General Awareness PYQs

The correct answer is Alpine Tundra.

Key Points

• The Tibetan Plateau, located in Central Asia, is the worlds highest and largest plateau, with an average elevation exceeding 4,500 meters (14,800 feet).
• It represents the Alpine Tundra vegetation region, a biome characterized by the absence of trees due to extreme environmental conditions found at high altitudes.
• The region sits above the alpine tree line, where factors such as low temperatures, high wind speeds, and a short growing season limit biological productivity to low-growing plants.
• The vegetation primarily consists of perennial grasses, sedges, mosses, lichens, and cushion plants specifically adapted to withstand high ultraviolet radiation and thin air.
• Large sections of the plateau contain permafrost (permanently frozen ground), which is a hallmark of tundra ecosystems, making it ecologically similar to the polar regions but driven by elevation rather than latitude.

 Additional Information

• Arctic Tundra
• Found in the high latitudes of the Northern Hemisphere (e.g., Siberia and Northern Canada), this region is defined by its proximity to the North Pole.
• It shares similar flora with alpine tundra but is characterized by polar nights and polar days.
• Temperate Grassland
• These include the Steppes of Eurasia and the Prairies of North America, located in mid-latitude regions with moderate rainfall and richer soil compared to the plateau.
• Polar Desert
• These are the coldest and driest regions on Earth, primarily found in Antarctica and the High Arctic, where vegetation is almost entirely absent due to permanent ice and extreme aridity.
• Roof of the World
• The plateau is also known as the Third Pole because it contains the largest storage of fresh water and glacier ice outside the North and South Poles.

The correct answer is Nepal.

Key Points

• On 25 February 2026, India and Nepal formalized a comprehensive Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) aimed at bolstering bilateral cooperation across critical ecological sectors.
• The agreement focuses on several key pillars, including forestry management, protection of wildlife, environmental sustainability, and the conservation of biodiversity in the Trans-boundary landscape.
• A major component of the MoU is the joint effort to combat Climate Change, acknowledging the shared vulnerability of the Himalayan ecosystem to rising global temperatures and shifting weather patterns.
• The partnership facilitates the exchange of technical expertise, sharing of best practices in community-based forest management, and collaborative research on endangered species such as the Bengal Tiger and One-horned Rhinoceros.
• This initiative strengthens the Terai Arc Landscape (TAL) conservation efforts, ensuring ecological connectivity between the protected areas of both nations.

 Additional Information

• Nepal and India share a long history of environmental collaboration:
• The Terai Arc Landscape covers approximately 24,710 square kilometers in India and 26,289 square kilometers in Nepal.
• Both nations are members of the Global Tiger Forum and work together to prevent illegal wildlife trade across the open border.
• The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) of India and the Ministry of Forests and Environment of Nepal are the primary executing agencies for this MoU.
• The agreement also includes provisions for capacity building and training of forest officials to handle human-wildlife conflict, which is a frequent challenge in the border regions.

The correct answer is Muhammad bin Tughlaq.

Key Points

• Muhammad bin Tughlaq (reigned 1325–1351) was the second ruler of the Tughlaq dynasty and is known for his ambitious administrative experiments.
• In 1327 CE, he decided to shift his capital from Delhi to Deogir in the Deccan, which he renamed Daulatabad (City of Fortune).
• The primary objective of this move was to establish a central administrative hub from which both North India and the newly annexed territories in the Deccan and South India could be effectively governed.
• The Sultan ordered a forced mass migration of the entire population of Delhi, including elite officials, scholars, and commoners, to travel the distance of approximately 1500 kilometers.
• The project proved to be a failure due to the extreme hardships faced by the people during the journey, the lack of adequate water supply in Daulatabad, and the realization that the North-Western frontiers were vulnerable to Mongol invasions when the capital was in the south.
• Ultimately, in 1335 CE, the Sultan abandoned Daulatabad and ordered the survivors to return to Delhi.

