Previous Year Paper

RRB Group D Previous Year Paper (Held on: 30 Aug 2022 Shift 2)

Held in 2022

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CBT (100 questions)

Question 1

Which of the following was the main drawback of the Doberiner's triads?

  1. AOption (a)

    The elements of a triad have some similarities in their properties.

  2. BOption (b)

    He arranged three element according to their increasing atomic mass.

  3. COption (c)

    He was unable to make more than three triads of the elements.

  4. DOption (d)

    He found some periodicity in the properties of triads.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

He was unable to make more than three triads of the elements.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is He was unable to make more than three triads of the elements.

Key Points

  • Johann Wolfgang Döbereiner was a German chemist who attempted to classify elements into groups of three, known as triads.
  • The main drawback of Döbereiner's triads was that he was unable to make more than three triads of the elements.
  • Döbereiner's triads were an early attempt to classify elements, which later paved the way for the development of the periodic table.
  • Although his model showed some periodicity in properties, it was limited by the small number of triads he could identify.

Additional Information

  • Döbereiner's work highlighted the need for a more comprehensive system of classification of elements.
  • His observations contributed to the development of the periodic law and the modern periodic table.
  • The periodic table as we know it today was developed by Dmitri Mendeleev, who arranged elements by increasing atomic mass and grouped them based on similar chemical properties.

Question 2

A book needs to be typed. When working alone, A types it in 15 days, B types it in 12 days, C types it in 20 days, and D types it in 8 days. If A and D work together as team SUN, B and C work as team MOON, and A and C work as team RED. Which team finishes typing the book in the least time?

  1. AOption (a)

    Team SUN

  2. BOption (b)

    All teams need equal time

  3. COption (c)

    Team RED

  4. DOption (d)

    Team MOON

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Team SUN

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Total Work = LCM(15, 12, 20, 8) = 120 units.

Efficiencies: A = 8, B = 10, C = 6, D = 15.

Team Efficiency: SUN (A+D) = 23, MOON (B+C) = 16, RED (A+C) = 14.

The team with the highest efficiency takes the least time.

∴ The correct answer is Team SUN.

Alternate Method

Given: A = 15 days, B = 12 days, C = 20 days, D = 8 days.

Formula: Time = Total Work ÷ Efficiency

PersonDaysTotal WorkEfficiency
A151208
B1210
C206
D815

⇒ Efficiency of Team SUN (A + D) = 8 + 15 = 23 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of Team MOON (B + C) = 10 + 6 = 16 units/day

⇒ Efficiency of Team RED (A + C) = 8 + 6 = 14 units/day

⇒ Time taken by SUN = 120 ÷ 23 ≈ 5.21 days

⇒ Time taken by MOON = 120 ÷ 16 = 7.5 days

⇒ Time taken by RED = 120 ÷ 14 ≈ 8.57 days

∴ The correct answer is Team SUN.

Additional Information

Inverse Proportion of Time and Efficiency

Time is inversely proportional to Efficiency (T ∝ 1/E). A higher combined efficiency always results in shorter project duration.

Total Work Concept

Total Work is usually taken as the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of the individual time periods to keep efficiency values as integers.

Question 3

When an acid is allowed to react with a base to form salt and water, this chemical reaction is named as:

  1. AOption (a)

    combination reaction

  2. BOption (b)

    redox reaction

  3. COption (c)

    acid-base reaction

  4. DOption (d)

    neutralisation reaction

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

neutralisation reaction

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is neutralisation reaction

Key Points

  • Neutralisation reaction is the chemical reaction where an acid reacts with a base to form salt and water.
  • In this reaction, the H+ ion from the acid combines with the OH- ion from the base to produce water (H2O).
  • The general form of the neutralisation reaction is: Acid + Base → Salt + Water.
  • This reaction is important in various industrial and laboratory processes, including titrations in chemistry.

Additional Information

  • Acids are substances that release H+ ions in solution, while bases release OH- ions.
  • Common examples of acids include hydrochloric acid (HCl) and sulfuric acid (H2SO4).
  • Common examples of bases include sodium hydroxide (NaOH) and potassium hydroxide (KOH).
  • The pH scale is used to measure the acidity or basicity of a solution, with 7 being neutral, below 7 being acidic, and above 7 being basic.

Question 4

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

7, 9, 15, 49, 191, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    966

  2. BOption (b)

    916

  3. COption (c)

    961

  4. DOption (d)

    911

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

961

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

So, the missing term of the series is '961'

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 5

In which of the following years was the Third Five Year Plan of India launched?

  1. AOption (a)

    1963

  2. BOption (b)

    1962

  3. COption (c)

    1964

  4. DOption (d)

    1961

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1961

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1961

Key Points

  • The Third Five Year Plan of India was launched in 1961.
  • The plan aimed at making India a self-reliant and self-generating economy.
  • It focused on agriculture and improving the production of wheat, with an emphasis on long-term development.
  • During this plan, India faced economic challenges due to conflicts with China in 1962 and Pakistan in 1965, which impacted its implementation.
  • The Third Five Year Plan also aimed to address issues related to poverty, unemployment, and improving living standards.

Additional Information

  • India's Five Year Plans were centralized and integrated national economic programs.
  • The concept was borrowed from the Soviet Union and aimed at planned economic development.
  • The First Five Year Plan was launched in 1951, focusing primarily on the agricultural sector.
  • The Second Five Year Plan (1956-1961) emphasized industrialization.
  • Due to the Indo-China war in 1962 and the Indo-Pakistan war in 1965, the Third Five Year Plan could not achieve all its targets and objectives.
  • After the Third Plan, there was a period of three annual plans before the Fourth Five Year Plan was implemented in 1969.

Question 6

Which Dravidian language was accorded the classical language status in 2004 by the Union Government?

  1. AOption (a)

    Telugu

  2. BOption (b)

    Tamil

  3. COption (c)

    Kannada

  4. DOption (d)

    Malayalam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Tamil

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tamil

Key Points

  • Tamil was accorded the classical language status in 2004 by the Union Government of India.
  • The status of a classical language is given to languages that have a rich heritage and independent nature.
  • Tamil is one of the oldest languages in the world, with a recorded history spanning over 2000 years.
  • This recognition highlights the cultural and historical significance of the Tamil language.
  • Tamil literature, with its ancient texts and poetry, is a testament to the language's classical status.

Additional Information

  • Kannada and Telugu were later accorded the classical language status in 2008.
  • Malayalam received the classical language status in 2013.
  • The criteria for declaring a language as classical include its antiquity, a body of ancient literature or texts, and its original literary tradition.
  • The classical language status is a recognition of the language's historical and cultural significance.

Question 7

Hardy shrubs and trees that thrive in salt water and have specialised adaptations so that they can survive the volatile energies of intertidal zones along marine coasts are characteristics of _________ forests.

  1. AOption (a)

    Mangrove

  2. BOption (b)

    Dry and Thorny

  3. COption (c)

    Dry Deciduous

  4. DOption (d)

    Tropical Evergreen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Mangrove

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mangrove

Key Points

  • Mangrove forests are unique ecosystems found in coastal intertidal zones.
  • These forests consist of hardy shrubs and trees that thrive in saltwater environments.
  • Mangroves have specialized adaptations, such as pneumatophores (breathing roots) and salt-filtering mechanisms, to survive the volatile energies of intertidal zones.
  • They play a crucial role in protecting coastlines from erosion and provide habitat for a diverse range of marine and terrestrial species.

Additional Information

  • Mangrove ecosystems are found in tropical and subtropical regions around the world.
  • They are highly productive and provide numerous ecosystem services, including carbon sequestration, water filtration, and serving as nurseries for fish and other aquatic organisms.
  • Conservation of mangrove forests is essential for maintaining biodiversity and supporting the livelihoods of local communities who depend on these ecosystems for resources.

Question 8

Olfactory receptors aid in _________ perception.

  1. AOption (a)

    taste

  2. BOption (b)

    Smell

  3. COption (c)

    touch

  4. DOption (d)

    sound

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Smell

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Smell

Key Points

  • Olfactory receptors are specialized cells responsible for detecting odors and are essential for the sense of smell.
  • These receptors are located in the olfactory epithelium in the nasal cavity.
  • When odor molecules bind to these receptors, they send signals to the brain, which interprets them as distinct smells.
  • The sense of smell plays a critical role in flavor perception, environmental awareness, and memory.

Additional Information

  • The olfactory system is one of the oldest sensory systems in evolutionary history.
  • Humans have approximately 400 types of olfactory receptors, enabling the detection of a wide range of odors.
  • Olfactory receptors are part of the chemosensory system, which also includes taste receptors.
  • Damage to the olfactory receptors or the olfactory nerve can lead to loss of smell (anosmia), which can affect the quality of life and safety.
  • Olfaction is closely linked to the limbic system, which is involved in emotion and memory, explaining why certain smells can trigger strong emotional responses and memories.

Question 9

In which of the following groups do all the hydrocarbons NOT belong to the same homologous series?

  1. AOption (a)

    CH4, C2H6, C3H6

  2. BOption (b)

    C3H6, C5H10, C7H14

  3. COption (c)

    C2H4, C3H6, C4H8

  4. DOption (d)

    C2H2, C3H4, C4H6

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

CH4, C2H6, C3H6

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is CH4, C2H6, C3H6

Key Points

  • Option 1: CH₄, C₂H₆, C₃H₆ - Methane (CH₄) and Ethane (C₂H₆) belong to the alkane series (CnH₂n+₂), while Propene (C₃H₆) belongs to the alkene series (CnH₂n).
  • Option 2: C₃H₆, C₅H₁₀, C₇H₁₄ - All these hydrocarbons belong to the alkene series (CnH₂n).
  • Option 3: C₂H₄, C3H₆, C₄H₈ - All three follow the general formula for alkenes (CnH2n).
  • Option 4: C₂H₂, C₃H₄, C₄H₆ - All these hydrocarbons belong to the alkyne series (CnH2n-2).

Additional Information

  • A homologous series is a group of organic compounds with a similar general formula, possessing similar chemical properties due to the presence of the same functional group.
  • Alkanes have the general formula CnH₂n+₂, alkenes have CnH₂n, and alkynes have CnH₂n-₂.
  • Understanding the homologous series helps in predicting the properties and reactions of organic compounds.

Question 10

Name the entity that has launched the 'Waste to Wealth Creation' programme tor women in the Sundarbans in the west Bengal?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ministry of Women and Child Development

  2. BOption (b)

    Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME)

  3. COption (c)

    Ministry of health and family welfare

  4. DOption (d)

    Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)

Key Points

  • The Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) has launched the 'Waste to Wealth Creation' programme for women in the Sundarbans in West Bengal.
  • This initiative aims to empower women by providing them with opportunities to create sustainable income through waste management and recycling activities.
  • Sundarbans, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is known for its unique biodiversity and the programme seeks to address environmental concerns while promoting economic development.
  • The programme is expected to enhance the livelihoods of women by involving them in the production of eco-friendly products from waste materials.

Additional Information

  • SIDBI was established in 1990 and is headquartered in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh.
  • It serves as the principal financial institution for the promotion, financing, and development of the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprise (MSME) sector in India.
  • The bank provides various financial and non-financial services to support the growth and development of MSMEs across the country.
  • SIDBI also plays a crucial role in implementing government schemes aimed at fostering entrepreneurship and innovation in the MSME sector.

Question 11

Find the volume of a cylinder whose radius of base is 5 cm and height is 7 cm.

  1. AOption (a)

    517 π cm3

  2. BOption (b)

    175 π cm3

  3. COption (c)

    715 π cm3

  4. DOption (d)

    157 π cm3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

175 π cm3

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Volume of Cylinder = πr2h

Given radius (r) = 5 cm and height (h) = 7 cm

Volume = π × 52 × 7 = π × 25 × 7 = 175π cm3

∴ The correct answer is 175π cm3.

Alternate Method

Given:

Radius (r) of the cylinder = 5 cm

Height (h) of the cylinder = 7 cm

Formula Used:

Volume (V) = π × r2 × h

Calculations:

⇒ Volume = π × (5)2 × 7

⇒ Volume = π × 25 × 7

⇒ Volume = 175π cm3

∴ The correct answer is 175π cm3.

Additional Information

Curved Surface Area (CSA)

The area of the curved surface of a cylinder is given by 2πrh.

Total Surface Area (TSA)

The total surface area includes the curved surface and the two circular bases: 2πr(h + r).

Base Area

The area of the circular base is πr2.

Question 12

A pair of parallel lines is intersected by a transversal such that ∠1 and ∠2 form a pair of alternate interior angles. If m ∠1 = 35°, what is the measure of ∠2 ?

  1. AOption (a)

    145°

  2. BOption (b)

    55°

  3. COption (c)

    65°

  4. DOption (d)

    35°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

35°

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

When two parallel lines are intersected by a transversal, the alternate interior angles are always equal.

⇒ m∠2 = m∠1

⇒ m∠2 = 35°

∴ The correct answer is 35°.

Alternate Method

Given:

Measure of ∠1 = 35°

∠1 and ∠2 are alternate interior angles formed by a transversal intersecting parallel lines.

Property Used:

If two parallel lines are cut by a transversal, then each pair of alternate interior angles is equal in measure.

Calculations:

⇒ m∠1 = 35°

⇒ m∠2 = m∠1 (Since alternate interior angles are equal for parallel lines)

⇒ m∠2 = 35°

∴ The correct answer is 35°.

Additional Information

Corresponding Angles

Angles in the same relative position at each intersection where a straight line crosses two others. If the lines are parallel, these angles are equal.

Consecutive Interior Angles

The pairs of angles on one side of the transversal and between the two parallel lines. These angles are supplementary (sum = 180°).

Question 13

Two coils, A and B, such that A is connected to a battery through a key and B is connected to a galvanometer, are arranged parallel and close to each other. During which of the following duration will the phenomenon of electromagnetic induction be observed?

(a) During the time the key is closed.

