Previous Year Paper

NDA General Ability Test 6 Sep 2020 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2020

150 questions150 minutes
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General Ability Test (150 questions)

Question 1

Directions

Each item in this sections consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.**

He nodded absently throughout the meeting.

  1. AOption (a)

    capably

  2. BOption (b)

    alertly

  3. COption (c)

    agitatedly

  4. DOption (d)

    dreamily

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

alertly

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. alertly.

<br>

Key Points  

  • The word 'absently' means lost in thought and unaware of one's surroundings or actions. (विचारों में खो जाना और अपने परिवेश या कार्यों से अनजान)
  • The antonyms of the word 'absently' are "alertly, attentively, aware, consciously".
  • From the antonym of the given word, we can say that the word 'alertly' is the opposite in meaning.
  • The word 'alertly' means the state of being constantly attentive and responsive to signs of opportunity, activity, or danger. (अवसर, गतिविधि या खतरे के संकेतों के प्रति लगातार चौकस और उत्तरदायी होने की अवस्था)

Hence, we can say that 'alertly' is the opposite in meaning to the given word. Let's see the meaning of other given options-

WORDSMEANING
capablyin a way that demonstrates skill and aptitude; competently. (एक तरह से जो कौशल और योग्यता प्रदर्शित करता है; सुयोग्य)
agitatedlyas in confusedly, crazily. (उलझन में, पागलपन से)
dreamilyin a pleasing way. (सुखद तरीके से)

 

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'absently' are "absentminded, abstracted, distracted, preoccupied".

Question 2

Directions

Each item in this sections consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.**

I fully believe that the cornerstone of good policy is an electorate that is educated on the national issues

  1. AOption (a)

    cerebral

  2. BOption (b)

    enlightened

  3. COption (c)

    ignorant

  4. DOption (d)

    erudite

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

ignorant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. ignorant.

Key Points  

  • The word 'educated' means having or displaying advanced knowledge or education. (उन्नत ज्ञान या शिक्षा प्राप्त करना या प्रदर्शित करना)
  • The antonyms of the word 'educated' are "ignorant, illiterate, uneducated".
  • From the antonym of the given word, we can say that the word 'ignorant' is opposite in meaning.
  • The word 'ignorant' means lacking knowledge or awareness in general; uneducated or unsophisticated. (सामान्य रूप से ज्ञान या जागरूकता की कमी; अशिक्षित या अपरिष्कृत)

Hence, we can say that 'ignorant' is the opposite in meaning to the given word. Let's see the meaning of other given options-

WORDSMEANING
cerebralintellectual rather than emotional or physical. (भावनात्मक या शारीरिक के बजाय बौद्धिक)
enlightenedgive (someone) greater knowledge and understanding about a subject or situation. ((किसी को) किसी विषय या स्थिति के बारे में अधिक ज्ञान और समझ देना)
eruditehaving or showing great knowledge or learning. (महान ज्ञान या सीखना होना या दिखाना )

 

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'educated' are "erudite, knowledgeable, literate, scholarly".

Question 3

Directions

Each item in this sections consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.**

For important medical decisions, even finding a doctor you trust is not enough

  1. AOption (a)

    significant

  2. BOption (b)

    trivial

  3. COption (c)

    basic

  4. DOption (d)

    probable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

trivial

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. trivial.

Key Points  

  • The word 'important' means having great meaning or lasting effect. (महान अर्थ या स्थायी प्रभाव होना)
  • The antonyms of the word 'important' are "trivial, unimportant, inconsiderable, insignificant".
  • From the antonym of the given word, we can say that the word 'trivial' is opposite in meaning.
  • The word 'trivial' means of little value or importance. (कम मूल्य या महत्व का)

Hence, we can say that 'trivial' is the opposite in meaning to the given word. Let's see the meaning of other given options-

WORDSMEANING
Significantsufficiently great or important to be worthy of attention; noteworthy. (ध्यान देने योग्य होने के लिए पर्याप्त रूप से महान या महत्वपूर्ण; गौरतलब है)
Basicthe essential facts or principles of a subject or skill. (किसी विषय या कौशल के आवश्यक तथ्य या सिद्धांत)
Probablelikely to happen or be the case. (होने की संभावना)

 

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'important' are "meaningful, significant, substantial".

Question 4

Directions

Each item in this sections consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.**

Planets move in their orbits.

  1. AOption (a)

    push

  2. BOption (b)

    rotate

  3. COption (c)

    stall

  4. DOption (d)

    flow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

stall

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. stall.

<br>

Key Points  

  • The word 'move' means to cause to function. (कार्य करने के लिए कारण)
  • The antonyms of the word 'move' are "stall, halt, jam".
  • From the antonym of the given word, we can say that the word 'stall' is opposite in meaning.
  • The word 'stall' means to stop or cause to stop making progress. (रुकना या प्रगति करना बंद करना)

Hence, we can say that 'stall' is opposite in meaning to the given word. Let's see the meaning of other given options-

WORDSMEANING
pushexert force on (someone or something) in order to move them away from oneself
(किसी या किसी चीज़ पर) उन्हें अपने आप से दूर करने के लिए बल लगाना)
rotatemove or cause to move in a circle round an axis or centre
(एक धुरी या केंद्र के चारों ओर एक सर्कल में स्थानांतरित करने या स्थानांतरित करने का कारण)
flowgo from one place to another in a steady stream, typically in large numbers
(एक स्थान से दूसरे स्थान पर एक स्थिर धारा में जाना, आमतौर पर बड़ी संख्या में)

 

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'move' are "actuate, run, trigger, turn on".

Question 5

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.**

Temperature is a measure of internal energy of an object is frequently expressed by physicist in units of Kelvin

  1. AOption (a)

    found

  2. BOption (b)

    told

  3. COption (c)

    distributed

  4. DOption (d)

    concealed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

concealed

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. concealed.

Key Points:-

  • The word 'expressed' means conveyed (a thought or feeling) in words or by gestures and conduct. (शब्दों में या इशारों और आचरण से संप्रेषित (एक विचार या भावना))
  • The antonyms of the word 'expressed' are "concealed, implicit, unexpressed, unspoken".
  • From the antonym of the given word, we can say that the word 'concealed' is opposite in meaning.
  • The word 'concealed' means kept secret; hidden. (गोपनीय रखा; छिपा हुआ)

Hence, we can say that 'concealed' is the opposite in meaning to the given word. Let's see the meaning of other given options-

WORDSMEANING
foundhaving been discovered by chance or unexpectedly. (संयोग से या अप्रत्याशित रूप से खोजा गया है)
toldcommunicate information to someone in spoken or written words. (किसी को बोले गए या लिखित शब्दों में जानकारी संप्रेषित करना)
distributedgive a share or a unit of (something) to each of a number of recipients. (कई प्राप्तकर्ताओं में से प्रत्येक को (कुछ) का एक हिस्सा या एक इकाई दें)

 

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'expressed' are "explicit, express, spoken, stated, voiced".

Question 6

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.**

People argue about why Venus is so much warmer than the Earth

  1. AOption (a)

    friendlier

  2. BOption (b)

    colder

  3. COption (c)

    wilder

  4. DOption (d)

    heavier

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

colder

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. colder.

Key Points:-

  • The word 'warmer' means of or at a fairly or comfortably high temperature. (उचित या आराम से उच्च तापमान पर )
  • The antonyms of the word 'warmer' are "colder, cool, chilled".
  • From the antonym of the given word, we can say that the word 'colder' is opposite in meaning.
  • The word 'colder' means of or at a low or relatively low temperature. (कम या अपेक्षाकृत कम तापमान पर)

Hence, we can say that 'colder' is the opposite in meaning to the given word. Let's see the meaning of other given options-

WORDSMEANING
Friendlierkind and pleasant. (दयालु और सुखद)
Wildercause to lose one's way; lead or drive astray. (रास्ता भटकने का कारण; नेतृत्व या ड्राइव पथभ्रष्ट)
Heavierof great weight; difficult to lift or move. (बड़े वजन का; उठाना या हिलना मुश्किल)

 

Additional Information

  • The word 'warmer' synonyms are "hot, warming, cozy, snug, comfortable".

Question 7

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.**

Scientists are concerned whether the oceans and land biosphere will take up as much carbon in the future as they presently do.

  1. AOption (a)

    worried

  2. BOption (b)

    indifferent

  3. COption (c)

    curious

  4. DOption (d)

    puzzled

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

indifferent

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. indifferent.

Key Points:-

  • The word 'concerned' means worried, troubled, or anxious. (चिंतित, परेशान)
  • The antonyms of the word 'concerned' are "indifferent, disinterested, dispassionate, incurious".
  • From the antonym of the given word, we can say that the word 'indifferent' is opposite in meaning.
  • The word 'indifferent' means having no particular interest or sympathy; unconcerned. (कोई विशेष रुचि या सहानुभूति नहीं होना; असंबद्ध)

Hence, we can say that 'indifferent' is the opposite in meaning to the given word. Let's see the meaning of other given options-

WORDSMEANING
worriedanxious or troubled about actual or potential problems. (वास्तविक या संभावित समस्याओं के बारे में चिंतित या परेशान)
curiouseager to know or learn something. (कुछ जानने या सीखने के लिए उत्सुक)
puzzledunable to understand; perplexed. (कुछ समझ नहीं आ रहा है; विकल)

 

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'concerned' are "anxious, distracted, engaged, engrossed".

Question 8

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.**

The biggest debate among scientists today is about cloud feedback.

  1. AOption (a)

    contend

  2. BOption (b)

    moot

  3. COption (c)

    wrangle

  4. DOption (d)

    agreement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

agreement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. agreement.

Key Points:- 

  • The word 'debate' means a variance of opinion on a matter. (किसी मामले पर राय का विचलन)
  • The antonyms of the word 'debate' are " agreement, consensus, harmony, unanimity".
  • From the antonym of the given word, we can say that the word 'agreement' is opposite in meaning.
  • The word 'agreement' means harmony or accordance in opinion or feeling. (सद्भाव या राय या भावना के अनुसार)

Hence, we can say that 'agreement' is opposite in meaning to the given word. Let's see the meaning of other given options-

WORDSMEANING
contendassert something as a position in an argument. (किसी तर्क में स्थिति के रूप में कुछ कहना)
mootsubject to debate, dispute, or uncertainty. (बहस, विवाद, या अनिश्चितता के अधीन)
wranglea dispute or argument, typically one that is long and complicated. (एक विवाद या तर्क, आमतौर पर एक जो लंबा और जटिल होता है)

 

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'debate' are "difference, disagreement, dispute, dissension".

Question 9

Directions

Each item in this sections consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.**

The Earth's climate sensitivity is conventionally defined as the equilibrium temperature increase caused by a doubling of carbon dioxide.

  1. AOption (a)

    imperviousness

  2. BOption (b)

    willingness

  3. COption (c)

    responsiveness

  4. DOption (d)

    closeness

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

imperviousness

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. imperviousness.

<br>

Key Points  

  • The word 'sensitivity' means the state or quality of being able to sense slight impressions or differences. (मामूली छापों या मतभेदों को महसूस करने में सक्षम होने की अवस्था या गुण)
  • The antonyms of the word 'sensitivity' are "imperviousness, insensitivity".
  • From the antonym of the given word, we can say that the word 'imperviousness' is opposite in meaning.
  • The word 'imperviousness' means incapable of being affected. (प्रभावित होने में असमर्थ)

Hence, we can say that 'imperviousness' is opposite in meaning to the given word. Let's see the meaning of other given options-

WORDSMEANING
willingnessthe quality or state of being prepared to do something; readiness
(कुछ करने के लिए तैयार होने की अवस्था या भाव; तत्परता)
responsivenessthe quality of reacting quickly and positively
(जल्दी और सकारात्मक प्रतिक्रिया देने की गुणवत्ता)
closenessthe quality of affection or intimacy in a relationship
(रिश्ते में स्नेह या अंतरंगता की गुणवत्ता)

 

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'sensitivity' are "delicacy, perceptiveness, sensitiveness".

Question 10

Directions

Each item in this sections consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.**

The oceans carry a huge amount of heat from the tropics to the high latitudes.

  1. AOption (a)

    significant

  2. BOption (b)

    major

  3. COption (c)

    tiny

  4. DOption (d)

    dormant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

tiny

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. tiny.

Key Points:-

  • The word 'huge' means unusually large. (असामान्य रूप से बड़ा)
  • The antonyms of the word 'huge' are "tiny, little, mini, petite".
  • From the antonym of the given word, we can say that the word 'tiny' is opposite in meaning.
  • The word 'tiny' means very small. (बहुत छोटा)

Hence, we can say that 'tiny' is the opposite in meaning to the given word. Let's see the meaning of other given options-

WORDSMEANING
significantsufficiently great or important to be worthy of attention; noteworthy.
(ध्यान देने योग्य होने के लिए पर्याप्त रूप से महान या महत्वपूर्ण; गौरतलब है)
majorimportant, serious, or significant.
(महत्वपूर्ण, गंभीर)
dormantbeing in a state of suspended consciousness.
(निलंबित चेतना की स्थिति में होना)
<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'huge' are "tremendous, vast, whacking, whopping".

Question 11

Directions

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence(s), the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. given below each sentence are four sequences namely (1), (2), (3) and (4). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.**

P: several years ago

Q: course on climate change at Texas A & M University

R: Professor Andrew Dessler created an introductory

S: for freshmen and sophomores

  1. AOption (a)

    P R Q S

  2. BOption (b)

    Q R P S

  3. COption (c)

    S Q R P

  4. DOption (d)

    P Q R S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

P R Q S

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. P R Q S​.

​

Key Points

  • The sentence 'P' is independent of any other sentences as it is giving general information about "sometime back". Hence, 'P' is the first part.
  • The noun "Professor Andrew Dessler" in the sentence 'R' refers back to the sentence 'P'. Hence, 'R' follows 'P'.
  • The adjective 'introductory' in the sentence 'R' is describing the noun "course" in the sentence 'Q'. Hence, 'Q' follows 'R'.
  • The sentence 'S' is concluding the sentence by mentioning for whom the course is all about. Hence, 'S' makes the last sentence.

After rearranging the sentences: Several years ago Professor Andrew Dessler created an introductory course on climate change at Texas A & M University for freshmen and sophomores.

Important Points

  • Important Rules to Solve the Sentence Jumbles:
  • Read the sentences attentively and try to comprehend the idea or theme of the sentence and eliminate the irrelevant options.
  • Try to identify the opening (independent sentence) and closing sentences (concluding sentence).
  • Try to identify the mandatory pairs. Two sentences can be connected through various connectors and other determinants.

Question 12

Directions

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence(s), the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. given below each sentence are four sequences namely (1), (2), (3) and (4). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

P: I realize that solving the climate change problem

Q: than solving

R: will be much harder

S: the ozone depletion problem

  1. AOption (a)

    P R Q S

  2. BOption (b)

    Q R P S

  3. COption (c)

    S Q R P

  4. DOption (d)

    P Q R S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

P R Q S

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. P R Q S​.

​

Key Points

  • The sentence 'P' is independent of any other sentences as it is giving general information about "solving the climate change". Hence, 'P' is the first part.
  • The future result of the sentence 'P' is described in the sentence 'R'. Hence, 'R' follows 'P'.
  • The adjective 'harder' in the sentence 'R' is linked with the preposition "than" in the sentence 'Q'. Hence, 'Q' follows 'R'.
  • The sentence 'S' is concluding the sentence. Hence, 'S' makes the last sentence.

After rearranging the sentences: I realize that solving the climate change problem will be much harder than solving.

Important Points

  • Important Rules to Solve the Sentence Jumbles:
  • Read the sentences attentively and try to comprehend the idea or theme of the sentence and eliminate the irrelevant options.
  • Try to identify the opening (independent sentence) and closing sentences (concluding sentence).
  • Try to identify the mandatory pairs. Two sentences can be connected through various connectors and other determinants.

Question 13

Directions

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence(s), the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. given below each sentence are four sequences namely (1), (2), (3) and (4). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

P: although the temperature of this layer of the

Q: when directly comparing the satellite

R: measurements of temperature

S: atmosphere should generally track the surface temperature, we must be careful

  1. AOption (a)

    P R Q S

  2. BOption (b)

    P S Q R

  3. COption (c)

    S Q R P

  4. DOption (d)

    P Q R S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

P S Q R

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. P S Q R​.

​

Key Points

  • The sentence 'P' is independent of any other sentences as it is giving general information about "temperature of a layer". Hence, 'P' is the first part.
  • The phrase "layer of the" in the sentence 'P' is linked with the noun 'atmosphere' in the sentence 'S'. Hence, 'S' follows 'P'.
  • The adjective 'careful' in the sentence 'S' is modified by the adverb "when" in the sentence 'Q'. Hence, 'Q' follows 'S'.
  • The sentence 'R' is concluding the sentence. Hence, 'R' makes the last sentence.

After rearranging the sentences: Although the temperature of this layer of the atmosphere should generally track the surface temperature, we must be careful when directly comparing the satellite measurements of temperature.

Important Points

  • Important Rules to Solve the Sentence Jumbles:
  • Read the sentences attentively and try to comprehend the idea or theme of the sentence and eliminate the irrelevant options.
  • Try to identify the opening (independent sentence) and closing sentences (concluding sentence).
  • Try to identify the mandatory pairs. Two sentences can be connected through various connectors and other determinants.

Question 14

Directions

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence(s), the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled as P, Q, R, and S. given below each sentence are four sequences namely (1), (2), (3), and (4). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

P: the element heats up,

Q: eventually reaching high temperatures

R: glowing like a dark orange that radiates

S: the visible range,

  1. AOption (a)

    P Q S R

  2. BOption (b)

    Q P S R

  3. COption (c)

    S Q R P

  4. DOption (d)

    P R S Q

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

P R S Q

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. P R S Q

​

Key Points

  • The sentence 'P' is independent of any other sentences as it is giving general information about the "Heating of element". Hence, 'P' is the first part.
  • The result of the sentence 'R' is described in the sentence 'P'. Hence, 'R' follows 'P'.
  • The sentence 'S' is linked with the sentence 'R'. Hence, 'S' follows 'R'.
  • The sentence 'Q' is concluding the sentence by describing that eventually after heating and radiating it reaches high temperatures. . Hence, 'Q' makes the last sentence.

After rearranging the sentences: The element heats up, glowing like a dark orange that radiates the visible range, eventually reaching high temperatures.

Important Points

  • Important Rules to Solve the Sentence Jumbles:
  • Read the sentences attentively and try to comprehend the idea or theme of the sentence and eliminate the irrelevant options.
  • Try to identify the opening (independent sentence) and closing sentences (concluding sentence).
  • Try to identify the mandatory pairs. Two sentences can be connected through various connectors and other determinants.

Question 15

Directions

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence(s), the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. given below each sentence are four sequences namely (1), (2), (3) and (4). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

P: two people argue why Venus is so much warmer

Q: to the Sun, so it absorbs more solar energy, the second argues

R: that it's because Venus has a thick, greenhouse-gas-rich atmosphere

S: than the Earth, the first argues that it's because Venus is closer

  1. AOption (a)

    P S Q R

  2. BOption (b)

    Q R P S

  3. COption (c)

    S Q R P

  4. DOption (d)

    P Q R S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

P S Q R

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. P S Q R​.

​

Key Points

  • The sentence 'P' is independent of any other sentences as it is giving general information about an "argument". Hence, 'P' is the first part.
  • The comparative adjective 'warmer' in the sentence 'P' is linked with the preposition 'than' in the sentence 'S'. Hence, 'S' follows 'P'.
  • The phrase "Venus is closer" in the sentence 'S' is linked with the noun 'Sun' in the sentence 'Q'. Hence, 'Q' follows 'S'.
  • The sentence 'R' is concluding the sentence by mentioning the final argument. Hence, 'R' makes the last sentence.

After rearranging the sentences: Two people argue why Venus is so much warmer than the Earth, the first argues that it's because Venus is closer to the Sun, so it absorbs more solar energy, the second argues that it's because Venus has a thick, greenhouse-gas-rich atmosphere.

Important Points

  • Important Rules to Solve the Sentence Jumbles:
  • Read the sentences attentively and try to comprehend the idea or theme of the sentence and eliminate the irrelevant options.
  • Try to identify the opening (independent sentence) and closing sentences (concluding sentence).
  • Try to identify the mandatory pairs. Two sentences can be connected through various connectors and other determinants.