 Additional Information

• Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq:
• He was the founder of the Tughlaq dynasty (1320) and is credited with building the massive fortified city of Tughlaqabad near Delhi.
• Firoz Shah Tughlaq:
• Successor to Muhammad bin Tughlaq, he focused on internal reforms, the construction of irrigation canals, and the establishment of new cities like Hisar, Fatehabad, and Firozabad.
• Alauddin Khalji:
• The first Sultan to cross the Vindhyas and raid the Deccan, he introduced rigorous market control regulations and a standing army, but he ruled from his capital in Delhi (Siri).

The correct answer is Carbon Dioxide(CO2).

Key Points

• When dilute Hydrochloric acid (HCl) reacts with Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate (NaHCO₃), it undergoes a chemical reaction where the acid decomposes the bicarbonate.
• The general chemical principle is that the reaction between an acid and a metal hydrogen carbonate always produces a salt, water, and carbon dioxide gas.
• The balanced chemical equation for this reaction is: HCl (aq) + NaHCO₃ (s) → NaCl (aq) + H₂O (l) + CO₂ (g).
• In this specific process, Sodium Chloride (NaCl) is the salt formed in the solution, and the gas evolved is Carbon Dioxide (CO₂), which causes brisk effervescence.

 Additional Information

• Carbon Dioxide (CO₂):
• It is a colorless, odorless gas that is heavier than air.
• It can be tested by passing it through Lime Water [Ca(OH)₂]; the lime water turns milky due to the formation of insoluble Calcium Carbonate (CaCO₃).
• It is widely utilized in fire extinguishers and the carbonation of beverages.
• Sodium Hydrogen Carbonate (NaHCO₃):
• Commonly known as Baking Soda, it acts as a mild base.
• It is a primary ingredient in antacids used to neutralize excess stomach acidity.
• Analysis of Incorrect Options:
• Ammonium Chloride (NH₄Cl): This is a white crystalline salt typically formed by the reaction of Ammonia (NH₃) and Hydrochloric acid (HCl).
• Hydrogen gas (H₂): This gas is released when dilute acids react with active metals like Zinc or Iron, rather than carbonates.
• Chloroform (CHCl₃): An organic compound used historically as an anesthetic; it is not produced in simple inorganic acid-base reactions.

The correct answer is High Court.

Key Points

• According to Article 235 of the Constitution of India, the control over district courts and courts subordinate thereto is vested in the High Court.
• This administrative control specifically includes the posting, promotion, and the grant of leave to persons belonging to the judicial service of a State and holding any post inferior to the post of District Judge.
• The High Court exercises this authority to ensure the independence of the judiciary from the executive branch at the lower levels of the judicial hierarchy.
• The power of control also encompasses disciplinary jurisdiction, allowing the High Court to initiate inquiries and recommend punishments for judicial officers in the subordinate judiciary.
• While the Governor remains the formal authority for certain appointments, the actual day-to-day management and personnel decisions are handled by the High Court to maintain judicial integrity.

 Additional Information

• Article 233 (Appointment of District Judges):
• The Governor of the State makes appointments, postings, and promotions of District Judges in consultation with the High Court.
• President of India:
• The President appoints judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts under Article 124 and Article 217, but does not manage the subordinate courts.
• Law Ministry of India:
• The Ministry of Law and Justice handles policy, legal reforms, and budgetary allocations, but has no constitutional authority over the postings or leaves of judges.
• Parliament:
• Parliament has the power to create an All India Judicial Service (AIJS) under Article 312 and regulate the jurisdiction of courts, but it does not exercise administrative control over individual judges.

The correct answer is System software.

Key Points

• A Device Driver is a specialized type of System Software that acts as an essential interface between the computer's Operating System (OS) and the hardware components attached to it.
• The primary function of a driver is to translate high-level commands from the OS or an Application into the specific low-level machine language instructions that the hardware, such as a Printer, can interpret and execute.
• Since System Software is defined as the programs that manage the resources of the computer system and provide a platform for application software, drivers are categorized here because the system cannot interact with peripheral hardware without them.
• When a user sends a print command, the Printer Driver converts the document's data into a format specific to the printer's Control Language (e.g., PostScript or PCL), ensuring the hardware functions as intended.
• Most modern operating systems use Kernel-mode drivers for stability, allowing the driver to have direct access to system memory and hardware registers to manage data flow efficiently.

