RRB Group D · Topic Collection

General Science PYQs

Core physics, chemistry, biology, human health, diseases, environmental science, and everyday scientific observations.

2600 Total Questions104 Official PapersYears: 2018–2026Search in General Science
Showing questions 541–560 of 2600Page 28 of 100
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 08 Jan, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 541

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

How does the weight of an object on the Moon compare to its weight on Earth?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is six times of its weight on Earth.

  2. BOption (b)

    It is one-sixth of its weight on Earth.

  3. COption (c)

    It is one-third of its weight on Earth.

  4. DOption (d)

    It is the same as that on Earth.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

It is one-sixth of its weight on Earth.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It is one-sixth of its weight on Earth.

Key Points

  • The weight of an object is defined as the force with which the Earth or any celestial body attracts it. It is calculated using the formula W = m × g, where m is the mass and g is the acceleration due to gravity.
  • The acceleration due to gravity on the Moon is approximately 1.625 m/s², while on Earth, it is approximately 9.8 m/s².
  • When comparing these two values, the gravitational pull of the Moon is roughly one-sixth (1/6th) of the gravitational pull of the Earth.
  • Consequently, the weight of an object on the Moon becomes one-sixth of its weight on Earth. Hence, option 2 is the correct statement.
  • It is important to note that while the weight changes based on the gravitational field, the mass of the object remains constant regardless of its location in the universe.

Additional Information

  • Newton’s Law of Universal Gravitation:
  • The gravitational force depends on the mass of the two bodies and the distance between them. Since the Moon has a much smaller mass (approximately 7.347 × 10²² kg) compared to Earth (5.972 × 10²⁴ kg), its gravity is significantly weaker.
  • Even though the Moon is smaller in radius (1,737 km), which would typically increase gravity at the surface, its low density and total mass result in the 1/6th ratio.
  • Difference between Mass and Weight:
  • Mass is a measure of the amount of matter in an object and is measured in kilograms (kg).
  • Weight is a force measured in Newtons (N). An object with a mass of 60 kg would have a weight of about 600 N on Earth but only 100 N on the Moon.
  • Calculation Example:
  • If an astronaut weighs 120 pounds on Earth, their weight on the Moon would be 120 / 6 = 20 pounds. This reduction in weight allows astronauts to jump much higher and carry heavy equipment more easily.

Important Points

  • Escape Velocity: Due to the lower gravity, the escape velocity of the Moon is only 2.38 km/s, compared to 11.2 km/s on Earth. This is why the Moon cannot retain an atmosphere.
  • Unit of Force: In the SI system, weight is expressed in Newtons. The acceleration due to gravity (g) is the key variable that dictates the weight of an object across different planets or satellites.
  • Historical Context: During the Apollo missions in the 1960s and 1970s, this phenomenon was clearly observed as astronauts performed "moon walks" with a bouncing gait because their muscular strength was adapted to Earth’s gravity, making them feel extremely light on the lunar surface.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 08 Jan, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 542

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following is usually connected in series in a domestic circuit?

  1. AOption (a)

    Electric bulb

  2. BOption (b)

    All appliances

  3. COption (c)

    Main fuse

  4. DOption (d)

    Fan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Main fuse

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Main fuse.

Key Points

  • A Main fuse is a safety device that is always connected in series with the live wire in a domestic circuit before the electricity enters the main distribution board.
  • The primary function of the fuse is to protect the building's electrical system from overloading and short-circuiting. If the current exceeds a specific rated value, the fuse wire heats up and melts, effectively breaking the circuit. Hence, the main fuse is the correct answer.
  • In a series connection, the current flowing through all components is the same. If the fuse were connected in parallel, it would not be able to stop the total current from entering the circuit during a fault.
  • Electric bulbs and fans are never connected in series in a standard domestic circuit. If they were, switching off one would turn off all other devices, and the voltage would be divided among them, leading to poor performance. Hence, statement 1 and 4 are incorrect.
  • Domestic appliances are connected in parallel so that each device gets the same standard voltage (e.g., 220V in India) and can be operated independently with its own switch. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Series Circuit Characteristics:
  • In a series circuit, there is only one path for the flow of electricity.
  • The total resistance is the sum of individual resistances (R = R1 + R2 + ...).
  • If any single component in the series fails or is disconnected, the entire circuit is broken, and no current flows.
  • Parallel Circuit Characteristics:
  • In a parallel circuit, the voltage across each component is constant.
  • The total resistance decreases as more branches are added (1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + ...).
  • Domestic wiring is done in parallel to ensure that high-power devices like geysers and low-power devices like LED bulbs receive the same potential difference.
  • Fuse Wire Material:
  • A fuse wire is usually made of an alloy of tin and lead or tin-plated copper because it requires a low melting point and high resistance.
  • The thickness of the fuse wire determines its current rating (e.g., 5A for light circuits and 15A for power circuits).
  • Modern Alternatives:
  • Nowadays, Miniature Circuit Breakers (MCBs) are used instead of traditional fuses. They act as automatic switches that trip during an overcurrent situation and can be reset without needing replacement.

Important Points

  • Earth Wire (Green/Yellow): This is a safety wire connected to the metal casing of appliances to prevent electric shocks by providing a low-resistance path to the ground.
  • Live Wire (Red/Brown): Carries the alternating current from the source to the appliance.
  • Neutral Wire (Black/Blue): Completes the circuit by providing a return path for the current.
  • Short Circuit: Occurs when the Live wire and Neutral wire come into direct contact, causing a massive surge in current. The Main fuse is the primary defense against this.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 08 Jan, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 543

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

What type of gas is released when ethanol reacts with sodium?

  1. AOption (a)

    Methane

  2. BOption (b)

    Carbon dioxide

  3. COption (c)

    Oxygen

  4. DOption (d)

    Hydrogen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Hydrogen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hydrogen.

Key Points

  • When Ethanol (an alcohol) reacts with Sodium metal, it results in the formation of Sodium Ethoxide and the liberation of Hydrogen gas.
  • The chemical equation for this reaction is: 2Na + 2CH3CH2OH → 2CH3CH2ONa + H2. In this process, the Sodium atom displaces the Hydrogen atom from the Hydroxyl (-OH) group of the Ethanol molecule.
  • The evolution of Hydrogen gas is characterized by brisk effervescence. To confirm the presence of this gas, a burning splinter can be brought near the mouth of the test tube, which will produce a distinct 'pop' sound.
  • This reaction demonstrates the acidic nature of alcohols, although Ethanol is a very weak acid (even weaker than Water). The Sodium metal acts as a strong reducing agent that forces the release of the Proton from the alcohol.
  • This specific reaction is commonly used as a confirmatory test in laboratories to identify the presence of the Alcoholic group in an unknown organic compound.