Question 16

Directions

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence(s), the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. given below each sentence are four sequences namely (1), (2), (3) and (4). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

P: are now used by more than a thousand firms

Q: and are growing in popularity

R: in the United States and Europe

S: gain sharing-plans

  1. AOption (a)

    P R Q S

  2. BOption (b)

    Q R P S

  3. COption (c)

    P R S Q

  4. DOption (d)

    S P R Q

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

S P R Q

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. S P R Q.

​

Key Points

  • The sentence 'S' is independent of any other sentences as it is giving general information about a "plan". Hence, 'S' is the first part.
  • The use of the noun "gain sharing-plans" in the sentence 'S' is described in the sentence 'P'. Hence, 'P' follows 'S'.
  • The noun "firms" in the sentence 'P' is linked with the preposition 'in' in the sentence 'R'. Hence, 'R' follows 'P'.
  • The sentence 'Q' is concluding the sentence by mentioning the final result. Hence, 'Q' makes the last sentence.

After rearranging the sentences: Gain sharing-plans are now used by more than a thousand firms in the United States and Europe and are growing in popularity.

Important Points

  • Important Rules to Solve the Sentence Jumbles:
  • Read the sentences attentively and try to comprehend the idea or theme of the sentence and eliminate the irrelevant options.
  • Try to identify the opening (independent sentence) and closing sentences (concluding sentence).
  • Try to identify the mandatory pairs. Two sentences can be connected through various connectors and other determinants.

Question 17

Directions

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence(s), the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. given below each sentence are four sequences namely (1), (2), (3) and (4). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

P: adversity without succumbing

Q: to the clouds of doubt and jealousy

R: between friends which is subjected to both prosperity and

S: the essay 'Of Friendship' by Francis Bacon celebrated the intimacy

  1. AOption (a)

    P R Q S

  2. BOption (b)

    Q R P S

  3. COption (c)

    S R P Q

  4. DOption (d)

    P Q R S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

S R P Q

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. S R P Q.

​

Key Points

  • The sentence 'S' is independent of any other sentences as it is giving general information about "the essay". Hence, 'S' is the first part.
  • The noun "intimacy" in the sentence 'S' is linked with the preposition 'between' in the sentence 'R'. Hence, 'R' follows 'S'.
  • The conjunction 'and' in the sentence 'R' is connecting the noun 'prosperity' to the noun 'adversity' in the sentence 'P'. Hence, 'P' follows 'R'.
  • The sentence 'Q' is concluding the sentence and also 'succumbing' is followed by the preposition 'to'. Hence, 'Q' makes the last sentence.

After rearranging the sentences: The essay 'Of Friendship' by Francis Bacon celebrated the intimacy between friends which is subjected to both prosperity and adversity without succumbing to the clouds of doubt and jealousy.

Important Points

  • Important Rules to Solve the Sentence Jumbles:
  • Read the sentences attentively and try to comprehend the idea or theme of the sentence and eliminate the irrelevant options.
  • Try to identify the opening (independent sentence) and closing sentences (concluding sentence).
  • Try to identify the mandatory pairs. Two sentences can be connected through various connectors and other determinants.

Question 18

Directions

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence(s), the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. given below each sentence are four sequences namely (1), (2), (3) and (4). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

P: friends without which the world is

Q: make friends and a person wills to want true

R: it is miserable solitude that compels a person to

S: nothing other than a place of wilderness

  1. AOption (a)

    P R Q S

  2. BOption (b)

    Q R P S

  3. COption (c)

    R Q P S

  4. DOption (d)

    P Q R S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

R Q P S

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. R Q P S.

​

Key Points

  • The sentence 'R' is independent of any other sentences as it is giving general information about "miserable solitude". Hence, 'R' is the first part.
  • The phrase "compels a person" in the sentence 'R' is linked with the phrase "make friends" in the sentence 'Q'. Hence, 'Q' follows 'R'.
  • The adjective 'true' in the sentence 'Q' is describing the noun 'friends' in the sentence 'P'. Hence, 'P' follows 'Q'.
  • The sentence 'S' is concluding the sentence. Hence, 'S' makes the last sentence.

After rearranging the sentences: It is miserable solitude that compels a person to make friends and a person wills to want true friends without which the world is nothing other than a place of wilderness.

Important Points

  • Important Rules to Solve the Sentence Jumbles:
  • Read the sentences attentively and try to comprehend the idea or theme of the sentence and eliminate the irrelevant options.
  • Try to identify the opening (independent sentence) and closing sentences (concluding sentence).
  • Try to identify the mandatory pairs. Two sentences can be connected through various connectors and other determinants.

Question 19

Directions

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence(s), the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. given below each sentence are four sequences namely (1), (2), (3) and (4). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

P: takes the longest

Q: that never started

R: the job

S: to finish

  1. AOption (a)

    P R Q S

  2. BOption (b)

    R Q P S

  3. COption (c)

    S Q R P

  4. DOption (d)

    P Q R S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

R Q P S

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. R Q P S​.​

Key Points

  • The sentence 'R' is independent of any other sentences as it is giving general information about "the job". Hence, 'R' is the first part.
  • The determiner "that" in the sentence 'Q' refers back to the noun "job" in the sentence 'R'. Hence, 'Q' follows 'R'.
  • The verb 'started' in the sentence 'Q' is linked with the verb 'takes' in the sentence 'P'. Hence, 'P' follows 'Q'.
  • The sentence 'S' is concluding the sentence. Hence, 'S' makes the last sentence.

After rearranging the sentences: The job that never started takes the longest to finish.

Important Points

  • Important Rules to Solve the Sentence Jumbles:
  • Read the sentences attentively and try to comprehend the idea or theme of the sentence and eliminate the irrelevant options.
  • Try to identify the opening (independent sentence) and closing sentences (concluding sentence).
  • Try to identify the mandatory pairs. Two sentences can be connected through various connectors and other determinants.

Question 20

Directions

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence(s), the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. given below each sentence are four sequences namely (1), (2), (3) and (4). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

P: to what you create

Q: control, shift your energy

R: instead of worrying about

S: what you cannot

  1. AOption (a)

    P R S Q

  2. BOption (b)

    Q R S P

  3. COption (c)

    S Q R P

  4. DOption (d)

    R S Q P

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

R S Q P

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. R S Q P​.​

Key Points

  • The sentence 'R' is independent of any other sentences as it is giving general information about "the substitute of worry". Hence, 'R' is the first part.
  • The preposition "about" in the sentence 'R' is linked with the pronoun "what" in the sentence 'S'. Hence, 'S' follows 'R'.
  • The adverb 'not' in the sentence 'S' is modifying the verb 'control' in the sentence 'Q'. Hence, 'Q' follows 'S'.
  • The sentence 'P' is concluding the sentence. Hence, 'P' makes the last sentence.

After rearranging the sentences: Instead of worrying about what you cannot control, shift your energy to what you create.

Important Points

  • Important Rules to Solve the Sentence Jumbles:
  • Read the sentences attentively and try to comprehend the idea or theme of the sentence and eliminate the irrelevant options.
  • Try to identify the opening (independent sentence) and closing sentences (concluding sentence).
  • Try to identify the mandatory pairs. Two sentences can be connected through various connectors and other determinants.

Question 21

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.

She got the divorce within no time

  1. AOption (a)

    detachment

  2. BOption (b)

    breaking down

  3. COption (c)

    annulment

  4. DOption (d)

    punishment

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

annulment

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'annulment.'

Key Points

  • The given word 'divorce' means a legal decree dissolving a marriage. (क़ानूनन विवाह-विच्‍छेद या तलाक़)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Detachment' means the fact or feeling of not being personally involved in something. (किसी चीज़ में व्यक्तिगत रूप से शामिल न होने की भावना)
  • 'Breaking down' means cease to continue; collapse. (टूट जाना, विफल हो जाना)
  • 'Annulment' means an invalidation, as of marriage, by the decree of a court. (अदालत की आधिकारिक आदेश द्वारा, विवाह के रूप में अमान्यता)
  • 'Punishment' means the action or way of punishing somebody. (दंड, सज़ा)

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'divorce' are "annulment, invalidation, cancellation".
  • The antonyms of the word 'divorce' are "enactment, validation, retention".
  • Example of 'divorce' in a sentence:
  • The point of being married is not to get a divorce.

Question 22

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.

He was known for his gentle disposition.

  1. AOption (a)

    harmful

  2. BOption (b)

    amiable

  3. COption (c)

    cunning

  4. DOption (d)

    adjusting

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

amiable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. amiable.

Key Points:-

  • The word 'gentle' means having or showing a mild, kind, or tender temperament or character. (सौम्य, दयालु या कोमल स्वभाव या चरित्र होना या दिखाना)
  • The synonyms of the given word 'gentle' are "amiable, kind, tender, benign, humane".
  • The synonym of the given word 'gentle' is 'amiable' since both have a similar meaning.
  • The word 'amiable' means having or displaying a friendly and pleasant manner. (दोस्ताना और सुखद तरीके से होना या प्रदर्शित करना)
  • Hence, the correct answer is 'amiable'.
  • ​​​Let's look at the meaning of the other given options-

 

WORDSMEANING
harmfulcausing or likely to cause harm. (नुकसान पहुँचाने या नुकसान पहुँचाने की संभावना)
cunninghaving or showing skill in achieving one's ends by deceit or evasion. (छल या चोरी द्वारा अपने लक्ष्य को प्राप्त करने का कौशल होना या दिखाना)
adjustingadapt or become used to a new situation. (एक नई स्थिति के अनुकूल होना या अभ्यस्त होना)

 

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the given word 'gentle' are "harsh, inclement, intemperate, severe".

Question 23

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.

The harder we kick, the better the ball bounces back.

  1. AOption (a)

    recoils

  2. BOption (b)

    deflates

  3. COption (c)

    inflates

  4. DOption (d)

    ascends

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

recoils

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. recoils.

Key Points   

  • The word 'bounces back' means to regain a former or normal state. (एक पूर्व या सामान्य स्थिति वापस पाने के लिए)
  • The synonyms of the given word 'bounces back' are "recoils, come back, rally, rebound, recover".
  • The synonym of the given word 'bounces back' is 'recoils' since both have a similar meaning.
  • The word 'recoils' means rebound or spring back through force of impact.
  • Hence, the correct answer is 'recoils'.
  • ​​​Let's look at the meaning of the other given options-

 

WORDSMEANING
deflatesbe emptied of air or gas
(हवा या गैस से खाली होना)
inflatesfill with air or gas so that it becomes distended
(हवा या गैस से भरें ताकि यह दूर हो जाए)
ascendsrise or move up through the air 
(हवा के माध्यम से उठना या बढ़ना)

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the given word 'bounces back' are "decline, fail, worsen".

Question 24

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.

I plan and execute.

  1. AOption (a)

    desire

  2. BOption (b)

    debate

  3. COption (c)

    accomplish

  4. DOption (d)

    discard

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

accomplish

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. accomplish.

Key Points

  • The word 'execute' means to carry through (as a process) to completion. ((एक प्रक्रिया के रूप में) पूरा करना)
  • The synonyms of the given word 'execute' are "accomplish, achieve, carry out, commit".
  • The synonym of the given word 'execute' is 'accomplish' since both have a similar meaning.
  • The word 'accomplish' means to achieve or complete successfully. (सफलता प्राप्त करना या पूर्ण करना)
  • Hence, the correct answer is 'accomplish'.
  • ​​​Let's look at the meaning of the other given options-

 

WORDSMEANING
desirea strong feeling of wanting to have something or wishing for something to happen. (कुछ पाने या कुछ होने की इच्छा रखने की तीव्र भावना)
debatean argument about a particular subject. (किसी विशेष विषय के बारे में एक तर्क)
discarda thing rejected as no longer useful or desirable. (क चीज जिसे अब उपयोगी या वांछनीय नहीं माना जाता है)

 

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the given word 'execute' are "fail, skimp, slight, slur".

Question 25

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.**

He listened to me with equanimity.

  1. AOption (a)

    carelessly

  2. BOption (b)

    excitedly

  3. COption (c)

    patiently

  4. DOption (d)

    half-heartedly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

patiently

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'patiently'.

Key Points

  • The given word 'equanimity' means calmness and composure, especially in a difficult situation. (शांत और संयम, विशेष रूप से एक कठिन परिस्थिति में)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Carelessly' means in a casual or reckless way. (असावधानी या लापरवाही से)
  • 'Excitedly' means in a very enthusiastic and eager manner. (उत्तेजित होकर)
  • 'Patiently' means in a way that shows tolerance of delays, problems, or suffering without becoming annoyed or anxious. (धैर्यपूर्वक)
  • 'Half-heartedly' means without enthusiasm or energy. (बेमन से)

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'equanimity' are "patiently, calmness, composure".
  • The antonyms of the word 'equanimity' are "anxiety, concern, worry".
  • Example of 'equanimity' in a sentence:
  • He accepted the prospect of his operation with equanimity.

Question 26

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.

The whole thing was a futile exercise.

  1. AOption (a)

    costly

  2. BOption (b)

    pointless

  3. COption (c)

    indecisive

  4. DOption (d)

    successful

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

pointless

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. pointless.

Key Points:-

  • The word 'futile' means serving no useful purpose: completely ineffective. (बिना किसी उपयोगी उद्देश्य की सेवा करना: पूरी तरह से अप्रभावी)
  • The synonyms of the given word 'futile' are "pointless, fruitless, ineffective, unprofitable".
  • The synonym of the given word 'futile' is 'pointless' since both have a similar meaning.
  • The word 'pointless' means having little or no sense, use, or purpose. (कम या कोई अर्थ, उपयोग या उद्देश्य नहीं हो)
  • Hence, the correct answer is 'pointless'.
  • ​​​Let's look at the meaning of the other given options-

 

WORDSMEANING
costlycosting a lot; expensive. (बहुत खर्च करना; महंगा)
indecisivenot providing a clear and definite result. (एक स्पष्ट और निश्चित परिणाम प्रदान नहीं करना)
successfulaccomplishing a desired aim or result. (एक वांछित उद्देश्य या परिणाम को पूरा करना)

 

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the given word 'futile' are "deadly, effective, profitable, fruitful".

Question 27

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.**

He was too cunning for her.

  1. AOption (a)

    capable

  2. BOption (b)

    fir

  3. COption (c)

    intelligent

  4. DOption (d)

    dodgy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

dodgy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'dodgy'.

Key Points

  • The given word 'cunning' means clever in a dishonest or bad way. (चालाक, धूर्त)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Capable' means having the ability or qualities necessary to do something. (कुछ करने में सक्षम या समर्थ)
  • 'Fir' means a tree with thin leaves that do not fall off in winter. (पतली पत्तियोंवाला एक वृक्ष जिसकी पत्तियाँ शरद ऋतु में नहीं गिरती हैं; देवदार)
  • 'Intelligent' means having or showing the ability to understand, learn and think; clever. (समझने, सीखने और सोचने की क्षमता से संपन्‍न, बुद्धिमान; चतुर)
  • 'Dodgy' means involving risk; not honest or not to be trusted. (जिसमें धोखा खाने का ख़तरा हो; ईमानदारी-रहित या ग़ैर-भरोसेमंद)

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'cunning' are "dodgy, deceptive, dishonest".
  • The antonyms of the word 'cunning' are "innocent, honest, trustful".
  • Example of 'cunning' in a sentence:
  • In the story, the cunning fox outwits the hunters.

Question 28

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.**

This decision is crucial to me.

  1. AOption (a)

    momentous

  2. BOption (b)

    natural

  3. COption (c)

    primitive

  4. DOption (d)

    inept

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

momentous

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. momentous.

Key Points:-

  • The word 'crucial' means of the greatest possible importance. (अधिकतम संभव महत्व)
  • The synonyms of the given word 'crucial' are "momentous, critical, key, pivotal, vital".
  • The synonym of the given word 'crucial' is 'momentous' since both have a similar meaning.
  • The word 'momentous' means of great importance or significance. (बहुत महत्व )
  • Hence, the correct answer is 'momentous'.
  • ​​​Let's look at the meaning of the other given options-

 

WORDSMEANING
naturalexisting in or derived from nature; not made or caused by humankind. (प्रकृति में विद्यमान या व्युत्पन्न; मानव जाति द्वारा निर्मित या उत्पन्न नहीं)
primitivevery basic or unsophisticated in terms of comfort, convenience, or efficiency. (आराम, सुविधा, या दक्षता के मामले में बहुत ही बुनियादी या अपरिष्कृत)
inepthaving or showing no skill; clumsy. (कोई कौशल नहीं होना या दिखाना; अनाड़ी)

 

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the given word 'crucial' are "inconsequential, insignificant, minor, trivial, unimportant".

Question 29

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.**

The media went into a frenzy about the case.

  1. AOption (a)

    silent

  2. BOption (b)

    creative

  3. COption (c)

    berserk

  4. DOption (d)

    wrong

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

berserk

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. berserk.

Key Points   

  • The word 'frenzy' means a state of wildly excited activity or emotion. (बेतहाशा उत्तेजित गतिविधि या भावना की स्थिति)
  • The synonyms of the given word 'frenzy' are "berserk, hysteria, rage, rampage, uproar".
  • The synonym of the given word 'frenzy' is 'berserk' since both have a similar meaning.
  • The word 'berserk' means out of control with anger or excitement; wild or frenzied.
  • Hence, the correct answer is 'berserk'.
  • ​​​Let's look at the meaning of the other given options-

 

WORDSMEANING
silentnot speaking (बोल नहीं रहा)
creativerelating to or involving the use of the imagination or original ideas to create something
(कुछ बनाने के लिए कल्पना या मूल विचारों के उपयोग से संबंधित या शामिल)
wrongnot correct or true; incorrect (सही या सच नहीं; ग़लत)

 

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the given word 'frenzy' are "calmness, peacefulness, sereneness, tranquilness".

Question 30

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response accordingly.**

He has been yearning to go home.

  1. AOption (a)

    declining

  2. BOption (b)

    demanding

  3. COption (c)

    begging

  4. DOption (d)

    hankering

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

hankering

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. hankering.

Key Points   

  • The word 'yearning' means a strong wish for something. (किसी चीज की प्रबल इच्छा)
  • The synonyms of the given word 'yearning' are "hankering, craving, desire, hunger".
  • The synonym of the given word 'yearning' is 'hankering' since both have a similar meaning.
  • The word 'hankering' means a strong desire to have or do something. (कुछ करने या करने की तीव्र इच्छा)
  • Hence, the correct answer is 'hankering'.
  • ​​​Let's look at the meaning of the other given options-

 

WORDSMEANING
decliningpolitely refuse 
(विनम्रता से मना करें)
demandingask authoritatively or brusquely
(आधिकारिक रूप से या बेरहमी से पूछें)
beggingask someone earnestly or humbly for something
(किसी से ईमानदारी से या नम्रता से कुछ माँगना)

 

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the given word 'yearning' are "apathy, indifference, allergy, averseness".

Question 31

Directions

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with a missing preposition. Select the correct preposition from the given options and mark your response accordingly.**

Simulations of the 20th century by climate models that exclude the observed increase _______ greenhouse gases fail to simulate the increase in temperature over the second half of the 20th century.

  1. AOption (a)

    of

  2. BOption (b)

    in

  3. COption (c)

    by

  4. DOption (d)

    to

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

in

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'in'.

Key Points      

  • Let's explore the given options:
  • The preposition 'of' is used to express the relationship of a part of something to its whole.
  • Example: Employees of the company.
  • The preposition 'in' is used to involve or connect with a particular subject or activity.
  • Example: I never knew you were in publishing.
  • The preposition 'by' is used to show the person or thing that does something.
  • Example: The motorcycle was driven by a tiny bald man.
  • The preposition 'to' means approaching or reaching.
  • Example: It's only two weeks to Christmas.
  • Therefore, from the context of the sentence, the correct option is 'in'.
  • Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

Complete Sentence: Simulations of the 20th century by climate models that exclude the observed increase in greenhouse gases fail to simulate the increase in temperature over the second half of the 20th century.

Additional Information  

  • A preposition is a word governing, and usually preceding, a noun or pronoun and expressing a relation to another word or element in the clause.