 Additional Information

• Application Software:
• This includes programs designed for end-users to perform specific tasks, such as Web Browsers, Media Players, and Games. Unlike system software, it does not manage hardware directly.
• Input Device:
• This refers to physical Hardware components used to provide data and control signals to an information processing system. Common examples include the Keyboard, Mouse, and Scanner.
• Document File:
• This is a type of data file created by applications (e.g., .docx, .pdf, .txt) that contains user-generated content like text, images, or formatting, rather than executable code for hardware management.

The correct answer is Skull.

Key Points

• The skull is a specialized bony structure of the human skeletal system that functions as the primary protective enclosure for the brain.
• It is divided into two main parts: the neurocranium (or cranium), which surrounds and protects the brain, and the viscerocranium, which forms the facial skeleton.
• The cranium is composed of eight specific cranial bones that are joined together by immovable fibrous joints called sutures, creating a rigid, shock-resistant vault.
• This rigid shell protects vital neural components, including the cerebrum, cerebellum, and brainstem, from mechanical injuries and external pressure.
• The foramen magnum is a large opening at the base of the skull that allows the brain to connect with the spinal cord.

 Additional Information

• Rib cage
• Formed by the sternum, 12 pairs of ribs, and thoracic vertebrae.
• Its primary role is the protection of the thoracic viscera, specifically the heart and lungs.
• Spine
• Commonly known as the vertebral column, it consists of 33 vertebrae.
• Its core biological function is to protect the spinal cord and provide axial support for the body weight.
• Pelvic girdle
• Composed of the hip bones (ilium, ischium, and pubis) and connects the axial skeleton to the lower limbs.
• It provides a protective basin for internal reproductive organs and the urinary bladder while facilitating locomotion.

The correct answer is Industrial development.

Key Points

• Industrial development is a major economic factor that functions as a powerful pull factor, attracting people to specific regions by offering vast employment opportunities.
• Industrial centers require a diverse range of workers, including skilled technicians, unskilled laborers, engineers, and administrative staff, leading to significant rural-to-urban migration.
• The concentration of industries leads to the growth of the tertiary sector, creating additional jobs in banking, transportation, healthcare, and educational services to support the growing population.
• Regions such as the Kobe-Osaka industrial belt in Japan and the Chota Nagpur Plateau in India are classic examples where industrialization has resulted in high population density.
• Areas with high industrial activity typically offer higher wage rates and improved standards of living, which act as incentives for the working-age population to relocate.

 Additional Information

• Classification of Migration Factors:
• Push Factors: These are negative conditions that drive people away from their current location. Examples include lack of job opportunities, political instability, harsh climate, and limited transportation facilities.
• Pull Factors: These are positive attributes that attract people to a new destination, such as industrial growth, urbanization, and better social infrastructure.
• Other Influencing Factors:
• Geographical Factors: People prefer living in areas with fresh water availability, fertile soil for agriculture, and flat plains rather than mountainous terrain.
• Social and Cultural Factors: Locations with religious importance or cultural heritage often attract a steady influx of residents.
• Urbanization: Cities provide better civic amenities and vocational training, making them centers of attraction compared to underdeveloped rural areas.

The correct answer is Article 235.

Key Points

• Article 235 of the Constitution of India mandates that the control over district courts and courts subordinate thereto shall be vested in the High Court.
• This control encompasses administrative matters such as the posting, promotion, and grant of leave to persons belonging to the judicial service of a State holding any post inferior to the post of district judge.
• The provision is a vital component of the independence of the judiciary, ensuring that the subordinate judiciary remains free from executive influence regarding their career prospects and disciplinary matters.
• While the Governor of the State formally appoints district judges under Article 233, the High Court retains the functional authority to supervise the working and conduct of the officers in the lower tiers of the judicial hierarchy.

 Additional Information

• Article 225:
• It pertains to the jurisdiction of existing High Courts, stating that their jurisdiction and the law administered in them shall be the same as immediately before the commencement of the Constitution.
• Article 245:
• This article defines the extent of laws made by Parliament and by the Legislatures of States, establishing the territorial limits of their respective legislative powers.
• Article 255:
• It addresses the requirements as to recommendations and previous sanctions, stating that the absence of such procedural formalities does not invalidate an Act if it eventually receives the President's or Governor's assent.