Additional Information

  • Ethanol (C2H5OH):
  • Also known as Ethyl Alcohol, it is a volatile, flammable, colorless liquid with a characteristic odor.
  • It has a Boiling Point of approximately 78.37 degrees Celsius and is widely used as a Solvent, in Fuel (as Bio-ethanol), and in the production of Alcoholic Beverages.
  • In the Chemical Industry, it serves as a precursor for other organic compounds like Ethanoic Acid and Diethyl Ether.
  • Sodium (Na):
  • It is a highly reactive Alkali Metal belonging to Group 1 of the Periodic Table with Atomic Number 11.
  • Due to its extreme reactivity with Moisture and Oxygen in the air, it is always stored under Kerosene or Paraffin Oil to prevent accidental combustion.
  • The reaction of Sodium with Water is much more vigorous and Exothermic compared to its reaction with Ethanol, often resulting in the Hydrogen gas catching fire.
  • Sodium Ethoxide (C2H5ONa):
  • The byproduct of the reaction is an Alkoxide, specifically Sodium Ethoxide, which is a strong Base used in Organic Synthesis.
  • It is frequently utilized in reactions such as Claisen Condensation and Williamson Ether Synthesis.
  • Comparison with other options:
  • Methane (CH4) is not released in this reaction; it is usually produced during the Decarboxylation of Sodium Acetate.
  • Carbon Dioxide (CO2) is typically released when Carbonates or Bicarbonates react with Acids (like Ethanoic Acid), not during the reaction of sodium with ethanol.
  • Oxygen (O2) is released during the decomposition of Hydrogen Peroxide or during Photosynthesis, but not in the metal-alcohol reaction.

Important Points

  • Reactivity Trend: The rate of reaction of alcohols with Sodium decreases with the increase in the size of the Alkyl group. Therefore, Methanol reacts faster than Ethanol, which in turn reacts faster than Propanol.
  • Safety Measures: Since Hydrogen is highly flammable and the reaction involves Sodium, it must be performed under strict supervision in a Laboratory setting.
  • Industrial Application: This reaction is a primary method for preparing Anhydrous Alkoxides which are essential catalysts in the Biodiesel production process.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 08 Jan, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 544

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following is the smallest alkane that can form a stable ring?

  1. AOption (a)

    Propane

  2. BOption (b)

    Cyclopropane

  3. COption (c)

    Ethane

  4. DOption (d)

    Methane

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Cyclopropane

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Cyclopropane.

Key Points

  • Cyclopropane is the smallest possible cycloalkane, consisting of three carbon atoms linked together to form a ring structure.
  • The molecular formula for cyclopropane is C3H6. It exists as a cyclic hydrocarbon where each carbon atom is bonded to two other carbons and two hydrogen atoms.
  • Geometrically, the molecule forms an equilateral triangle. This results in C-C-C bond angles of 60 degrees, which is a significant deviation from the ideal tetrahedral angle of 109.5 degrees expected for sp3 hybridized carbons.
  • This intense deviation causes what is known as angle strain or Baeyer strain. Despite this high internal energy, cyclopropane is a stable compound that can be isolated and stored, although it is more reactive than its open-chain counterparts.
  • A ring structure requires a minimum of three points to close; therefore, any hydrocarbon with fewer than three carbon atoms cannot form a stable ring. Hence, the correct answer is Cyclopropane.

Additional Information

  • Propane: This is an acyclic (open-chain) alkane with the chemical formula C3H8. While it has three carbon atoms, they are arranged in a straight chain rather than a ring. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Ethane: This is an alkane with only two carbon atoms and the formula C2H6. Because a ring requires at least three vertices, ethane is physically unable to form a cyclic structure. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Methane: The simplest hydrocarbon, methane (CH4), contains only one carbon atom. It is impossible for a single atom to form a ring. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
  • Cycloalkanes General Formula: Saturated cyclic hydrocarbons follow the general formula CnH2n, which differs from the CnH2n+2 formula used for linear alkanes.
  • Historical Use: Cyclopropane was notably used as a potent inhalation anesthetic in medical surgery starting around the year 1930. However, it is rarely used today because it is highly flammable and can be explosive when mixed with air or oxygen.

Important Points

  • Ring Strain Components: The instability in cyclopropane arises from two main factors: angle strain (due to the 60-degree bonds) and torsional strain (caused by the eclipsing conformation of all C-H bonds).
  • Bent Bonds: To minimize the high energy of the ring, the carbon-carbon bonds in cyclopropane are not straight; they are described as bent bonds or banana bonds, which allow for better orbital overlap than straight-line 60-degree bonds would permit.
  • Comparison of Stability: As the number of carbon atoms in the ring increases, the stability generally increases until cyclohexane (C6H12). Cyclohexane is the most stable cycloalkane because its chair conformation allows bond angles to reach 109.5 degrees, eliminating nearly all ring strain.
  • Physical Properties: At standard temperature and pressure, cyclopropane is a colorless gas with a characteristic sweet smell. It has a boiling point of approximately -33 degrees Celsius and a melting point of -128 degrees Celsius.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 08 Jan, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 545

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Why do we feel cool when sweat evaporates from our skin?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sweat forms crystals that cool the skin.

  2. BOption (b)

    Sweat turns into ice before evaporation.

  3. COption (c)

    Sweat absorbs heat from our skin to evaporate.

  4. DOption (d)

    Sweat releases heat during evaporation.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sweat absorbs heat from our skin to evaporate.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sweat absorbs heat from our skin to evaporate.

Key Points

  • Evaporation is a cooling process because it is endothermic. For a liquid to transform into a gas, it must absorb thermal energy from its immediate environment.
  • When the human body temperature rises due to physical exertion or high external temperatures, the nervous system stimulates the sweat glands to release moisture onto the skin surface.
  • This moisture, primarily composed of water and small amounts of electrolytes, utilizes the heat energy stored in the skin to overcome the intermolecular forces holding the liquid molecules together.
  • As the water molecules acquire sufficient kinetic energy, they transition into the vapor phase and escape into the atmosphere. This removal of energy results in a decrease in the surface temperature of the skin. Hence, the statement that sweat absorbs heat from our skin to evaporate is correct.
  • If sweat merely released heat or turned into ice, it would not effectively facilitate the thermoregulation process required to maintain homeostasis.

Additional Information

  • Latent Heat of Vaporization: This is the specific amount of energy required to change a substance from a liquid to a gas at a constant temperature. Water has a high latent heat of vaporization, meaning it can remove a significant amount of heat from the body with relatively little fluid loss.
  • Thermoregulation: The Hypothalamus in the brain acts as the body's thermostat. It senses changes in blood temperature and receives input from thermoreceptors in the skin to trigger sweating or shivering.
  • Environmental Factors: The efficiency of cooling through evaporation is highly dependent on Relative Humidity. When humidity is high (above 70% to 80%), the air is already saturated with water vapor, which slows down the evaporation rate, making the body feel much hotter than the actual ambient temperature.
  • Convection and Airflow: Wind or a fan aids the cooling process by moving the saturated air away from the skin and replacing it with drier air, which allows evaporation to continue at a faster rate.
  • Homeostasis: This biological process ensures that the internal body temperature remains stable around 37 degrees Celsius (98.6 degrees Fahrenheit), protecting vital organs and enzymatic functions from hyperthermia.