(b) Two minutes after the key is closed.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only (b)

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither (a) nor (b)

  3. COption (c)

    Both (a) and (b)

  4. DOption (d)

    Only (a)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Only (a)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only (a)

Key Points

  • Only (a) is correct because electromagnetic induction occurs when there is a change in the magnetic flux linked with the coil.
  • During the time the key is closed, the current in coil A changes from zero to a certain value, causing a change in magnetic flux, which induces a current in coil B.
  • Two minutes after the key is closed, the current in coil A becomes steady, and there is no change in the magnetic flux linked with coil B, hence no electromagnetic induction occurs.

Additional Information

  • Electromagnetic induction is governed by Faraday's law, which states that the induced electromotive force (EMF) in any closed circuit is equal to the negative of the time rate of change of the magnetic flux through the circuit.
  • Lenz's Law further states that the direction of the induced current will be such that it opposes the change in magnetic flux that produced it.
  • This principle is widely used in various applications such as transformers, electric generators, and induction cooktops.

Question 14

Each vowel in the word PACKED is changed to the letter following it in the English alphabetical order and each consonant is changed to the letter preceding it in the English alphabetical order. Which of the following letters will appear twice in the group of letters thus formed?

  1. AOption (a)

    F

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    J

  4. DOption (d)

    C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

B

Why this answer is correct

Given word: PACKED

According to the question:

  1. Each vowel is changed to the letter following it in the English alphabetical order.

  2. Each consonant is changed to the letter preceding it in the English alphabetical order. 

WordPACKED
Vowel → (+1) Consonant → (-1)-1+1-1-1+1-1
Word after arrangementOBBJFC

Word formed after arrangement → OBBJFC

Thus, B appeared twice in the group of letters thus formed.

Hence, "Option 2" is the correct answer.

Question 15

Which of the following options is the closest approximate value which will come in place of question mark (?) in the following equation?

17.89 - 0.0123 + 2.21 × 3.63 = ?

  1. AOption (a)

    42

  2. BOption (b)

    15

  3. COption (c)

    26

  4. DOption (d)

    36

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

26

Why this answer is correct

Given:

17.89 - 0.0123 + 2.21 × 3.63 = ?

Formula used:

Basic arithmetic operations

Calculation:

17.89 - 0.0123 + 2.21 × 3.63 = ?

⇒ 2.21 × 3.63 = 8.0223

⇒ 17.89 - 0.0123 + 8.0223

⇒ 17.8777 + 8.0223

⇒ 26

∴ The correct answer is option 3 (26).

Question 16

Which of the following numbers will replace the question mark (?) in the given series?

7, 7, 10, 50, 57, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    345

  2. BOption (b)

    225

  3. COption (c)

    513

  4. DOption (d)

    114

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

513

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

So, the missing term of the series is '513'

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 17

Find the value of 7834 + 213 ÷ 3 - 51.

  1. AOption (a)

    7834

  2. BOption (b)

    7854

  3. COption (c)

    7885

  4. DOption (d)

    7884

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

7854

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Find the value of 7834 + 213 ÷ 3 - 51.

Formula used:

Use the order of operations (BODMAS/BIDMAS):

Brackets, Orders (i.e., powers and square roots, etc.), Division and Multiplication (left-to-right), Addition and Subtraction (left-to-right)

Calculation:

7834 + 213 ÷ 3 - 51

⇒ 7834 + 71 - 51

⇒ 7905 - 51

⇒ 7854

∴ The correct answer is option (2).

Question 18

Six persons, A, B, C, D, E and F have birthdays in different months of the same year viz. February, April, June, August, September and December but not necessarily in the same order.

Only one person has a birthday between B and A, in the same order. Only two people have birthdays between C and E, in the same order. F has a birthday in a month immediately before September. D has a birthday in December. Who among them has a birthday in February?

  1. AOption (a)

    B

  2. BOption (b)

    C

  3. COption (c)

    E

  4. DOption (d)

    F

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

B

Why this answer is correct

Given:  Six persons, A, B, C, D, E and F have birthdays in different months of the same year viz. February, April, June, August, September and December 

  1. F has a birthday in a month immediately before September.

  2. D has a birthday in December. 

MonthPersons
February (28/29)
April (30)
June (30)
August (31)F
September (30)
December (31)D
  1. Only one person has a birthday between B and A, in the same order.

  2. Only two people have birthdays between C and E, in the same order.

MonthPersons
February (28/29)B
April (30)C
June (30)A
August (31)F
September (30)E
December (31)D

 

So, B has his birthday in February

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1"

Question 19

In a code language, 'we prefer green' is Written as 'yo ha ni, 'green peas grow' Is Written as 'ki mi yo', and 'we grow herbs' is written as 'zu ha mi'. What is the code for the word prefer in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    ha

  2. BOption (b)

    ni

  3. COption (c)

    mi

  4. DOption (d)

    yo

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

ni

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

 'we prefer green' is coded as 'yo ha ni,

'green peas grow' Is coded as 'ki mi yo',

 'we grow herbs' is coded as 'zu ha mi'

Here, code for 'we' is 'ha'

code for 'green' is 'yo'

code for 'prefer' is 'ni'

code for 'grow' is 'mi'

code for 'peas' is 'ki'

code for 'herbs' is 'zu'

hence the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 20

Identify the FALSE statement.

  1. AOption (a)

    Transpiration is the mechanism by which a plant eliminates surplus water.

  2. BOption (b)

    Photosynthesis produces oxygen as a by-product.

  3. COption (c)

    Numerous waste products from plants are stored in centrioles.

  4. DOption (d)

    Gum is an excretory product of plants.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Numerous waste products from plants are stored in centrioles.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Numerous waste products from plants are stored in centrioles.

Key Points

  • Numerous waste products from plants are stored in centrioles is a false statement.
  • Centrioles are organelles involved in cell division and are not associated with storing waste products in plants.
  • Waste products in plants are typically stored in vacuoles, resins, gums, or excreted through processes like transpiration.
  • Transpiration is the mechanism by which a plant eliminates surplus water.
  • Photosynthesis produces oxygen as a by-product.
  • Gum is an excretory product of plants.

Additional Information

  • Centrioles are cylindrical structures found in animal cells and some lower plant forms, playing a key role in cell division.
  • In higher plants, cell division occurs without centrioles.
  • Plant cells typically store waste products in the central vacuole or secrete them into the surrounding environment.

Question 21

The Value of 0.5×10.6−0.2×1.40.4\frac{0.5\times 10.6-0.2\times 1.4}{0.4}

  1. AOption (a)

    125.5

  2. BOption (b)

    12.55

  3. COption (c)

    1.255

  4. DOption (d)

    12.25

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

12.55

Why this answer is correct

Given:

(0.5×10.6−0.2×1.4)0.4\dfrac{(0.5 \times 10.6 - 0.2 \times 1.4)}{0.4}

Formula used:

a×b−c×de\dfrac{a \times b - c \times d}{e}

Calculation:

(0.5×10.6−0.2×1.4)0.4\dfrac{(0.5 \times 10.6 - 0.2 \times 1.4)}{0.4}

⇒ (5.3−0.28)0.4\dfrac{(5.3 - 0.28)}{0.4}

⇒ 5.020.4\dfrac{5.02}{0.4}

⇒ 12.55

∴ The correct answer is option 2.

Question 22

Which of the following terms will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete?

TGB 6, VED 18, XCF 30, ZAH 42, BYJ 54, ?

  1. AOption (a)

    YLB 60

  2. BOption (b)

    DWL 66

  3. COption (c)

    YBL 66

  4. DOption (d)

    DAL 60

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

DWL 66

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

So, the missing term of the series is "DWL 66".

Hence the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 23

Which of the following is Hinduism's major philosophical school ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vaisheshika

  2. BOption (b)

    Artha

  3. COption (c)

    Sanyasa

  4. DOption (d)

    Moksha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Vaisheshika

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vaisheshika

Key Points

  • Vaisheshika is one of the six orthodox schools of Hindu philosophy (Astika).
  • It was founded by the sage Kanada and is known for its naturalism.
  • The Vaisheshika system postulates an atomic pluralism and is closely related to the Nyaya school of philosophy.
  • It identifies six categories of existence: substance, quality, activity, generality, particularity, and inherence.
  • Vaisheshika emphasizes the analysis of the physical world and metaphysics through logic and reason.

Additional Information

  • The other main schools of Hindu philosophy include Nyaya, Samkhya, Yoga, Mimamsa, and Vedanta.
  • Hindu philosophy is diverse and has a rich history of debate and dialogue between different schools of thought.
  • Philosophical teachings in Hinduism cover various aspects such as metaphysics, epistemology, ethics, and logic.
  • Each school of Hindu philosophy offers unique perspectives and methods for understanding the nature of reality and the self.

Question 24

The average age of 35 students of a class is 15 years. When the teacher's age is also included, then the average age increases by one year. Find the age of the teacher.

  1. AOption (a)

    41 years

  2. BOption (b)

    51 years

  3. COption (c)

    35 years

  4. DOption (d)

    45 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

51 years

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Teacher's Age = New Average + (Initial Count × Change in Average)

New Average = 15 + 1 = 16 years

Initial Count of students = 35

Teacher's Age = 16 + (35 × 1) = 51 years

∴ The correct answer is 51 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Number of students = 35

Average age of students = 15 years

Total count including teacher = 35 + 1 = 36

New average age = 15 + 1 = 16 years

Formula Used:

Sum of ages = Average × Number of persons

Calculations:

⇒ Total age of 35 students = 35 × 15 = 525 years

⇒ Total age including teacher = 36 × 16 = 576 years

⇒ Age of teacher = Total age with teacher − Total age of students

⇒ Age of teacher = 576 − 525 = 51 years

∴ The correct answer is 51 years.

Additional Information

Inclusion Rule in Average

When a new person joins and the average increases, the new person's age = New Average + (Old Count × Increase in Average).

Exclusion Rule in Average

When a person leaves and the average increases, the age of the person who left = Old Average − (New Count × Increase in Average).

Replacement Rule

New person age = Age of replaced person + (Total persons × Increase in Average).

Question 25

In animals such as snails, individuals can change their sex. What does this signify?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sex may be determined by any of the environmental factor.

  2. BOption (b)

    Sex is determined by genes.

  3. COption (c)

    Sex is not genetically determined.

  4. DOption (d)

    Sex is determined by temperature.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sex is not genetically determined.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sex is not genetically determined

Key Points

  • In some animals, such as snails, individuals have the ability to change their sex.
  • This phenomenon suggests that sex is not genetically determined in these species.
  • Instead, sex determination in these animals can be influenced by various factors, including environmental conditions.
  • This flexibility in sex determination allows these animals to adapt to their surroundings and optimize their reproductive success.

Additional Information

  • In contrast, in many other species, sex is determined genetically, typically by specific chromosomes (e.g., XX for females and XY for males in mammals).
  • The ability to change sex can be advantageous in certain environments, particularly where the population sex ratio is skewed or where there are changes in social structure.
  • Examples of other animals that can change sex include some species of fish and reptiles.

Question 26

The power of a lens is -5 D. Its focal length is:

  1. AOption (a)

    20 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    -50 cm

  3. COption (c)

    50 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    -20 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

-20 cm

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is -20 cm

Key Points

  • Focal length (f) is the distance over which parallel rays of light either converge or diverge.
  • The formula to find the focal length in meters when the power (P) of the lens is given in diopters (D) is:

f = 1 / P

  • Given the power of the lens P = -5 D, the focal length can be calculated as:

f = 1 / -5 = -0.2 meters

  • To convert meters to centimeters, multiply by 100:

f = -0.2 * 100 = -20 cm

  • Therefore, the focal length of the lens is -20 cm.

Additional Information

  • Lens power is measured in diopters (D), which is the reciprocal of the focal length in meters.
  • A positive focal length indicates a converging lens, while a negative focal length indicates a diverging lens.
  • Diopters are commonly used in optometry and ophthalmology to prescribe corrective lenses for vision correction.

Question 27

There are two sections, A and B, of a class, consisting of 40 and 50 students, respectively. If the average weight of students in section A is 36 kg and that of those in section B is 45 kg. then the average weight of the whole class is:

  1. AOption (a)

    42 kg

  2. BOption (b)

    41 kg

  3. COption (c)

    43 kg

  4. DOption (d)

    39 kg

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

41 kg

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of students in Section A and Section B = 40 : 50 = 4 : 5.

Using weighted average logic with ratio parts:

Combined Average = [(4 × 36) + (5 × 45)] ÷ (4 + 5)

Combined Average = (144 + 225) ÷ 9 = 369 ÷ 9 = 41 kg.

∴ The correct answer is 41 kg.

Alternate Method

Given:

Students in Section A (n1) = 40, Average weight (w1) = 36 kg

Students in Section B (n2) = 50, Average weight (w2) = 45 kg

Formula Used: Combined Average = (Total Weight) ÷ (Total Students)

⇒ Total weight of Section A = 40 × 36 = 1440 kg

⇒ Total weight of Section B = 50 × 45 = 2250 kg

⇒ Total weight of the whole class = 1440 + 2250 = 3690 kg

⇒ Total number of students in the class = 40 + 50 = 90

⇒ Average weight of the whole class = 3690 ÷ 90

⇒ Average weight = 41 kg

∴ The correct answer is 41 kg.

Additional Information

Weighted Average Concept

When groups have different sizes, the combined mean is the weighted average: Xavg = (n1x1 + n2x2) ÷ (n1 + n2).

Deviation Method

Assume a provisional average (e.g., 36) and calculate the net deviation divided by total students to find the adjustment to the assumed average.

Property of Averages

The combined average of two groups must always lie between the smallest and largest individual averages (36 kg < 41 kg < 45 kg).

Question 28

The compound interest paid when a sum of ₹20,000 is invested for 1 year 4 months at 712\frac{1}{2}% compound interest per annum, compounded annually, is:

  1. AOption (a)

    ₹2,037.50

  2. BOption (b)

    ₹2,210.40

  3. COption (c)

    ₹2,171.25

  4. DOption (d)

    ₹2,185.75

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

₹2,037.50

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Rate for 1st year = 7.5%. For remaining 4 months, rate = 7.5% × (4/12) = 2.5%.