The correct answer is 997.826 Million Tonne (MT).

Key Points

• In the financial year 2023-24, India achieved a historic milestone in energy production by recording a total coal output of 997.826 Million Tonne (MT).
• This performance marks a significant growth of 11.65% compared to the 893.19 MT produced during the previous financial year, 2022-23.
• The state-owned Coal India Limited (CIL) played a pivotal role, contributing 773.6 MT to the total, which reflects a 10% growth over its performance in the preceding year.
• Production from Captive and Other mines saw the highest percentage increase, rising by approximately 27% to reach 147.19 MT, significantly boosting the overall national availability.
• The Ministry of Coal set an ambitious target of 1 Billion Tonne (BT) for the year 2023-24, and the final production of 997.826 MT brought the country to the doorstep of this landmark achievement.

 Additional Information

• Ministry of Coal:
• Responsible for the overall policy, planning, and development of coal and lignite resources in India.
• Oversees major Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) such as Coal India Limited (CIL) and Singareni Collieries Company Limited (SCCL).
• Strategic Energy Security:
• Coal accounts for over 70% of India’s electricity generation, making domestic production critical for energy security and industrial growth.
• The government aims to eliminate substitutable coal imports by the year 2025-26 through increased domestic excavation.
• Growth Enablers:
• The record production was facilitated by the fast-tracking of environmental and forest clearances and the implementation of First Mile Connectivity (FMC) projects.
• Infrastructure improvements under the PM Gati Shakti initiative have optimized the logistics and transport of coal from mine-heads to thermal power plants across India.

The correct answer is STL.

Key Points

• STL, which stands for Stereolithography, is the most widely used file format for 3D printing and Rapid Prototyping. It was originally created by 3D Systems in 1987 for their computer-aided design (CAD) software.
• The format functions by describing the surface geometry of a three-dimensional object through a process known as tessellation. It uses a series of linked triangles (facets) to approximate the surfaces of a solid model.
• It is considered a universal language for 3D printers because it provides the raw geometric data that slicing software requires to generate G-code, which guides the printer's nozzle or laser.
• One defining characteristic of an STL file is that it only contains information about the shape and geometry. It does not store data regarding color, texture, material, or internal structures.
• The resolution of the 3D model in this format is determined by the number of triangles used; a higher count of triangles results in a smoother surface but a larger file size.

 Additional Information

• XLSX
• This is a compressed XML-based spreadsheet format developed by Microsoft.
• It is the default file extension for Microsoft Excel workbooks since the 2007 version, used for data analysis, calculations, and graphing.
• PDF
• Standing for Portable Document Format, it was developed by Adobe to ensure documents appear identical across all platforms.
• It supports fixed-layout documents including text, vector graphics, and raster images, but it is not a native 3D modeling format for hardware.
• DOCX
• This is the standard file format for Microsoft Word, replacing the older .doc format.
• It is an Open XML format used for word processing and document creation, focusing on text editing and typography.

The correct answer is Finance Commission.

Key Points

• The Finance Commission is a constitutional body established by the President of India under Article 280 of the Constitution of India.
• According to Article 280(3)(b), it is the primary duty of the Commission to make recommendations to the President regarding the principles that should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
• These grants-in-aid are provided to States that are in need of assistance, and the amounts may vary between different States as determined by the Commission.
• The Commission also advises on the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States (vertical devolution) and the allocation among the States themselves (horizontal devolution).
• It serves as a balancing wheel of fiscal federalism in India, aiming to reduce financial disparities between the central government and the regional states.
• The Commission consists of a Chairman and four other members who are appointed by the President every five years or earlier as deemed necessary.

 Additional Information

• NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India):
• It was established on January 1, 2015, as a successor to the Planning Commission.
• It is an executive body that serves as the premier policy Think Tank of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs.
• Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG):
• The CAG is an independent constitutional authority established under Article 148.
• It is responsible for auditing all receipts and expenditures of the Government of India and the State Governments to ensure financial accountability.
• Planning Commission:
• Established in March 1950 via an executive resolution, it was an extra-constitutional body.
• Its main function was to formulate Five-Year Plans for India's economic development before it was dissolved in 2014.