Important Points

  • Eccrine Glands: These are the primary sweat glands involved in evaporative cooling. They are distributed over almost the entire human body, with the highest density on the palms, soles, and head.
  • Apocrine Glands: Found mainly in the axilla (armpits) and perianal regions, these glands produce a thicker sweat containing proteins and lipids, which is usually associated with body odor rather than primary temperature regulation.
  • Dehydration Risk: During intense physical activity or in extreme heat, a person can lose several liters of water per hour through sweating. If these fluids are not replaced, it can lead to dehydration, heat exhaustion, or heatstroke.
  • Specific Heat Capacity: Water's high specific heat capacity means it can absorb a lot of thermal energy before it even begins the process of evaporation, providing a buffer for the body's core temperature.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 08 Jan, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 546

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Why is practicing safe sex important for reproductive health?

  1. AOption (a)

    It ensures hormonal balance in the body

  2. BOption (b)

    It guarantees pregnancy

  3. COption (c)

    It prevents sexually transmitted diseases like HIV-AIDS

  4. DOption (d)

    It increases fertility

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It prevents sexually transmitted diseases like HIV-AIDS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It prevents sexually transmitted diseases like HIV-AIDS.

Key Points

  • Practicing safe sex is a fundamental aspect of reproductive health, primarily because it serves as a critical barrier against the transmission of Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs) and Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs).
  • One of the most significant benefits is the prevention of HIV-AIDS (Human Immunodeficiency Virus/Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome), which is a chronic and potentially life-threatening condition that severely impacts the immune system. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Safe sex practices, such as the consistent and correct use of latex condoms, provide a physical barrier that prevents the exchange of bodily fluids containing pathogens like bacteria, viruses, and parasites.
  • Maintaining reproductive health through safe practices also prevents other serious infections like Syphilis, Gonorrhea, and Chlamydia, which, if left untreated, can lead to chronic pain and infertility.
  • Safe sex does not directly ensure hormonal balance; hormones are regulated by the endocrine system and glands like the pituitary and thyroid. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Safe sex methods, particularly barrier methods, are designed to prevent pregnancy rather than guarantee it. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • While safe sex protects the reproductive organs from damage caused by infections, it does not biologically increase fertility beyond an individual's natural capacity. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Definition of Reproductive Health: According to the World Health Organization (WHO), reproductive health is a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being in all matters relating to the reproductive system. It implies that people are able to have a responsible, satisfying, and safe sex life.
  • HIV-AIDS Awareness: World AIDS Day is observed on December 1st every year to raise awareness about the spread of the HIV infection. In India, the National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO), established in 1992, plays a pivotal role in prevention and control programs.
  • Methods of Safe Sex:
  • Barrier Methods: Includes male and female condoms, which are highly effective at preventing both STIs and unintended pregnancy.
  • Regular Screening: Periodic medical check-ups for STIs are essential for sexually active individuals to ensure early detection and treatment.
  • Common STIs and their Causative Agents:
  • Bacterial: Gonorrhea (Neisseria gonorrhoeae) and Syphilis (Treponema pallidum).
  • Viral: Genital Herpes (Herpes Simplex Virus), Hepatitis B, and HIV.
  • Fungal/Protozoan: Trichomoniasis.

Important Points

  • Long-term Impact of STIs: Untreated infections can lead to Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) in women, which is a major cause of ectopic pregnancy and tubal infertility.
  • Contraception vs. Protection: While Oral Contraceptive Pills (OCPs) or Intrauterine Devices (IUDs) are effective for birth control, they do not provide protection against STIs. Only condoms provide dual protection.
  • National Health Programs: The Government of India promotes reproductive health through the RMNCH+A (Reproductive, Maternal, Newborn, Child, and Adolescent Health) strategy to reduce morbidity and mortality.
  • Age Group: Education regarding safe sex is particularly crucial for the adolescent age group (10-19 years) as they transition into adulthood and become sexually aware.
RRB Group D Official Paper (Held On: 08 Jan, 2026 Shift 1) (Previous Year Paper)·General Science
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Question 547

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

The emergence of a new plant from a seed under favourable environmental conditions is termed as ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    pollination

  2. BOption (b)

    fertilisation

  3. COption (c)

    germination

  4. DOption (d)

    photosynthesis

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

germination

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is germination.

Key Points

  • Germination is the biological process through which a plant grows from a seed. It represents the fundamental stage where the embryo inside the seed resumes growth and emerges as a seedling under favourable environmental conditions. Hence, the correct answer is germination.
  • For germination to occur, several external factors must be present, including adequate moisture (water), oxygen for respiration, and an optimal temperature (usually between 25°C and 30°C for many species).
  • Pollination is the process of transferring pollen grains from the anther (male part) to the stigma (female part) of a flower. It is a reproductive mechanism but does not describe the emergence of a plant from a seed. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Fertilisation involves the fusion of male and female gametes to form a zygote. This occurs within the ovule after pollination has taken place and leads to the formation of the seed itself. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants use sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water to synthesize glucose and oxygen. While vital for plant growth, this process typically begins after the seedling has developed chlorophyll and leaves above the ground. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Stages of Germination:
  • Imbibition: The seed absorbs water rapidly, causing the seed coat to soften and swell.
  • Respiration: The seed begins aerobic respiration to produce energy (ATP) required for cell division.
  • Radicle and Plumule Emergence: The radicle (primary root) emerges first to anchor the plant, followed by the plumule (primary shoot).
  • Types of Germination:
  • Epigeal Germination: The hypocotyl elongates, and the cotyledons (seed leaves) are pushed above the soil surface, as seen in bean and castor seeds.
  • Hypogeal Germination: The epicotyl elongates, while the cotyledons remain below the soil, as seen in maize, pea, and gram.
  • Seed Dormancy:
  • This is a state where seeds do not germinate even under ideal conditions. It can be caused by a hard seed coat or the presence of growth inhibitors like Abscisic Acid (ABA). Breakage of dormancy is essential for the germination cycle to start.

Important Points

  • Role of Water: It activates hydrolytic enzymes like amylase, protease, and lipase that break down stored food in the endosperm or cotyledons into simpler forms for the growing embryo.
  • Oxygen Necessity: Since initial growth is very rapid, a high amount of oxygen is required. If soil is waterlogged, oxygen availability decreases, often leading to germination failure.
  • Light Sensitivity: Some seeds, known as photoblastic seeds (e.g., lettuce), require light to trigger the germination process, whereas others may be inhibited by it.
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Question 548

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following is an example of an object in uniform circular motion?