Hinglish

  • आइए दिए गए विकल्पों का पता लगाएं:
  • Preposition 'of' का प्रयोग किसी वस्तु के किसी भाग के संपूर्ण के साथ संबंध को व्यक्त करने के लिए किया जाता है।
  • उदाहरण: Employees of the company.
  • Preposition 'in' का प्रयोग किसी विशेष विषय या गतिविधि से जुड़ा या जुड़ा हुआ को दर्शाने के लिए किया जाता है। 
  • उदाहरण: I never knew you were in publishing.
  • Preposition 'by' का प्रयोग उस व्यक्ति या वस्तु को दिखाने के लिए किया जाता है जो कुछ करता है।
  • उदाहरण: The motorcycle was driven by a tiny bald man.
  • Preposition 'to' का अर्थ है पहुंचना।
  • उदाहरण: It's only two weeks to christmas.
  • अत: वाक्य के संदर्भ से सही विकल्प 'in' है।
  • अतः विकल्प 2 सही उत्तर है।

पुरा वाक्य: Simulations of the 20th century by climate models that exclude the observed increase in greenhouse gases fail to simulate the increase in temperature over the second half of the 20th century.

Question 32

Directions

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with a missing preposition. Select the correct preposition from the given options and mark your response accordingly.**

In extremely poor societies, children can be put to work _______ a young age and are therefore a source of income.

  1. AOption (a)

    in

  2. BOption (b)

    on

  3. COption (c)

    by

  4. DOption (d)

    at

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

at

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'at'.

Key Points

  • Let us explore the options:
  • The preposition 'in' is used for showing when something happens.
  • Example: I’ll come and see you in the morning for a cup of coffee, okay?
  • The preposition 'on' means in the possession of; being carried by.
  • Example: Which page is that curry recipe on?
  • The preposition 'by' means as a means of something or someone.
  • Example: The motorcycle was driven by a tiny bald man.
  • The preposition 'at' is used while referring to someone's age.
  • Example: Many children leave school at 16.
  • Therefore, from the context of the sentence, the correct option is 'at'.
  • Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

Complete Sentence: In extremely poor societies, children can be put to work at a young age and are therefore a source of income.

Hinglish

  • आइए विकल्पों का पता लगाएं:
  • Preposition 'in' का प्रयोग कुछ घटित होने पर दिखाने के लिए किया जाता है।
  • उदाहरण: I’ll come and see you in the morning for a cup of coffee, okay?
  • Preposition 'on' का अर्थ है कब्जे में; द्वारा ले जाया जा रहा है।
  • उदाहरण: Which page is that curry recipe on?
  • Preposition 'by' का अर्थ है किसी चीज या किसी के साधन के रूप में।
  • उदाहरण: The motorcycle was driven by a tiny bald man.
  • Preposition 'at' का प्रयोग किसी की उम्र के संदर्भ में किया जाता है।
  • उदाहरण: Many children leave school at 16.
  • अतः वाक्य के सन्दर्भ से सही विकल्प 'at' है।
  • अत: विकल्प 4 सही उत्तर है।

 

पुरा वाक्य: In extremely poor societies, children can be put to work at a young age and are therefore a source of income.

Question 33

Directions

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with a missing preposition. Select the correct preposition from the given options and mark your response accordingly.

People who are averse _____ hard work, generally do not succeed in life.

  1. AOption (a)

    to

  2. BOption (b)

    about

  3. COption (c)

    at

  4. DOption (d)

    on

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

to

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'to'.

Key Points      

  • Let us explore the options:
  • The preposition 'to' is used when someone is affected by something.
  • Example: The government announced today that it is to cut funding for the arts for next year.
  • The preposition 'about' means in the possession of; being carried by.
  • Example: What's that book about?
  • The preposition 'at' is used for expressing a particular state or condition.
  • Example: We were surprised at the news.
  • The preposition 'on' means engaged in.
  • Example: Her talk is on Italian women's literature.
  • Therefore, from the context of the sentence, the correct option is 'to'.
  • Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Complete Sentence: People who are averse to hard work, generally do not succeed in life.

  • Averse to is a phrasal verb meaning having a clear dislike of (something): strongly opposed to (something).
  • For Examples:-
  • He seems to be averse to exercise.
  • No one is more averse to borrowing money than he is.

Hinglish

  • आइए विकल्पों का पता लगाएं:

  • Preposition 'to' का प्रयोग तब किया जाता है जब कोई किसी चीज से प्रभावित होता है।

  • उदाहरण:  The government announced today that it is to cut funding for the arts for next year.

  • Preposition 'about' का अर्थ है कब्जे में; द्वारा ले जाया जा रहा है।

  • उदाहरण: What's that book about?

  • Preposition 'at' का प्रयोग किसी विशेष अवस्था या स्थिति को व्यक्त करने के लिए किया जाता है।

  • उदाहरण:  We were surprised at the news.

  • Preposition 'on' का अर्थ है लगे रहना।

  • उदाहरण: Her talk is on Italian women's literature.

  • अतः वाक्य के संदर्भ से सही विकल्प 'to' है।

  • अतः विकल्प 1 सही उत्तर है।

  • Averse to एक वाक्यांश क्रिया (phrasal verb) है जिसका अर्थ है (कुछ) का स्पष्ट नापसंद होना: (कुछ) का दृढ़ता से विरोध करना।

  • उदाहरण के लिए:- 

  • He seems to be averse to exercise.

  • No one is more averse to borrowing money than he is.

 

पूर्ण वाक्य: People who are averse to hard work, generally do not succeed in life.

Question 34

Directions

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with a missing preposition. Select the correct preposition from the given options and mark your response accordingly.**

I have known her _____ a long time.

  1. AOption (a)

    since

  2. BOption (b)

    for

  3. COption (c)

    at

  4. DOption (d)

    before

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

for

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'for'.

Key Points      

  • Let us explore the given options:
  • The preposition 'since' means in the intervening period between (the time mentioned) and the time under consideration, typically the present.
  • Example: She hasn't spoken to him since last year.
  • The preposition 'for' is used for saying a length of time or a distance.
  • Example: We walked for miles.
  • The preposition 'at' is used for expressing the time when an event takes place.
  • Example: There's a meeting at 2.30 this afternoon.
  • The preposition 'before' means during the period of time preceding (a particular event or time).
  • Example: Before leaving he said goodbye to each of them.
  • Therefore, from the context of the sentence, the correct option is 'for'.
  • Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

Complete Sentence: I have known her for a long time.

  • For is used with a period of time.
  • Since is used to refer to a specific point in time.  

Additional Information  

  • A preposition is a word governing, and usually preceding, a noun or pronoun and expressing a relation to another word or element in the clause.

Hinglish

  • आइए दिए गए विकल्पों का पता लगाएं:
  • Preposition 'since' का अर्थ है (उल्लिखित समय) और विचाराधीन समय के बीच की अवधि में, आमतौर पर वर्तमान।
  • उदाहरण: She hasn't spoken to him since last year.
  • Preposition 'for' का प्रयोग समय की लंबाई या दूरी के लिए किया जाता है।
  • उदाहरण: We walked for miles.
  • Preposition 'at' का प्रयोग किसी घटना के घटित होने के समय को व्यक्त करने के लिए किया जाता है।
  • उदाहरण: There's a meeting at 2.30 this afternoon.
  • Preposition 'before' का अर्थ पूर्ववर्ती समय की अवधि (एक विशेष घटना या समय) के दौरान है।
  • उदाहरण: Before leaving he said goodbye to each of them.
  • अतः वाक्य के संदर्भ से सही विकल्प 'for' है।
  • अतः विकल्प 2 सही उत्तर है।
  • For समय की अवधि के साथ प्रयोग किया जाता है।
  • Since समय में एक विशिष्ट बिंदु को संदर्भित करने के लिए उपयोग किया जाता है।
  • एक Preposition एक शब्द है जो शासन करता है, और आमतौर पर पूर्ववर्ती, एक संज्ञा या सर्वनाम और खंड में किसी अन्य शब्द या तत्व के संबंध को व्यक्त करता है।

 

पूर्ण वाक्य: I have known her for a long time.

Question 35

Directions

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with a missing preposition. Select the correct preposition from the given options and mark your response accordingly.**

I accepted the offer _______ certain conditions.

  1. AOption (a)

    on

  2. BOption (b)

    in

  3. COption (c)

    by

  4. DOption (d)

    within

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

on

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'on'.

Key Points      

  • Let us explore the options:
  • The preposition 'on' means concerning a particular subject.
  • Example: Her talk is on Italian women's literature.
  • The preposition 'in' is used for expressing the situation of something that is or appears to be enclosed or surrounded by something else.
  • Example: I got stuck in a traffic jam for half an hour.
  • The preposition 'by' means as a means of something or someone.
  • Example: I'm reading some short stories (written) by Chekhov.
  • The preposition 'within' means inside the range of (a specified action or perception).
  • Example: Two-thirds of Californians live within 15 miles of the coast.
  • Therefore, from the context of the sentence, the correct option is 'on'.
  • Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Complete Sentence: I accepted the offer on certain conditions.

Hinglish

  • आइए विकल्पों का पता लगाएं:
  • Preposition 'on' का अर्थ है किसी विशेष विषय से संबंधित।
  • उदाहरण: Her talk is on Italian women's literature.
  • Preposition 'in' का प्रयोग किसी ऐसी चीज की स्थिति को व्यक्त करने के लिए किया जाता है जो किसी चीज से घिरी हुई या घिरी हुई प्रतीत होती है।
  • उदाहरण: I got stuck in a traffic jam for half an hour.
  • Preposition 'by' का अर्थ है किसी चीज या किसी के साधन के रूप में।
  • उदाहरण: I'm reading some short stories (written) by Chekhov.
  • Preposition 'within' का अर्थ है (एक निर्दिष्ट क्रिया या धारणा) की सीमा के अंदर।
  • उदाहरण: Two-thirds of Californians live within 15 miles of the coast.
  • अतः वाक्य के संदर्भ से सही विकल्प 'on' है।
  • अतः विकल्प 1 सही उत्तर है।

 

पुरा वाक्य: I accepted the offer on certain conditions.

Question 36

Directions

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with a missing preposition. Select the correct preposition from the given options and mark your response accordingly.**

She is a woman _______ humble origin.

  1. AOption (a)

    off

  2. BOption (b)

    of

  3. COption (c)

    from

  4. DOption (d)

    within

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

of

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'of'.

Key Points      

  • Let us explore the given options:
  • The preposition 'off' means abstaining from.
  • Example: One of my buttons has come off.
  • The preposition 'of' is used for saying who or what has a particular feature, aspect, or quality.
  • Example: The color of his tie matches his suit.
  • The preposition 'from' is used for indicating separation or removal.
  • Example: They were exiled from their homes during the war.
  • The preposition 'within' means inside the range of (a specified action or perception).
  • Example: Two-thirds of Californians live within 15 miles of the coast.
  • Therefore, from the context of the sentence, the correct option is 'of'.
  • Hence, option 2 is the correct

 

Complete Sentence: She is a woman of humble origin.

Hinglish

  • आइए दिए गए विकल्पों का पता लगाएं:
  • Preposition 'off' का अर्थ है परहेज करना।
  • उदाहरण: One of my buttons has come off.
  • Preposition 'of' यह कहने के लिए प्रयोग किया जाता है कि किसके पास कोई विशेष विशेषता, पहलू या गुणवत्ता है।
  • उदाहरण: The color of his tie matches his suit.
  • Preposition 'from' का प्रयोग अलगाव या हटाने को इंगित करने के लिए किया जाता है।
  • उदाहरण: They were exiled from their homes during the war.
  • Preposition 'within' का अर्थ है (एक निर्दिष्ट क्रिया या धारणा) की सीमा के अंदर।
  • उदाहरण: Two-thirds of Californians live within 15 miles of the coast.
  • अतः वाक्य के संदर्भ से सही विकल्प 'of' है।
  • अत: विकल्प 2 सही है।

 

पूर्ण वाक्य: She is a woman of humble origin.

Question 37

Directions

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with a missing preposition. Select the correct preposition from the given options and mark your response accordingly.**

There is no cure ______ the common cold.

  1. AOption (a)

    for

  2. BOption (b)

    of

  3. COption (c)

    to

  4. DOption (d)

    on

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

for

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'for'.

Key Points      

  • Let us explore the options:
  • The preposition 'for' means relating to or concerning someone or something.
  • Example: I've got a lot of admiration for people who do that sort of work.
  • The preposition 'of' is used for saying who or what has a particular feature, aspect, or quality.
  • Example: Let us consider the events of the last five months.
  • The preposition 'to' is used for showing the purpose of an action.
  • Example: I'm going there to see my sister.
  • The preposition 'on' means in the possession of; being carried by.
  • Example: His initials were engraved on the back of his watch.
  • Therefore, from the context of the sentence, the correct option is 'for'.
  • Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Complete Sentence: There is no cure for the common cold.

Hinglish

  • आइए विकल्पों का पता लगाएं:
  • Preposition 'for' का अर्थ है किसी या किसी चीज़ से संबंधित।
  • उदाहरण: I've got a lot of admiration for people who do that sort of work.
  • Preposition 'of' यह कहने के लिए प्रयोग किया जाता है कि किसके पास कोई विशेष विशेषता, पहलू या गुणवत्ता है।
  • उदाहरण: Let us consider the events of the last five months.
  • क्रिया के उद्देश्य को दर्शाने के लिए Preposition 'to' का प्रयोग किया जाता है।
  • उदाहरण: I'm going there to see my sister.
  • Preposition 'on' का अर्थ है कब्जे में; द्वारा ले जाया जा रहा है।
  • उदाहरण: His initials were engraved on the back of his watch.
  • अतः वाक्य के संदर्भ से सही विकल्प 'for' है।
  • अतः विकल्प 1 सही उत्तर है।

 

पुरा वाक्य: There is no cure for the common cold.

Question 38

Directions

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with a missing preposition. Select the correct preposition from the given options and mark your response accordingly.**

I ran ________ John yesterday, and it was a pleasant surprise.

  1. AOption (a)

    by

  2. BOption (b)

    off

  3. COption (c)

    beside

  4. DOption (d)

    into

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

into

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'into'.

Key Points      

  • Let us explore the options:
  • The preposition 'by' means as a means of something or someone.
  • Example: I'm reading some short stories (written) by Chekhov.
  • The preposition 'off' means away from the place in question; to or at a distance.
  • Example: Keep the dog on the lead or he'll just run off.
  • The preposition 'beside' means at the side of; next to.
  • Example: Come and sit here beside me.
  • The preposition 'ran into' means to encounter unexpectedly.
  • Example: Graham ran into someone he used to know at school the other day.
  • Therefore, from the context of the sentence, the correct option is 'into'.
  • Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

Complete Sentence: I ran into John yesterday, and it was a pleasant surprise.

Additional Information  

  • A preposition is a word governing, and usually preceding, a noun or pronoun and expressing a relation to another word or element in the clause.

​

Hinglish

  • आइए विकल्पों का पता लगाएं:
  • Preposition 'by' का अर्थ है किसी चीज या किसी के साधन के रूप में।
  • उदाहरण:  I'm reading some short stories (written) by Chekhov.​
  • Preposition 'off' का अर्थ है विचाराधीन स्थान से दूर; करने के लिए या दूरी पर।
  • उदाहरण:  Keep the dog on the lead or he'll just run off.
  • Preposition 'beside' का अर्थ है की ओर; इसके आगे।
  • उदाहरण : Come and sit here beside me.
  • Preposition 'ran into' का अर्थ है अप्रत्याशित रूप से सामना करना।
  • उदाहरण: Graham ran into someone he used to know at school the other day.
  • अतः वाक्य के संदर्भ से सही विकल्प 'into' है।
  • अत: विकल्प 4 सही उत्तर है।
  • एक preposition एक शब्द है जो शासन करता है, और आमतौर पर पूर्ववर्ती, एक संज्ञा या सर्वनाम और खंड में दूसरे शब्द या तत्व के संबंध को व्यक्त करता है।

 

पुरा वाक्य: I ran into John yesterday, and it was a pleasant surprise.

Question 39

Directions

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with a missing preposition. Select the correct preposition from the given options and mark your response accordingly.**

My grandmother enjoyed boating _______ the lovely lake.

  1. AOption (a)

    in

  2. BOption (b)

    on

  3. COption (c)

    beside

  4. DOption (d)

    within

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

in

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'in'.

Key Points

  • Let us explore the options:
  • The preposition 'in' is used for showing where someone or something is.
  • Example: They live in a charming old house.
  • The preposition 'on' means on to; in the possession of; being carried by.
  • Example: We could hang this picture on the wall next to the door.
  • The preposition 'beside' means at the side of; next to.
  • Example: Come and sit here beside me.
  • The preposition 'within' means inside the range of (a specified action or perception).
  • Example: Two-thirds of Californians live within 15 miles of the coast.
  • Therefore, from the context of the sentence, the correct option is 'in'.
  • Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Complete Sentence: My grandmother enjoyed boating in the lovely lake.

Hinglish

  • आइए विकल्पों का पता लगाएं:
  • Preposition 'in' का उपयोग यह दिखाने के लिए किया जाता है कि कोई व्यक्ति या कुछ कहाँ है।
  • उदाहरण: They live in a charming old house.
  • Preposition 'on' का अर्थ है पर; के कब्जे में; द्वारा ले जाया जा रहा है।
  • उदाहरण: We could hang this picture on the wall next to the door.
  • Preposition 'beside' का अर्थ है की ओर; इसके आगे।
  • उदाहरण :  Come and sit here beside me.
  • Preposition 'within' का अर्थ है (एक निर्दिष्ट क्रिया या धारणा) की सीमा के अंदर।
  • उदाहरण: Two-thirds of Californians live within 15 miles of the coast.
  • अतः वाक्य के संदर्भ से सही विकल्प 'in' है।
  • अतः विकल्प 1 सही उत्तर है।

 

पूर्ण वाक्य: My grandmother enjoyed boating in the lovely lake.

Question 40

Directions

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with a missing preposition. Select the correct preposition from the given options and mark your response accordingly.**

He visits the needy to relieve them ______ their sufferings and poverty.

  1. AOption (a)

    from

  2. BOption (b)

    off

  3. COption (c)

    of

  4. DOption (d)

    on

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

of

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3)  i.e. of.

Key Points      

  • Let us explore the options:
  • The preposition 'from' is used for indicating separation or removal.
  • The preposition 'off' means abstaining from.
  • The preposition 'of' means containing or consisting of something.
  • The preposition 'on' means in the possession of; being carried by.
  • Hence, from the context of the sentence, the correct option is 'of'.

Complete Sentence: He visits the needy to relieve them of their sufferings and poverty.

Additional Information

  • A preposition is a word governing, and usually preceding, a noun or pronoun and expressing a relation to another word or element in the clause.

Hinglish

  • आइए विकल्पों का पता लगाएं:
  • The preposition 'from' का प्रयोग अलगाव या हटाने को इंगित करने के लिए किया जाता है।
  • The preposition 'off' का अर्थ है परहेज करना।
  • The preposition 'of' मतलब किसी चीज से युक्त या युक्त।
  • The preposition 'on' के कब्जे में मतलब है; द्वारा किया जा रहा है।
  • अतः वाक्य के संदर्भ में सही विकल्प 'of' है।

Question 41

Directions

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in the given parts and indicate your response corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). if you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).**

a) This building

b) comprises of six houses

c) three parking lots and one basement

d) No error.

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. b.​

Key Points

  • .' comprises six houses' should be there in place of 'comprises of six houses'
  • 'comprises' is not followed by 'of' preposition. 'Comprises' itself means 'consist of', so no need to add 'of' after it.
  • Hence, no options 2 is the correct answer

Correct sentence: This building comprises six houses three parking lots and one basement.

Question 42

Directions

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in the given parts and indicate your response corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). if you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

a) I look forward

b) to meet

c) you

d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. b​.​

Key Points

  • From the given options, the second option is incorrect.
  • The infinitive 'meet' used in the sentence is incorrect, the gerund "meeting" should be used in the sentence, the object of the preposition "to".
  • The adverbial prepositional phrase "to meeting" modifies the intransitive phrasal verb "look forward." "I", is the subject.
  • Hence, the option "to meet" contains an error.

Correct sentence: I look forward to meeting you.

Important Points

  • A gerund is a noun made from a verb by adding "-ing". The gerund looks exactly the same as a present participle, but it is useful to understand the difference between the two. The gerund always has the same function as a noun (although it looks like a verb).