The correct answer is ROM stores permanent instructions; RAM stores temporary data.

Key Points

• ROM (Read-Only Memory) is a type of non-volatile memory, meaning it retains its stored information even after the power supply is turned off. It is primarily used to store the BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) and other essential firmware required to boot the computer. Hence, it stores permanent instructions.
• RAM (Random Access Memory) is a volatile memory device, which means all stored data is lost once the power is disconnected. It serves as the primary memory where the operating system, application programs, and data in current use are kept so they can be quickly reached by the CPU. Hence, it stores temporary data.
• The fundamental distinction lies in their persistence and functionality: ROM handles the startup process and fixed system instructions, while RAM facilitates the real-time execution of active tasks and multitasking.
• While RAM allows for both reading and writing at high speeds, standard ROM is traditionally limited to reading, although modern variants like Flash memory have evolved.

 Additional Information

• Types of Memory:
• RAM Varieties: Includes SRAM (Static RAM), which is faster and used for cache, and DRAM (Dynamic RAM), which is slower and used for main system memory.
• ROM Varieties: Includes PROM (Programmable ROM), EPROM (Erasable Programmable ROM), and EEPROM (Electrically Erasable Programmable ROM).
• Performance Characteristics:
• Speed: RAM is significantly faster than ROM, allowing the processor to access data in nanoseconds.
• Capacity: Modern systems require large amounts of RAM (e.g., 8GB, 16GB) to run software, whereas ROM chips are much smaller in capacity.

The correct answer is Northeast monsoon winds.

Key Points

• The Northeast Monsoon, also frequently referred to as the Retreating Monsoon, is the primary weather system responsible for winter rainfall along the Coromandel Coast of India.
• This seasonal wind system typically operates during the months of October, November, and December, marking the transition from the summer monsoon to the winter season.
• As the high-pressure system develops over the Tibetan Plateau and Central Asia, winds begin to blow from the land towards the ocean in a northeasterly direction.
• While these winds are initially dry as they originate over land, they pick up significant moisture as they traverse the Bay of Bengal.
• Upon reaching the Coromandel Coast (which includes the coastal regions of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh), these moisture-laden winds strike the land, causing widespread and heavy orographic rainfall.
• For the state of Tamil Nadu, this season is crucial as it accounts for nearly 48% to 60% of its total annual precipitation, supporting major Rabi crops and filling local reservoirs.

 Additional Information

• Southwest Monsoon Winds:
• Active from June to September, these winds bring the majority of India's rainfall.
• The Coromandel Coast remains largely dry during this period because it lies in the rain-shadow region of the Western Ghats.
• Western Disturbances:
• These are extratropical cyclones that originate over the Mediterranean Sea.
• Driven by the Subtropical Westerly Jet Stream, they bring winter rain and snow to Northwest India (e.g., Punjab, Haryana, and Kashmir) rather than the southern coast.
• Westerlies:
• These are permanent planetary winds blowing from the subtropical high-pressure belts toward the sub-polar low-pressure belts (between 30° and 60° latitude).
• In the Indian context, their influence is primarily felt through the jet streams that steer Western Disturbances into the subcontinent during winter.

The correct answer is 11.

Key Points

• As of October 2025, the total number of languages recognized with Classical Language status in India stands at 11.
• Historically, only six languages held this prestigious status: Tamil (notified in 2004), Sanskrit (2005), Telugu (2008), Kannada (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014).
• In a landmark decision in October 2024, the Union Cabinet approved the inclusion of five additional languages: Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, and Bengali.
• This expansion was aimed at preserving the rich linguistic heritage and diverse cultural fabric of India, recognizing the deep historical and literary roots of these newly added languages.
• To qualify for this status, a language must demonstrate high antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500 to 2000 years and possess a body of ancient literature/epics considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers.