  1. AOption (a)

    A car moving on a crowded street

  2. BOption (b)

    A train moving on a straight track at varying speeds

  3. COption (c)

    A satellite orbiting Earth at a constant speed

  4. DOption (d)

    A person jogging in a park

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A satellite orbiting Earth at a constant speed

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A satellite orbiting Earth at a constant speed.

Key Points

  • Uniform Circular Motion is defined as the motion of an object traveling at a constant speed along a circular path. While the speed remains unchanged, the velocity of the object changes continuously because its direction of motion is constantly changing at every point.
  • A satellite orbiting Earth at a constant speed is a classic example of this phenomenon. The gravitational pull of the Earth provides the necessary centripetal force required to keep the satellite in its circular orbit. Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.
  • A car moving on a crowded street involves frequent changes in both speed and direction due to traffic and obstacles. This is an example of non-uniform motion. Hence, option 1 is incorrect.
  • A train moving on a straight track at varying speeds represents non-uniform rectilinear motion. Since the path is straight and the speed is not constant, it does not satisfy the conditions for circular or uniform motion. Hence, option 2 is incorrect.
  • A person jogging in a park typically involves variable speeds and an irregular path, which does not constitute uniform circular motion unless the person runs at a perfectly constant speed in a perfect circle. Hence, option 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Centripetal Force: In any circular motion, an inward force acts on the body towards the center of the circle. This is known as centripetal force. Without this force, an object would move in a straight line tangential to the circle due to inertia.
  • Velocity and Acceleration: Even though the speed is constant in uniform circular motion, the object is said to be accelerating. This is because acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity, and since the direction is changing, the velocity is changing. This acceleration is called centripetal acceleration.
  • Mathematical Expression: The magnitude of centripetal acceleration (a) is given by the formula a = v^2 / r, where v is the linear speed and r is the radius of the circular path. The time taken to complete one full revolution is called the time period (T), calculated as T = 2πr / v.
  • Real-world Examples:
  • The motion of the tips of the hands of a clock (second, minute, and hour hands) at a constant rate.
  • The motion of the Moon revolving around the Earth.
  • An electron revolving around the nucleus in a Bohr atom model.
  • A point on a spinning ceiling fan moving at a fixed speed setting.

Important Points

  • Angular Displacement: This is the angle (measured in radians) through which an object moves on a circular path. The rate of change of angular displacement is called angular velocity (ω).
  • Relationship: The relationship between linear velocity (v) and angular velocity (ω) is expressed as v = rω, where r is the radius.
  • Work Done: In uniform circular motion, the work done by the centripetal force is always zero. This is because the force acting towards the center is always perpendicular (90 degrees) to the direction of displacement (tangent to the circle) at any given instant.
  • Direction of Velocity: At any point in the circular path, the direction of the velocity vector is along the tangent to the circle at that specific point.
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Question 549

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

When an object is placed beyond the centre of curvature (C) of a concave mirror, the image formed is:

  1. AOption (a)

    virtual, inverted and larger than the object

  2. BOption (b)

    real, erect and same size as object

  3. COption (c)

    virtual, erect and larger than the object

  4. DOption (d)

    real, inverted and smaller than the object

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

real, inverted and smaller than the object

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is real, inverted and smaller than the object.

Key Points

  • When an object is placed beyond the centre of curvature (C) of a concave mirror, the light rays originating from the object converge at a point between the focus (F) and the centre of curvature (C).
  • The resulting image formed is real because the reflected rays actually intersect at a point in front of the mirror.
  • The image is inverted, meaning it appears upside down relative to the orientation of the object.
  • In terms of size, the image is diminished or smaller than the object. This occurs because the angle of convergence results in a smaller height of the image compared to the object height.
  • This specific configuration is often used in optical experiments to demonstrate the properties of converging mirrors.

Additional Information

  • Concave Mirror: A concave mirror is a spherical mirror whose reflecting surface is curved inwards, towards the centre of the sphere. It is also known as a converging mirror because it converges light rays falling on it.
  • Ray Diagram Rules:
  • A ray parallel to the principal axis will pass through the principal focus (F) after reflection.
  • A ray passing through the centre of curvature (C) is reflected back along the same path because it strikes the mirror normally (at 90 degrees).
  • A ray passing through the focus (F) will emerge parallel to the principal axis after reflection.
  • Image Formation Summary for Concave Mirror:
  • At Infinity: Image is formed at F; it is real, inverted, and highly diminished (point-sized).
  • At C: Image is formed at C; it is real, inverted, and the same size as the object.
  • Between C and F: Image is formed beyond C; it is real, inverted, and magnified (larger).
  • At F: Image is formed at infinity; it is real, inverted, and highly enlarged.
  • Between F and P (Pole): Image is formed behind the mirror; it is virtual, erect, and enlarged.
  • Uses of Concave Mirrors: They are commonly used in shaving mirrors and makeup mirrors to see an enlarged image, by dentists to see large images of teeth, and in solar furnaces to concentrate sunlight.

Important Points

  • Mirror Formula: The relationship between the object distance (u), image distance (v), and focal length (f) is given by 1/f = 1/v + 1/u.
  • Sign Convention: According to the New Cartesian Sign Convention, the focal length of a concave mirror is always negative, while the focal length of a convex mirror is positive.
  • Magnification (m): It is the ratio of the height of the image to the height of the object. It is expressed as m = h'/h = -v/u. For real and inverted images, the magnification is negative, and for virtual and erect images, it is positive.
  • In the case of an object beyond C, the value of |m| is less than 1, confirming that the image is diminished.
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Question 550

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

The point on the principal axis where rays parallel to the principal axis converge (or appear to diverge) after reflection from a mirror is called which of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Centre of curvature

  2. BOption (b)

    Pole

  3. COption (c)

    Aperture

  4. DOption (d)

    Principal focus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Principal focus

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Principal focus.

Key Points

  • The Principal focus (represented by the letter F) is the point on the principal axis where all incident rays that are traveling parallel to the principal axis meet or appear to originate from after undergoing reflection.
  • In a concave mirror, the rays of light actually converge at this point after reflection. Because the rays physically meet at the focus, a concave mirror is said to have a real focus.
  • In a convex mirror, the rays of light diverge after reflection, but they appear to come from a point situated behind the mirror. Thus, a convex mirror is characterized by a virtual focus.
  • The location of the Principal focus is always on the Principal axis, which is the imaginary line passing through the Pole and the Centre of curvature.
  • The focal length (denoted as f) is the distance between the Pole (P) and the Principal focus (F) of a spherical mirror. Hence, the correct answer is Principal focus.