Question 43

Directions

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in the given parts and indicate your response corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). if you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

a) I cannot

b) cope up

c) with the pressure

d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. b​.​

Key Points

  • From the given options, the second option is incorrect.
  • The meaning of the verb cope is to manage.
  • 'Cope' is followed by the preposition 'with' and never followed by 'up'.
  • “Cope up” is an interpretation that is sometimes used incorrectly in place of “keep up.”
  • “Cope” is an intransitive verb meaning to deal with something well, despite or in the face of some difficulty.
  • Hence, the option "cope up" contains an error.

Correct sentence: I cannot cope with the pressure.

Important Points

  • A preposition is a word used to link nouns, pronouns, or phrases to other words within a sentence. They act to connect the people, objects, time and locations of a sentence. Prepositions are usually short words, and they are normally placed directly in front of nouns.

Question 44

Directions

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in the given parts and indicate your response corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). if you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

a) I came

b) to this place

c) by walk

d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. c​.​

Key Points

  • From the given options, the third option is incorrect.
  • The common noun 'walk' in the third option is incorrect.
  • The present participle of the verb 'walking' should be used in the place noun 'walk'.
  • Hence, the option "by walk" contains an error.

Correct sentence: I came to this place by walking.

Important Points

  • A present participle is a word that ends with "-ing", formed from a verb, and is used as an adjective or to form verb tense.

Question 45

Directions

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in the given parts and indicate your response corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). if you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

a) What is

b) the time

c) in your watch?

d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. c​.​

Key Points

  • From the given options, the third option is incorrect.
  • The preposition 'in' used in the third option is incorrect.
  • 'Time' is an abstract concept, it does not have a body. So, it can not be contained “in” a watch or anything else.
  • The correct phrase/usage is “by your watch”. ‘By’ here has the meaning of “according to”. So, the sentence is basically asking, ‘What time is your watch showing?'
  • Hence, the option "in your watch?" contains an error.

Correct sentence: What is the time by your watch?

Important Points

  • A preposition is a word used to link nouns, pronouns, or phrases to other words within a sentence. They act to connect the people, objects, time and locations of a sentence. Prepositions are usually short words, and they are normally placed directly in front of nouns.

Question 46

Directions

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in the given parts and indicate your response corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). if you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

a) The price of my dress

b) is higher than that of

c) yours

d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

d

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. d​.​

Key Points

  • From the given options, the fourth option is incorrect.
  • The determiner 'the', the singular noun 'price', the preposition 'of', the pronoun 'my', the comparative adjective 'higher', the preposition 'than' and the plural noun 'yours' are used correctly in all the options.
  • Hence, no options contain an error.

Correct sentence: The price of my dress is higher than that of yours.

Question 47

Directions

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in the given parts and indicate your response corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). if you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

a) My friend's 

b) daughter-in-laws

c) have come

d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. b​.​

Key Points

  • From the given options, the second option is incorrect.
  • The expression “daughter-in-laws” is wrong as there is only one 'law' but there can be many “daughters”.
  • The verb 'have' is a plural verb and it will take only the plural noun "daughters-in-law".
  • The plural form of the noun “daughter-in-law” is "daughters-in-law".
  • Hence, the option "daughter-in-laws" contains an error.

Correct sentence: My friend's daughters-in-law have come​.

<br>

Important Points

  • The subject-verb agreement simply means the subject and verb must agree in number. This means both need to be singular or both need to be plural.

Question 48

Directions

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in the given parts and indicate your response corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). if you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

a) I prefer

b) seafood

c) than Mediterranean food

d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. c.​

Key Points

  • From the given options, the third option is incorrect.
  • The preposition 'than' in the third option should be replaced by the preposition 'to'.
  • The verb 'prefer' is used in the sentence, preferring something implies a relationship between exactly two things: one superior, one inferior. We cannot prefer something more 'than' something else to something.
  • When the comparison is between a noun to a noun, we use 'prefer' with the preposition 'to'.
  • Hence, the option "than Mediterranean food" contains an error.

Correct sentence: I prefer seafood to Mediterranean food.

Important Points

  • We use 'prefer' with "to" when the comparison is between:
  • Noun to Noun.
  • Gerund to Gerund.
  • We use 'prefer' with "than" when the comparison is between Infinitives to Infinitives.

Question 49

Directions

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in the given parts and indicate your response corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). if you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

a) We were

b) discussing about

c) the issue

d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. b​.​

Key Points

  • From the given options, the second option is incorrect.
  • The preposition 'about' used in the second option is superfluous. The preposition 'about' should be removed from the sentence.
  • The verb 'discussing' is a transitive verb, which means it always needs a direct object in the sentence.
  • The verb “discussing” does not need the preposition “about” before the direct object (here- the issue).
  • Hence, the option "discussing about" contains an error.

Correct sentence: We were discussing the issue.

Question 50

Directions

Each of the following items in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled as (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in the given parts and indicate your response corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). if you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

a) Dispose off

b) the garbage

c) from the shelves

d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. a​.​

Key Points

  • From the given options, the first option is incorrect.
  • The phrase "Dispose off" should be replaced by "Disposed of".
  • "Dispose off" means to throw out or away and "Dispose of" means to get rid of.
  • Hence, the option "Dispose off" contains an error.

Correct sentence: Dispose of the garbage from the shelves.

Important Points

  • A preposition is a word used to link nouns, pronouns, or phrases to other words within a sentence. They act to connect the people, objects, time and locations of a sentence. Prepositions are usually short words, and they are normally placed directly in front of nouns.

Question 51

New Zealand is considered part of which one of the following island groups?

  1. AOption (a)

    Micronesia

  2. BOption (b)

    Melanesia

  3. COption (c)

    Polynesia

  4. DOption (d)

    Hawaii Island chain

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Polynesia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Polynesia.

  • New Zealand:
  • New Zealand, island country in the South Pacific Ocean, the southwesternmost part of Polynesia.
  • New Zealand is a remote land, one of the last sizable territories suitable for habitation to be populated and settled, and lies more than 1,000 miles (1,600 km) southeast of Australia, its nearest neighbor.
  • The country comprises two main islands the North and South Islands and a number of small islands, some of them hundreds of miles from the main group.
  • The capital city is Wellington and the largest urban area Auckland; both are located on the North Island.
  • About two-thirds of the land is economically useful, the remainder being mountainous. Because of its numerous harbors and fjords, the country has an extremely long coastline relative to its area.
  • New Zealand is part of the Ring of Fire the circum-Pacific seismic belt marked by frequent earthquakes and considerable volcanic activity.

Question 52

Which of the following statements with regard to Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) is/are correct?

1. PMKSY was launched during 2015-16. 2. The basic aim of PMSKSY is to enhance physical access to water on the farm. 3. One of the main objectives of PMKSY is to achieve convergence of investments in irrigation at the field level.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.

Key Points

  • Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY):
  • Launched on 1st July 2015 with the motto of "Har Khet Ko Paani".
  • PMKSY is being implemented to expand the cultivated areas with assured irrigation, reduce wastage of water, and improve water use efficiency.
  • PMKSY not only focuses on creating sources for assured irrigation but also creating protective irrigation by harnessing rainwater at the micro-level through "Jal Sanchay" and "Jal Sinchan".
  • Micro-irrigation is also incentivized through subsidy to ensure "Per drop-More crop".
  • PMKSY will be supervised and monitored by an Inter-Ministerial National Steering Committee (NSC) will be constituted under the Chairmanship of the Prime Minister with Union Ministers from concerned Ministries.

Question 53

According to Article 79 of the Constitution of India, which of the following is/are described as a part of the Parliament of India?

  1. The House of the People
  2. The Council of States
  3. The President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.

  • Article- 79:
  • There shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consist of the President and two Houses to be known respectively as the Council of States and the House of the People.

Important Points

  • Indian Parliament:
  • Parliament is the supreme legislative body of India.
  • The Indian Parliament comprises the President and the two Houses - Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and Lok Sabha (House of the People).
  • The President has the power to summon and prorogue either House of Parliament or to dissolve Lok Sabha.
  • The Constitution of India came into force on January 26, 1950.
  • The first general elections under the new Constitution were held during the year 1951-52 and the first elected Parliament came into existence in April 1952.

Question 54

The Five Year Plan was first launched in

  1. AOption (a)

    China

  2. BOption (b)

    USSR

  3. COption (c)

    India

  4. DOption (d)

    Bhutan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

USSR

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is USSR.

Key Points

  • Five-year plan system:
  • Five-Year Plans (FYPs) are centralised and integrated national economic programs.
  • Joseph Stalin implemented the first FYP in the Soviet Union(USSR) in the late 1920s.
  • Most communist states and several capitalist countries subsequently have adopted them.

Important Points

  • Indian five-year plan system
  • India launched its First FYP in 1951, under the socialist influence of the first Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • The process began with the setting up of the Planning Commission in March 1950.
  • Objective: 
  • ​To promote a rapid rise in the standard of living of the people by efficient use of the resources of the country, increasing production, and offering opportunities to all for employment in the service of the community.
  • The Planning Commission was charged with the responsibility of making assessments of all resources of the country, augmenting deficient resources, formulating plans for the most effective and balanced utilization of resources, and determining priorities.

Question 55

The call for Garibi Hatao was incorporated in

  1. AOption (a)

    Fourth Five Year Plan

  2. BOption (b)

    Fifth Five Year Plan

  3. COption (c)

    Sixth Five Year Plan

  4. DOption (d)

    Seventh Five Year Plan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Fifth Five Year Plan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Fifth Five Year Plan.

Key Points

  • Garibi Hatao slogan:
  • ‘Garibi Hatao’ was the slogan given by Indira Gandhi at the time of the fifth five-year plan.
  • It was given for the objective of the poverty aviation and employment creation for a better life.
  • The commitment to Poverty alleviation was followed by the formulation of a 20 point program by Indira Gandhi.
  • The Fifth Five Year Plan India was sketched out for the period spanning 1974 to 1979.

Additional Information

  • 4th Five Year Plan:
  • Rolled out during 1969-74.
  • Also known as Ashok Rudrah Manne Model.
  • First, two years was successful with record food grain production due to the Green revolution.
  • Targeted growth rate: 5.7%, Achieved growth rate: 3.3%.
  • The plan became a failure because of the huge influx of refugees from Bangladesh during Indo-Pak was 1971.
  • 5th Five Year Plan:
  • Targeted growth rate: 4.4%, Achieved growth rate: 4.8%
  • It was terminated 1 year before the plan period, in March 1978.
  • The final draft of the plan was made by DP Dhar with the objective of removal of poverty & attainment of self-reliance.
  • 6th Five Year Plan: 
  • It was started in  1980.
  • The targeted growth rate was 5.2% and the actual growth rate was 5.7%.
  • In this plan, The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development was established in 1982 by recommendation of the Shivaraman Committee.
  • 7th Five Year Plan: 
  • The plan laid stress on improving the productivity level of industries by upgrading technology.
  • The main objectives of the Seventh Five-Year Plan were to establish growth in areas of increasing economic productivity, production of food grains, and generating employment through "Social Justice".
  • The target growth rate was 5.0% and the actual growth rate was 6.01% and the growth rate of per capita income was 3.7%.

Question 56

Match List I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Major Objective)List II (Five Year Plan)
A. Faster and more inclusive growth1. First
B. Faster, more inclusive, and sustainable growth2. Fifth
C. Correction of disequilibrium caused by the Second World War3. Eleventh
D. Attaining self-reliance4. Twelfth
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2

  3. COption (c)

    A - 2, B - 4, C - 1, D - 3

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2.

Important Points

List I (Major Objective)List II (Five Year Plan)Plan Based onYear
A. Faster and more inclusive growthEleventh-2007-12
B. Faster, sustainable, and more inclusive growthTwelfth-2012-17
C. Correction of disequilibrium caused by the Second World WarFirstHarrod-Domar model1951-1956
D. Attaining self-relianceFifthD D Dhar model1974-78

Additional Information

  • First Five year Plan (1951-56):
  • After independence, India launched its First FYP in 1951, under socialist influence of first Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • It was based on Harrod-Domar Model.
  • The Plan focussed on agriculture, price stability, power and transport.
  • Objectives of rehabilitation of refugees, food self-sufficiency & control of prices were more or less achieved.
  • Fifth Five Year Plan( 1974**-**1979):
  • The  Draft of the fifth plan was prepared and launched by D.P. Dhar.
  • The targeted growth rate was 4.4% but the actual growth achieved was 4.8%
  • Main Objectives of the fifth five-year plan are:
  • The removal of poverty
  • Economic Independence
  • Eleventh Five-Year Plan (2007-2012):
  • The National Development Council (NDC) has approved the Eleventh Plan on 19th December 2007.
  • The averages economic growth rate to 9 percent from 7.6 percent recorded during the Tenth Plan.
  • The total outlay of the Eleventh Plan has been placed at Rs.3644718 crore.
  • The basic theme of this plan period is “Inclusive Growth”.
  • Twelfth Five-Year Plan (2012-2017):​
  • The Aim of the 12th five-year plan was- Faster, Sustainable and More Inclusive Growth.
  • The growth rate target for this plan was 8% per annum.
  • Poverty should be reduced by 10%
  • The average educational age should increase to 7 years.
  • The total fertility rate should be decreased to 2.1.

Question 57

Which one of the following Directive Principles was inserted by the Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976?

  1. AOption (a)

    The State shall minimise inequalities in income

  2. BOption (b)

    Equal justice and free legal aid

  3. COption (c)

    Promotion of co-operative

  4. DOption (d)

    Provision for early childhood care

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Equal justice and free legal aid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Equal justice and free legal aid.

Key Points

  • Provisions included in DPSPs after the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976:
  • There are four new Directive Principles by the way of the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 to the original list: 
  • Article  39: To secure opportunities for the healthy development of children.
  • Article 39A: To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor.
  • Article  43A: To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries.
  • Article  48A: To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife.
  • 44th amendment act of 1978 added one directive principal:
  • Article 38: The State shall, in particular, strive to minimize the inequalities in income, and endeavor to eliminate inequalities in status, facilities, and opportunities.

Question 58

A common High Court for two or more states can be established by:

  1. AOption (a)

    a law passed by the parliament

  2. BOption (b)

    an order of the Supreme Court of India

  3. COption (c)

    an order of the President of India

  4. DOption (d)

    an amendment to the Constitution of India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a law passed by the parliament

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is a law passed by the parliament.

Key Points

  • Establishment of common High Court for two or more states:
  • Seventh amendment Act of 1956 authorized the parliament to establish a common high court for two or more States or for two or more states and union territory.
  • Parliament may by law establish a common High Court for two or more States or for two or more States and a Union territory.
  • Article related to High court 214-231(Part 6) of the constitution.
  • At present, there are 25 high courts in the country.

Question 59

In the year 1928, a committee of Congress leaders drafted a Constitution for India. The Committee was headed by

  1. AOption (a)

    Mahatma Gandhi

  2. BOption (b)

    T. B. Sapru

  3. COption (c)

    Motilal Nehru

  4. DOption (d)

    Jawaharlal Nehru

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Motilal Nehru

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Motilal Nehru.

Key PointsMotilal Nehru Committee (1928):

  • Under the Act of 1919, new reforms were to be introduced in India by the British Government after every 10 years.
  • For this purpose, the Simon Commission was sent to India in 1927.
  • Most of the Indian political parties decided to boycott the Commission on the plea that it lacked Indian representation.
  • Lord Birkenhead, Secretary of State for Indian Affairs, challenged the Indians, “If they have any political capability and competence then they should form a unanimous constitution and present it to us and we will implement it”.
  • Indian political parties accepted the challenge and called an All Parties Conference at Delhi in January 1928.
  • During the third session of the All Parties Conference held at Bombay in May 1928 that a seven members committee under the chairmanship of Motilal Nehru to determine the basic features of the future constitution of India.

Question 60

Which one of the following statements about Jaipal Singh is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    He was a member of the Constituent Assembly

  2. BOption (b)

    He founded the Adivasi Maha Sabha

  3. COption (c)

    He was the captain of the first Indian national hockey team

  4. DOption (d)

    He campaigned for a separate state of Chhattisgarh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

He campaigned for a separate state of Chhattisgarh

Why this answer is correct

Option 4 is not correct.

Key Points

  • Jaipal Singh Munda:
  • Jaipal Singh was born on 3 January 1903 in Munda tribal family in Takra, a small village in Khunti Block in Khunti District of Jharkhand.
  • Jaipal Singh was a gifted hockey player. In 1928, Singh captained the India Hockey Team at the Amsterdam Olympics to win the country’s first-ever Olympic gold medal. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • Jaipal Singh established Adivasi Mahasabha in 1938 and demanded that a separate state ‘Jharkhand’ to be carved out of Bihar. Hence statement 2 is correct and 4 is not correct.
  • After independence, in 1950, the Adivasi Mahasabha became a full-fledged political party – Jharkhand Party – and Jaipal Singh was its first President.
  • Jaipal Singh was elected to the Constituent Assembly in 1946 from Bihar province. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • .He was one of the few Independent candidates to have been elected to the Constituent Assembly, a platform that he would use to voice the concerns and promote the interests of tribal people across India.

Question 61

What is 'Tikki Mausi' in the context of Malnutrition?

  1. AOption (a)

    A specially packaged food item

  2. BOption (b)

    A mascot

  3. COption (c)

    Name of a scheme

  4. DOption (d)

    Name given to the healthcare providers

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A mascot

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A mascot.

Key Points

  • Tikki Mausi:
  • The aim is to spread awareness about the nutrition, children and women, the Department of Women & Child Development and Mission Shakti, Government of Odisha, in collaboration with the United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund (UNICEF) unveiled a mascot named ‘Tikki Mausi’.
  • Key Highlights:
  • The department in collaboration with UNICEF also launched a comprehensive state-level communication strategy to make the public aware of children and woman’s nutrition and their development.
  • The mascot: ‘Tikki Mausi’ aims to change the behavior of common people and make them aware of the child and woman’s nutrition and development in every household.
  • The name ‘Tikki Mausi’
  • The mascot has been named so in reference to the second mother of a child.
  • Tikki Mausi is a gregarious character and is an empathetic protagonist with extensive knowledge on all issues related to women and children, thus loves to talk to people and raise their awareness on key positive social behaviors and practices.

Question 62

Which one of the following was the theme of the World Tourism Day, 2019?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sustainable tourism

  2. BOption (b)

    Tourism and the digital transformation

  3. COption (c)

    Tourism : responding to the challenge of climate change

  4. DOption (d)

    Tourism and jobs : a better future for all

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Tourism and jobs : a better future for all

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tourism and jobs: a better future for all.

  • The theme for World Tourism Day, 2019 was Tourism and jobs: a better future for all.

Key Points

  • World Tourism Day:
  • Acknowledging the pace with which tourism has grown as an industry, the United Nations World Tourism Organization announced September 27 as World Tourism Day in 1980 and has been celebrating the day since then.
  • Each year sees a new theme and a new country as a host.
  • The objective is to acquaint people with the social, economic, cultural, and political importance of tourism and make them responsible tourists in turn.
  • In 2019 for the first time, India will be hosting World Tourism Day which has the theme ‘Tourism and Jobs: a better future for all.

Additional Information

  • The theme for World Tourism day 2020 was Tourism and Rural Development.
  • The theme for World Tourism day 2021 was Tourism for Inclusive Growth.

Question 63

Which one of the following countries has hosted the Army Exercise TSENTR, 2019?

  1. AOption (a)

    Russia

  2. BOption (b)

    China

  3. COption (c)

    Kazakhstan

  4. DOption (d)

    Kyrgyztan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Russia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Russia.

Key Points

  • Exercise TSENTR 2019:
  • Exercise TSENTR 2019 was conducted by the Central Military Commission of Russia.
  • This year the exercise was planned between 09 September to 23 September 2019 at Donguz training ranges, Orenburg, Russia.
  • Participants: Apart from host Russia, military contingents from China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Pakistan, and Uzbekistan took part in this mega event.
  • Aims: 
  • The exercise aims at evolving drills of the participating armies and practicing them in the fight against the scourge of international terrorism thereby ensuring military security in the strategic Central Asian region.

Question 64

Which one of the following countries is called the 'country of winds'?

  1. AOption (a)

    India

  2. BOption (b)

    China

  3. COption (c)

    Denmark

  4. DOption (d)

    Germany

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Denmark

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Denmark.