 Additional Information

• The Ministry of Culture oversees the criteria for Classical Languages, ensuring the literary tradition is original and not borrowed from another speech community.
• Benefits of Classical Status:
• Two major International Awards are given annually to scholars of eminence in the respective languages.
• A Centre of Excellence for Studies in Classical Languages is established to promote research and preservation.
• The University Grants Commission (UGC) creates a certain number of Professional Chairs for Classical Languages in Central Universities.
• Linguistic Significance:
• Marathi is the official language of Maharashtra and has a literary history spanning over a millennium.
• Pali and Prakrit are vital for understanding ancient Indian philosophy, particularly Buddhist and Jain scriptures.
• Assamese and Bengali are key Indo-Aryan languages with profound impacts on the cultural identity of Northeast India and West Bengal.

The correct answer is Teaching.

Key Points

• The tertiary sector, commonly referred to as the service sector, encompasses activities that provide services to businesses and consumers rather than producing tangible goods.
• Teaching is a fundamental tertiary activity because it involves the delivery of educational services and the development of intellectual capital, focusing on the dissemination of knowledge and skills.
• Activities in this sector provide intangible value and are essential for supporting the primary and secondary sectors through infrastructure, logistics, and professional expertise.
• According to economic classification, the tertiary sector includes a wide range of services such as banking, insurance, transportation, communication, and healthcare.
• In many modern economies, the tertiary sector is the largest contributor to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and employs a significant portion of the workforce due to the rising demand for professional services.

 Additional Information

• Primary Sector:
• Farming: This is a primary activity as it involves the direct utilization of natural resources from the earth to produce food and raw materials.
• Mining: This involves the extraction of minerals and ores from the lithosphere, making it a core component of the primary sector.
• Secondary Sector:
• Manufacturing: This sector focuses on processing raw materials obtained from the primary sector into finished products through industrial operations and factories.
• Common examples include automobile assembly, textile production, and steel fabrication, where the form of the resource is changed to add utility and value.
• Quaternary and Quinary Sectors:
• The Quaternary Sector is a specialized sub-segment of the tertiary sector focusing on information technology, research and development (R&D), and consultancy.
• The Quinary Sector involves high-level decision-making by top officials in government, science, and corporate industries.

The correct answer is Abolishing industrial licensing for most industries.

Key Points

• The New Industrial Policy (NIP) was announced on July 24, 1991, under the leadership of Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh, marking the beginning of economic reforms in India.
• The core objective of the policy was to dismantle the License Raj, which was a system of licenses, regulations, and accompanying red tape that hindered industrial growth and private enterprise.
• A major feature of this policy was the abolition of industrial licensing for all projects, irrespective of the level of investment, except for a short list of 18 industries related to security, strategic concerns, and social reasons.
• This reform aimed to enhance industrial efficiency and international competitiveness by allowing entrepreneurs to make production decisions based on market signals rather than government directives.
• The policy also drastically reduced the number of industries reserved exclusively for the Public Sector from 17 to just 8, opening up crucial sectors like mining, telecommunications, and transport to private investment.
• It introduced the concept of Liberalization, Privatization, and Globalization (LPG) to integrate the Indian economy with the global market and attract Foreign Direct Investment (FDI).

 Additional Information

• Liberalization:
• Removal of restrictive trade barriers and government intervention in the economy.
• Simplification of export-import procedures and rationalization of tax structures.
• Currently, only five industries require compulsory licensing, including electronic aerospace, gunpowder/explosives, and hazardous chemicals.
• Privatization:
• Involves disinvestment, where the government sells its equity in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) to private entities or the general public.
• It aims to improve the managerial efficiency and financial discipline of enterprises.
• Globalization:
• Encouraged the entry of Multinational Corporations (MNCs) through Automatic Approval routes for foreign technology agreements.
• Established the Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB) to negotiate with international firms and facilitate FDI inflows.
• MRTP Act:
• The 1991 policy scrapped the requirement for Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices (MRTP) companies to seek prior approval for expansion or establishment of new undertakings.

The correct answer is Tsinghua University.