Additional Information

  • Centre of Curvature:
  • The Centre of curvature (represented by C) is the center of the hollow glass sphere of which the spherical mirror is a part.
  • For a concave mirror, the centre of curvature lies in front of the reflecting surface, whereas for a convex mirror, it lies behind the reflecting surface. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Pole:
  • The Pole (represented by P) is the geometric center or the midpoint of the reflecting surface of a spherical mirror.
  • It lies on the surface of the mirror and is the point through which the principal axis passes. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Aperture:
  • The Aperture refers to the effective diameter of the reflecting surface of the spherical mirror.
  • It determines the amount of light that falls on the mirror and thus influences the intensity or brightness of the image formed. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Radius of Curvature:
  • The Radius of curvature (represented by R) is the distance from the Pole to the Centre of curvature.
  • It represents the radius of the sphere from which the mirror was originally cut.

Important Points

  • Relationship between R and f: For spherical mirrors with a small aperture, the Radius of curvature (R) is found to be exactly twice the focal length (f). This is expressed by the mathematical formula R = 2f.
  • Sign Convention: According to the New Cartesian Sign Convention, the focal length of a concave mirror is considered negative, while the focal length of a convex mirror is considered positive.
  • Mirror Formula: The relationship between the object distance (u), image distance (v), and focal length (f) is given by the Mirror Formula: 1/v + 1/u = 1/f.
  • Paraxial Rays: The definitions of focus and focal length usually apply to paraxial rays, which are rays that are very close to the principal axis and make small angles with it.
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Question 551

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

An object is placed at infinity in front of a convex lens. The image formed is:

  1. AOption (a)

    between F and 2F, inverted

  2. BOption (b)

    at 2F, same size

  3. COption (c)

    at infinity, highly magnified

  4. DOption (d)

    at the focal point, highly diminished (point-sized)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

at the focal point, highly diminished (point-sized)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is at the focal point, highly diminished (point-sized).

Key Points

  • When an object is placed at infinity in front of a convex lens, the rays of light coming from the object are parallel to the principal axis.
  • After undergoing refraction through the lens, these parallel rays converge at the principal focus (F) on the opposite side of the lens.
  • The image formed at the focal point is real and inverted. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • The size of the image is highly diminished, often described as point-sized, because all the light energy is concentrated at a single point.
  • The magnification (m) in this case is much less than 1 (m << 1), indicating a significant reduction in size compared to the object.

Additional Information

  • Convex Lens (Converging Lens): It is a lens that is thicker at the center and thinner at the edges. It converges a beam of parallel light rays incident on it.
  • Image Formation Summary for Convex Lens:
  • Object at 2F: The image is formed at 2F on the other side, is of the same size, real, and inverted. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Object beyond 2F: The image is formed between F and 2F, is diminished, real, and inverted. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Object at F: The image is formed at infinity and is highly magnified. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Object between F and O: The image is formed on the same side as the object and is virtual, erect, and magnified.
  • Lens Formula: The relationship between object distance (u), image distance (v), and focal length (f) is given by the formula 1/f = 1/v - 1/u.
  • Power of a Lens: It is the reciprocal of the focal length in meters (P = 1/f). For a convex lens, the power is always positive.

Important Points

  • Real Image: An image that can be obtained on a screen is called a real image. In a convex lens, real images are always inverted.
  • Optical Center (O): The central point of the lens through which a ray of light passes without any deviation.
  • Principal Axis: An imaginary line passing through the centers of curvature of the two surfaces of the lens.
  • Applications: Convex lenses are widely used in spectacles to correct Hypermetropia (long-sightedness), in cameras, microscopes, telescopes, and magnifying glasses.
  • Sign Convention: According to the Cartesian sign convention, the focal length of a convex lens is considered positive, while that of a concave lens is negative.
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Question 552

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following activities CANNOT be taken as a defining characteristic of life?

  1. AOption (a)

    Molecular movement within the cells

  2. BOption (b)

    Visible movement like walking or running

  3. COption (c)

    Growth-related movement of plants

  4. DOption (d)

    Breathing and internal maintenance of cells

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Visible movement like walking or running

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Visible movement like walking or running.

Key Points

  • Molecular movement within the cells: Life is built upon organized structures that are subject to environmental breakdown. To prevent this, living organisms must constantly repair and maintain their structures through molecular movements. Even when an organism is asleep or seemingly still, these invisible biochemical processes continue to sustain life. Hence, statement 1 is a fundamental characteristic of life.
  • Visible movement like walking or running: While locomotion is common in the animal kingdom, it is not universal. Organisms like plants, fungi, and corals do not walk or run but are very much alive. Furthermore, an animal might be sleeping or hibernating without any visible movement, yet its internal life processes continue. Therefore, observable movement is not a reliable defining criteria for all life forms. Hence, statement 2 cannot be taken as a defining characteristic of life.
  • Growth-related movement of plants: In the plant kingdom, movement is typically expressed through growth. A seed germinating and pushing through the soil, or a plant bending towards sunlight (phototropism), are clear indicators of life. These movements are slow but essential for survival and reproduction. Hence, statement 3 is a characteristic of life.
  • Breathing and internal maintenance of cells: All living things perform metabolism, which includes respiration (breathing at a cellular or organismal level) and the internal maintenance of cellular integrity. These processes provide the energy required to keep the biological system functioning against the forces of entropy. Hence, statement 4 is a defining characteristic of life.
  • Hence, the correct answer is Visible movement like walking or running.

Additional Information

  • Defining vs. Non-Defining Characteristics:
  • In biology, a defining characteristic is a feature that is present in all living organisms without exception and is absent in all non-living things.
  • Metabolism, Cellular Organization, and Consciousness (response to stimuli) are considered true defining characteristics.
  • Features like Reproduction and Visible Growth are not strictly defining because some living things (like mules or sterile workers) do not reproduce, and some non-living things (like crystals or clouds) can increase in size.
  • The Role of Viruses:
  • Viruses exist on the borderline of living and non-living. They do not show any molecular movement or metabolic activity when they are outside a host cell.
  • They only display characteristics of life once they infect a host cell and use the host's molecular machinery to replicate, which is why their status as "living" is still a subject of scientific debate.
  • Metabolic Processes:
  • Anabolism: The process of building up complex molecules from simpler ones (e.g., photosynthesis).
  • Catabolism: The process of breaking down complex molecules to release energy (e.g., digestion and cellular respiration).

Important Points

  • Locomotion vs. Movement: Locomotion refers to the displacement of the whole body from one location to another (walking, flying, swimming), while movement can be the change in position of any part of the body (like a heart beating or a leaf turning).
  • Energy Requirement: Life processes require a continuous supply of energy, which is usually obtained from nutrients through the process of nutrition and released through respiration.
  • Complexity: Living organisms have a highly organized structure—from organelles and cells to tissues and organs. Maintenance of this organization is what distinguishes life from the random accumulation of matter.
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Question 553

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following devices works on the principle of force on a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field?