Net percentage rate for CI = a + b + (ab/100) ⇒ 7.5 + 2.5 + (7.5 × 2.5 / 100).

Net CI % = 10 + 0.1875 = 10.1875%.

CI = 10.1875% of ₹20,000 = 20,000 × (10.1875/100) = 200 × 10.1875 = ₹2,037.50.

∴ The correct answer is ₹2,037.50.

Alternate Method

Given: Principal (P) = ₹20,000, Time (T) = 1 year 4 months, Rate (R) = 7.5% per annum.

Formula Used: Amount (A) = P(1 + R/100)n[1 + (R × t/12)/100], where n is complete years and t is remaining months.

⇒ Interest for 1st year = 20,000 × 7.5 / 100 = ₹1,500.

⇒ Principal for the next 4 months = ₹20,000 + ₹1,500 = ₹21,500.

⇒ Interest for the next 4 months = 21,500 × (7.5 × 4/12) / 100 = 21,500 × 2.5 / 100.

⇒ Interest for the next 4 months = 215 × 2.5 = ₹537.50.

⇒ Total Compound Interest = 1,500 + 537.50 = ₹2,037.50.

∴ The correct answer is ₹2,037.50.

Additional Information

Compound Interest for Fractional Time

When time is given in parts like T = n (a/b) years, Amount = P(1 + R/100)n × [1 + (R × a/b)/100].

Effective Rate of Interest

For two successive rates r1 and r2, the net effective rate is r1 + r2 + (r1r2/100)%.

SI vs CI for First Year

For the first year (or first compounding period), Simple Interest and Compound Interest are always equal on the same principal and rate.

Question 29

In November 2021, which of the following programmes or schemes launched India's first virtual science lab for children, connecting students with scientists across the country?

  1. AOption (a)

    CSIR Jigyasa

  2. BOption (b)

    Youth Undertaking Visit for Acquiring Knowledge (YUVAK)

  3. COption (c)

    National Education Alliance for Technology

  4. DOption (d)

    Kushal Bharat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

CSIR Jigyasa

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is CSIR Jigyasa

Key Points

  • CSIR Jigyasa is the program that launched India's first virtual science lab for children in November 2021.
  • The initiative aims to connect students with scientists across the country.
  • It is a significant step in promoting scientific curiosity and knowledge among young students.
  • This virtual lab platform provides an opportunity for students to engage in scientific experiments and activities remotely.

Additional Information

  • The CSIR Jigyasa program is an initiative by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) in collaboration with Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan (KVS).
  • It aims to extend classroom learning with well-planned research laboratory-based learning.
  • The program is designed to inculcate scientific temper among school students and to ignite inquiring minds.
  • It also seeks to promote science and technology by providing a platform for students to interact with scientists and gain hands-on experience in scientific research.

Question 30

If the ratio of two interior angles on the same side of a transversal line intersecting the two parallel lines is 3 ∶ 7, then what is the positive difference between the measures of these two interior angles?

  1. AOption (a)

    54°

  2. BOption (b)

    72°

  3. COption (c)

    80°

  4. DOption (d)

    64°

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

72°

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of interior angles = 3 : 7 ⇒ Sum = 10 units.

Sum of consecutive interior angles = 180°.

10 units = 180° ⇒ 1 unit = 18°.

Difference between angles = 7 − 3 = 4 units.

Positive difference = 4 × 18° = 72°.

∴ The correct answer is 72°.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of two interior angles on the same side of a transversal = 3 : 7.

The lines are parallel.

Formula Used:

When two parallel lines are intersected by a transversal, the interior angles on the same side are supplementary (their sum is 180°).

Calculations:

⇒ Let the measures of the two interior angles be 3x and 7x.

⇒ 3x + 7x = 180°

⇒ 10x = 180°

⇒ x = 18°

⇒ First angle = 3 × 18° = 54°

⇒ Second angle = 7 × 18° = 126°

⇒ Positive difference = 126° − 54° = 72°

∴ The correct answer is 72°.

Additional Information

Consecutive Interior Angles

Question 31

A number when divided by a divisor leaves a remainder 16. When twice the original number is divided by the same divisor the remainder is 3. Find the value of the divisor.

  1. AOption (a)

    51

  2. BOption (b)

    53

  3. COption (c)

    29

  4. DOption (d)

    23

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

29

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

In cases where a number is multiplied, the remainder follows the same operation.

New Remainder = (n × Original Remainder) − Divisor

Divisor = (2 × 16) − 3

Divisor = 32 − 3 = 29

∴ The correct answer is 29.

Alternate Method

Given: First remainder (R1) = 16. Second remainder (R2) = 3. Multiplier (n) = 2.

Formula: N = Dq + R

⇒ Let the number be N and divisor be D.

⇒ N = Dq + 16

⇒ 2N = 2(Dq + 16) = 2Dq + 32

⇒ Since 2N divided by D leaves remainder 3, then 32 divided by D must leave remainder 3.

⇒ 32 − 3 = 29 must be exactly divisible by D.

⇒ Since the original remainder was 16, D must be greater than 16.

⇒ D = 29.

∴ The correct answer is 29.

Additional Information

Remainder Theorem Property

If a number N leaves remainder R when divided by D, then kN leaves the same remainder as kR divided by D.

Divisor Constraint

The divisor must always be greater than the remainder. In this problem, D > 16.

Sum of Remainders Rule

If N1 and N2 leave R1 and R2, then (N1+N2) leaves the same remainder as (R1+R2) divided by D.

Question 32

Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.

(NOTE : operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E. g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down into and 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed)

(14, 25, 19)

(12, 16, 16)

  1. AOption (a)

    (24, 30, 30)

  2. BOption (b)

    (17, 25, 21)

  3. COption (c)

    (18, 16, 14)

  4. DOption (d)

    (19, 20, 24)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(18, 16, 14)

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (3rd number - 1st number)2 = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 14, 25, 19

⇒ (19 - 14)2 = 25

For, 12, 16, 16

⇒ (16 - 12)2 = 16

Similarly, 18, 16, 14

⇒ (14 - 18)2 = (-4)2 = 16

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 33

If 49 ∶ x ∶∶ x ∶ 81, and 64 ∶ y ∶ y ∶ 169, where x and y are both natural numbers, then find the value of 2x + 3y.

  1. AOption (a)

    438

  2. BOption (b)

    312

  3. COption (c)

    348

  4. DOption (d)

    126

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

438

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

For mean proportion x between a and b, x = √(a × b).

x = √(49 × 81) = 7 × 9 = 63.

y = √(64 × 169) = 8 × 13 = 104.

Value = 2(63) + 3(104) = 126 + 312 = 438.

∴ The correct answer is 438.

Alternate Method

Given:

49 ÷ x = x ÷ 81

64 ÷ y = y ÷ 169

Formula Used:

If a, b, c are in continued proportion, then b2 = ac.

Calculations:

⇒ x2 = 49 × 81

⇒ x = √(49 × 81) = 7 × 9 = 63

⇒ y2 = 64 × 169

⇒ y = √(64 × 169) = 8 × 13 = 104

⇒ Required Value = 2x + 3y

⇒ 2(63) + 3(104)

⇒ 126 + 312 = 438

∴ The correct answer is 438.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and b is √(ab).

Third Proportional

If a, b, and c are in continued proportion, then c is the third proportional where c = b2/a.

Fourth Proportional

If a : b :: c : d, then d is the fourth proportional given by d = (b × c) / a.

Question 34

In most of the vertebrate groups, there is double circulation of blood. However, one of the groups is an exception. Identify the group from the options below.

  1. AOption (a)

    Reptiles

  2. BOption (b)

    Amphibians

  3. COption (c)

    Pisces

  4. DOption (d)

    Aves

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Pisces

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

ReptilesDouble circulation
AmphibiansDouble circulation
PiscesSingle circulation
AvesDouble circulation

 

Reptiles, Amphibians, Aves all have double circulation,

Whereas,

Pisces have single circulation.

Hence, the correct answer is "Pisces".

Question 35

T, U, V, W, X, Y, Z and A were eight family members sitting around a square table, facing the centre. Some of them were sitting at the corners, while some were sitting at the exact centre of the sides. Only one person was sitting between W and X. V was sitting fourth to the left of U. Only A was sitting between Z and X. Y was not sitting at any of the corner positions. X was sitting at one of the corners. V was sitting to the immediate let of Z. Which of the following family members was at one of the corner positions of the table

  1. AOption (a)

    V

  2. BOption (b)

    A

  3. COption (c)

    U

  4. DOption (d)

    T

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

T

Why this answer is correct

Given: T, U, V, W, X, Y, Z and A were eight family members sitting around a square table, facing the centre.

  1. Only one person was sitting between W and X.

  2. V was sitting fourth to the left of U.

  3. Only A was sitting between Z and X.

  4. Y was not sitting at any of the corner positions.

  5. X was sitting at one of the corners.

  6. V was sitting to the immediate let of Z

So, 'T' was sitting at the corner position of the table.

Hence the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 36

The sum of two numbers is 27. Five times one number is equal to 4 times the other. The smaller of the two numbers is:

  1. AOption (a)

    13

  2. BOption (b)

    12

  3. COption (c)

    15

  4. DOption (d)

    11

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

12

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick Convert the equation 5 × Number1 = 4 × Number2 into a ratio. The ratio of the numbers is Number1 : Number2 = 4 : 5. Total ratio units = 4 + 5 = 9 units. Given total sum = 27, so 9 units = 27 ⇒ 1 unit = 3. Smaller number = 4 units × 3 = 12. ∴ The correct answer is 12.

Alternate Method Given: Sum of two numbers = 27. Relation: 5 × (One number) = 4 × (Other number).

Let the two numbers be x and y. ⇒ x + y = 27 --- (Equation 1) ⇒ 5x = 4y ⇒ x = 4y / 5 --- (Equation 2) Substitute Equation 2 into Equation 1: ⇒ 4y / 5 + y = 27 ⇒ (4y + 5y) / 5 = 27 ⇒ 9y / 5 = 27 ⇒ y = (27 × 5) / 9 ⇒ y = 3 × 5 = 15 Now, find x: ⇒ x = 27 − 15 = 12 Comparing 12 and 15, the smaller number is 12. ∴ The correct answer is 12.

Additional Information Ratio Conversion Rule When ax = by, the ratio of the variables is always the inverse of their coefficients: x : y = b : a. Unitary Method in Ratios To find individual values when the sum is known, divide the total sum by the sum of ratio parts to find the value of one unit. Comparing Numbers In a ratio a : b, if a < b, then the term corresponding to a is the smaller number.

Question 37

The figure below shows the path of a ray of light through a triangular glass prism. The angle of incidence and angle of deviation in the respective order are given by:

  1. AOption (a)

    ∠NBC and ∠MCD

  2. BOption (b)

    ∠ABN and ∠OBC

  3. COption (c)

    ∠ABN and ∠EOD

  4. DOption (d)

    ∠ABC and ∠EOD

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

∠ABN and ∠EOD

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ∠ABN and ∠EOD

Key Points

  • The angle of incidence and angle of deviation in the path of a ray of light through a triangular glass prism are ∠ABN and ∠EOD respectively.
  • In the given options, Option 3 correctly identifies these angles.
  • The angle of incidence is where the ray enters the prism, and the angle of deviation is the angle between the incident ray and the emergent ray.

Additional Information

  • When light enters a prism, it bends towards the normal due to refraction.
  • Upon exiting the prism, the light bends away from the normal, causing a deviation from its original path.
  • The amount of deviation depends on the angle of incidence, the angle of the prism, and the refractive index of the material of the prism.

Question 38

In March 2022, National Informatics Centre (NIC) organised Tech Conclave 2022 specially focused on emerging technologies applied in e-Governance. What is the theme of that event?

  1. AOption (a)

    Technologies for Next-Gen Governance

  2. BOption (b)

    Technologies for Upskilling government

  3. COption (c)

    Next-Gen Skill Technologies for Digitisation of Government

  4. DOption (d)

    Next-Gen Technologies for Digital Government

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Next-Gen Technologies for Digital Government

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Next-Gen Technologies for Digital Government

Key Points

  • The theme of Tech Conclave 2022, organised by the National Informatics Centre (NIC) in March 2022, was Next-Gen Technologies for Digital Government.
  • The conclave focused on the application of emerging technologies in e-Governance.
  • The event aimed to showcase the advancements and potential of next-generation technologies to enhance digital governance.
  • Topics discussed included artificial intelligence, machine learning, blockchain, and other cutting-edge technologies relevant to the digital transformation of government services.
  • The conclave served as a platform for experts, policymakers, and stakeholders to share insights and experiences on leveraging technology for efficient governance.

Additional Information

  • The National Informatics Centre (NIC) is a premier technology advisor and ICT solution provider to the Government of India.
  • NIC plays a crucial role in implementing and managing e-Governance initiatives across various government departments and agencies.
  • Tech Conclave 2022 provided a platform to demonstrate NIC's ongoing efforts and future plans to integrate emerging technologies into government operations.
  • The conclave also aimed to foster collaboration between the government and technology industry leaders to drive digital transformation.

Question 39

What is the main significance of sustainable development?

  1. AOption (a)

    Resources are unlimited and can be used greedily for our own needs

  2. BOption (b)

    Preserve the natural resources for the needs of the future generation

  3. COption (c)

    Increases the cost of available natural resources

  4. DOption (d)

    Indiscriminately exploits the available resources for rapid development

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Preserve the natural resources for the needs of the future generation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Preserve the natural resources for the needs of the future generation

Key Points

  • Sustainable development aims to balance the fulfillment of human needs with the protection of the natural environment.
  • It ensures that natural resources are available for future generations by promoting responsible and efficient use.
  • The concept emphasizes the importance of intergenerational equity, which means that the current generation should meet its needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet theirs.
  • Sustainable development also involves the integration of economic, social, and environmental policies to create a more stable and equitable society.