Key Points

• Tsinghua University, located in Beijing, China, has officially topped the 2025 Times Higher Education (THE) Asia University Rankings, maintaining its status as the premier academic institution in the region.
• This victory marks the sixth consecutive year that the university has held the number one position, a streak that began in 2020 when it first overtook the National University of Singapore.
• The 2025 rankings utilized the WUR 3.0 methodology, which evaluates institutions across 18 performance indicators grouped into five key pillars: Teaching, Research Environment, Research Quality, International Outlook, and Industry.
• The university achieved particularly high scores in the Research Quality and Industry categories, reflecting its significant contribution to global innovation and its strong ties with the corporate sector for knowledge transfer.
• The 2025 results highlight the continued dominance of Mainland China in higher education, with Peking University consistently securing the second position behind Tsinghua.
• The assessment also noted a significant rise in the performance of universities from South Asia and Southeast Asia, although the top tier remains dominated by East Asian institutions.

 Additional Information

• Times Higher Education (THE) Asia University Rankings:
• It is a specialized subset of the World University Rankings, specifically designed to reflect the unique attributes and growth of the Asian higher education sector.
• The 2025 edition featured an expanded list of participants, reflecting the increased transparency and global integration of universities in India, Japan, and South Korea.
• Comparison of Other Options:
• University of Hong Kong: Located in the Hong Kong SAR, it remains one of the most internationalized universities globally and typically ranks within the top five in Asia due to its high citation impact.
• Seoul National University: As the top-ranked institution in South Korea, it is recognized for its rigorous STEM programs and significant output in applied sciences.
• Kyoto University: A leading research institution in Japan, it is world-renowned for its legacy of Nobel Prize-winning alumni and its focus on fundamental research.

The correct answer is Article 368.

Key Points

• Article 368, located in Part XX of the Constitution of India, grants the Parliament the constituent power to amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation, or repeal of any provision.
• The power under this article is not absolute; in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court ruled that Parliament cannot use its power under Article 368 to alter the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
• Amendments to the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) and not in the state legislatures.
• Under Article 368, a bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, which is a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.
• For amendments affecting the federal character of the Constitution (such as the election of the President or distribution of legislative powers), the bill also requires ratification by the legislatures of at least one-half of the States.
• The 24^th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971 made it mandatory for the President to give his assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill once it is passed by both Houses.

 Additional Information

• Article 359:
• Deals with the Suspension of the enforcement of the rights conferred by Part III (Fundamental Rights) during National Emergencies.
• It stipulates that the President may by order declare that the right to move any court for the enforcement of such rights shall remain suspended.
• Article 360:
• Relates to provisions for a Financial Emergency.
• If the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened, he may declare a Financial Emergency.
• Article 361:
• Provides protection and immunity to the President and Governors.
• It ensures that the President or the Governor of a State shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office.

The correct answer is Daimabad.

Key Points

• Daimabad is a significant archaeological site located in the Ahmednagar district of Maharashtra on the left bank of the Pravara River, which is a major tributary of the Godavari River.
• The site is globally renowned in archaeology for the discovery of the Daimabad Bronzes in 1974, which represent some of the most sophisticated examples of metal-cast sculptures from the Harappan era.
• The cache consists of four massive, solid-cast copper/bronze figures: a chariot driven by a human and pulled by two bulls, a water buffalo, an elephant, and a rhinoceros.
• These sculptures were created using the advanced lost-wax technique (cire perdue), demonstrating the high level of metallurgical skill achieved during the Late Harappan phase (approximately 1900−1600 BCE).
• The chariot is particularly notable for its detail, measuring approximately 45 cm in length and featuring solid wheels with projecting hubs, highlighting the transition of Harappan influence into the Deccan region.

 Additional Information

• Nageshwar:
• Located in the Jamnagar district of Gujarat near the coast.
• It was a specialized Harappan shell-working center dedicated to the production of bangles, ladles, and decorative inlay pieces.
• Kalibangan:
• Situated in the Hanumangarh district of Rajasthan on the banks of the Ghaggar River.
• Famous for the discovery of the world earliest ploughed field, fire altars, and unique terracotta bangles.
• Rangpur:
• Located in the Limbdi Taluka of Gujarat.
• Significant for providing botanical evidence of rice husk and marking the transition into the Post-Harappan culture through its Lustrous Red Ware pottery.