  1. AOption (a)

    Transformer

  2. BOption (b)

    Electric motor

  3. COption (c)

    Electric generator

  4. DOption (d)

    Resistor

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Electric motor

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Electric motor.

Key Points

  • An electric motor is an electromechanical device that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.
  • It operates on the fundamental principle of magnetic effect of electric current, specifically the force experienced by a current-carrying conductor when placed within an external magnetic field.
  • When a current flows through a coil (armature) placed between the poles of a magnet, the magnetic field produced by the current interacts with the external magnetic field, resulting in a mechanical force (torque) that causes the coil to rotate.
  • The direction of this force is governed by Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule, which establishes the relationship between the magnetic field, current, and motion.
  • This principle allows for the continuous rotation of the motor's shaft, which can then be used to perform various types of mechanical work. Hence, the correct answer is Electric motor.

Additional Information

  • Transformer:
  • A transformer is a static electrical device that transfers electrical energy between two or more circuits through electromagnetic induction.
  • It works on the principle of Mutual Induction, where a changing current in the primary coil induces a voltage in the secondary coil.
  • It is primarily used to increase (step-up) or decrease (step-down) alternating current (AC) voltages while keeping the frequency constant.
  • Electric Generator:
  • An electric generator is a device that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.
  • It works on the principle of Electromagnetic Induction, discovered by Michael Faraday in 1831.
  • According to Faraday's Law, when a conductor moves through a magnetic field, an induced electromotive force (EMF) or current is generated. The direction of this induced current is determined by Fleming’s Right-Hand Rule.
  • Resistor:
  • A resistor is a passive two-terminal electrical component that implements electrical resistance as a circuit element.
  • It works based on Ohm's Law, which states that the current through a conductor is proportional to the voltage across it (V = IR).
  • Its primary function is to reduce current flow, adjust signal levels, and terminate transmission lines by dissipating electrical energy as heat.

Important Points

  • Fleming’s Left-Hand Rule:
  • This rule is used to find the direction of the force in electric motors.
  • If we stretch the thumb, forefinger, and middle finger of the left hand mutually perpendicular to each other:
  1. The Forefinger represents the direction of the Magnetic Field.
  2. The Middle finger represents the direction of the Current.
  3. The Thumb represents the direction of the Force or Motion acting on the conductor.
  • Components of a DC Motor:
  • Armature Coil: A large number of turns of insulated copper wire wound over a soft iron core.
  • Strong Field Magnet: Provides a powerful magnetic field (North and South poles).
  • Split Ring Commutator: Consists of two halves of a metallic ring that reverses the direction of current every half rotation to maintain a continuous torque.
  • Brushes: Carbon blocks that maintain electrical contact between the rotating commutator and the external battery.
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Question 554

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

If the power of an engine is doubled while the time remains constant, the work done will ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Be halved

  2. BOption (b)

    Be doubled

  3. COption (c)

    Be quadrupled

  4. DOption (d)

    Remain the same

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Be doubled

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Be doubled.

Key Points

  • Power is defined as the rate at which work is done or the rate at which energy is transferred over time.
  • The mathematical relationship between Power (P), Work (W), and Time (t) is expressed by the formula: Power = Work / Time (or P = W / t).
  • From the above formula, Work Done can be calculated as the product of Power and Time: W = P × t.
  • When the time (t) is held constant, the Work Done becomes directly proportional to the Power of the engine. This means any change in power will result in a proportional change in work.
  • If the Power is doubled (increased by a factor of 2) while the time remains the same, the Work Done will also be multiplied by 2. Hence, the work done will be doubled.

Additional Information

  • Work Done: In physics, Work is said to be done when a Force acts upon an object to cause a displacement. The SI unit of work is the Joule (J), which is equivalent to 1 Newton-meter (N·m).
  • Power Units: The SI unit of Power is the Watt (W), named in honor of James Watt, the developer of the steam engine. 1 Watt is defined as 1 Joule of work done per second (1 W = 1 J/s).
  • Scalar Nature: Both Work and Power are scalar quantities, meaning they have magnitude but no specific direction in space.
  • Horsepower (hp): This is a common non-SI unit of Power often used in the automotive and engineering industries. 1 Metric Horsepower is approximately 735.5 Watts, while 1 Imperial Horsepower is approximately 746 Watts.
  • Alternative Formula: Power can also be calculated if the Force (F) and Velocity (v) are known, using the formula P = F × v (assuming the force is in the direction of motion).

Important Points

  • Dimensional Analysis: The dimensional formula for Work is [ML²T⁻²], while the dimensional formula for Power is [ML²T⁻³].
  • Time Factor: If Work is kept constant instead of time, then Power and Time are inversely proportional. For example, a more powerful engine will take less time to complete the same amount of work.
  • Energy Conversion: Since Work is a form of Energy transfer, Power can also be viewed as the rate of energy consumption. For instance, a 100-Watt light bulb consumes 100 Joules of electrical energy every second.
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Question 555

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following is NOT an isotope of hydrogen atom?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tritium

  2. BOption (b)

    Deuterium

  3. COption (c)

    Protium

  4. DOption (d)

    Helium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Helium

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Helium.

Key Points

  • Isotopes are variants of a particular chemical element which differ in neutron number, although all isotopes of a given element have the same number of protons in each atom.
  • Hydrogen is the only element whose isotopes have been given specific names. The three naturally occurring isotopes are Protium, Deuterium, and Tritium.
  • Protium is the most common isotope of hydrogen, accounting for more than 99.98% of the hydrogen found in nature. It consists of one proton and no neutrons in its nucleus.
  • Deuterium, also known as heavy hydrogen, contains one proton and one neutron. It is stable and occurs naturally in trace amounts.
  • Tritium is a radioactive isotope of hydrogen that contains one proton and two neutrons. It has a half-life of approximately 12.32 years.
  • Helium is a distinct chemical element with the atomic number 2. It has two protons in its nucleus, which makes it an entirely different element from hydrogen (which has only one proton). Hence, it is not an isotope of hydrogen.

Additional Information

  • Atomic Structure of Hydrogen:
  • The atomic number of hydrogen is 1, meaning every hydrogen atom has exactly one proton.
  • The mass number of Protium is 1, Deuterium is 2, and Tritium is 3.
  • Applications of Deuterium:
  • It is used in the form of Heavy Water (D2O) as a neutron moderator in nuclear reactors to slow down fast-moving neutrons.
  • It is also widely used in Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR) spectroscopy and as a tracer in chemical and biological research.
  • Characteristics of Tritium:
  • It undergoes beta decay to transform into Helium-3.
  • Because of its radioactive properties, it is used in self-powered lighting devices, such as exit signs and watch dials, and as a fuel in nuclear fusion experiments.
  • Nature of Helium:
  • Helium is a Noble Gas located in Group 18 of the periodic table.
  • It is the second most abundant element in the Universe after hydrogen.
  • Helium exists mostly as Helium-4 (two protons and two neutrons) and Helium-3 (two protons and one neutron).