  • Denmark is called the 'country of winds'.

Key Points

  • Country of winds:
  • Denmark is called the 'Country of Winds' as it has the highest proportion of wind power in the world.
  • It has the highest proportion of wind power in the world.
  • Wind dominated, with 47% of the green energy coming from wind turbines.
  • Denmark fulfil 50% of its power requirements from renewable energy
  • Denmark:
  • Capital: Copenhagen
  • Currency: Danish krone
  • Monarch: Margrethe II
  • Prime Minister: Mette Frederiksen

Additional Information

  • India is known as a country of villages.
  • China is also known as The Red Dragon.

Question 65

Which one of the following is the oldest scientific department of the Government of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Department of Biotechnology

  2. BOption (b)

    Survey of India

  3. COption (c)

    India Metrological Department

  4. DOption (d)

    DRDO

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Survey of India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Survey of India.

  • Survey of India is the oldest scientific department of the Government of India

Key Points

  • Survey of India:
  • The National Survey and Mapping Organisation of the country under the Department of Science & Technology is the oldest scientific department of the Government of India.
  • It was set up in 1767 and has evolved rich traditions over the years.
  • In its assigned role as the Nation's Principal Mapping Agency, Survey of India bears a special responsibility to ensure that the country's domain is explored and mapped suitably, provide base maps for expeditious and integrated development and ensure that all resources contribute with their full measure to the progress, prosperity, and security of our country now and for generations to come.

Additional Information

  • Department of Biotechnology comes under the Ministry of Science and Technology.
  • It was founded in the year 1986.
  • The India Meteorological Department comes under the aegis of the Ministry of Earth Sciences of the Government of India.
  • It was founded in the year 1875.
  • Defence Research and Development Organisation comes under the aegis of the Ministry of Defence.
  • It was founded in the year 1958.

Question 66

'Naseem-Al-Bahr' is a bilateral naval exercise between India and

  1. AOption (a)

    United Arab Emirates

  2. BOption (b)

    Iran

  3. COption (c)

    Saudi Arabia

  4. DOption (d)

    Oman

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Oman

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Oman.

Key Points

  • Naseem-Al-Bahr (Sea Breeze) is a bilateral naval exercise between the Indian Navy and the Royal Navy of Oman, being conducted since 1993.
  • Indian Navy ships Beas and Subhadra and Oman Navy ships RNOV Al Rasikh and RNOV Khassab are participating in this exercise.
  • Oman Capital: Muscat
  • Currency: Omani rial

Important Points

Name of exerciseParticipating country
SampritiIndia-Bangladesh
Surya KiranIndia-Nepal
IndraIndia-Russia
Hand in handIndia-china
Mitra shaktiIndia-Shri Lanka
YudhyabhyasIndia-America

Question 67

Koneru humpy excels in which one of the following sports?

  1. AOption (a)

    Boxing

  2. BOption (b)

    Table tennis

  3. COption (c)

    Chess

  4. DOption (d)

    Billards

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Chess

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chess.

Key Points

  • Humpy Koneru:
  • She born on 31 March 1987 in Gudivada, Andhra Pradesh
  • She is an Indian chess grandmaster and current World Rapid Chess Champion.
  • The youngest ever to win a World Junior title at 14 years, the youngest woman in the world to earn the GM title at that time, Asian Champion, British Women’s Champion.
  • She won the individual bronze at the Women's World Team Chess Championship 2015 held in Chengdu, China.
  • Koneru won three gold medals at the World Youth Chess Championship: 1997 (under-10 girls' division), 1998 (under-12 girls), and 2000 (under-14 girls).

Important Points

  • ​Awards and achievements of Humpy Koneru:
  • In 2003: Arjuna Award
  • In 2007: Padma Shri
  • In 2019: Women's World Rapid Chess Championship

Question 68

Which one of the following was the official mascot of Khelo India Youth Games, 2020?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vijaya

  2. BOption (b)

    Jaya

  3. COption (c)

    Rongmon

  4. DOption (d)

    Ammu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Vijaya

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is Vijaya.

Key Points

  • Khelo India Youth Games: 
  • Host City: Guwahati, Assam, India
  • Moscot: Jaya the blackbuck and Vijay the tiger are the mascots for Khelo India Youth Games.
  • Khelo India Youth Games has been introduced to establish India as a sporting superpower by building a strong framework for all sports played in our country and reviving the sports culture in India.
  • The third edition of the Khelo India Youth Games was held from 10 January 2020 to 22 January 2020.
  • The event was held in 20 disciplines with the participation of 37 states and Union Territories.
  • Khelo India program’s inaugural edition was held in New Delhi in 2018, while Pune hosted the 2nd edition in 2019.

Question 69

In January 2020, a passenger aircraft crashed in Iran soon after taking off from Tehran's Imam Khomeini airport killing about 170 people onboard. The airplane belongs to

  1. AOption (a)

    Qatar Airways

  2. BOption (b)

    Ukraine International Airlines

  3. COption (c)

    Singapore Airlines

  4. DOption (d)

    Cathay Pacific

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ukraine International Airlines

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ukraine International Airlines.

Key Points

  • Ukraine International Airlines (UIA) flight crashes:
  • The Boeing 737-800, operated by Ukraine International Airlines, took off from Imam Khomeini international airport at 6.12 am Tehran time on Wednesday.
  • Ukraine International Airlines (UIA) flight crashed shortly after taking off from the Iranian capital Tehran on 8 January, killing all 176 passengers and crew members on board.
  • It came in the midst of escalating tensions between the US and Iran.
  • Iran admitted it had shot the Boeing plane down unintentionally.

Question 70

MILAN, a multilateral naval exercise, 2020 was hosted in which one of the following cities?

  1. AOption (a)

    Port Blair

  2. BOption (b)

    Kochi

  3. COption (c)

    Vishakapatnam

  4. DOption (d)

    Panaji

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Vishakapatnam

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vishakapatnam.

Key Points

  • Milan 2020:
  • The Indian Navy’s major multilateral exercise, Milan 2020, in which around 30 countries were to participate at Visakhapatnam has been postponed due to the spread of Coronavirus.
  • It is a biennial, multilateral naval exercise that started in 1995.
  • The Navy has held 10 editions of the Milan exercise, with the theme of “synergy across the seas” to enhance professional interactions between friendly foreign navies and learn best practices from each other, since 1995.
  • It was conducted at the Andaman and Nicobar Command until 2018.

Question 71

Chalk and marble are different forms of

  1. AOption (a)

    Calcium hydrogen carbonate

  2. BOption (b)

    Calcium carbonate

  3. COption (c)

    Calcium acetate

  4. DOption (d)

    Sodium carbonate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Calcium carbonate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Calcium carbonate.

Important Points

  • Calcium carbonate and its forms:
  • In nature, calcium carbonate occurs in the forms of chalk, limestone, and marble.
  • Formation:
  • ​The skeletal remains of dead sea animals sink to the seabed. Over millions of years, layer build-up and pressure from the top layer changes the bottom layer into chalk.
  • Earth movements due to earthquake lift the layer of chalk to the Earth's surface.
  • The earth's movements can also cause the layers to sink further. Thus, high pressure and heat cause the chalk to turn into much harder limestone.
  • The limestone deposit may stay below the Earth for a longer time and due to higher pressure and temperature, the limestone turns to marble.

Question 72

The number of maximum electrons in N shell is

  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    8

  3. COption (c)

    18

  4. DOption (d)

    32

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

32

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 32.

Key Points

Electronic Configuration:

  • The distribution of electrons in an atom is called Electronic Configuration.
  • The formula 2(n)22(n)^2 helps in the determination of the maximum number of electrons present in an orbit, here n= orbit number.
  • Electrons are negatively charged subatomic particles arranged like a cloud of negative charges outside the nucleus of an atom.
  • The arrangement depends upon their potential energies in different orbits. The different energy levels are known as 1, 2, 3, 4..... and the corresponding shells are known as K, L, M, N, and so on.

For Example: 

  • 1st energy level- K shell
  • 2nd energy level- L shell
  • 3rd energy level- M shell and
  • 4th energy level- N shell and so on.

Hence for N shell n=4

By formula = 2(n)2=2×16=322(n)^2 = 2 \times 16 = 32  , Hence Maximum no of an electron in N shell = 32

Question 73

Vinegar is also known as

  1. AOption (a)

    Ethanoic acid

  2. BOption (b)

    Nitric acid

  3. COption (c)

    Sulphuric acid

  4. DOption (d)

    Tartaric acid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ethanoic acid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ethanoic acid.

Ethanoic acid:

  • Ethanoic acid commonly known as acetic acid belongs to a group of carboxylic acids.
  • Vinegar used in our day to day life is a 5-8% solution of acetic acid (Ethanoic acid ) in water.
  • It is extensively used as a preservative in pickles.

Important Points

  • Tartaric acid: also called a dicarboxylic acid, one of the most widely distributed of plant acids, with a number of food and industrial uses.
  • Sulphuric acid: also spelt as sulfuric acid or H2SO4, is an odourless, colourless, oily liquid.
  • Also, it is very corrosive.
  • Another name for it is Oil of Vitriol.
  • On account of its wide applications, it has alluded as the ‘King of Chemicals’.

Question 74

A liquid is kept in a glass beaker Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the pressure exerted by the liquid column at the base of the beaker?

  1. AOption (a)

    The pressure depends on the area of the base of the beaker

  2. BOption (b)

    The pressure depends on the height of liquid column

  3. COption (c)

    The pressure does not depend on the density of the liquid

  4. DOption (d)

    The pressure neither depends on the area of the base of the beaker nor on the height of liquid column

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The pressure depends on the height of liquid column

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The pressure depends on the height of the liquid column.

Key Points

The pressure exerted by liquid at depth h of container given by:

P=hdg

  • d = density of liquid
  • g = acceleration due to gravity
  • h= depth of liquid

Important Points

  • The pressure increases as the depth inside the liquid increases.
  • Liquid pressure remains the same in all directions at a given depth.
  • A liquid with higher density exerts more pressure than a liquid of low density.

Question 75

Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the travel of sound waves?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sound waves can travel through water

  2. BOption (b)

    Sound waves can travel through air

  3. COption (c)

    Sound waves can travel through steel

  4. DOption (d)

    Sound waves can travel through vacuum

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sound waves can travel through vacuum

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Sound: 

  • A sound is a form of energy that produces a sensation of hearing in our ears.
  • It is a kind of disturbance that travels through a medium due to repeated vibrations of the particles of the medium about their mean positions.
  • The disturbance being handed over from one particle to the next.

Sound: It is a form of energy produced by vibration or disturbance that propagates in a medium.

  • It travels in the form of longitudinal waves (Compression or rarefaction)

EXPLANATION:

  • Sound waves travel in straight lines directly outwards from their source in the form of compression and rarefaction.
  • From above it is clear that a sound is a form of energy that produces a sensation of hearing in our ears.
  • Sound is a mechanical wave and needs a material medium like air, water, steel, etc. for its propagation.
  • It cannot travel through a vacuum. Therefore option 4 is incorrect.

Question 76

Deendayal Port is located at

  1. AOption (a)

    Kerala

  2. BOption (b)

    Gujarat

  3. COption (c)

    Maharashtra

  4. DOption (d)

    Goa

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Gujarat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Gujarat.

Key Points

  • The Kandla port (Gujrat): 
  • One of the top 12 major ports in the country, had been rechristened as Deendayal Port in the name of Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya.
  • It is one of the busiest ports of India which handles one-fifth of the foreign trade of India predominantly in mineral oil and dry cargo.

Important Points

  • There are some ports in the country which are named after individuals:
  • Jawaharlal Nehru Port, located east of Mumbai in Maharashtra.
  • Kamarajar Port located on the Coromandel Coast about 24 km north of Chennai Port in Tamil Nadu.

Question 77

Which one of the following cities is associated with Biosaftey protocol to the Convention on Biological Diversity (2000) ?

  1. AOption (a)

    Geneva

  2. BOption (b)

    Nairobi

  3. COption (c)

    Cartagena

  4. DOption (d)

    Rio de Janeiro

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Cartagena

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Cartagena.

Key Points

Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to the Convention on Biological Diversity:

  • The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to the Convention on Biological Diversity aims to ensure the safe transfer, handling, and use of living modified organisms that result from modern biotechnology that may have adverse effects on biological diversity, taking also into account risks to human health.
  • The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety is a legally binding protocol to the Convention on Biological Diversity.
  • It was named in honor of Cartagena, Colombia, where negotiations were expected to conclude in February 1999.
  • One year later, on January 29, 2000, the Protocol was finalized and adopted in Montreal, Canada by unanimous consent with 135 countries present.

Question 78

Krishna Raja Sagara Dam/Reservoir is developed on

  1. AOption (a)

    Krishna River

  2. BOption (b)

    Tungbhadra River

  3. COption (c)

    Godavari River

  4. DOption (d)

    Kavery River

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Kavery River

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Kavery River.

  • Krishna Raja Sagara Dam/Reservoir is developed on the Kavery River.

Key Points

  • Krishna Raja Sagar dam:
  • Krishna Raja Sagar dam is constructed on the Kaveri river in the state of Karnataka.
  • Krishna Raja Wadiyar IV Maharaj of Mysore constructed the dam during the famine of 1911.
  • The gravity dam is made of surki mortar instead of cement.
  • The water is used for irrigation in Mysore and Mandya, and it is the main source of drinking water for all of Mysore, Mandya, and almost the whole of Bengaluru city.

Additional Information

  • Krishna River:
  • It originates from the Mahabaleshwar, Western Ghats.
  • The tributaries of the river are Tungabhadra, Mallaprabha, Koyna, Bhima, Ghataprabha, Yerla, Warna, Dindi, Musi, and Dudhganga.
  • Nagarjuna Sagar Dam, Koyna Hydroelectric Project, Almatti Dam, Srisailam Dam and Bhadra Dam is on the Krishna river.
  • The Tungabhadra River flows through the state of Karnataka.
  • It is a tributary of the Krishna river.
  • The Tungabhadra dam is located on the river.
  • Godavari:
  • It originates from the Tribakeshwar in Nashik district of Maharashtra.
  • It drains into the Bay of Bengal.
  • It flows through the states of Maharashtra, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh.
  • Tributaries:
  • Left bank: Banganga, Kadva, Shivana, Purna, Kadam, Pranahita, Indravati, Taliperu, Sabari, Dharna.
  • Right bank: Nasardi, Pravara, Sindphana, Manjira, Manair, Kinnerasani.
  • Nizam Sagar Dam, Singur Dam, Manjara Dam, Singur Dam are some important dams located on the river Godavari.

Question 79

Which one of the following Indian states does not share international border with two or more countries?

  1. AOption (a)

    Arunachal Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Assam

  3. COption (c)

    Mizoram

  4. DOption (d)

    Tripura

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Tripura

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tripura.

  • Tripura shares a border with only one country Bangladesh.

Important Points

The Indian States on International Boundaries:

CountryStates on International Boundaries
AfghanistanLadakh
BhutanWest Bengal, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, and Assam
BangladeshWest Bengal, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Assam
ChinaLadakh, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh
MyanmarArunachal Pradesh,  Nagaland, Manipur, and Mizoram
NepalBihar, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Sikkim, and West Bengal
PakistanLadakh, Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, and Gujarat

Question 80

According to Census of India, 2011, which one among the following is the least populated state in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Maharashtra

  2. BOption (b)

    Madhya Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Odhisha

  4. DOption (d)

    Punjab

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Punjab

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Punjab.

Key Points

StatePopulation (2011)
Maharashtra112,374,333
Madhya Pradesh72,626,809
Odisha41,974,218
Punjab27,743,338

Confusion Points

  • The question is asking about the least populated State among the given OPTION only, which is Punjab.
  • Otherwise, the least populated State of India according to Census 2011 is Sikkim with a population of 60,7688.

Important Points

  • According to the 2011 census:
  • Most populated state of country: Uttar Pradesh (199,812,341)
  • Least populated state in the country: Sikkim (610577)
  • Census 2011 was the seventh census after the independence and fifteenth census overall.
  • 2011 Census Commissioner of India – C. Chandramouli​
  • Moto of Census – 'Our Census, Our Future'

Question 81

The speakers of major Indian languages belong to how many language families?

  1. AOption (a)

    Two

  2. BOption (b)

    Three

  3. COption (c)

    Four

  4. DOption (d)

    Six

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Four

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Four.

  • People of India speak a large number of languages most of which belong to the families of:
  • Indo-Aryan language
  • Dravidian language
  • Mon-Khmer language
  • Sino-Tibetan language

Important Points

  • The Aryan Languages:
  • This is the most important of all the families of languages and spoken by a little less than three-fourths of the Indian population.
  • The Aryan languages are divided into the following two main branches:
  1. The Dardic Aryan Languages
  2. The Indo Aryan Languages
  • Dravidian Languages:
  • Dravidian languages are older than the Aryan languages.
  • The Dravidian languages, 153 in number, form the second major linguistic group of the country (24.47 percent).
  • According to an estimate, Dravidians entered India much before the Aryans.
  • Other estimates indicate that they are the original inhabitants of the country, who were driven away towards the south by the Aryans at a later stage.
  • Mon-Khmer language:
  • ​It constitutes the indigenous language family of mainland Southeast Asia.
  • They range north to southern China, south to Malaysia, west to Assam state in India, and east to Vietnam.
  • Some ethnic groups in Assam and other parts of eastern India speak languages of the

Mon-Khmer group.

  • Sino-Tibetan language:
  • Sino-Tibetan languages, group of languages that includes both the Chinese and the Tibeto-Burman languages.
  • In terms of numbers of speakers, they constitute the world’s second-largest language family after Indo-Aryan.
  • People in the northern Himalayan region and near the Burmese border speak Sino-Tibetan languages.
  • Speakers of 20 Mon-Khmer languages and 98 Sino-Tibetan languages together make up about 2 percent of the population.

Question 82

Where did Gandhiji initially forge the techniques of Satyagraha?

  1. AOption (a)

    England

  2. BOption (b)

    South Africa

  3. COption (c)

    North Africa

  4. DOption (d)

    India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

South Africa

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is South Africa.

Important Points

  • Mahatma Gandhi in Africa:
  • Born in India and educated in England, Gandhiji traveled to South Africa in early 1893 to practice law under a one-year contract.
  • Settling in Natal, he was subjected to racism and South African laws that restricted the rights of Indian laborers.
  • When his contract expired, he spontaneously decided to remain in South Africa and launch a campaign against legislation that would deprive Indians of the right to vote.
  • He formed the Natal Indian Congress and drew international attention to the plight of Indians in South Africa.
  • In 1906, the Transvaal government sought to further restrict the rights of Indians, and Gandhi organized his first campaign of satyagraha or mass civil disobedience.
  • After seven years of protest, he negotiated a compromise agreement with the South African government.

Question 83

Who was the Viceroy of India at the time of Gandhiji's Dandi march?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lord Irwin

  2. BOption (b)

    Lord Linlithgow

  3. COption (c)

    Lord Reading

  4. DOption (d)

    Lord Willingdon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Lord Irwin

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lord Irwin.

Key Points

ViceroyDuration
Lord Irwin1926-31
Lord Linlithgow1936-44
Lord Reading1921-26
Lord Willingdon1931-36

Important Points

  • Dandi March:
  • The Salt Satyagraha was initiated by Mahatma Gandhi against the salt tax that was imposed by the British Government in India.
  • Mahatma Gandhi launched the Civil Disobedience Movement with his famous Dandi March, which began on 12th March 1930 and ended on April 6th, 1930.
  • Gandhi traveled a total distance of 386 km from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi on the coast of the Arabian sea.
  • Mahatma Gandhi broke the salt law on the coastal town of Dandi on the Arabian Sea on April 5.
  • Dandi March is also known as Namak Satyagrah or Salt Satyagrah.
  • Lord Irwin was the viceroy between 1926 to 1931 so above all activities take place in his duration as viceroy of India.

Question 84

Which one among the following American newsmagazines was highly sceptical of Gandhiji's Dandi march initially but within a week completely changes its opinion and saluted him as a Saint and Statesman?

  1. AOption (a)

    Saturday Evening Post

  2. BOption (b)

    Readers Digest

  3. COption (c)

    Time

  4. DOption (d)

    Life

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Time

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Time.

