the occurrence of the reaction.

 Additional Information

• Properties of Action-Reaction Pairs:
• Direction: The forces act along the same line but in exactly opposite directions.
• Magnitude: The numerical value of the force exerted by object A on B is identical to the force exerted by object B on A.
• Nature of Force: Both forces are of the same physical nature; for instance, if the action is a magnetic force, the reaction must also be a magnetic force.
• Clarification of Incorrect Concepts:
• The same body: If action and reaction forces acted on the same body, they would cancel each other out, and the body would remain in its state of rest or uniform motion regardless of the force applied.
• State of Motion: These forces apply to all interactions regardless of whether the bodies are at rest or moving. The law is a universal principle of classical mechanics.

The correct answer is 99^th Amendment.

Key Points

• The 99^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2014 was enacted to establish the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) to replace the existing Collegium system for appointing judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts of India.
• The act sought to amend Article 124(2) and Article 217(1) and inserted three new articles: Article 124A (Composition of NJAC), Article 124B (Functions of NJAC), and Article 124C (Power of Parliament to regulate procedures).
• The NJAC was designed as a six-member body consisting of the Chief Justice of India (Chairperson), two other senior-most judges of the Supreme Court, the Union Minister of Law and Justice, and two eminent persons.
• The two eminent persons were to be nominated by a committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Chief Justice of India, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
• On October 16, 2015, in the Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association vs. Union of India case (also known as the Fourth Judges Case), a five-judge Constitution Bench struck down the amendment as unconstitutional by a 4:1 majority, ruling that it violated the Basic Structure of the Constitution regarding judicial independence.

 Additional Information

• 76^th Amendment Act (1994):
• This amendment was passed to include the Tamil Nadu Reservation Act, 1994 in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution.
• It was intended to protect the 69% reservation provided by the state government from judicial review after the Supreme Court Indra Sawhney ruling capped reservations at 50%.
• 102^nd Amendment Act (2018):
• It granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), which was previously a statutory body.
• The amendment inserted Article 338B and Article 342A, empowering the President to identify and notify Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs).
• 82^nd Amendment Act (2000):
• It amended Article 335 to restore the relaxation of qualifying marks and standards of evaluation for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in matters of promotion to government services.
• This amendment overturned a 1996 Supreme Court judgment that had curtailed such relaxations in promotions.