Additional Information

  • The concept of sustainable development was popularized by the Brundtland Report in 1987, which defined it as "development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs."
  • Sustainable development is a key principle in international environmental agreements and policies, including the United Nations' Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
  • There are 17 SDGs that address global challenges such as poverty, inequality, climate change, environmental degradation, and peace and justice, with the aim of achieving a better and more sustainable future for all by 2030.
  • Businesses, governments, and individuals all have roles to play in promoting sustainable development through practices such as reducing waste, conserving energy, and supporting sustainable products and services.

Question 40

If x + 1x\frac{1}{x} = 42, then what is the value of x3 + 1x3\frac{1}{x^3} ?

  1. AOption (a)

    73,962

  2. BOption (b)

    72,629

  3. COption (c)

    74,130

  4. DOption (d)

    74,926

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

73,962

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

If x + 1/x = k, then x3 + 1/x3 = k3 − 3k.

Here, the value of k = 42.

Substituting the value: 423 − 3 × 42

74088 − 126 = 73962.

∴ The correct answer is 73962.

Alternate Method

Given: x + 1/x = 42

Formula Used: (a + b)3 = a3 + b3 + 3ab(a + b)

⇒ Cube both sides of the equation x + 1/x = 42:

⇒ (x + 1/x)3 = (42)3

⇒ x3 + (1/x)3 + 3 × x × (1/x) × (x + 1/x) = 74088

⇒ x3 + 1/x3 + 3 × (x + 1/x) = 74088

⇒ x3 + 1/x3 + 3 × (42) = 74088

⇒ x3 + 1/x3 + 126 = 74088

⇒ x3 + 1/x3 = 74088 − 126

⇒ x3 + 1/x3 = 73962

∴ The correct answer is 73962.

Additional Information

Fundamental Algebraic Cube Identity

The expansion of (a + b)3 is given by a3 + b3 + 3a2b + 3ab2, which can be rearranged as a3 + b3 + 3ab(a + b).

Reciprocal Square Relation

If x + 1/x = k, then the squared value is x2 + 1/x2 = k2 − 2.

Negative Reciprocal Cube

If x − 1/x = k, then the value of x3 − 1/x3 = k3 + 3k.

Question 41

Starting from point L, Narendra walks 100 m towards the north. He takes a right turn and walks 900 m. He takes a right turn again and walks 750 m. Again, he takes a right turn and walks 900 m to reach point M. How far and in which direction is point M from point L? (Al turns are 90 degree turns only)

  1. AOption (a)

    650 m, North

  2. BOption (b)

    650 m, South

  3. COption (c)

    700 m, North

  4. DOption (d)

    700 m, South

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

650 m, South

Why this answer is correct

To reach point L from M Narendra should walk

100 m towards the north

He then takes a right turn and walks 900 m.

He takes a right turn again and walks 750 m.

Again, he takes a right turn and walks 900 m to reach point M.

So, he is 650 m south 

Hence the correct answer is "option 2".

Question 42

Study the given diagram carefully and answer the question. The numbers in different sections indicate the number of persons.

<br>

How many space scientists are there who earn equal to or more than 50K a month?

  1. AOption (a)

    34

  2. BOption (b)

    46

  3. COption (c)

    27

  4. DOption (d)

    12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

46

Why this answer is correct

According to the given Venn diagram:

The shaded area shows the number of space scientists who earn equal to or more than 50K a month

So, the number of space scientists who earn equal to or more than 50K a month are '46'.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 43

Conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid is catalysed by:

  1. AOption (a)

    Acidified K2CrO4 and Alkaline K2MnO4

  2. BOption (b)

    Alkaline KMnO4 and Acidified K2Cr2O7

  3. COption (c)

    Acidified K2CrO4 and Alkaline KMnO4

  4. DOption (d)

    Alkaline K2MnO4 and Acidified K2Cr2O7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Alkaline KMnO4 and Acidified K2Cr2O7

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Alkaline KMnO4 and Acidified K2Cr2O7

Key Points

  • Alkaline KMnO4 and Acidified K2Cr2O7 are commonly used oxidizing agents in organic chemistry.
  • These reagents are effective in converting ethanol (a primary alcohol) to ethanoic acid (a carboxylic acid).
  • Acidified K2Cr2O7 (Potassium dichromate) in acidic medium acts as a powerful oxidizing agent.
  • Alkaline KMnO4 (Potassium permanganate) in basic medium also acts as a strong oxidizing agent.
  • The oxidation process involves the removal of hydrogen from the ethanol molecule and the addition of oxygen to form ethanoic acid.

Additional Information

  • In the oxidation of ethanol to ethanoic acid, ethanol is first oxidized to acetaldehyde, and then further oxidized to ethanoic acid.
  • Both alkaline KMnO4 and acidified K2Cr2O7 are strong oxidants that can facilitate the complete oxidation of ethanol.
  • This reaction is an example of an oxidation-reduction (redox) reaction where ethanol loses electrons (is oxidized) and the oxidizing agent gains electrons (is reduced).
  • These reagents are widely used in organic synthesis and analytical chemistry for various oxidation reactions.

Question 44

Who among the following was the Chief Guest of Republic Day celebration of India in 2020?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vladimir Putin

  2. BOption (b)

    Boris Johnson

  3. COption (c)

    Jair Bolsonaro

  4. DOption (d)

    Angela Markell

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Jair Bolsonaro

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Jair Bolsonaro

Key Points

  • Jair Bolsonaro was the Chief Guest of Republic Day celebration of India in 2020.
  • Jair Bolsonaro is the President of Brazil, and his visit to India marked an important event in strengthening bilateral relations between the two countries.
  • He was invited as the Chief Guest to witness the grand parade and celebrations held on January 26th, 2020, which is a significant day marking the adoption of the Indian Constitution.
  • The Republic Day celebrations in India include a grand parade showcasing India's defense capabilities, cultural heritage, and various achievements.

Additional Information

  • The Republic Day of India is celebrated on 26th January every year to commemorate the day when the Constitution of India came into effect in 1950.
  • The event is marked by a grand parade held at Rajpath, New Delhi, which includes a display of India's military might, cultural diversity, and various achievements.
  • Each year, a Head of State or Government of another country is invited as the Chief Guest, which is a significant diplomatic honor reflecting India's international relations.
  • The invitation to the Chief Guest is a strategic move by the Indian government to strengthen ties with the respective country.

Question 45

Sumit Antil received the Padma Shri 2022 award in which field?

  1. AOption (a)

    Science

  2. BOption (b)

    Industry

  3. COption (c)

    Literature

  4. DOption (d)

    Sports

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sports

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sports

Key Points

  • Sumit Antil received the Padma Shri 2022 award in the field of Sports.
  • He is an Indian Paralympic javelin thrower who has made significant contributions to the field of athletics.
  • Sumit Antil won a gold medal in the men's javelin throw F64 category at the Tokyo 2020 Paralympic Games, setting a new world record.
  • His achievements have brought immense pride to the nation and have been recognized with one of India's highest civilian honors.

Additional Information

  • The Padma Shri is the fourth highest civilian award in India, after the Bharat Ratna, the Padma Vibhushan, and the Padma Bhushan.
  • It is awarded to Indian citizens in recognition of their distinguished contribution in various spheres of activity including the arts, education, industry, literature, science, sports, medicine, social service, and public affairs.
  • The awards are announced every year on Republic Day (26th January).
  • Recipients of the Padma Shri award are recommended by the Padma Awards Committee, which is constituted by the Prime Minister of India.

Question 46

Two resistors, A (20 Ω) and B (40 Ω), are connected in parallel. The combination is connected to a 6 V battery. The currents in A and B are respectively ________ .

  1. AOption (a)

    0.3 A and 0.3 A

  2. BOption (b)

    0.15 A and 0.3 A

  3. COption (c)

    0.3 A and 0.15 A

  4. DOption (d)

    0.1 A and 0.1 A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

0.3 A and 0.15 A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 0.3 A and 0.15 A.

Key Points

  • In a parallel circuit, the voltage across each branch is the same; hence VA=VB=6 V.
  • By Ohm’s law (I = V/R): IA = 6/20 = 0.30 A, IB = 6/40 = 0.15 A → matches option 3.
  • Currents in parallel branches are inversely proportional to resistances; here IA/IB = RB/RA = 40/20 = 2, consistent with 0.30 A vs 0.15 A.
  • Check: Req = (R1R2)/(R1+R2) = 13.33 Ω, so total current = 6/13.33 ≈ 0.45 A = 0.30 + 0.15 A.

Additional Information

  • Ohm’s law forms: V = IR, I = V/R, R = V/I—fundamental for branch-current calculations.
  • In parallel, the total current equals the sum of branch currents (Kirchhoff’s Current Law).
  • Equivalent resistance in parallel is always less than the smallest branch; for two resistors use product-over-sum.
  • Power in a resistor: P = VI = I²R = V²/R; at 6 V, PA=1.8 W and PB=0.9 W, so the lower resistance dissipates more power.

Question 47

Some students are standing in a queue. Only Radhika is standing between Sonia and Sujata. Divya is standing immediately ahead of Sonia. Exactly two girls are standing behind Sujata and only one girl is standing exactly ahead of Divya. How many students are standing in the queue?

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    5

  3. COption (c)

    8

  4. DOption (d)

    7

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

7

Why this answer is correct

Given: Some students are standing in a queue.

Only Radhika is standing between Sonia and Sujata.

Divya is standing immediately ahead of Sonia.

Divya > Sonia > Radhika > Sujata

Exactly two girls are standing behind Sujata and only one girl is standing exactly ahead of Divya

______ > Divya > Sonia  >  Radhika  >  Sujata > _____ > ______

So, '7' students are standing in a queue.

Hence the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 48

Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follows(s) from the statements.

Statements:

All fingers are thumbs.

Some thumbs are trees.

Some angles are trees.

Conclusions:

I : Some angles are thumbs.

II : Some trees are fingers.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. BOption (b)

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  3. COption (c)

    Either conclusion I or II follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Only conclusion II follows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statement is as follows:

Conclusions:

I : Some angles are thumbs - FALSE (Because no direct relation is given between angles and thumbs, so it may be a possibility but not definite)

II : Some trees are fingers - FALSE (Because some thumbs are tress and all fingers are thumbs, but some tress are also angles so it may be a possibility but not definite).

So, Neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 49

The given line graph shows the production of laptops by three different companies, namely A, B, C, over the years. Study the line graph and answer the question.

In which year was the percentage of production of company C with respect to the production of company A the minimum?

  1. AOption (a)

    2018

  2. BOption (b)

    2016

  3. COption (c)

    2019

  4. DOption (d)

    2017

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2016

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Production of company C in various years is compared with company A to find the minimum percentage.

Formula used:

Percentage = (Production of C / Production of A) × 100

Calculations:

For 2016:

⇒ (45 / 60) × 100 = 75%

For 2017:

⇒ (45 / 55) × 100 = 81.81%

For 2018:

⇒ (50 / 40) × 100 = 125%

For 2019:

⇒ (40 / 50) × 100 = 80%

For 2020:

⇒ (30 / 39) × 100 = 76.92%

∴ The minimum percentage is in 2016: 75%

The correct answer is option (2): 2016

Question 50

How is the chromosome number maintained from one generation to another in sexually reproducing organisms?

  1. AOption (a)

    Halving of chromosomes during gamete formation

  2. BOption (b)

    Doubling of chromosomes during zygote formation

  3. COption (c)

    Halving of chromosomes during zygote formation

  4. DOption (d)

    Doubling of chromosomes during gamete formation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Halving of chromosomes during gamete formation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Halving of chromosomes during gamete formation

Key Points

  • Halving of chromosomes during gamete formation is crucial for maintaining the chromosome number from one generation to another in sexually reproducing organisms.
  • This process occurs during meiosis, where the chromosome number is halved in the gametes (sperm and egg cells).
  • When fertilization occurs, the fusion of two gametes restores the diploid chromosome number in the zygote.
  • This ensures genetic continuity and stability across generations.

Additional Information

  • Meiosis is a specialized type of cell division that reduces the chromosome number by half, resulting in four haploid cells.
  • These haploid cells develop into gametes, which are essential for sexual reproduction.
  • During fertilization, the haploid sperm and egg combine to form a diploid zygote.
  • This diploid zygote undergoes multiple rounds of mitosis to develop into a multicellular organism with the same chromosome number as its parents.
  • This process is fundamental to the genetic diversity and evolution of sexually reproducing species.

Question 51

If 144 ∶ b ∶∶ b ∶ 36, and b > 0, find the value of b.

  1. AOption (a)

    27

  2. BOption (b)

    72

  3. COption (c)

    36

  4. DOption (d)

    12

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

72

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

When three numbers a, b, c are in continued proportion, b is the mean proportional.

Formula: b2 = a × c

⇒ b = √(144 × 36)

⇒ b = 12 × 6 = 72

∴ The correct answer is 72.

Alternate Method

Given: 144 : b :: b : 36 and 0**.**

Formula Used:** In a proportion a : b :: c : d, the product of means equals the product of extremes (b × c = a × d).**

⇒ 144 / b = b / 36

⇒ b × b = 144 × 36

⇒ b2 = 5184

⇒ b = √5184

⇒ b = 72

∴ The correct answer is 72.

Additional Information

Mean Proportional

The mean proportional between two numbers a and c is a number b such that a/b = b/c, which implies b = √(ac).

Third Proportional

If a : b :: b : c, then c is called the third proportional to a and b, calculated as c = b2/a.

Fourth Proportional

In the ratio a : b :: c : d, d is the fourth proportional and is calculated as d = (b × c) / a.

Question 52

In the following statements, if A, B, C, D and E denote +,-, ×, ÷ and =, respectively, then which statement is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    7A3C6D2B30E14

  2. BOption (b)

    7A3C6D2C30B14

  3. COption (c)

    7A3C6D2E30B14

  4. DOption (d)

    7A3C6D2E30A14

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

7A3C6D2E30B14

Why this answer is correct

Given equation - 7A3C6D2E30B14

BODMAS Rule

Decoding the given information:

AlphabetABCDE
Meaning+-x÷=

 

Now replacing the sign from left to right using BODMAS Rule, we get:

⇒ 7 + 3 x 6 ÷ 2 = 30 - 14

⇒ 7 + 3 x 3 = 30 - 14

⇒ 7 + 9 = 30 - 14

⇒ 16 = 16

⇒LHS = RHS

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 53

How many silver medals did India win at Tokyo Olympic 2020?