Key Points

  • Gandhi’s Salt March:
  • The Salt March was a significant event because it was the first event that brought Gandhi to world attention.
  • The European and American press covered the Salt March. After the march began, the American magazine Time was deeply sceptical, but as the March progressed, Time began to publish positive reports about it.
  • It wrote that the massive following of the march made the British rulers desperately anxious. They in fact saluted Gandhi as a ‘Saint’ and ‘Statesman’.
  • The wide attention provided to the leadership of Gandhi during the march also made people across nations sympathetic to the national movement of India.
  • The Salt March was a significant event which hastened the country’s steps towards Swaraj.
  • It was the first nationalist activity in which women actively participated in large numbers.

Question 85

In which of the following years were passenger trains introduced in England?

  1. AOption (a)

    1823

  2. BOption (b)

    1825

  3. COption (c)

    1848

  4. DOption (d)

    1861

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1825

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1825.

  • In the year 1825 passenger trains were introduced in England.

Important Points

  • Passenger train in England
  • On September 27, 1825, Locomotion No.1 became the world's first steam locomotive to carry passengers.
  • It was run on a public line the Stockton and Darlington Railway, in North East England.
  • Thus the railway system in Great Britain is the oldest in the world.
  • Locomotion No.1 was built by George Stephenson at his son Robert's company, the Robert Stephenson and Company.

Additional Information

  • Indian Railways:
  • Indian Railway Board was established in March 1905.
  • Indian Railway was nationalised in 1951.
  • Railways have been divided into 18 zones.
  • Southern Coast Railway was the 18th zone.
  • The first Indian railway line in India was operated for public traffic in 1853 between Mumbai and Thane over a distance of 34 km.
  • Ashwini Vaishnaw is the current Minister of Railways.

Question 86

The correct relation between the radius of curvature R and focal length f of a spherical mirror is

  1. AOption (a)

    R = f

  2. BOption (b)

    R = 2f

  3. COption (c)

    R = 3f

  4. DOption (d)

    R = 4f

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

R = 2f

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • A spherical mirror is a mirror whose reflecting surface is a part of a hollow sphere of glass.
  • One side of the mirror is well polished and reflecting, and another side of the mirror is opaque (often painted red).
  • Spherical mirrors are of two types - Convex mirror, and Concave mirror.
  • The image formed by the spherical mirrors depends on the position of the object.

EXPLANATION:

  • The relationship between the focal length (f) and the radius of curvature (R) is given by -

⇒f=R2⇒ f = \frac{R}{2}

⇒ R = 2f

Question 87

A lemon kept in water in a glass tumbler appears to be larger than its actual size. It is because of

  1. AOption (a)

    reflection of light

  2. BOption (b)

    scattering of light

  3. COption (c)

    refraction of light

  4. DOption (d)

    polarization of light

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

refraction of light

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Refraction of Light: The bending of the ray of light passing from one medium to the other medium is called refraction.

  • The refraction of light takes place on going from one medium to another because the speed of light is different in the two media.

  • The greater the difference in the speeds of light in the two media, the greater will be the amount of refraction.

  • A medium in which the speed of light is more is known as optically rarer medium and a medium in which the speed of light is less is known as an optically denser medium.

EXPLANATION:

  • A lemon kept in water in a glass tumbler appears to be bigger than its actual size when viewed from the sides. This is because of the refraction of light. Therefore option 3 is correct.
  • Light is refracted as it passes from water into the air and as we know the refracted ray bends away from normal when it passes from denser to rarer medium.
  • Water in a glass tumbler has a round outer surface that is convex and is a magnifying glass.
  • As light is bent and being bent to the point that the object being observed appears to be larger than its normal size.

Question 88

Light enters the eye through a thin membrane called

  1. AOption (a)

    retina

  2. BOption (b)

    cornea

  3. COption (c)

    pupil

  4. DOption (d)

    iris

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

cornea

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT**:** 

  • Cornea: The transparent spherical membrane covering the front part of the eye
  • ​Light enters the eye through this membrane.
  • Most of the refraction happens here
  • Iris is a muscle in our eye that controls the size of the pupil. It dilates and contracts because of which size of the pupil varies.
  • So we can say Iris controls the size of the pupil.
  • Retina: An image is formed on the retina.
  • Ciliary muscles are smooth muscle fibers. When the ciliary muscles relax the lens becomes flat and when they contract the lens becomes thicker. This change in curvature of the eye lens changes the focal length of the eyes.

EXPLANATION**:** 

  • From the above, it is clear that light enters the eye through a thin membrane called the cornea. Therefore option 2 is correct.

EXTRA POINTS:

  • Different parts of the eyes and their functions are shown in the table:
Name of the PartCharacteristicsFunction
Eye Lenstransparent, biconvex structure in the eyeprovides finer adjustment required to focus objects on the retina
IrisThe dark muscular diaphragm between the cornea and the lenscontrols the size of the pupil
PupilAn opening between the iris through which light enters the eyeregulates the amount of light entering the eye
Ciliary MusclesAttached to the eye lens
hold the lens in position and modify the curvature of the lens.
Retinathe light-sensitive surface of an eye on which the image is formedgenerate signals which are transmitted to the brain through optical nerves
Optic NerveAttached to retinatransmits visual information from the retina to the brain

Question 89

Name the scientist who first used a glass prism to obtain the spectrum of sunlight

  1. AOption (a)

    C. V. Raman

  2. BOption (b)

    Lord Rayleigh

  3. COption (c)

    Issac Newton

  4. DOption (d)

    S. Chandrasekhar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Issac Newton

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Dispersion of light: The splitting of a composite beam of light into its constituent colours is called dispersion of light.

  • The dispersion of white light occurs because the colours of white light travel at different speeds through the glass prism.

  • The band of seven colours is known as the spectrum of light.

  • The dispersion was discovered by Sir Issac Newton.

  • Newton discovered that light is made up of seven different colours.

EXPLANATION:

  • From the above, it is clear that Issac Newton was the first to use a glass prism to obtain the spectrum of sunlight. Therefore option 3 is correct.

Question 90

The cost of energy to operate an industrial refrigerator that consumes 5 kW power working 10 hours per day for 30 days will be (Given that the charge k.W.h of energy = Rs. 4)

  1. AOption (a)

    Rs. 600

  2. BOption (b)

    Rs. 6,000

  3. COption (c)

    Rs. 1,200

  4. DOption (d)

    Rs. 1,500

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Rs. 6,000

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Power (P): The rate of work done by an electric current is called power. It is denoted by P. The SI unit of power is the watt (W).
  • Power dissipation is given by:

⇒ P = V I = V2/R = I2 R

Where V is the potential difference across resistance, I is current flowing and R is resistance.

  • Heat dissipation/work done/Electrical energy is given by:

⇒ Heat dissipated (H) = Power (P) × Time (t)

CALCULATION:

Given - Power (P) = 5 kW = 5 kW, Per day working time = 10 hrs, Total days = 30 days and Cost per unit = 4 per kWh

Total time (t) = 10 × 30 = 300 hrs

  • The total energy consumed by the industrial refrigerator in 30 days would be:

⇒ Energy (H) = P × t = 5 × 300 hrs = 1500 kWh

  • The cost of energy to operate the refrigerator for 30 days = total energy × cost per unit

⇒ Total cost =  1500 kW h × Rs 4 per kW h = Rs 6000

  • Hence option 2 is correct.

Question 91

Which one of the following statements regarding magnetic field is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Magnetic field is a quantity that has direction and magnitude

  2. BOption (b)

    Magnetic field lines are closed curves

  3. COption (c)

    Magnetic field lines are open curves

  4. DOption (d)

    No two magnetic field lines are found to cross each other

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Magnetic field lines are open curves

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Magnetic field and magnetic lines of force: It is the space around a magnetic pole or magnet or current-carrying wire within which it's magnetic effect can be experienced is defined as a magnetic field.
  • The magnetic field can be represented with the help of a set of lines or curves called magnetic lines of force or magnetic field lines.

Properties of Magnetic Field Lines: 

  1. A magnetic field line is directed from north-pole to south-pole outside the magnet.
  2. A magnetic field line is a closed and continuous curve. (Magnetic field lines inside the magnet where these are directed from south pole to north pole).
  3. The magnetic field lines are crowded near the pole where the magnetic field is strong and are far apart near the middle of the magnet and far from the magnet where the magnetic field is weak.
  4. The magnetic field lines never intersect each other because if they do so, there would be two directions of the magnetic field at that point which is absurd.
  5. In case the field lines are parallel and equidistant, these represent a uniform magnetic field. The Earth's magnetic field is uniform in a limited space.

EXPLANATION:

  • From the above, it is clear that the magnetic field line is a closed and continuous curve.
  • Therefore statement 2 is correct and statement 3 is incorrect. So, option 3 is correct.

Question 92

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Buckminsterfullerence is an allotrope of carbon

  2. BOption (b)

    Diamond is a good conductor of electricity

  3. COption (c)

    Graphite is a good conductor of electricity

  4. DOption (d)

    In graphite, each carbon atom is linked to three other carbons atoms

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Diamond is a good conductor of electricity

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Diamond is a good conductor of electricity.

Important Points

  • Allotropes of carbon:
  • Carbon allotropes refer to different well-defined structures of carbon-pure materials, in which carbon atoms are bonded in specific ways.
  • Carbon shows allotropic forms like Diamond, graphite, and Buckminsterfullerene.
  • Properties of Graphite:
  • Graphite is a good conductor of heat and electricity.
  • It is very soft and slippery and for this reason, graphite is used as a lubricant in the machine running at high temperatures, where oil cannot be used as a lubricant.
  • Every carbon atom in graphite is bonded to three other carbon atoms in such a way that a layered hexagonal structure is formed.
  • Properties of Dimond:
  • Diamond has a high density of 3.51 gm due to three dimensional giant structure.
  • It is a bad conductor of electricity.
  • Diamond is the hardest substance on earth.
  • It is used as an abrasive for sharpening hard tools.

Question 93

How many covalent bonds are present in a Chloropropane molecule having molecular formula, C3H7Cl ?

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    8

  3. COption (c)

    9

  4. DOption (d)

    10

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

10

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 10. 

Key Points

Chloropropane:

  • A chemical structure of a molecule includes the arrangement of atoms and the chemical bonds that hold the atoms together.

  • The  1-Chloropropane or 2- Chloropropane molecule contains a total of 10 bonds.

  • There are 3 non-H bonds.

Important Points

  • Chloropropane appears as a colorless liquid with a chloroform-like odor.
  • Vapors are heavier than air and less dense than water.
  • May irritate the skin and eyes and be narcotic in high concentrations.
  • A fire and explosion risk.
  • Used to make other chemicals.

Question 94

Which one of the following is the most fundamental characteristic is an element?

  1. AOption (a)

    Melting point

  2. BOption (b)

    Atomic number

  3. COption (c)

    Colour

  4. DOption (d)

    Atomic weight

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Atomic number

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Atomic number.

Key Points

  • Fundamental characteristics of elements:
  • Fundamental properties of atoms include the atomic number and atomic mass.
  • The number of protons in the nucleus is called the atomic number.
  • The most fundamental characteristic of an element that forms the basis of the classification of elements in the modern periodic table is Atomic Number.
  • Mendeleev's law says that the properties of the elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbers.

Additional Information

  • Atomic no. and masses of the first 30 elements of the periodic table:

 

Atomic No.ElementAtomic Mass
1Hydrogen1.008
2Helium4.0026
3Lithium6.94
4Beryllium9.0122
5Boron10.81
6Carbon12.011
7Nitrogen14.007
8Oxygen15.999
9Fluorine18.998
10Neon20.18
11Sodium22.99
12Magnesium24.305
13Aluminum26.982
14Silicon28.085
15Phosphorus30.974
16Sulfur32.06
17Chlorine35.45
18Argon39.948
19Potassium39.098
20Calcium40.078
21Scandium44.956
22Titanium47.867
23Vanadium50.942
24Chromium51.996
25Manganese54.938
26Iron55.845
27Cobalt58.933
28Nickel58.693
29Copper63.546
30Zinc65.38

Question 95

Neutrons were discovered by

  1. AOption (a)

    James Chadwick

  2. BOption (b)

    Ernest Rutherford

  3. COption (c)

    J. J. Thomson

  4. DOption (d)

    John Dalton

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

James Chadwick

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

NEUTRONS:

  • In 1932, J. Chadwick discovered another subatomic particle which had no charge and a mass nearly equal to that of a proton. It was eventually named as a neutron.
  • Neutrons are present in the nucleus of all atoms, except hydrogen.
  • In general, a neutron is represented as ‘n’.
  • The mass of a neutron is 1.6750 x 10-27 kg.
  • The mass of an atom is therefore given by the sum of the masses of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus.
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EXPLANATION:

  • Neutrons and protons are found in the nucleus of an atom.
  • Neutrons were discovered by James Chadwick. Therefore option 1 is correct.

Additional Information

(Scientist)(Discovery)
AErnest RutherfordProton
BChadwickNeutron
CJJ ThomsonElectron
DJohn DaltonAtomic theory

Question 96

Atomic mass of an element is equal to the sum of number of

  1. AOption (a)

    electrons and protons only

  2. BOption (b)

    protons and neutrons only

  3. COption (c)

    electrons and neutrons only

  4. DOption (d)

    electrons, protons and neutrons

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

protons and neutrons only

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • ATOMIC NUMBER: It is defined as the number of protons present in the nucleus. It is denoted by the letter Z.

  • MASS NUMBER: The total number of protons and neutrons present in a nucleus is called the mass number of the element. It is denoted by letter A.

  • For neutral atom,

  1. Number of protons in an atom = Z
  2. Number of electrons in an atom = Z
  3. Number of nucleons in an atom = A
  4. Number of neutrons in an atom = N = A – Z

EXPLANATION:​

  • From the above, it is clear that the atomic mass of an element is equal to the sum of the number of protons and neutrons only. Therefore option 2 is correct.

Question 97

Which one of the following element's isotope is used in the treatment of cancer?

  1. AOption (a)

    Uranium

  2. BOption (b)

    Cobalt

  3. COption (c)

    Sodium

  4. DOption (d)

    Iodine

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Cobalt

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Cobalt.

Key Points

  • Isotopes and Their uses:
  • Radioactive Isotopes are used for medicinal purposes.
  • They are used for the detection of tumors, blood clots, etc.
  • The cobalt-60 isotope of Cobalt is used in cancer treatments.
  • The iodine-131 isotope of iodine helps in the treatment of goiter.
  • Arsenic-74, an isotope of arsenic, is used for determining the presence of a tumor.
  • Sodium-24 is used for the detection of blood clots.

Question 98

Which one of the following cell organelles may play a role in expelling excess water and wastes in case of unicellular organisms?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lysosome

  2. BOption (b)

    Contractile vacuole

  3. COption (c)

    Golgi body

  4. DOption (d)

    Endoplasmic reticulum

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Contractile vacuole

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Contractile vacuole.

Important Points

  • Excretion in unicellular organisms:
  • A contractile vacuole (CV) is an organelle or subcellular structure, that is involved in osmoregulation and waste removal.
  • CVs should not be confused with vacuoles which store food or water.
  • Contractile vacuoles absorb excess water and wastes from a microorganism’s cell and excrete them into the environment by contracting.

Key Points

  • Contractile vacuoles protect a cell from absorbing too much water and potentially exploding by excreting excess water.
  • Wastes, such as ammonia, are soluble in water; they are excreted from the cell along with excess water by the contractile vacuoles.
  • Contractile vacuoles function in a periodic cycle by expanding while collecting water and contracting to release the water.

Question 99

Which one of the following terms describes the practice of growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same piece of land?

  1. AOption (a)

    Crop rotation

  2. BOption (b)

    Mixed cropping

  3. COption (c)

    Intercropping

  4. DOption (d)

    Mixed farming

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mixed cropping

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mixed cropping.

Key Points

  • Cropping Pattern:
  • Mixed cropping is growing two or more crops simultaneously on a piece of land, this reduces risk and if the insects and some microorganisms attack anyone's crop the two crops also get spoiled, and is difficult to spray pesticides to crops.
  • Intercropping is the growing of two or more crops simultaneously on a piece of land in definite patterns. This method of cropping can give a better yield.

Additional Information

  • Crop rotation is the practice of planting different crops sequentially on the same plot of land to improve soil health, optimize nutrients in the soil, and combat pest and weed pressure.
  • Mixed farming is the one in which crop production is combined with the rearing of livestock.
  • The livestock enterprises are complementary to crop production so as to provide a balanced and productive system of farming.

Question 100

Which one of the following statements is correct about effects of antibiotics on viruses?

  1. AOption (a)

    Viruses are "non-living" entities but it can interact with antibodies

  2. BOption (b)

    Taking antibiotics cures viral infections

  3. COption (c)

    Viruses do not possess metabolic pathways on which antibiotics can function, whereas bacteria have such pathways

  4. DOption (d)

    Viruses are resistant to antibiotics

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Viruses do not possess metabolic pathways on which antibiotics can function, whereas bacteria have such pathways

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3.

Key Points

  • A virus is an acellular structure which is a non-living particle outside of the body of its host.
  • Thus, it lacks protoplasm which is the site of most of the metabolic activities, antibiotics which are effective against bacteria (living prokaryotic cell), are ineffective on viruses.
  • Viruses don't have cell walls that can be attacked by antibiotics instead, they are surrounded by a protective protein coat, Unlike bacteria, which attack your body's cells from the outside, viruses actually move into the body cell and make copies of themselves in your body's cells.

Important Points

  • Viruses are non-cellular, microscopic infectious agents that can only replicate inside a host cell.
  • From a biological perspective, viruses cannot be classified either as living organisms or non-living.
  • They act as living organisms when they are present in a host organism (cell), otherwise, they are nonliving organisms.
  • Viruses are classified on the basis of genetic material - ds DNA (polio), dsRNA, ssDNA, ssRNA (orthomyxoviruses).
  • Viruses cause diseases among animals and plants.
  • Potato mosaic and tobacco mosaic are common viral diseases among plants.
  • Chickenpox, AIDS, and Ebola are common viral animal diseases.
  • Viroids and prions are the infecting proteins and RNA, they lack cell covers like a virus or any other eukaryotes.
  • They were discovered by T Dienner in 1971 and these are also responsible for diseases among animals, E.g. mad cow disease.

Question 101

The Panama Canal opened in 1914, links

  1. AOption (a)

    Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea

  2. BOption (b)

    Atlantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean

  3. COption (c)

    Indian Ocean and Pacific Ocean

  4. DOption (d)

    Adriatic Sea and Black Sea

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Atlantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Atlantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean.

Key Points

  • The Panama Canal opened in 1914 linked the Atlantic Ocean and the Pacific Ocean.
  • It connects the Atlantic and Pacific oceans through the narrow Isthmus of Panama.
  • It is an artificial 82 km waterway in Panama.

Additional Information

  • The Suez Canal is an artificial waterway connecting the Mediterranean Sea to the Indian Ocean via the Red Sea.
  • It enables a more direct route for shipping between Europe and Asia, effectively allowing for passage from the North Atlantic to the Indian Ocean without having to circumnavigate the African continent.
  • The Pacific and the Indian Ocean are connected by the Strait of Malacca in the west.
  • The Adriatic Sea is the northernmost part of the Mediterranean sea.

Question 102

Where was the United Nations Charter signed by 51 original members of the United Nations?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hague Conference

  2. BOption (b)

    London Conference

  3. COption (c)

    San Francisco Conference

  4. DOption (d)

    Berlin Conference

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

San Francisco Conference

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is San Francisco Conference.

  • The United Nations Charter was signed by 51 original members of the United Nations in 1945 at the San Francis conference 850 delegates from 51 nations deliberated, discussed, and finalised the charter which initially led into 4 sections.
  • It was passed unanimously on 26th June 1945.

Important Points

  • The United Nations officially came into existence on 24 October 1945.
  • United Nations Day is celebrated on 24 October each year.
  • The main organs of the UN are:
  1. the General Assembly
  2. the Security Council
  3. the Economic and Social Council
  4. the Trusteeship Council
  5. the International Court of Justice
  6. and the UN Secretariat
  • All the 6 were established in 1945 when the UN was founded.
  • The General Assembly is the main deliberative, policymaking and representative organ of the UN.

Additional Information

  • London conference (officially named as Declaration of St James' palace) was signed on 12th June 1941.
  • This conference led to the idea of the formation of the United Nation,
  • The Hague Conference, 1954 is related to the protection of cultural property in the Event of Armed Conflict.
  • The Berlin Conference of 1884–1885, also known as the Congo Conference or West Africa Conference regulated European colonization and trade in Africa.