Important Points

  • While Protium and Deuterium are stable isotopes, Tritium is unstable and radioactive.
  • In nuclear fusion, the combination of Deuterium and Tritium nuclei is the most efficient reaction used to produce energy in experimental reactors like ITER.
  • The chemical properties of isotopes are almost identical because they have the same number of electrons and protons; however, their physical properties (like density and boiling point) differ due to the difference in mass.
  • The term isotope was first suggested by Frederick Soddy in 1913, for which he later received the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1921.
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Question 556

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

What is the primary characteristic that defines organic compounds?

  1. AOption (a)

    They always contain oxygen atoms.

  2. BOption (b)

    They are formed only by living organisms.

  3. COption (c)

    They are compounds that conduct electricity in their molten state.

  4. DOption (d)

    They primarily consist of carbon and hydrogen atoms, forming covalent bonds.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

They primarily consist of carbon and hydrogen atoms, forming covalent bonds.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is They primarily consist of carbon and hydrogen atoms, forming covalent bonds.

Key Points

  • Organic compounds are defined as chemical substances that contain carbon atoms, usually bonded to hydrogen, and often other elements like oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur, and phosphorus.
  • The defining feature of these compounds is the presence of carbon-hydrogen (C-H) bonds and the formation of covalent bonds, where atoms share electron pairs. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
  • Contrary to statement 1, not all organic compounds contain oxygen; for example, hydrocarbons like methane (CH4) and ethane (C2H6) consist solely of carbon and hydrogen. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Historically, it was believed that organic compounds could only be produced by living organisms (the Vital Force Theory), but this was disproven in 1828 when Friedrich Wöhler synthesized urea from inorganic materials. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Organic compounds generally do not conduct electricity in their molten state because they are molecular in nature and lack free ions, unlike ionic compounds. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Tetravalency of Carbon: Carbon has an atomic number of 6 and 4 valence electrons, allowing it to form four covalent bonds with other atoms. This versatility allows for the creation of vast, complex molecular structures.
  • Catenation: This is the unique ability of carbon atoms to form long chains or rings by bonding with other carbon atoms. This property is the reason why millions of organic compounds exist in nature.
  • Hydrocarbons: These are the simplest organic compounds, categorized into alkanes (single bonds), alkenes (at least one double bond), and alkynes (at least one triple bond). They serve as the parent framework for more complex organic molecules.
  • Functional Groups: These are specific clusters of atoms within a molecule that determine its chemical reactivity. Common examples include the hydroxyl group (-OH) in alcohols, the carboxyl group (-COOH) in organic acids, and the amino group (-NH2) in amines.
  • Isomerism: Organic chemistry is characterized by isomers, which are compounds with the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements, leading to different physical and chemical properties.

Important Points

  • Bonding Nature: While inorganic compounds often involve ionic bonding (transfer of electrons), organic compounds are almost exclusively covalent. This results in lower melting and boiling points compared to many inorganic salts.
  • Combustibility: Most organic compounds are highly inflammable and react with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water.
  • Solubility: According to the "like dissolves like" rule, most organic compounds are insoluble in water (a polar solvent) but soluble in organic solvents like benzene, ether, or chloroform.
  • Applications: Organic compounds are the basis of all life on Earth (DNA, proteins, carbohydrates) and are used extensively in industries to produce plastics, medicines, fuels, and synthetic fibers.
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Question 557

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

The law of refraction is valid for which range of the angle of incidence?

  1. AOption (a)

    0° < i < 60°

  2. BOption (b)

    i > 90°

  3. COption (c)

    0° < i < 45°

  4. DOption (d)

    0° < i < 90°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

0° < i < 90°

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 0° < i < 90°.

Key Points

  • The law of refraction, also known as Snell's law, states that for a given pair of transparent media:

sin i / sin r = constant

  • Here, i is the angle of incidence and r is the angle of refraction. Both angles are measured with respect to the normal at the point of incidence.
  • An angle of incidence is geometrically defined between 0° and 90° for a ray incident on a surface.
  • Therefore, the law of refraction is applicable for:

0° < i < 90°

  • Hence, the correct answer is Option 4 – 0° < i < 90°.

Additional Information

  • Snell's Law:

n1 sin i = n2 sin r

  • At i = 0°, the ray is incident normally, so there is no deviation in direction.
  • An incidence angle greater than 90° is not physically meaningful because the angle is measured from the normal and the incident ray lies on the incident side of the surface.
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Question 558

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following reacts with bases to form salt and water?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sodium oxide

  2. BOption (b)

    Carbon dioxide

  3. COption (c)

    Hydrogen gas

  4. DOption (d)

    Calcium hydroxide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Carbon dioxide

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Carbon dioxide.

Key Points

  • Carbon dioxide (CO2) is a non-metallic oxide. Non-metallic oxides are generally acidic in nature because they react with water to form acids or react with bases to form salt and water. Hence, the statement regarding Carbon dioxide is correct.
  • When Carbon dioxide reacts with a base like Calcium hydroxide [Ca(OH)2], also known as limewater, it produces Calcium carbonate (CaCO3), which is a salt, and water (H2O).
  • Sodium oxide (Na2O) is a metallic oxide. Most metallic oxides are basic in nature and react with acids to form salt and water, but they do not typically react with bases in this manner. Hence, the statement regarding Sodium oxide is incorrect.
  • Hydrogen gas (H2) is a diatomic molecule. It does not possess acidic properties that would allow it to react with a base to produce salt and water under standard conditions. Hence, the statement regarding Hydrogen gas is incorrect.
  • Calcium hydroxide [Ca(OH)2] is a strong base. Bases do not react with other bases to undergo neutralization; instead, they react with acids or acidic oxides. Hence, the statement regarding Calcium hydroxide is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Nature of Oxides:
  • Acidic Oxides: These are oxides of non-metals such as Sulfur dioxide (SO2), Nitrogen dioxide (NO2), and Carbon dioxide (CO2). They have a pH value less than 7 when dissolved in water.
  • Basic Oxides: These are oxides of metals like Magnesium oxide (MgO) and Sodium oxide (Na2O). They react with acids to form salt and water and usually have a pH value greater than 7.
  • Amphoteric Oxides: These oxides show both acidic and basic characteristics. Examples include Aluminum oxide (Al2O3) and Zinc oxide (ZnO), which can react with both acids and bases.
  • Neutral Oxides: These oxides do not react with either acids or bases. Examples include Carbon monoxide (CO), Nitrous oxide (N2O), and Nitric oxide (NO).
  • Neutralization Reaction:
  • This is a chemical reaction in which an acid and a base react quantitatively with each other.
  • The general formula is: Acid + Base → Salt + Water.
  • Since non-metal oxides act as acids, the reaction Non-metal oxide + Base → Salt + Water is also considered a type of neutralization.