  1. AOption (a)

    Seven

  2. BOption (b)

    One

  3. COption (c)

    Four

  4. DOption (d)

    Two

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Two

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Two

Key Points

  • India won two silver medals at the Tokyo Olympic 2020.
  • The silver medals were won in the following events:
  • Weightlifting - Mirabai Chanu in Women's 49 kg category.
  • Wrestling - Ravi Kumar Dahiya in Men's Freestyle 57 kg category.
  • The Tokyo Olympics 2020 was originally scheduled to take place in 2020 but was postponed to 2021 due to the COVID-19 pandemic.
  • India had a total of seven medals in the Tokyo Olympics 2020, which is the country's best performance in an Olympic event.

Additional Information

  • The Tokyo 2020 Olympics took place from 23rd July to 8th August 2021.
  • Neeraj Chopra won India's first-ever gold medal in athletics (javelin throw) at the Tokyo Olympics 2020.
  • The Indian men's hockey team won a bronze medal, ending a 41-year medal drought in hockey at the Olympics.
  • Other medalists for India included PV Sindhu (badminton), Lovlina Borgohain (boxing), and Bajrang Punia (wrestling).

Question 54

The first medical college in India was established during the period of ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Lord William Bentinck

  2. BOption (b)

    Lord Cornwallis

  3. COption (c)

    Lord Mayo

  4. DOption (d)

    Lord Curzon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Lord William Bentinck

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lord William Bentinck

Key Points

  • The first medical college in India, Calcutta Medical College, was established during the period of Lord William Bentinck.
  • Calcutta Medical College was established in 1835 and was the first institution in Asia to teach modern medicine.
  • Lord William Bentinck was the Governor-General of India from 1828 to 1835.
  • His tenure is notable for several reforms, including the abolition of Sati and the introduction of English education in India.

Additional Information

  • Lord Cornwallis was Governor-General of India from 1786 to 1793 and is known for the Cornwallis Code and the Permanent Settlement of Bengal.
  • Lord Mayo served as Viceroy of India from 1869 to 1872 and was assassinated in the Andaman Islands.
  • Lord Curzon was Viceroy of India from 1899 to 1905 and is known for the partition of Bengal in 1905.
  • The establishment of Calcutta Medical College marked the beginning of formal medical education in India and paved the way for the development of modern medical practices in the country.

Question 55

If a man takes 36 minutes to cover a certain distance at a speed of 5 km/h, then the distance covered by him is:

  1. AOption (a)

    3 km

  2. BOption (b)

    3.5 km

  3. COption (c)

    2 km

  4. DOption (d)

    2.5 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

3 km

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3 km

Key Points

  • 3 km is the distance covered by the man.
  • To find the distance, we use the formula: Distance = Speed × Time.
  • Given the speed is 5 km/h and the time taken is 36 minutes.
  • First, convert the time from minutes to hours: 36 minutes = 36/60 hours = 0.6 hours.
  • Then, calculate the distance: Distance = 5 km/h × 0.6 hours = 3 km.

Question 56

The focal length of a concave mirror is 24 cm. Following New Cartesian Sign Convention, its centre of curvature is located at:

  1. AOption (a)

    48 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    -24 cm

  3. COption (c)

    24 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    -48 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

-48 cm

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is -48 cm

Key Points

  • The focal length of a concave mirror is given as 24 cm, following the New Cartesian Sign Convention.
  • According to the sign convention, the focal length (f) of a concave mirror is negative, so f = -24 cm.
  • The centre of curvature (C) of a concave mirror is located at a distance equal to twice the focal length from the pole of the mirror.
  • Thus, the distance to the centre of curvature is 2f = 2(-24 cm) = -48 cm.
  • Therefore, the centre of curvature is located at -48 cm.

Additional Information

  • The New Cartesian Sign Convention is used to determine the signs of the distances measured along the principal axis of the mirror.
  • Distances measured in the direction of the incident light (towards the mirror) are considered negative.
  • Distances measured against the direction of the incident light (away from the mirror) are considered positive.
  • The focal length of concave mirrors is always negative, while that of convex mirrors is positive.

Question 57

A number is divided into two parts such that one part of the number is 10 more than the other part, and the ratio of the two parts is 4 ∶ 3. Find the initial number.

  1. AOption (a)

    30

  2. BOption (b)

    70

  3. COption (c)

    40

  4. DOption (d)

    80

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

70

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Ratio of two parts = 4 : 3

Difference in ratio parts = 4 − 3 = 1 unit

Given difference = 10 ⇒ 1 unit = 10

Total value = (4 + 3) units = 7 units = 7 × 10 = 70

∴ The correct answer is 70.

Alternate Method

Given:

Ratio of two parts = 4 : 3

Difference between parts = 10

Calculations:

⇒ Let the two parts be 4x and 3x.

⇒ According to the problem: 4x − 3x = 10

⇒ x = 10

⇒ First part = 4 × 10 = 40

⇒ Second part = 3 × 10 = 30

⇒ Initial number = First part + Second part

⇒ Initial number = 40 + 30 = 70

∴ The correct answer is 70.

Additional Information

Ratio and Proportion

If a number A is divided into two parts in the ratio m : n, the parts are (m/(m+n)) × A and (n/(m+n)) × A.

Difference Rule

If the difference between two parts in ratio m : n is D, then the value of 1 unit is D / |m − n|.

Direct Sum calculation

Initial Number = (Sum of Ratios / Difference of Ratios) × Given Difference = (7 / 1) × 10 = 70.

Question 58

A statement is given followed by two possible underlying assumptions I and II. Read all the information carefully and decide which of the given assumptions can be assumed by the given statement.

Statement:

Since Movie X has spent Rs. 3.6 crores in its promotion as against Movie R that spent only Rs. 1.3 crores, Movie X will definitely earn more at the box office.

Assumptions:

I. A movie that spends less than ₹1 crore on its promotion cannot do well at the box office.

II. Movie X may win more awards than Movie R.

  1. AOption (a)

    Only II can be assumed

  2. BOption (b)

    Only I can be assumed

  3. COption (c)

    Neither I nor II can be assumed

  4. DOption (d)

    Both I and II can be assumed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Neither I nor II can be assumed

Why this answer is correct

Given Statement: Since Movie X has spent Rs. 3.6 crores in its promotion as against Movie R that spent only Rs. 1.3 crores, Movie X will definitely earn more at the box office.

Now, 

Assumptions:

I. A movie that spends less than ₹1 crore on its promotion cannot do well at the box office - Not Implicit (The statement does not provide information about the performance of movies spending less than ₹1 crore on promotion.)

II. Movie X may win more awards than Movie R - Not Implicit (The statement only discusses box office earnings and not awards.)

Here, Neither assumption I nor II is implicit.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 59

Preventive detention is part of which Article in the Indian Constitution?

  1. AOption (a)

    25

  2. BOption (b)

    22

  3. COption (c)

    28

  4. DOption (d)

    26

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

22

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 22

Key Points

  • Article 22 of the Indian Constitution deals with preventive detention and the rights of individuals who are detained.
  • Under this article, certain safeguards are provided to individuals who are arrested or detained, including the right to be informed of the grounds of arrest and the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of their choice.
  • Article 22 also includes provisions for the establishment of advisory boards to review cases of preventive detention.
  • The article ensures that no person can be detained for more than three months without the recommendation of an advisory board.
  • Preventive detention is a measure to prevent individuals from committing future crimes or acting in a manner that could threaten public order or national security.

Additional Information

  • The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949 and came into effect on 26th January 1950.
  • It lays down the framework defining fundamental political principles, establishes the structure, procedures, powers, and duties of government institutions, and sets out fundamental rights, directive principles, and the duties of citizens.
  • The Constitution of India is the longest written constitution of any country in the world.
  • It declares India a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic, assuring its citizens justice, equality, and liberty, and endeavors to promote fraternity.
  • The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution contains three lists which delineate the subjects under the Union, State, and Concurrent lists.
  • Amendments to the Constitution can be made through a process outlined in Article 368.

Question 60

A current of 0.2 A is maintained in a resistor of 10 Ω. The heat produced in the resistor in 1 second is:

  1. AOption (a)

    25 J

  2. BOption (b)

    0.4 J

  3. COption (c)

    0.2 J

  4. DOption (d)

    50 J

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

0.4 J

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 0.4 J

Key Points

  • The heat produced (H) in a resistor can be calculated using the formula: H = I²Rt, where I is the current, R is the resistance, and t is the time.
  • Given: Current (I) = 0.2 A, Resistance (R) = 10 Ω, Time (t) = 1 second.
  • Substituting the given values into the formula: H = (0.2)² × 10 × 1 = 0.04 × 10 = 0.4 J.
  • Therefore, the heat produced in the resistor in 1 second is 0.4 J.

Additional Information

  • The formula H = I²Rt is derived from Joule's law of heating, which states that the heat produced in a resistor is proportional to the square of the current, the resistance, and the time for which the current flows.
  • This principle is widely used in electrical heating appliances such as electric heaters, toasters, and irons.
  • Understanding this concept is fundamental in the field of electrical engineering and physics.

Question 61

If 1 April 2017 was a Saturday, then what day of the week was 12 May 2017?

  1. AOption (a)

    Friday

  2. BOption (b)

    Monday

  3. COption (c)

    Saturday

  4. DOption (d)

    Sunday

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Friday

Why this answer is correct

Given: 1 April 2017 was Saturday.

Now,

From 1 April 2017 to 12 May 2017, we need to count the number of days.

April has 30 days, so the days in April after 1 April = 30 - 1 = 29 days.

In May, up to 12 May, there are 12 days.

Total days from 1 April 2017 to 12 May 2017 = 29 (April) + 12 (May) = 41 days.

41 days → 41/7 = 5 weeks and 6 odd days.

So, 12 May 2017 will be Saturday + 6 = Friday.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 62

In the given question, the statement is followed by two conclusions. Which of the two conclusion(s) is/are true based on the given statement?

Statement: O > L ≥  E = P > S < A

Conclusions: 

I. P < A

II. O < E

  1. AOption (a)

    Only conclusion I is true

  2. BOption (b)

    Both conclusions I and II are true

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusion II is true

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither conclusion I nor II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Neither conclusion I nor II is true

Why this answer is correct

Given Statement: O > L ≥ E = P > S < A

Now,

Conclusions:

Option 1: P < A → False (P > S < A No definite relation can be possible between P and A)

Option 2: O < E → False (O > L ≥ E It gives O > E)

So, Neither conclusion I nor II is true.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 63

If each of the digits in the number 684912753 is arranged in ascending order from left to right, the position of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in the original number?

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    3

  3. COption (c)

    2

  4. DOption (d)

    4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1

Why this answer is correct

Given number: '684912753'

After arranging in ascending order:

Original Order684912753
Ascending Order123456789

 

After arranging the digits in ascending order,

we can see that only the digit '7' remains in its original position.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 64

Which of the following are uses of bleaching powder?

(i) For disinfecting drinking water supply.

(ii) For the manufacture of chloroform.

(ii) For making wool unshrinkable.

  1. AOption (a)

    ii and iii

  2. BOption (b)

    i, ii and iii

  3. COption (c)

    i and iii

  4. DOption (d)

    i and ii

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

i, ii and iii

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is i, ii and iii

Key Points

  • Bleaching powder is used for disinfecting drinking water supply.
  • It is also used in the manufacture of chloroform.
  • Additionally, bleaching powder can be used for making wool unshrinkable.
  • Therefore, the correct options are i, ii, and iii.

Additional Information

  • Bleaching powder is chemically known as calcium hypochlorite.
  • It is widely used in water treatment plants to ensure the supply of clean and safe drinking water.
  • Bleaching powder is also used in the textile industry to bleach fabrics and make them less prone to shrinking.
  • In addition to these uses, it is also an important chemical in organic synthesis, such as in the production of chloroform.

Question 65

Which of the following is a quadratic equation whose roots are 2 + 3\sqrt3 and 4 - 23\sqrt3?

  1. AOption (a)

    2x2 - (6 - 3\sqrt3)x + 2 = 0

  2. BOption (b)

    X2 - (12 -  3\sqrt3)x + 2 = 0

  3. COption (c)

    3x2 - (6 - 3\sqrt3)x + 4 = 0

  4. DOption (d)

    x2 – (6 - 3\sqrt3)x + 2 = 0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

x2 – (6 - 3\sqrt3)x + 2 = 0

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick Sum of roots = (2 + √3) + (4 − 2√3) = 6 − √3 Product of roots = (2 + √3)(4 − 2√3) = 8 − 4√3 + 4√3 − 2(3) = 2 The Quadratic Equation is x2 − (Sum of roots)x + (Product of roots) = 0 Placing values: x2 − (6 − √3)x + 2 = 0 ∴ The correct answer is x2 − (6 − √3)x + 2 = 0.

Alternate Method Given: Roots are α = 2 + √3 and β = 4 − 2√3 Formula Used: A quadratic equation with roots α and β is formed as: x2 − (α + β)x + αβ = 0 ⇒ Step 1: Calculate the Sum of the roots (α + β) ⇒ α + β = (2 + √3) + (4 − 2√3) ⇒ α + β = 2 + 4 + √3 − 2√3 = 6 − √3 ⇒ Step 2: Calculate the Product of the roots (αβ) ⇒ αβ = (2 + √3) × (4 − 2√3) ⇒ αβ = 2(4) − 2(2√3) + 4(√3) − √3(2√3) ⇒ αβ = 8 − 4√3 + 4√3 − 2(3) = 8 − 6 = 2 ⇒ Step 3: Form the Equation ⇒ x2 − (6 − √3)x + 2 = 0 ∴ The correct answer is x2 − (6 − √3)x + 2 = 0.