Question 103

Land Revenue Records maintained in India have categorized land-use into

  1. AOption (a)

    6 categories

  2. BOption (b)

    9 categories

  3. COption (c)

    15 categories

  4. DOption (d)

    21 categories

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

9 categories

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is 9 categories.

  • The land revenue records maintained in India have categorised land use into 9 categories
  • These nine categories are:
ForestsArea under Non-Agricultural useBarren and Uncultured Land
Permanent Pastures and other Grazing LandMiscellaneous Tree CropsCulturable Waste Land
Fallow Land other than Current FallowsCurrent FallowsNet Area Sown

Important Points

  • Land-use records are maintained by the land revenue department.
  • The land-use categories add up to the reporting area, which is somewhat different from the geographical area.
  • The Survey of India is responsible for measuring the geographical area of administrative units in India.
  • The difference between the two concepts is mat while the former changes somewhat depending on the estimates of the land revenue records, the latter does not change and stays fixed as per Survey of India measurements.

Additional Information

  • Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP) is an approach to digitalised things.
  • The DILRMP is an initiative of the Department of Land Resources (DoLR) and the Ministry of Rural Development.
  • Under this program, real-time land ownership records will be available to the citizen.

Question 104

Dry land farming in India is largely confined to areas with rainfall less than

  1. AOption (a)

    100 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    85 cm

  3. COption (c)

    80 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    75 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

75 cm

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 75cm.

Key Points

  • Dryland farming is confined to regions having annual rainfall less than 75 cm.
  • 68% of the cultivated area in Indian agriculture comes under dryland.
  • It contributes about 44% of the total food production and plays a critical role in India's food security.
  • These regions grow hardy and drought-resistant crops such as ragi, bajra, moong, gram, and guar (fodder crops).

Additional Information

  • There are different type of farming in India they are:
  • Shifting Cultivation which means Jhum in Assam and Ponam in Kerala.
  • Intensive farming also is known as  Industrial Agriculture.
  • Mixed cropping involves planting two or more plants simultaneously in the same field.
  • Mixed farming involves both the growing of crops and the raising of livestock.

Question 105

For an area to be excluded from the drought-prone category, what percentage of its gross cropped area should be under irrigation

  1. AOption (a)

    10 percent or more

  2. BOption (b)

    20 percent or more

  3. COption (c)

    25 percent or more

  4. DOption (d)

    30 percent or more

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

30 percent or more

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is 30 percent or more.

  • For an area to be excluded from the drought-prone category, 30% or more of its gross cropped area should be under irrigation.
  • The irrigation commission considers both rainfall and irrigation as factors in identifying a drought.
  • It recommended that areas with more than 30% coverage of irrigation should be excluded from being listed as drought-prone areas.
  • According to the vulnerability profile of NDMA, around 68% of India's cultivable area is vulnerable to droughts.
  • Areas that get up to 60 centimeters of rainfall annually are the most drought-prone.

Important Points

  • The climatological community has defined four types of drought:
  • Meteorological Drought
  • Hydrological Drought
  • Agricultural Drought
  • Socioeconomic Drought
  • Meteorological drought happens when dry weather patterns dominate an area.
  • Hydrological drought occurs when low water supply becomes evident, especially in streams, reservoirs, and groundwater.
  • Agricultural drought happens when crops get affected.

Question 106

Which one of the following is NOT a current of Pacific Ocean?

  1. AOption (a)

    Oyashio current

  2. BOption (b)

    Alaska current

  3. COption (c)

    Agulhas current

  4. DOption (d)

    California current

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Agulhas current

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is option Agulhus Current.

  • Agulhus Current is not a current of the Pacific Ocean.

Key Points

  • Currents moving from the equator to poles are warm.
  • Currents moving from poles to the equator are cold.
  • The Alaska Current is a southwestern warm-water current.
  • The Agulhas Current is a warm current in the western boundary current of the southwest Indian Ocean. Hence, Option 3 is correct.
  • California Current is a cold current that moves south along the west coast of the United States.
  • Oyashio is a cold subarctic ocean current that flows south and circulates counterclockwise in the western North Pacific Ocean.

Additional Information

  • The ocean currents may be classified based on their depth as:
  • Surface currents - It constitutes about 10 percent of all the water in the ocean, these waters are the upper 400 m of the ocean.
  • Deep water currents - These currents make up the other 90 percent of the ocean water. These waters move around the ocean basins due to variations in density and gravity.
  • Ocean currents can also be classified based on temperature as:
  • Cold currents - It brings cold water into warm water areas.
  • These currents are usually found on the west coast of the continents in the low and middle latitudes (true in both hemispheres) and on the east coast in the higher latitudes in the Northern Hemisphere.
  • Warm currents - It brings warm water into cold water areas and are usually observed on the east coast of continents in the low and middle latitudes (true in both hemispheres).
  • In the northern hemisphere, they are found on the west coasts of continents in high latitudes.

Question 107

The duration of monsoon in India extends for an average period of____

  1. AOption (a)

    80 - 140 days

  2. BOption (b)

    100 - 120 days

  3. COption (c)

    90 - 130 days

  4. DOption (d)

    100 - 140 days

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

100 - 120 days

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 100-120 days.

  • The duration of monsoon in India extends for an average period of 100-120 days.
  • The monsoon or Rainy season in India lasts from June till September.
  • The south-west monsoon, known as the summer monsoon blows from sea to land after crossing the Indian Ocean, the Arabian Sea, and the Bay of Bengal.
  • The south-west monsoon brings most of the rainfall during a year in the country.
  • The north-east monsoon, commonly known as the winter monsoon blows from land to sea.

Additional Information

  • Out of a total of 4 seasonal divisions of India, monsoon occupies 2 divisions, namely-
  • The southwest monsoon season:
  • ​Rainfall received from the southwest monsoons is seasonal in character, which occurs between June and September.
  • The retreating monsoon season:
  • The months of October and November are known for retreating monsoons.

Question 108

Which one of the following is the natural vegetation of South east China?

  1. AOption (a)

    Subtropical broadleaf evergreen forest

  2. BOption (b)

    Tropical broadleaf evergreen forest

  3. COption (c)

    Tropical deciduous forest

  4. DOption (d)

    Temperate evergreen forest

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Subtropical broadleaf evergreen forest

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Subtropical broadleaf evergreen forest.

Key Points

  • The natural vegetation of South-East China is subtropical broadleaf evergreen forests.
  • South-East China experiences a temperate monsoon type of climate which is characterized by warm moist summer and cool and dry winter.
  • Tropical broadleaf evergreen forests are found in the areas receiving heavy rainfall more than 200 cm annual rainfall.
  • It receives moderate rainfall between 25 inches to 60 inches, which is evenly distributed throughout the year.
  • The well-distributed rainfall all the year-round make the regions look green at all times.
  • The fiora of this region includes oak, camphor, camelia, and magnolia.

Additional Information

  • Tropical Deciduous forest, also known as Monsoon forests are found in the belt along the equator between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn.
  • Temperate Evergreen forests are found in temperate areas with warmer summers and cool winter.
  • These are mostly located in the coastal region with mild winter and drier climates and are dominated by large trees.

Question 109

Which one of the following is a cold local wind?

  1. AOption (a)

    Santa Ana

  2. BOption (b)

    Chinook

  3. COption (c)

    Mistral

  4. DOption (d)

    Loo

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Mistral

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mistral.

  • Mistral is a cold and dry strong wind in southern france that blows down from the north along the lower Rhone River valley toward the Mediterranean Sea.

Key Points

  • Cold Local Winds:
  • These are dust-laden winds and as they have a temperature below freezing point, they create Cold Wave conditions.
  • Examples of Cold Local winds include Mistral, Bora, Northers, Blizzard, Purga, Lavender, Pampero, Bise, etc.
  • Mistral:
  • It is a cold and dry wind that blows in Spain and France from North-west to South-East direction, mostly occur during winter months.
  • Due to the presence of the Rhome River, these winds are channelized into the Rhome valley due to which they become extremely cold.
  • As they pass through the narrow Rhome Valley, they turn into stormy northerly cold winds and their average velocity which is 55-65 km/hr may even reach 128km/hr.
  • Such stormy cold northerly winds cause a sudden drop in temperature to below freezing point.

Additional Information

  • Chinook winds:
  • ​These are warm and dry winds blowing on the eastern slopes (leeward side) of the Rocky Mountain.
  • They are the result of adiabatic heating which occurs due to downslope compression on the leeward side, as the mountain barrier creates frictional drag which tends to pull the air from the higher level down on the leeward, and air forced down is heated adiabatically and at the same time, its relative humidity is also lowered.
  • Chinook leads to the melt-down of the water and due to the sudden rise in temperature the water is evaporated, thus there occurs a reduction in the soil moisture, which is a negative aspect of Chinook.
  • Santa Ana:
  • ​These are the dry and warm local wind that occurs in the Santa Ana Valley of Southern California and it is almost similar to Chinook or Foehn with regard to thermal and moisture characteristics.
  • Loo:
  • It originates from the Thar desert and has north-westerly to a westerly direction.
  • They dominate during early summer in the months of march to may and create heat waves like conditions in Northern India and adjoining parts.
  • They have desiccating effects and are considered environmental hazards.

Question 110

What was the consequence of Permanent Settlement on rural society in Bengal?

  1. AOption (a)

    The zamindars invested capital and enterprise to improve agriculture along lines of British yeoman farmers

  2. BOption (b)

    A group of rich peasants known as jotedars succeeded in consolidating their position in the villages

  3. COption (c)

    The ryots prospered as a result of fixed revenue levy imposed on them

  4. DOption (d)

    The system of Collectorate introduced by the Company for exercising supervisory control on zamindars failed to take off

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A group of rich peasants known as jotedars succeeded in consolidating their position in the villages

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • The main consequence of Permanent settlement on rural society in Bengal was the rise of a group of rich peasants known as Jotedars as they succeeded in consolidating their positions in the villages.
  • They lived in villages, advanced loans to peasants, and resisted exports by Zarrindiars to increase the Jama of the village. They also purchased the states of Zamindar when they tried to pay timely revenue.

Important Points

  • A permanent settlement was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793 in Eastern parts of the country it fixed the land revenue and recognized Zamindar as Owners of the land.
  • This was basically an agreement between the Company and the Zamindars to fix the land revenue.
  • First enacted in Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha, this was later followed in the northern Madras Presidency and the district of Varanasi.
  • He envisaged the creation of a hereditary class of landlords in India.
  • This system was also called the Zamindari System.

Question 111

What was Damin-i Koh in Rajmahal area?

  1. AOption (a)

    A large area of land demarcated and declared to be the land of the Santhals

  2. BOption (b)

    The land of the Paharias cultivated exclusively for paddy

  3. COption (c)

    The British territory marked for their military camp

  4. DOption (d)

    The land earmarked for locating settled agriculturists

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A large area of land demarcated and declared to be the land of the Santhals

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A large area of land demarcated and declared to be the land of the Santhals.

  • Damin-i Koh in the Rajmahal area was a large area of land demarcated and declared to be the land of the Santhals.

Key Points

  • Damin-i Koh is in the area of Sahebganj, Pakur, and Godda districts in the Jharkhand.
  • British persuaded the local tribe of Rajmahal Hills i.e. Santhals to live in the foothills of Rajmahal by giving land to them.
  • “Damin-i-Koh” is a Persian term that means ‘skirts of the hills’.
  • ​There was a stipulation in the certificate of land grants given by the British that the minimum of 1 by 10 of the total area had to be cleared and had to be cultivated within the first 10 years.

Additional Information

  • By 1832 a large area of land was demarcated as Damin-i-Koh.
  • This was declared to be the land of the Santhals.
  • They were to live within it, practice plough agriculture, and become settled peasants.
  • The land grant to the Santhals stipulated that at least one-tenth of the area was to be cleared and cultivated within the first ten years.
  • Enclosed with boundary pillars, it was separated from both the world of the settled agriculturists of the plains and the Paharis of the hills.
  • After the demarcation of Damin-i-Koh, Santhal settlements expanded rapidly.
  • From 40 Santhal villages in the area in 1838, as many as 1,473 villages had come up by 1851.
  • Over the same period, the Santhal population increased from a mere 3,000 to over 82,000.

Question 112

Which one of the following statements about the Revolt of 1857 is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    It was a Revolt carefully organised and planned by the Rajas, Nawabs and Taluqdars

  2. BOption (b)

    Rumours and prophecies did not play any role in its outbreak and spread

  3. COption (c)

    The rebel proclamations in 1857 repeatedly appealed to all sections of the population irrespective of their caste and creed

  4. DOption (d)

    The British succeeded in quickly and easily controlling the rebels

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The rebel proclamations in 1857 repeatedly appealed to all sections of the population irrespective of their caste and creed

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3.

Key Points

  • The Rebel proclamations in 1857 repeatedly appealed to all sections of the population irrespective of their caste and creed. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • During the course of the revolt, many proclamations and notifications were issued by the rebels.
  • Many of these proclamations were issued by Muslim princes or in their names but they took care of sentiments of every community of the area.
  • Famous proclamations were the Delhi proclamation and Azamgarh proclamations.
  • This revolt was poorly organized and planned by the Rajas, Nawabs, and Taluqdars which was the greatest weakness of the Revolt of 1857. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Rumours and prophecies played a huge role in inciting the sentiments of masses against the Britishers. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Britishers found it very difficult to suppress the revolt due to huge participation of masses alongside rebels in Awadh area. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • Revolt of 1857:
  • It occurred during the reign of Governor-General Lord Canning.
  • Causes of Revolt of 1857:
  • Heavy taxation
  • The ruin of the Indian Industry
  • Policies like Subsidiary Alliance and the Doctrine of Lapse
  • Enfield Rifle
  • Centres of Revolt and Their leaders:
  • Delhi: Bahadur Shah and General Bakht Khan.
  • Kanpur: Nana Sahib/Dhondu Pant (adopted son of Baji Rao II), Tantya Tope and Azimullah Khan.
  • Jhansi: Rani Lakshmi Bai.
  • Lucknow: Begum Hazrat Mahal, her son Birjis Qadr.
  • Faizabad: Maulvi Ahmadullah.
  • Bareilly: Khan Bahadur Khan.
  • Bihar: (Arrah) Kunwar Singh, Zamindar of Jagdishpur.

Question 113

Which one among the following was NOT a Panch Sheel principle?

  1. AOption (a)

    Peaceful Co-existence

  2. BOption (b)

    Mutual respect for territorial integrity

  3. COption (c)

    Nuclear deterrence

  4. DOption (d)

    Non-interference in internal affairs

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Nuclear deterrence

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Nuclear deterrence.

Key Points

  • The Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence are a series of agreements between the People’s Republic of China and India.
  • The agreement was signed on 29th April 1954 in Beijing by the Indian Ambassador N. Raghavan and Chang Han-fu, the Chinese Deputy Foreign Minister of China.
  • The 5 principles are called the Panchsheel, which form the basis of the Non-Aligned Movement and were laid down by Jawaharlal Nehru.
  • Panchsheel principles are:
  • Mutual respect for each other ’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
  • Mutual non-aggression against anyone.
  • Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs
  • Equality and mutual benefit
  • Peaceful co-existence.

Mistake Points

  • Nuclear deterrence is not included in Panchsheel principles.

Question 114

Who among the following had organised, in 1904, a secret society of revolutionaries named Abhinav Bharat?

  1. AOption (a)

    Khudiram Bose

  2. BOption (b)

    Shyamji Krishna Verma

  3. COption (c)

    Har Dayal

  4. DOption (d)

    V D Savarkar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

V D Savarkar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  VD Savarkar.

  • Abhinav Bharat secret society was organised by VD Savarkar in 1904.
  • It was founded by V D Savarkar and his brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar.
  • The society believed in the armed rebellion which carried out a few assassinations of British officials.

Key Points

  • About Veer Savarkar:
  • ​VD Savarkar or Vinayak Damodar Savarkar was born on May 28, 1883, in Bhagur, a village near Nashik in Maharashtra.
  • Savarkar was associated with the India House and founded student societies like the Abhinav Bharat Society and the Free India Society.
  • Veer Savarkar was a freedom fighter, politician, lawyer, writer, social reformer, and formulator of the Hindutva philosophy.
  • The airport at Port Blair in Andaman and Nicobar's capital was renamed Veer Savarkar International Airport in 2002.

Additional Information

  • Khudiram Bose was part of Anushilan Samiti.
  • Shyamji Krishna Verma founded the Indian Home Rule Society, India House, and The Indian Sociologist in London.
  • Lala Hardayal founded the Ghadar movement.

Question 115

The principle that the framing of the new Constitution for independent India should be primarily (though not solely) the responsibility of Indians themselves, was for the first time conceded in the

  1. AOption (a)

    Government of India Act, 1935

  2. BOption (b)

    August Offer of Viceroy Linlithgow

  3. COption (c)

    Cripps Proposals

  4. DOption (d)

    Cabinet Mission

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

August Offer of Viceroy Linlithgow

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is August offer of Viceroy Linlithgow.

  • The principle that the framing of a new Constitution for Independent India should be primarily (though not solely) the responsibility of Indians themselves was for the first time conceded in the August offer of Viceroy Linlithgow.
  • It was made on 8th August 1940, it also offered the expansion of the Viceroy's executive council besides the establishment of an advisory war council.
  • However, the Congress Party rejected the offer as it provided dominion status.

Key Points

  • August Offer:
  • August spoke about dominion status.
  • Expansion of viceroy's Executive Council which would have a majority of Indians.
  • Setting up a constituent assembly after the war
  • No future constitution to be adopted without the consent of minorities.

​

Additional Information

  • Government of India Act, 1935 provided for the establishment of All India federation, division of subjects into three lists and provincial autonomy.
  • Cripps proposals were made in March 1942 it promised dominion status, Constituent Assembly besides control of defence under the British.
  • Cabinet Mission, 1946 proposed a very loose confederation with centre controlling merely defence, foreign affairs and communication.

Question 116

Which one of the following is a major environmental issue in eastern Canada?

  1. AOption (a)

    Acid precipitation

  2. BOption (b)

    Groundwater depletion

  3. COption (c)

    Land degradation

  4. DOption (d)

    Desertification

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Acid precipitation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Acid precipitation.

  • Acid precipitation one of the following is a major environmental issue in eastern Canada.

Key Points

  • Acid rain is caused largely by sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen emitted by industrial activities such as coal burning.
  • The pH value of regular rainwater is around 5.7, giving it an acidic nature.
  • The oxides of nitrogen and sulphur are blown away by the wind along with the dust particles. They settle on the earth’s surface after coming down in the form of precipitation.
  • Acid Rain Control:
  • The use of low sulphur fuel or natural gas or washed coal (chemical washing of pulverised coal) in thermal plants can reduce incidences of acid rain.
  • Buffering: the practice of adding a neutralising agent to the acidified water to increase the pH.
  • Usually, lime in the form of calcium oxide and calcium carbonate is used.

Question 117

Which one of the following mountains lies in between Caspian Sea and Black Sea?

  1. AOption (a)

    Caucasus

  2. BOption (b)

    Carpathians

  3. COption (c)

    Apennine

  4. DOption (d)

    Elburz

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Caucasus

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Caucasus

  • The Caucasus lies in between the Caspian Sea and the Black Sea.

Key Points

  • The region consists of the area of southern Russia, Georgia, Armenia, and Azerbaijan.
  • Mt. Elbrus divides the Caucasus into the North Caucasus and the South Caucasus.

Additional Information

  • The Carpathian Mountains are across Central and Eastern Europe.
  • The highest range of the Carpathians is the Tatras.
  • The highest peak is Gerlachovský štít.
  • The Apennine range is in Italy.
  • The Elburz is a mountain range in northern Iran

Question 118

Bagalihar, Dulhasti and Salal hydro power projects have been developed on which of the following rivers?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chenab and Jhelum

  2. BOption (b)

    Chenab and Indus

  3. COption (c)

    Ravi

  4. DOption (d)

    Chenab only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Chenab only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Chenab only.

  • Bagalihar, Dulhasti, and Salal hydropower projects have been developed on the Chenab river.