Important Points

  • Limewater Test: The reaction of CO2 with Calcium hydroxide is a standard laboratory test for the presence of Carbon dioxide. The formation of insoluble Calcium carbonate turns the clear solution milky.
  • Chemical Equations:
  • Reaction with Sodium hydroxide: CO2 + 2NaOH → Na2CO3 + H2O. Here, Sodium carbonate is the salt formed.
  • Reaction with Calcium hydroxide: CO2 + Ca(OH)2 → CaCO3 + H2O. Here, Calcium carbonate is the salt formed.
  • Periodicity: In the Periodic Table, the acidity of oxides increases from left to right across a period as the elements transition from metals to non-metals.
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Question 559

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

What happens after fertilisation in a flowering plant?

  1. AOption (a)

    The petals and stamens become the seed, and the ovary forms the embryo.

  2. BOption (b)

    The ovule becomes a fruit, and the ovary forms the seed.

  3. COption (c)

    The ovule becomes the seed, and the ovary becomes the fruit.

  4. DOption (d)

    The entire flower dries up and falls off without forming any new structures.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The ovule becomes the seed, and the ovary becomes the fruit.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The ovule becomes the seed, and the ovary becomes the fruit.

Key Points

  • In flowering plants (angiosperms), fertilisation is the process where the male gamete (pollen) fuses with the female gamete (egg) to form a zygote.
  • Once fertilisation is complete, the zygote divides multiple times to form an embryo within the ovule.
  • The ovule develops a tough protective coat and gradually transforms into a seed. The seed contains the embryo and stored food for the future plant. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Simultaneously, the ovary undergoes significant growth and ripening to transform into a fruit. The wall of the ovary becomes the pericarp or the fruit wall.
  • During this developmental phase, other floral parts such as the sepals, petals, stamens, style, and stigma generally wither and fall off.
  • While statement 1 suggests that petals and stamens become the seed and the ovary forms the embryo, it is biologically inaccurate as the embryo forms from the zygote inside the ovule. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Statement 2 incorrectly reverses the roles, stating the ovule becomes the fruit and the ovary forms the seed. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Statement 4 claims the entire flower falls off without forming new structures, ignoring the essential transition into reproductive units (fruits and seeds). Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Double Fertilisation:
  • This is a unique phenomenon in angiosperms discovered by S.G. Nawaschin in 1898.
  • It involves two fusions: Syngamy (fusion of egg and male gamete to form a diploid zygote) and Triple Fusion (fusion of the second male gamete with polar nuclei to form the Primary Endosperm Nucleus).
  • The Endosperm serves as a highly nutritive tissue that provides nourishment to the developing embryo.
  • Fruit Classification:
  • True Fruits: These develop solely from the mature ovary after fertilisation. Examples include mango and blueberry.
  • False Fruits: These develop from the ovary along with other floral parts like the thalamus or receptacle. Examples include apple, pear, and cashew.
  • Parthenocarpic Fruits: Fruits that develop without fertilisation and are typically seedless, such as banana.
  • Seed Structure and Germination:
  • The integuments (outer layers) of the ovule harden to form the seed coat (testa and tegmen).
  • A seed remains in a state of dormancy (inactivity) until it encounters favorable conditions like moisture, oxygen, and suitable temperature to undergo germination.

Important Points

  • Post-Fertilisation Summary:
  • Zygote → Embryo
  • Ovule → Seed
  • Ovary → Fruit
  • Ovary Wall → Pericarp
  • Integuments → Seed Coat
  • The formation of fruit and seed is an evolutionary advantage for plants, facilitating dispersal by wind, water, or animals and ensuring the protection of the next generation.
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Question 560

RRB Group D 2026• General Science• General Science

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Frequency of vibration determines the pitch of sound

  2. BOption (b)

    Vibrations create compressions and rarefactions in air

  3. COption (c)

    Amplitude of vibration affects loudness

  4. DOption (d)

    Sound can be produced by non-vibrating bodies

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Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sound can be produced by non-vibrating bodies

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sound can be produced by non-vibrating bodies.

Key Points

  • Sound is a form of energy that is produced whenever an object vibrates. Without vibration, there is no sound produced. Therefore, the statement that sound can be produced by non-vibrating bodies is false. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
  • The frequency of the vibration determines the pitch or shrillness of the sound. A high-frequency vibration results in a high-pitched sound (like a whistle), while a low-frequency vibration results in a low-pitched sound (like a drum). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • As a vibrating object moves forward and backward, it creates a series of compressions (high-pressure regions) and rarefactions (low-pressure regions) in the surrounding air or medium. These travel as longitudinal waves. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The amplitude of the vibration is the maximum displacement of the particles from their mean position. It directly affects the loudness of the sound; the larger the amplitude, the louder the sound produced. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Hence, the correct answer is Sound can be produced by non-vibrating bodies.

Additional Information

  • Loudness and Amplitude:
  • The loudness of sound is proportional to the square of the amplitude of the vibration. If the amplitude becomes twice, the loudness increases by a factor of four.
  • Loudness is expressed in a unit called decibel (dB). Normal breathing is about 10 dB, while a busy traffic noise is around 70 dB. Noise becomes physically painful above 80 dB.
  • Pitch and Frequency:
  • Frequency is defined as the number of oscillations or vibrations per second. Its SI unit is Hertz (Hz).
  • A higher frequency means the sound is shriller. For example, a bird produces a high-pitched sound, whereas a lion’s roar is low-pitched but very loud.
  • Propagation of Sound:
  • Sound requires a medium (solid, liquid, or gas) to travel. It cannot travel through a vacuum because there are no molecules to transmit the vibrations.
  • The speed of sound is highest in solids (like steel), followed by liquids (like water), and slowest in gases (like air).

Important Points

  • Audible Range: For the human ear, the range of audible frequencies is roughly between 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz. Frequencies below 20 Hz are called infrasonic, and those above 20,000 Hz are called ultrasonic.
  • Human Voice: In humans, sound is produced by the larynx (voice box). Two vocal cords are stretched across the larynx in such a way that it leaves a narrow slit for the passage of air. When the lungs force air through the slit, the vocal cords vibrate, producing sound.
  • Wave Nature: Sound waves are mechanical waves and specifically longitudinal in nature, where the particles of the medium move back and forth in the same direction as the wave propagation.

How should I prepare for General Science in RRB Group D?

Solving previous year questions by topic helps identify recurring concepts, question patterns, and frequently asked sub-topics. Attempt each question, review the step-by-step explanation, and note down key formulas or facts for quick revision before the exam.