Additional Information Nature of Roots For a quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, the nature of roots is determined by the Discriminant D = b2 − 4ac. If D > 0, roots are real and distinct; if D = 0, roots are real and equal; if D < 0, roots are imaginary. Relation between Roots and Coefficients Sum of roots (α + β) = −b/a and Product of roots (αβ) = c/a. This allows for constructing the equation directly from its roots. Irrational Roots If a quadratic equation has rational coefficients and one root is of the form p + √q, then the other root must be its conjugate p − √q. Note that this rule only applies if the coefficients are rational numbers.

Question 66

The given table shows the marks obtained by 5 students of AS-Level class in different subjects. Study the table and answer the question.

SubjectChemistryPhysicsMathematicsBiologyAccountingComputer Science
StudentOut of 100Out of 100Out of 100Out of 100Out of 100Out of 100
Jitendra708085806050
Ludovic o607580757280
Mohan859080908085
Ahmet556050605055
Punit806070758060
<br>

What is the mean aggregate percentage marks obtained by Punit in all the subjects?

  1. AOption (a)

    73.8%

  2. BOption (b)

    70.8%

  3. COption (c)

    78.5%

  4. DOption (d)

    65%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

70.8%

Why this answer is correct

Given:

Marks obtained by Punit in all subjects:

Chemistry = 80

Physics = 60

Mathematics = 70

Biology = 75

Accounting = 80

Computer Science = 60

Formula used:

Mean aggregate percentage = (Total marks obtained / Total maximum marks) × 100

Calculations:

Total marks obtained by Punit = 80 + 60 + 70 + 75 + 80 + 60

⇒ Total marks = 425

Total maximum marks = 600

⇒ Mean aggregate percentage = (425 / 600) × 100

⇒ Mean aggregate percentage = 70.8%

∴ The correct answer is option (2): 70.8%

Question 67

Which of the following groups includes ALL biodegradable substances?

  1. AOption (a)

    Flower, wood, batteries

  2. BOption (b)

    Vegetable peel, wood, rubber

  3. COption (c)

    Grass, plastic, flower

  4. DOption (d)

    Grass, wood, orange peels

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Grass, wood, orange peels

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Grass, wood, orange peels

Key Points

  • Option 4 includes grass, wood, and orange peels, all of which are biodegradable substances.
  • Biodegradable substances are those that can be broken down by natural processes involving microorganisms into simpler, non-toxic substances.
  • Grass decomposes quickly and returns nutrients to the soil.
  • Wood is a natural material that decomposes over time, especially when exposed to environmental elements.
  • Orange peels are organic waste that decomposes and enriches the soil with nutrients.
  • Thus, this group consists of items that are environmentally friendly and can be naturally recycled.

Additional Information

  • Option 1 includes batteries, which are not biodegradable.
  • Option 2 includes rubber, which is not biodegradable.
  • Option 3 includes plastic, which is not biodegradable.
  • Biodegradable waste is crucial for composting and reducing landfill use, thereby helping in sustainable waste management.
  • Using biodegradable substances reduces pollution and supports ecological balance.

Question 68

Which of the following is true for Aggregate Demand (AD)?

  1. AOption (a)

    AD = C + I + G

  2. BOption (b)

    AD = S + I - G

  3. COption (c)

    AD = C + I - G

  4. DOption (d)

    AD = C + S + I + G

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

AD = C + I + G

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is AD = C + I + G

Key Points

  • Aggregate Demand (AD) is the total demand for goods and services in an economy at a given overall price level and in a given time period.
  • It is represented by the formula AD = C + I + G, where:
  • C stands for consumption expenditure.
  • I stands for investment expenditure.
  • G stands for government expenditure.
  • This formula indicates that AD is the sum of consumption, investment, and government spending.
  • Other options given in the question do not correctly represent the components of Aggregate Demand.

Additional Information

  • Aggregate Demand plays a crucial role in the analysis of economic fluctuations and policy-making.
  • Changes in AD can lead to economic growth or recession, depending on whether the demand is increasing or decreasing.
  • Factors influencing AD include changes in consumer confidence, interest rates, government policies, and global economic conditions.

Question 69

If 15 and -16 are roots of a quadratic equation, then the equation is:

  1. AOption (a)

    x2 – x - 240 = 0

  2. BOption (b)

    x2 + x - 240 = 0

  3. COption (c)

    x2 + x + 240 = 0

  4. DOption (d)

    x2 - 2x + 240 = 0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

x2 + x - 240 = 0

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Identify the sum and product of the given roots (15 and −16).

Sum = 15 + (−16) = −1

Product = 15 × (−16) = −240

Equation: x2 − (Sum)x + Product = 0 ⇒ x2 − (−1)x + (−240) = 0

∴ The correct answer is x2 + x − 240 = 0.

Alternate Method

Given:

First root (α) = 15

Second root (β) = −16

Formula Used:

A quadratic equation with roots α and β is given by: x2 − (α + β)x + αβ = 0

Calculations:

⇒ Sum of roots (α + β) = 15 + (−16) = −1

⇒ Product of roots (αβ) = 15 × (−16) = −240

⇒ Substituting these values into the standard equation form:

⇒ x2 − (−1)x + (−240) = 0

⇒ x2 + x − 240 = 0

∴ The correct answer is x2 + x − 240 = 0.

Additional Information

Standard Form of Quadratic Equation

The general form is ax2 + bx + c = 0, where α + β = −b/a and αβ = c/a.

Nature of Roots

Determined by the Discriminant (D) = b2 − 4ac. If D > 0, roots are real and distinct; if D = 0, roots are real and equal.

Factor Theorem

If k is a root of the equation, then (x − k) is a factor of the quadratic polynomial.

Question 70

K, L, M, N, O and P live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it number 2, and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6.

L does not live on floor number 5. O and P live on even numbered floors, but not on floor number 6. N lives on floor number 3. K lives immediately below L. O lives immediately above M, but not on floor number 4. Who lives on floor number 5?

  1. AOption (a)

    K

  2. BOption (b)

    N

  3. COption (c)

    O

  4. DOption (d)

    P

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

K

Why this answer is correct

Given: K, L, M, N, O and P live on six different floors of the same building. 

  1. L does not live on floor number 5.

  2. O and P live on even numbered floors, but not on floor number 6.

  3. N lives on floor number 3.

CASE 1CASE 2
PERSONSFLOORPERSONS
6
5
O4P
N3N
P2O
1
  1. K lives immediately below L.

  2. O lives immediately above M, but not on floor number 4. 

CASE 1CASE 2
PERSONSFLOORPERSONS
6L
5K
O4P
N3N
P2O
1M

CASE1, will not be a possible case and gets eliminated. We have the final arrangement in CASE 2

FLOORPERSONS
6L
5K
4P
3N
2O
1M

 

So, K lives on floor number 5

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 71

Which of the following Central Sector Scheme launched in February 2022 aims to provide welfare measures to the transgender and people engaged in acts of begging?

  1. AOption (a)

    e-Shramn

  2. BOption (b)

    Ujala

  3. COption (c)

    SMILE

  4. DOption (d)

    PM Umeed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

SMILE

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is SMILE

Key Points

  • SMILE (Support for Marginalized Individuals for Livelihood and Enterprise) is a Central Sector Scheme launched in February 2022.
  • The scheme aims to provide welfare measures to the transgender community and people engaged in acts of begging.
  • It includes comprehensive measures for their rehabilitation, medical care, counseling, education, skill development, and economic linkages.
  • The scheme is designed to ensure that these marginalized groups are brought into the mainstream and can live with dignity and respect.

Additional Information

  • The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment is the nodal ministry for the implementation of the SMILE scheme.
  • It is part of the government's broader vision to provide social security and inclusion to the most vulnerable sections of society.
  • Other initiatives under the ministry also focus on the welfare of senior citizens, persons with disabilities, and other disadvantaged groups.

Question 72

A single discount equivalent to successive discounts of 10%, 15%, and 20% is:

  1. AOption (a)

    38.8%

  2. BOption (b)

    36.6%

  3. COption (c)

    40%

  4. DOption (d)

    45%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

38.8%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Net discount for 10% and 20% = 10 + 20 − (10 × 20) ÷ 100 = 28%.

Net discount for 28% and 15% = 28 + 15 − (28 × 15) ÷ 100.

Calculation: 43 − 4.2 = 38.8%.

Alternatively, using Multipliers: 1 − (0.9 × 0.85 × 0.8) = 1 − 0.612 = 0.388.

Percentage = 0.388 × 100 = 38.8%.

∴ The correct answer is 38.8%.

Alternate Method

Given → Successive Discounts of 10%, 15%, and 20%. Formulas: Successive Discount = a + b − (a × b) ÷ 100

⇒ Let the Marked Price (MP) be 100. ⇒ Price after 10% discount = 100 − 10 = 90. ⇒ Price after 15% discount on 90 = 90 − (15% of 90) = 90 − 13.5 = 76.5. ⇒ Price after 20% discount on 76.5 = 76.5 − (20% of 76.5) = 76.5 − 15.3 = 61.2. ⇒ Total Single Equivalent Discount = 100 − 61.2 = 38.8.

∴ The correct answer is 38.8%.

Additional Information

Successive Discounts

When multiple discounts are applied one after another, the base value for each subsequent discount is the value obtained after the previous discount.

Effective Discount Rate

The order of applying successive discounts does not change the final Selling Price (SP) or the net discount percentage.

Question 73

The difference between the ages of Radha and Rama is 6 years and the sum of their ages is 26. Find Radha's age, if she is older than Rama.

  1. AOption (a)

    26 years

  2. BOption (b)

    6 years

  3. COption (c)

    32 years

  4. DOption (d)

    16 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

16 years

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

When the Sum (S) and Difference (D) of two quantities are given:

Larger Quantity = (Sum + Difference) ÷ 2

Radha is older, so her age = (26 + 6) ÷ 2

Radha's age = 32 ÷ 2 = 16 years.

∴ The correct answer is 16 years.

Alternate Method

Given:

Sum of ages of Radha and Rama = 26

Difference of ages of Radha and Rama = 6

Let Radha's age be x and Rama's age be y.

⇒ x + y = 26 ----(i)

⇒ x − y = 6 ----(ii)

Adding equations (i) and (ii):

⇒ (x + y) + (x − y) = 26 + 6

⇒ 2x = 32

⇒ x = 32 ÷ 2

⇒ x = 16

∴ The correct answer is 16 years.

Additional Information

Linear Equations in Two Variables

When solving for two variables with sum and difference, the smaller value is (Sum − Difference) ÷ 2.

Age Problems

The difference between the ages of two people remains constant regardless of the number of years passed.

Ratio of Ages

If the ratio of ages is given as a:b, then ages can be assumed as ax and bx to form equations.

Question 74

As of July 2022, under the Seekho aur Kamao (Learn and Earn) Scheme for skill development of minorities, what should be the age bracket of trainees?

  1. AOption (a)

    21-35 years

  2. BOption (b)

    18-25 years

  3. COption (c)

    16-50 years

  4. DOption (d)

    14-45 years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

14-45 years

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 14-45 years

Key Points

  • 14-45 years is the age bracket for trainees under the Seekho aur Kamao (Learn and Earn) Scheme as of July 2022.
  • The Seekho aur Kamao Scheme aims to provide skill development training to minority communities to enhance their employability and entrepreneurial skills.
  • The scheme focuses on modern trades and ensures placements for at least 75% of the trained candidates, out of which 50% should be in the organized sector.
  • The scheme is implemented through selected Project Implementing Agencies (PIAs) across the country.

Additional Information

  • The Seekho aur Kamao Scheme is an initiative of the Ministry of Minority Affairs, Government of India.
  • The scheme also aims to preserve and update the traditional skills of minorities and establish their linkages with the market.
  • It includes soft skills, IT, and English language training as part of the curriculum.
  • Special focus is given to women, with 33% of the total beneficiaries being female candidates.
  • The scheme also includes a post-placement support system to ensure the sustainability of the employment provided.

Question 75

Amongst six friends, A. B, C, D, E and F, each has a different height. D is taller than only two other friends. C is shorter than B. F is taller than E. D is shorter than A. E is taller than A. Who is the tallest among all the friends?

  1. AOption (a)

    D

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    F

  4. DOption (d)

    E

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

F

Why this answer is correct

Given: Six friends, A. B, C, D, E and F, are comparing their heights

Each has a different height.

  1. D is taller than only two other friends.

  2. C is shorter than B

   >      >      >   D   >      >       > 

  1. F is taller than E.

  2. D is shorter than A

   >      >   A   >   D   >      >       > 

  1. E is taller than A.

 F  >   E   >  A    >   D   >  B    >  C     > 

So, F is the tallest person

Hence the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 76

The number of valence electrons in a group _________ when we are moving down.

  1. AOption (a)

    decreases

  2. BOption (b)

    increases

  3. COption (c)

    first increases, then decreases

  4. DOption (d)

    remains constant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

remains constant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is remains constant

Key Points

  • Valence electrons are the outermost electrons of an atom and are crucial for determining how the atom interacts with other atoms.
  • In a group of the periodic table, the number of valence electrons remains constant as you move down from one element to the next.
  • This is because elements in the same group have similar chemical properties and the same number of electrons in their outermost shell.
  • For example, all elements in Group 1 (alkali metals) have one valence electron.

Additional Information

  • The periodic table is arranged in such a way that elements with similar properties fall into the same vertical columns, known as groups.
  • While the number of valence electrons remains constant within a group, the number of electron shells increases as you move down the group, leading to larger atomic radii.
  • This constancy in the number of valence electrons is a key reason why elements in the same group exhibit similar chemical behavior.
  • Understanding the behavior of valence electrons is essential for predicting the chemical reactivity and bonding characteristics of elements.

Question 77

Identify the amendment in Constitution of India, which is related to Panchayati Raj institutions from following?

  1. AOption (a)

    73rd  amendment

  2. BOption (b)

    72nd amendment

  3. COption (c)

    71st  amendment

  4. DOption (d)

    74th  amendment

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

73rd  amendment

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 73rd amendment

Key Points

  • The 73rd amendment to the Constitution of India is related to the establishment and empowerment of Panchayati Raj institutions.
  • This amendment was enacted in 1992 and came into force on 24th April 1993.
  • It added a new Part IX to the Constitution titled "The Panchayats" and also added a new Eleventh Schedule covering 29 subjects within the functions of Panchayats.
  • The amendment mandates the creation of Panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels.
  • It aims to decentralize power and ensure local self-governance, providing a greater degree of participation by people at the grassroots level in decision-making processes.
  • The act also includes provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and women.

Additional Information

  • The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949 and came into effect on 26th January 1950.
  • It lays down the framework defining fundamental political principles, establishes the structure, procedures, powers, and duties of government institutions, and sets out fundamental rights, directive principles, and the duties of citizens.
  • The Constitution of India is the longest written constitution of any country in the world.
  • It declares India a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic, assuring its citizens justice, equality, and liberty, and endeavors to promote fraternity.
  • The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution contains three lists which delineate the subjects under the Union, State, and Concurrent lists.
  • Amendments to the Constitution can be made through a process outlined in Article 368.
  • The 73rd Amendment has played a crucial role in strengthening the democratic fabric of rural India by empowering local governance structures.

Question 78

If the area of the triangle whose vertices are (3, -2), (2, -3) and (P, -4) is 8 square units, then find the value of p.

  1. AOption (a)

    -15

  2. BOption (b)

    17

  3. COption (c)

    -16

  4. DOption (d)

    15

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

17

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Area of triangle = 1/2 |x1(y2 − y3) + x2(y3 − y1) + x3(y1 − y2)|

8 = 1/2 |3(−3 − (−4)) + 2(−4 − (−2)) + P(−2 − (−3))|

16 = |3(1) + 2(−2) + P(1)| ⇒ 16 = |3 − 4 + P| ⇒ 16 = |P − 1|

P − 1 = 16 or P − 1 = −16 ⇒ P = 17 or P = −15

∴ The correct answer is 17.

Alternate Method

Given: Vertices (x1, y1) = (3, −2), (x2, y2) = (2, −3), (x3, y3) = (P, −4). Area = 8 sq units.

Formula: Area = 1/2 |x1(y2 − y3) + x2(y3 − y1) + x3(y1 − y2)|

⇒ 8 = 1/2 |3(−3 − (−4)) + 2(−4 − (−2)) + P(−2 − (−3))|

⇒ 16 = |3(1) + 2(−2) + P(1)|

⇒ 16 = |3 − 4 + P|

⇒ 16 = |P − 1|

⇒ P − 1 = 16 or P − 1 = −16

⇒ P = 17 or P = −15

From the options provided, the value of P is 17.

∴ The correct answer is 17.

Additional Information

Collinear Points

If three points are collinear, the area of the triangle formed by them is zero.

Area using Determinant

Area can also be calculated as 1/2 |det([[x1, y1, 1], [x2, y2, 1], [x3, y3, 1]])|.

Centroid of a Triangle

The centroid G(x, y) of a triangle with vertices (x1, y1), (x2, y2), and (x3, y3) is given by ((x1+x2+x3)/3, (y1+y2+y3)/3).

Question 79

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the unitary features of the Indian Constitution?

  1. AOption (a)

    All India services

  2. BOption (b)

    Strong centre

  3. COption (c)

    No flexibility of constitution

  4. DOption (d)

    No equality of representation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

No flexibility of constitution

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is No flexibility of constitution

Key Points

  • No flexibility of constitution is a false statement regarding the unitary features of the Indian Constitution.
  • The Indian Constitution is known for its flexibility as well as rigidity. While certain provisions can be amended by a simple majority, others require a special majority.
  • The Constitution of India allows for amendments to adapt to changing needs and circumstances, thereby providing a balance between flexibility and rigidity.
  • All India Services, Strong Centre, and No equality of representation are indeed unitary features of the Indian Constitution, as they centralize power and authority.

Additional Information

  • All India Services such as IAS, IPS, and IFS are designed to maintain uniform standards of administration across the country.
  • A Strong Centre ensures that the Union government holds significant power over states, especially in times of emergency.
  • No equality of representation is reflected in the Rajya Sabha, where states have unequal representation based on population.
  • The Indian Constitution is a blend of federal and unitary features, allowing it to function effectively in a diverse and populous country like India.

Question 80

Washing soda is _________ in nature.

  1. AOption (a)

    acidic

  2. BOption (b)

    basic

  3. COption (c)

    sour

  4. DOption (d)

    edible

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

basic

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is basic

Key Points

  • Washing soda, also known as sodium carbonate (Na₂CO₃), is a chemical compound that is basic in nature.
  • It is commonly used in laundry detergents and cleaning products due to its ability to remove dirt and grease.
  • Washing soda is an alkaline substance, which means it has a high pH level and can neutralize acids.
  • It is also used in various industrial processes, such as glass manufacturing and water treatment.

Additional Information

  • Sodium carbonate should be handled with care as it can cause irritation to the skin, eyes, and respiratory system.
  • In addition to its cleaning properties, washing soda is also used in cooking, particularly in the preparation of certain types of noodles and pretzels.
  • It is important to store washing soda in a dry place as it can absorb moisture from the air and form clumps.
  • Washing soda can be used as an eco-friendly alternative to many harsh chemical cleaners.

Question 81

Three statements are followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III, You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts Decide which of the given concussions logically follow(s) from the given statement. 

Statements :

All hats are caps

All caps are gloves

Some hats are goggles

Conclusions:

(i) Some goggles are caps

(ii) Some gloves are goggles

(iii) No goggle is a glove

  1. AOption (a)

    ​Only conclusions I and II follow

  2. BOption (b)

    None of the conclusions follow

  3. COption (c)

    Only conclusion I and III follows

  4. DOption (d)

    Only conclusions II and III follow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

​Only conclusions I and II follow

Why this answer is correct

The least possible Venn diagram for the given statements is as follows:

Conclusions:

(i) Some goggles are caps - TRUE (Because all hat are caps and some googles are hat, it indicates some goggles are caps too)

(ii) Some gloves are goggles - TRUE (Because all hat and caps are glove, it indicates some gloves are goggles too)

(iii) No goggle is a glove - FALSE (Because all hat and caps are glove, so some part of googles is glove is definitely true, so the conclusion dose not follows).

So, only conclusion I and II follows

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 82

Each consonant in the word 'company' is changed to the letter following it in the English alphabetical order, and each vowel is changed to the letter preceding it in the English alphabetical order. If each letter, thus formed is arranged in alphabetical order, which letter will be fourth from the right?

  1. AOption (a)

    N

  2. BOption (b)

    O

  3. COption (c)

    Q

  4. DOption (d)

    Z

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

O

Why this answer is correct

Given word: COMPANY

Operation 1: Each consonant in the word is changed to the letter following it in the English alphabetical order

Operation 2: Each vowel is changed to the letter preceding it in the English alphabetical order and is arranged in alphabetical order

Given wordCOMPANY
Operation 1DONQAOZ
Operation 2DNNQZOZ

 

New word : DNNQZOZ

Arranging the letters in alphabetical order

DNNOQZZ

 

So, O is fourth from the right.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 2".

Question 83

Eight girls Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X were sitting around a square table, facing the centre. Some of them were sitting at the corners, while some were sitting at the exact centre of the sides. Only V was sitting between R and S. Q and T were immediate neighbours. Only X was sitting between T and S. U was sitting to the immediate right of Q. S was sitting fourth to the left of U. S is sitting at one of the corners. Who was sitting fourth to the left of X?

  1. AOption (a)

    V

  2. BOption (b)

    Q

  3. COption (c)

    W

  4. DOption (d)

    R

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

W

Why this answer is correct

Given: Eight girls Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X were sitting around a square table, facing the centre. 

S is sitting at one of the corners

  1. Only V was sitting between R and S.

  2. Q and T were immediate neighbours.

  3. Only X was sitting between T and S.

  4. U was sitting to the immediate right of Q.

  5. S was sitting fourth to the left of U.

So, W sits fourth to the left of X

Hence the correct answer is "Option 3".

Question 84

A wire of length L and resistance R is reformed so that its length increases by 25% with no change in its volume. The resistance of the new wire is:

  1. AOption (a)

    (1625)R\rm (\frac{16}{25})R

  2. BOption (b)

    (2516)R\rm (\frac{25}{16})R

  3. COption (c)

    (45)R\rm (\frac{4}{5})R

  4. DOption (d)

    (54)R\rm (\frac{5}{4})R

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(2516)R\rm (\frac{25}{16})R

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Resistance:

  • Resistance (R) is the property of a material to oppose the flow of electric current through it.
  • It depends on the length (L), cross-sectional area (A), and resistivity (ρ) of the material.
  • The formula for resistance is: R=ρLA R = \rho \frac{L}{A}
  • SI Unit: Ohm (Ω)
  • Dimensional Formula: [ML2T−3I−2][ML^2T^{-3}I^{-2}]
  • When the length of a wire changes, its cross-sectional area adjusts to keep the volume constant.
  • The volume of the wire remains constant: L1A1=L2A2 L_1A_1 = L_2A_2
  • New resistance R2 R_2 after deformation is proportional to the square of the new length: R2=R1(L2L1)2 R_2 = R_1 \left(\frac{L_2}{L_1}\right)^2

 

Calculation:

Given,

Original length L1=L L_1 = L

Resistance R1=R R_1 = R

New length L2=L+0.25L=1.25L L_2 = L + 0.25L = 1.25L

Since volume remains constant,

L1A1=L2A2 L_1A_1 = L_2A_2

⇒ A2=L1A1L2=A1.25 A_2 = \frac{L_1A_1}{L_2} = \frac{A}{1.25}

New resistance:

R2=ρL2A2=R1(L2L1)2 R_2 = \rho \frac{L_2}{A_2} = R_1 \left(\frac{L_2}{L_1}\right)^2

⇒ R2=R(1.25)2=R(2516) R_2 = R \left(1.25\right)^2 = R \left(\frac{25}{16}\right)

∴ The new resistance is 2516R\frac{25}{16}R

Question 85

As shopkeeper uses a weight of 950 gm instead of 1 kg and sells the articles at the marked price, which is 15% above the cost price. What is his profit percentage?

  1. AOption (a)

    22319\frac{3}{19}%

  2. BOption (b)

    23719\frac{7}{19}%

  3. COption (c)

    20519\frac{5}{19}%

  4. DOption (d)

    21119\frac{1}{19}%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

21119\frac{1}{19}%

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Net profit is calculated by the successive effect of price markup and weight manipulation.

Markup ratio: 100 : 115 and Weight ratio: 950 : 1000.

Effective ratio = (115 ÷ 100) × (1000 ÷ 950) = 1150 ÷ 950 = 23 ÷ 19.

Profit ratio = (23 − 19) ÷ 19 = 4 ÷ 19.

Profit % = (4 ÷ 19) × 100 = 400 ÷ 19 % = 21 1/19 %.

∴ The correct answer is 21 1/19 %.

Alternate Method

Let the Cost Price (CP) of 1000 gm be 1000 units. Formulas: Profit % = (Net SP − Actual CP) ÷ Actual CP × 100 | SP = CP × (100 + P%) ÷ 100.

⇒ The shopkeeper charges for 1000 gm but gives only 950 gm. ⇒ Actual CP for shopkeeper = 950 units (since he only gives 950 gm). ⇒ Selling Price (SP) = Marked Price (MP) = 1000 + 15% of 1000 = 1150 units. ⇒ Net Profit = 1150 − 950 = 200 units. ⇒ Profit % = (200 ÷ 950) × 100 = (4 ÷ 19) × 100 = 400 ÷ 19 % = 21 1/19 %.

∴ The correct answer is 21 1/19 %.

Additional Information

Dishonest Dealer Concept

Profit is made by both increasing the price and by cheating in weight. Net Gain % = [(True Value − False Value) + Profit % on CP] ÷ False Value × 100.

Marked Price & Discount

MP is the price printed on the label. If no discount is given, MP becomes the Selling Price.

Question 86

Consider the following statements about magnetic field due to a bar magnet:

(a) The field lines inside a bar magnet are directed from its south pole to the north pole.

(b) The magnetic field lines exist only outside the bar magnet.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Both (a) and (b)

  2. BOption (b)

    Only (b)

  3. COption (c)

    Only (a)

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither (a) nor (b)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only (a)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Only (a)

Key Points

  • Magnetic field lines inside a bar magnet are directed from its south pole to the north pole.
  • Magnetic field lines also exist inside the bar magnet, not just outside it.
  • The correct statement here is (a), indicating the direction of magnetic field lines inside the bar magnet.
  • Statement (b) is incorrect as it falsely claims that magnetic field lines exist only outside the bar magnet.

Additional Information

  • Magnetic field lines are continuous and form closed loops.
  • Outside the bar magnet, magnetic field lines travel from the north pole to the south pole.
  • The concept of magnetic field lines helps in visualizing the strength and direction of the magnetic field.
  • A bar magnet has a dipole field, meaning it has two poles: north and south.
  • Magnetic fields are vector fields, which means they have both magnitude and direction.

Question 87

A man plants 21,025 mango trees in his garden in such a way that there are as many rows as there are mango trees in each row. Find the number of rows.

  1. AOption (a)

    145

  2. BOption (b)

    125

  3. COption (c)

    135

  4. DOption (d)

    130

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

145

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Number of rows = Number of trees per row.

Total trees = (Number of rows)2.

Since the number ends in 25, the square root must end in 5.

For 21025, we look at 210: 142 = 196 and 152 = 225. So, the first two digits are 14.

Result = 145.

∴ The correct answer is 145 rows.

Alternate Method

Given: Total mango trees = 21,025.

Condition: Number of rows = Number of trees in each row.

⇒ Let the number of rows be x.

⇒ Number of trees per row = x.

⇒ Total trees = x × x = x2.

⇒ x2 = 21,025.

⇒ x = √21,025.

⇒ x = √(5 × 5 × 29 × 29) = 5 × 29.

⇒ x = 145.

∴ The correct answer is 145 rows.

Additional Information

Square Root of Numbers ending in 25

To find √N, if N ends in 25, the root ends in 5. The remaining part of N must be a product of two consecutive integers n × (n+1). The root starts with n.

Perfect Square Condition

A perfect square never ends with the digits 2, 3, 7, or 8. Since 21,025 ends in 5, it can be a perfect square.

Long Division Method

Pairing digits from right (25, 10, 2) and dividing systematically allows finding roots of any large number.

Question 88

Select the INCORRECT statement regarding respiration in plants.

  1. AOption (a)

    Plants exchange gases through stomata

  2. BOption (b)

    Oxygen and CO2 are exchanged by diffusion

  3. COption (c)

    Carbon dioxide is added to the atmosphere during the day

  4. DOption (d)

    Cells are in contact with air due to large intercellular spaces

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Carbon dioxide is added to the atmosphere during the day

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Carbon dioxide is added to the atmosphere during the day

Key Points

  • Plants exchange gases through stomata, small openings on the surface of leaves.
  • Oxygen and CO2 are exchanged by diffusion, a passive process where these gases move from areas of higher concentration to areas of lower concentration.
  • Carbon dioxide is not added to the atmosphere during the day; instead, plants typically take in CO2 during photosynthesis and release oxygen.
  • Plant cells are in contact with air due to large intercellular spaces within the plant tissues, facilitating gas exchange.

Additional Information

  • During the day, photosynthesis occurs in plants, where they take in carbon dioxide and release oxygen.
  • At night, when photosynthesis does not occur, plants continue to respire, taking in oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide.
  • Plant respiration is a continuous process that happens both day and night, ensuring that plant cells receive the energy they need for growth and maintenance.
  • The balance between photosynthesis and respiration helps maintain atmospheric oxygen and carbon dioxide levels.

Question 89

Study the given letter series and answer the question that follows.

L E A P K X O Z M T Y W U D Q F H

Which set of 3 letters will fall exactly in the middle of the series if the letters are arranged in alphabetical order?

  1. AOption (a)

    PQT

  2. BOption (b)

    OPQ

  3. COption (c)

    LMO

  4. DOption (d)

    MOP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

MOP

Why this answer is correct

Given word: 'LEAPKXOZMTYWUDQFH'

After arranged in alphabetical order:

AlphabetsLEAPKXOZMTYWUDQFH
Alphabetical orderADEFHKLMOPQTUWXYZ

 

After arranged in alphabetical order,

The middle set of 3 letters are: M O P

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 90

During digestion, food is broken down into simpler substances. For example, rice. potatoes and bread contain _________. These are broken down to form ________ .

  1. AOption (a)

    glucose, carbohydrates

  2. BOption (b)

    protein, glucose

  3. COption (c)

    carbohydrates, glucose

  4. DOption (d)

    carbohydrates, amino acid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

carbohydrates, glucose

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is carbohydrates, glucose

Key Points

  • During digestion, food is broken down into simpler substances to facilitate absorption and utilization by the body.
  • Rice, potatoes, and bread are rich in carbohydrates.
  • These carbohydrates are enzymatically broken down into simpler sugars, primarily glucose, which serves as a primary energy source for the body.
  • Glucose is then absorbed into the bloodstream and transported to cells for energy production.

Additional Information

  • The digestive process begins in the mouth with the mechanical breakdown of food and the action of salivary enzymes.
  • It continues in the stomach and small intestine where various enzymes further break down carbohydrates, proteins, and fats.
  • The end products of digestion are absorbed through the intestinal walls into the bloodstream.
  • A balanced diet includes a variety of nutrients, including carbohydrates, proteins, and fats, to ensure proper bodily function.

Question 91

Which one of the following rivers originates near Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kosi

  2. BOption (b)

    Narmada

  3. COption (c)

    Tapti

  4. DOption (d)

    Krishna

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Krishna

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Krishna

Key Points

  • Krishna River originates near Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra.
  • The Krishna River is one of the major rivers in India, flowing through the states of Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh.
  • It is the fourth largest river in India in terms of water inflow and river basin area.
  • The river is approximately 1,400 kilometers long.
  • Mahabaleshwar is known for its scenic beauty and is a popular hill station in the Western Ghats.

Additional Information

  • The Krishna River basin is one of the most fertile regions in India and supports extensive agriculture.
  • The river has several tributaries, including the Bhima, Tungabhadra, and Musi rivers.
  • Major dams on the Krishna River include the Nagarjuna Sagar Dam and the Srisailam Dam.
  • The river plays a crucial role in the irrigation and water supply for the regions it flows through.
  • The Krishna River delta is one of the most productive agricultural regions in South India.

Question 92

Simplify 1+cos⁡A1−cos⁡A\sqrt {\frac{{1 + \cos A}}{{1 -\cos A}}} .

  1. AOption (a)

    sec A + tan A

  2. BOption (b)

    sec A - tan A

  3. COption (c)

    cosec A + cot A

  4. DOption (d)

    Cosec A - cot A

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

cosec A + cot A

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Put a specific value for angle A. Let A = 60°.

Expression = √((1 + cos 60°)/(1 − cos 60°)) = √((1 + 0.5)/(1 − 0.5)) = √(1.5/0.5) = √3 ≈ 1.732.

Check options: cosec 60° + cot 60° = (2/√3) + (1/√3) = 3/√3 = √3 ≈ 1.732.

∴ The correct answer is cosec A + cot A.

Alternate Method

Given: √((1 + cos A)/(1 − cos A))

Formula Used: sin2A + cos2A = 1; Rationalization

⇒ To simplify, multiply the numerator and denominator by (1 + cos A) inside the square root.

⇒ √[((1 + cos A) × (1 + cos A)) / ((1 − cos A) × (1 + cos A))]

⇒ √[(1 + cos A)2 / (1 − cos2A)]

⇒ √[(1 + cos A)2 / sin2A]

⇒ (1 + cos A) / sin A

⇒ (1 / sin A) + (cos A / sin A)

⇒ cosec A + cot A

∴ The correct answer is cosec A + cot A.

Additional Information

Trigonometric Identities

Fundamental identities include sin2θ + cos2θ = 1, 1 + tan2θ = sec2θ, and 1 + cot2θ = cosec2θ.

Rationalization Shortcut

For expressions like √((1 ± sin θ)/(1 ∓ sin θ)), the result is always sec θ ± tan θ.

Reciprocal Relations

cosec θ = 1/sin θ, sec θ = 1/cos θ, and cot θ = cos θ/sin θ.

Question 93

Which of the following is equal to primary deficit?

  1. AOption (a)

    Revenue deficit plus interest payment

  2. BOption (b)

    Fiscal deficit minus interest payment

  3. COption (c)

    Fiscal deficit plus interest payment

  4. DOption (d)

    Revenue deficit minus interest payment

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Fiscal deficit minus interest payment

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Fiscal deficit minus interest payment

Key Points

  • Primary deficit is defined as the difference between the fiscal deficit of the current year and the interest payments on previous borrowings.
  • Primary deficit indicates the borrowing requirements of the government excluding interest payments.
  • It helps in understanding the underlying fiscal position of the government without the burden of past debts.
  • It is an important indicator of fiscal health and sustainability.

Additional Information

  • Fiscal deficit is the difference between the government's total expenditure and its total receipts (excluding borrowing).
  • It represents the total borrowing requirements of the government.
  • Interest payments are the payments made by the government to service its debt.
  • Understanding the primary deficit is crucial for assessing the long-term fiscal sustainability of a government.
  • A high primary deficit indicates that the government is borrowing not just to pay interest but also to cover its operational expenses, which can be a sign of fiscal stress.

Question 94

Select the option that is related to the fifth number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number and the fourth number is related to the third number.

(NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits. E.g. 13- Operations on 13 such as adding /subtracting /multiplying etc. to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on I and 3 is not allowed)

3 ∶ 30 ∶∶ 4 ∶ 68 ∶∶ 5 ∶ ?

  1. AOption (a)

    130

  2. BOption (b)

    125

  3. COption (c)

    150

  4. DOption (d)

    140

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

130

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

Logic: (1st number)3 + 1st number = 2nd number.

Now,

For, 3 : 30

⇒ (33) + 3 = 27 + 3 = 30.

For, 4 : 68

⇒ (43) + 4 = 64 + 4 = 68.

Similarly, for 5 ∶ ?

⇒ (53) + 5 = 125 + 5 = 130.

Hence, the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 95

From which of the following rivers do the Dhuadhar falls originate?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tapi

  2. BOption (b)

    Mahanadi

  3. COption (c)

    Narmada

  4. DOption (d)

    Kaveri

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Narmada

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Narmada

Key Points

  • Dhuadhar Falls originate from the Narmada River.
  • Located in the Jabalpur district of Madhya Pradesh, the Dhuadhar Falls are a prominent tourist attraction.
  • The name "Dhuadhar" comes from the Hindi word "Dhua," meaning smoke, which reflects the misty appearance of the falls due to the forceful water flow.
  • The falls are part of the Marble Rocks region where the Narmada River flows through a narrow gorge, creating a spectacular view.

Additional Information

  • The Narmada River is one of the major rivers in central India and is often referred to as the lifeline of Madhya Pradesh.
  • It is the fifth-longest river in India and the largest west-flowing river in the country.
  • The Narmada River is also considered one of the seven holy rivers of India, and it has significant cultural and religious importance.
  • The river basin supports a rich biodiversity and various ecosystems that are crucial for the environment and local communities.

Question 96

The LCM and HCF of two numbers are 1920 and 4, respectively. If one of the numbers is 60 then the other number is _______ .

  1. AOption (a)

    128

  2. BOption (b)

    140

  3. COption (c)

    130

  4. DOption (d)

    117

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

128

Why this answer is correct

Shortcut Trick

Product of two numbers = LCM × HCF

60 × Second Number = 1920 × 4

Second Number = (1920 × 4) ÷ 60

Second Number = 32 × 4 = 128

∴ The correct answer is 128.

Alternate Method

Given:

LCM = 1920

HCF = 4

First Number (n1) = 60

Formula Used:

n1 × n2 = LCM × HCF

Calculations:

⇒ 60 × n2 = 1920 × 4

⇒ n2 = (1920 × 4) ÷ 60

⇒ n2 = 32 × 4

⇒ n2 = 128

∴ The correct answer is 128.

Additional Information

HCF and LCM Relation

For any two positive integers a and b, HCF(a, b) × LCM(a, b) = a × b. This rule does not apply to more than two numbers.

Co-prime Numbers

If two numbers are co-prime, their HCF is always 1 and their LCM is the product of the two numbers.

HCF of Fractions

HCF of Fractions = (HCF of Numerators) ÷ (LCM of Denominators).

Question 97

Select the option that is related to the fifth letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster and the fourth letter-cluster is related to the third letter-custer.

FAKE ∶ GZLD ∶∶ CALL ∶ DZMK ∶∶ PICK ∶ ?

  1. AOption (a)

    QHBL

  2. BOption (b)

    QHBJ

  3. COption (c)

    QHDL

  4. DOption (d)

    QHDJ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

QHDJ

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

For FAKE ∶ GZLD 

For  CALL ∶ DZMK 

Similarly for PICK ∶ QHDJ

Hence the correct answer is "Option 4".

Question 98

In a certain code language, 'CREAM' is written as 'FUVEQ' and 'STOVE' is written as 'VWLZI'. How will PITCH be written in that language?

  1. AOption (a)

    SLGGL

  2. BOption (b)

    SLXGL

  3. COption (c)

    TMGFK

  4. DOption (d)

    TGMKF

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

SLGGL

Why this answer is correct

The logic followed here is:

 For, 'CREAM' is coded as 'FUVEQ'

For, 'STOVE' is coded as 'VWLZI'

Similarly, 'PITCH' will be coded as 'SLGGL'

Hence the correct answer is "Option 1".

Question 99

An object is placed in front of a concave mirror at a distance thrice its focal length (3f). The image is formed at:

  1. AOption (a)

    a point beyond C

  2. BOption (b)

    a point between F and C

  3. COption (c)

    a point behind the mirror

  4. DOption (d)

    C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

a point between F and C

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is a point between F and C

Key Points

  • When an object is placed at a distance of 3f (thrice the focal length) from a concave mirror, it forms an image between the focal point (F) and the center of curvature (C).
  • The nature of the image formed is real, inverted, and smaller than the object.
  • This principle is derived from the mirror equation and ray diagrams for concave mirrors.

Additional Information

  • Mirror Equation: The mirror equation is given by , where is the focal length, is the image distance, and uuuuuuuuu

    [Math Processing Error] is the object distance.

  • In this scenario, . By substituting this value into the mirror equation, we can solve for vvvvvvvvv

    [Math Processing Error] (the image distance).

  • Ray Diagram: A ray diagram for this setup will show rays converging to a point between F and C.

  • These concepts are fundamental in understanding the behavior of light and image formation in concave mirrors.

Question 100

Neetu steps out from her classroom and walks 25 m towards the east. She takes a right turn and walks 20 m. She takes a right turn again and walks 62 m. Again, she takes a right turn and walks 91 m. She takes a right turn again and walks 62 m. Again, she takes a right turn and walks 35 m. she takes a right turn again and walks 25 m. She takes a final right turn and walks 15 m to reach point X. How far and in which direction is point X from Neetu's classroom? (All turns are 90 degree turns only)

  1. AOption (a)

    55 m, South

  2. BOption (b)

    51 m, North

  3. COption (c)

    51 m, South

  4. DOption (d)

    55 m, North

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

51 m, North

Why this answer is correct

Given: Neetu steps out from her classroom and walks 25 m towards the east.

She takes a right turn and walks 20 m.

She takes a right turn again and walks 62 m.

Again, she takes a right turn and walks 91 m.

She takes a right turn again and walks 62 m.

Again, she takes a right turn and walks 35 m.

She takes a right turn again and walks 25 m.

She takes a final right turn and walks 15 m to reach point X

(36 + 15 = 51m)

So, point X is 51m North from Neetu's classroom.

Hence the correct answer is "Option 2".

100 questions in the full paper