Key Points

  • Baglihar Hydel Power Project:
  • It is built on the Chenab River in the Doda district of Jammu & Kashmir.
  • This project was conceived in 1992, approved in 1996 and construction began in 1999.
  • Dulhasti power station:
  • ​It is a run-of-the-river scheme with an installed capacity of 390 MW (3 X 130MW) to harness the hydropower potential of river Chenab.
  • It is located in the Kishtwar district of Jammu & Kashmir.
  • Salal power station:
  • It is a run-of-the-river scheme with an installed capacity of 690 MW to harnesses the Hydropower potential of river Chenab.
  • It is located in the Reasi district of Jammu & Kashmir.

Additional Information

  • Chenab River: 
  • It is formed by the confluence of Chandra and Bhaga.
  • It originates near the Bara Lacha Pass in the Lahul-Spiti part of the Zaskar Range.
  • The Tulbul Project and Uri Dam are constructed on the Jhelum river.
  • The Chamera Dam and the Thein Dam are constructed on the Ravi river.

Question 119

Which of the following statements with regard to Biosphere Reserve is/are correct?

  1. The idea of Biosphere Reserve was initiated by UNESCO in 1973-74
  2. There are 18 designated Biosphere Reserves in India
  3. All Biosphere Reserves in India have been included in world network of Biosphere Reserves of UNESCO

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 2 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2 only.​

Key Points

  • Biosphere Reserve is an international designation by the United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) for representative parts of natural and cultural landscapes extending over large areas of terrestrial or coastal/marine ecosystems or a combination of both.
  • The UNESCO has introduced the designation ‘Biosphere Reserve’ for natural areas to minimize conflict between development and conservation.
  • Man and Biosphere Programme:
  • UNESCO’s Man and the Biosphere Programme (MAB) is an intergovernmental scientific program that aims to establish a scientific basis for the improvement of relationships between people and their environments.
  • It was ​launched in 1971. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • There are 18 designated Biosphere Reserves in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • 11 out of 18 Biosphere Reserves in India are now considered as UNESCO Protected Biosphere Reserve. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Additional Information

  • The first biosphere reserve of the world was established in 1979.
  • Globally, there are 686 biosphere reserves in 122 countries, including 20 transboundary sites.
  • A biosphere reserve is divided into three zones:
  • Core area:
  • It involves an entirely secured and protected ecosystem that contributes to the preservation of ecosystems and species.
  • It is kept free from human interference.
  • Buffer zone:
  • It encompasses the core areas and is regarded as an area in which human use is less intensive than what might be found in the transition zone.
  • Research and educational activities are to be encouraged.
  • Transition area:
  • The large outer area of a reserve where people live and work, using the natural resources of the area in a sustainable manner.
  • It is the zone of cooperation where human ventures and conservation are done in harmony.

Question 120

Which one of the following countries do NOT have direct access to the sea/ocean?

  1. AOption (a)

    Syria

  2. BOption (b)

    Jordan

  3. COption (c)

    Azerbaijan

  4. DOption (d)

    Armenia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Armenia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Armenia.

Key Points

  • Armenia does not have direct access to the sea/ocean.
  • It is a landlocked country bordered by Turkey to the west, Georgia to the north, and Azerbaijan.
  • The capital of Armenia is Yerevan.
  • Its currency is Armenian Dram.

Additional Information

  • Syria is located to the east of the Mediterranean sea and is bordered by Turkey, Iraq, Jordan, Lebanon, and Israel.
  • Jordan is bounded by Syria, Iraq, Saudi Arabia, Israel, and to the West, it is attached to the Dead Sea.
  • Azerbaijan borders the Caspian Sea to the east, Georgia and Russia, Iran, and Armenia. A small part of it also borders Turkey.

Question 121

In an incandescent electric bulb, the filament of the bulb is made up of which metal?

  1. AOption (a)

    Aluminium

  2. BOption (b)

    Copper

  3. COption (c)

    Tungsten

  4. DOption (d)

    Silver

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Tungsten

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Tungsten: 

  • The metal tungsten is used for the filaments in incandescent bulbs.
  • It has a high melting point and retains its strength when heated.
  • Filaments of the light bulbs are made up of the Tungsten element.
  • Its symbol is ‘W’ because of its scientific name ‘Wolfram’ and its and the atomic number 74.

EXPLANATION:

  • As the resistance is less, heat energy is produced is very low which is not sufficient for an electric bulb to glow so the resistance is kept high.
  • Tungsten is very resistant to corrosion and has the highest melting point (melting point = 3695 K) and the highest tensile strength of any element.
  • Tungsten is used for making bulb filaments of incandescent lamps because it has the highest melting point and does not melt even while it is glowing for long hours. Therefore option 3 is correct.

NOTE:

  • Light bulb filaments aren't resistive because of the tungsten.
  • They're resistive because of their very long length, and very thin wire.​

Question 122

Two equal resistors R are connected in parallel, and a battery of 12 V is connected across this combination A dc current of 100 mA flows through the circuit as shown below:

The value of R is

  1. AOption (a)

    120 Ω 

  2. BOption (b)

    240 Ω

  3. COption (c)

    60 Ω

  4. DOption (d)

    100 Ω

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

240 Ω

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Resistance:

  • The measurement of the opposition of the flow of electric current through a conductor is called resistance of that conductor. It is denoted by R.

Resistances in parallel:

  • When the terminals of two or more resistances are connected at the same two points and the potential difference across them is equal is called resistances in parallel.
  • The net resistance/equivalent resistance(R) of resistances in parallel is given by:

1R=1R1+1R2\frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{{{R_1}}} + \frac{1}{{{R_2}}}

CALCULATION:

Given - V = 12 V and I = 100 mA = 100 × 10-3 A

  • Here both resistors R are in parallel combination, therefore the resultant resistance is

⇒1Rnet=1R1+1R2⇒ \frac{1}{R_{net}} = \frac{1}{{{R_1}}} + \frac{1}{{{R_2}}}

⇒1Rnet=1R+1R=2R⇒ \frac{1}{R_{net}} = \frac{1}{{{R}}} + \frac{1}{{{R}}}=\frac{2}{R}

⇒Rnet=R2⇒ R_{net}=\frac{R}{2}

As we know, in parallel combination the potential difference across the resistors remains the same. Therefore, according to ohm's law

⇒ V = IRnet

⇒Rnet=R2=VI=12×103100=120V⇒ R_{net}=\frac{R}{2}=\frac{V}{I}=\frac{12\times10^3}{100}=120 V

⇒ R = 240 Ω 

​NOTE: 

  • Resistances in series:

  • When two or more resistances are connected one after another such that the same current flows through them are called as resistances in series.

  • The net resistance/equivalent resistance (R) of resistances in series is given by:

  • Equivalent resistance, R = R1 + R2

Question 123

Which one of the following is NOT the unit of energy?

  1. AOption (a)

    Joule

  2. BOption (b)

    Watt-hr

  3. COption (c)

    Newton-metre

  4. DOption (d)

    kg-metre/sec2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

kg-metre/sec2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is kg-metre/sec2.

Key Points

CONCEPT:

  • kg-metre/sec 2 is the unit of Force.
  • F = m × a, where m = mass of object & a = acceleration.
  • Joule is a unit of energy and is indicated by 'J'. It is expressed as the work required to produce one watt of power for one second.
  • Joule is the unit of work/energy in the International System of Units or (SI).
  • Work done is said to be 1 joule, when a force of one newton actually moves a body through a distance of one meter in the direction of applied force.

EXPLANATION:

  • Some quantities whose unit are joule
Name of UnitSymbolRelation to SI unit
JouleJ1 J = 1 N.m = 1 Watt.sec
Kilowatt-hourkW.h= 3.6 × 106 J
Kilocaloriekcal= 4184 J
Newton-metreN-m1 Joule
<br>

Energy Density: 

  • It is defined as the amount of energy stored in a given system or a region of space per unit volume.
  • Energy density = Energy stored / volume.
  • The SI Unit of Energy Density is Joule/metre3 or J/m3.    (∵ Energy is measured in joule and volume in m3).
  • The SI base unit is - kg·m−1s−2

Question 124

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Biomass is a renewable source of energy

  2. BOption (b)

    Gobar gas is produced when cow-dung, crop residues, vegetable waste and sewage are allowed to decompose in the absence of oxygen

  3. COption (c)

    Biogas generation reduces soil and water pollution

  4. DOption (d)

    Heating capacity of biogas is very low

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Heating capacity of biogas is very low

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

BIOGAS:

  • Biogas is a mixture of gases produced by anaerobic degradation of biomass in the presence of water but in the absence of oxygen.

EXPLANATION:

  • It is a renewable source of energy on account of its production from vastly and continuous organic wastes. Therefore option 1 is correct.
  • From the above, it is clear that biogas is a mixture of gases produced during the decomposition of biomass necessarily in the absence of oxygen. Therefore option 2 is correct.
  • The spent slurry, being rich in nitrogen and phosphorus, thus it is good manure. Therefore option 3 is correct.
  • Biogas generation reduces soil and water pollution
  • Biogas is mainly composed of methane (up to 75%), CO2 (25%), and traces of other gases such as nitrogen and hydrogen.
  • Whereas methane is a high-value calorific fuel, carbon dioxide is an inert gas. Therefore it has a high heating capacity. Hence option 4 is incorrect.

Question 125

In prokaryotic organisms, nuclear region is not surrounded by a membrane. This undefined nuclear region is known as

  1. AOption (a)

    Nucleic acid

  2. BOption (b)

    Nucleoid

  3. COption (c)

    Nucleolus

  4. DOption (d)

    Nucleosome

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Nucleoid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer Nucleoid.

  • In prokaryotic organisms, the nucleus region is not surrounded by a membrane.
  • This undefined nuclear region is known as Nucleoid.

Key Points

  • Prokaryotic cells are primitive organisms.
  • Nucleoid in a prokaryote contains all or most of the genetic material.
  • In prokaryotic cells, the nucleus is not defined properly because it is not surrounded by a nuclear membrane.

Additional Information

  • Difference between Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells:
ProkaryotesEukaryotes
Type of CellAlways unicellularUnicellular and multi-cellular
NucleusAbsentPresent
DNA arrangementCircularLinear
MitochondriaAbsentPresent
Endoplasmic reticulumAbsentPresent
Cell divisionThrough binary fissionThrough mitosis
ReproductionAsexualBoth asexual and sexual

Question 126

Which one of the following plant tissues has dead cells?

  1. AOption (a)

    Epidermis

  2. BOption (b)

    Parenchyma

  3. COption (c)

    Collenchyma

  4. DOption (d)

    Sclerenchyma

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sclerenchyma

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sclerenchyma.

  • Sclerenchyma plant tissues have dead cells.
  • Sclerenchyma cells are permanent tissues present in the plants.
  • Their function is to provide hardness and stiffness to the plant and is composed of dead cells.
  • These tissues are present in stems around vascular bundles, in the veins of leaves, and in the hard covering of seeds and nuts.
  • They do not have cytoplasm, nucleus, and chlorophyll.

Additional Information

  • The epidermis is the outermost layer of cells covering the stem, root, leaf, flower, fruit, and seed parts of a plant.
  • Parenchyma is composed of thin-walled cells and makes up the photosynthetic tissue in leaves, the pulp of fruits, and the endosperm of many seeds.
  • It is composed of living cells.
  • Collenchyma cells mainly form supporting tissue and have irregular cell walls.
  • They are found mainly in the cortex of stems and in leaves.

Question 127

Cartilage is NOT found in

  1. AOption (a)

    Larynx

  2. BOption (b)

    Nose

  3. COption (c)

    Ear

  4. DOption (d)

    Urinary bladder

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Urinary bladder

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Urinary bladder.

Key Points

  • Cartilage is not found in the urinary bladder.
  • The urinary bladder is a muscular sac in the pelvis, when empty, the bladder is about the size and shape of a pear.
  • Urine is made in the kidneys and travels down using ureters to the bladder.
  • The bladder stores urine.
  • Cartilage act as connective tissue which is not required in the urinary bladder as the urinary bladder tissue type is the epithelium.

Additional Information

  • The larynx, nose, and ear have bones that need these connecting tissues.
  • The bones in ear are Malleus, Incus, Stapes.

Question 128

Two planets orbit the Sun in circular orbits, with their radius of orbit as R1= R and R2 = 4R. Ratio of their periods (T1/T2) around the Sun will be

  1. AOption (a)

    1/16

  2. BOption (b)

    1/8

  3. COption (c)

    1/4

  4. DOption (d)

    1/2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1/8

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Kepler’s laws of planetary motion:

  • The law of Orbits: Every planet moves around the sun in an elliptical orbit with the sun at one of the foci.
  • The law of Area: The line joining the sun to the planet sweeps out equal areas in equal interval of time. i.e. areal velocity is constant.
  • According to this law, the planet will move slowly when it is farthest from the sun and more rapidly when it is nearest to the sun. It is similar to the law of conservation of angular momentum.
  • The law of periods: The square of the period of revolution (T) of any planet around the sun is directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of the orbit i.e. T2 ∝ r3

CALCULATION:

Given - 1st orbital radius (R1) = R, and 2nd orbital radius (R2) = 4R 

  • According to the law of periods

⇒ T2 ∝ r3

⇒(T1T2)2=(R1R2)3⇒ (\frac{T_1}{T_2})^2=(\frac{R_1}{R_2})^3

⇒(T1T2)2=(R4R)3=164⇒ (\frac{T_1}{T_2})^2=(\frac{R}{4R})^3=\frac{1}{64}

⇒T1T2=(164)12=18\Rightarrow \frac{T_1}{T_2}=(\frac{1}{64})^\frac{1}{2}=\frac{1}{8}

Question 129

A metallic wire having a resistance of 20Ω is cut into two equal parts in length. These parts are then connected in parallel. The resistance of this parallel combination is equal to

  1. AOption (a)

    20 Ω 

  2. BOption (b)

    10 Ω

  3. COption (c)

    5 Ω

  4. DOption (d)

    15 Ω

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

5 Ω

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Resistance:

  • The measurement of the opposition of the flow of electric current through a conductor is called resistance of that conductor. It is denoted by R.

Resistances in parallel:

  • When the terminals of two or more resistances are connected at the same two points and the potential difference across them is equal is called resistances in parallel.
  • The net resistance/equivalent resistance(R) of resistances in parallel is given by:

1R=1R1+1R2\frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{{{R_1}}} + \frac{1}{{{R_2}}}

CALCULATION:

Given - Resistance of an original wire (R) = 20 Ω 

  • When any resistor is cut into two equal parts in length, the new resistance becomes half of its original resistance i.e.,

⇒ R1 = R2 = 20/2 =10 Ω

  • Here both resistors R1 and R2 are in parallel combination, therefore the resultant resistance is

⇒1Rnet=1R1+1R2⇒ \frac{1}{R_{net}} = \frac{1}{{{R_1}}} + \frac{1}{{{R_2}}}

⇒1Rnet=110+110=210=15⇒ \frac{1}{R_{net}} = \frac{1}{{{10}}} + \frac{1}{{{10}}}=\frac{2}{10}=\frac{1}{5}

⇒ Rnet = 5 Ω 

​NOTE: 

  • Resistances in series:

  • When two or more resistances are connected one after another such that the same current flows through them are called as resistances in series.

  • The net resistance/equivalent resistance (R) of resistances in series is given by:

  • Equivalent resistance, R = R1 + R2

Question 130

Light of uniform intensity impinges perpendicularly on a totally reflecting surface. If the area of the surface is halved, the radiation force on it will become

  1. AOption (a)

    double

  2. BOption (b)

    half

  3. COption (c)

    four times

  4. DOption (d)

    one fourth

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

double

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Intensity (I):

  • The energy crossing per unit area per unit time, perpendicular to the direction of propagation of EM wave is called intensity.
  • Mathematically it is written as,

⇒I=Total,EM,energySurface,area×Time=Total,energy,density,×,VolumeSurface,area×Time\Rightarrow I =\frac{Total, EM, energy}{Surface ,area \times Time}=\frac{Total, energy, density ,\times, Volume}{Surface , area \times Time}

EXPLANATION:

  • From the above equation, it is clear that the intensity of the EM wave is inversely proportional to the surface area i.e.,

⇒Intensity∝1Surface,area\Rightarrow Intensity \propto\frac{1}{Surface , area}

  • Hence, if the area of the surface is halved, the radiation force on it will become double. Therefore option 1 is correct.

Question 131

The part of the human eye on which the image is formed is

  1. AOption (a)

    pupil

  2. BOption (b)

    cornea

  3. COption (c)

    retina

  4. DOption (d)

    iris

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

retina

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT: 

  • The pupil is a hole through which light enters into our eye.
  • It controls the amount of light entering the eye.
  • Iris is a muscle in our eye that controls the size of the pupil. It dilates and contracts because of which size of the pupil varies.
  • So we can say Iris controls the size of the pupil.
  • Retina: An image is formed on the retina.
  • Ciliary muscles are smooth muscle fibers. When the ciliary muscles relax the lens becomes flat and when they contract the lens becomes thicker. This change in curvature of the eye lens changes the focal length of the eyes.

I

EXPLANATION: 

  • From the above, it is clear that the retina is that part of the eye where the image of an object is formed. Therefore option 3 is correct.

EXTRA POINTS:

Different parts of the eyes and their functions are shown in the table:

Name of the PartCharacteristicsFunction
CorneaThe transparent spherical membrane covering the front part of the eyeLight enters the eye through this membrane; Most of the refraction happens here
Eye Lenstransparent, biconvex structure in the eyeprovides finer adjustment required to focus objects on the retina
IrisThe dark muscular diaphragm between the cornea and the lenscontrols the size of the pupil
PupilAn opening between the iris through which light enters the eyeregulates the amount of light entering the eye
Ciliary MusclesAttached to the eye lens
hold the lens in position and modify the curvature of the lens.
Retinathe light-sensitive surface of an eye on which the image is formedgenerate signals which are transmitted to the brain through optical nerves
Optic NerveAttached to retinatransmits visual information from the retina to the brain

Question 132

Consider the following image:

A proton enters a magnetic field at right angles to it, as shown above. The direction of force acting on the proton will be

  1. AOption (a)

    to the right

  2. BOption (b)

    to the left

  3. COption (c)

    out of the page

  4. DOption (d)

    into the page

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

into the page

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Fleming Left-hand rule gives the force experienced by a charged particle moving in a magnetic field or a current-carrying wire placed in a magnetic field.
  • It states that "stretch the thumb, the forefinger, and the central finger of the left hand so that they are mutually perpendicular to each other.
  • If the forefinger points in the direction of the magnetic field, the central finger points in the direction of motion of charge, then the thumb points in the direction of force experienced by positively charged particles."

EXPLANATION:

  • A proton enters a magnetic field at right angles to it. Therefore it will experience a force and the direction of force is calculated using Fleming’s left-hand rule:
  1. Forefinger: In the direction of the field (towards left)
  2. Middle finger: In the direction of current (upwards)
  3. The Thumb is pointing into the paper.
  • The direction of force acting on the proton will be into the page. Therefore option 4 is correct.

Question 133

Which one of the following statements about sound is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sound travels at a speed lower than the speed of light

  2. BOption (b)

    Sound waves are transverse waves

  3. COption (c)

    Sound waves are longitudinal waves

  4. DOption (d)

    Sound travels faster in moist air than in dry air

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sound waves are transverse waves

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT**:**

  • Sound wave: The longitudinal wave in an elastic medium that produces an audible sensation is called a sound wave.
  • As sound waves are longitudinal waves, the air particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of propagation of sound.
  • It is a wave of compression and rarefaction.
  • Compressions and rarefactions are part of a sound wave.
  • Compression: A region in a longitudinal wave where the particles are closest together is called compression. Compression has high density and high pressure

Rarefaction: A region in a longitudinal wave where the particles are furthest apart is called rarefaction. The rarefaction has a low density and low pressure

EXPLANATION**:**

  • The speed of sound is in dry air, which is like 343 m/s whereas the speed of light is 3 × 108 m/s. Therefore, sound travels at a speed slower than the speed of light. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • As sound waves are longitudinal waves, the air particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of propagation of sound. Therefore option 2 is incorrect and option 3 is correct.

Effect of density: 

  • The velocity of sound decreases, as density increases.

v=γPρ⇒v∝1ρv = \sqrt {\frac{{\gamma P}}{\rho }} \Rightarrow v \propto \frac{1}{{\sqrt \rho }}

  • From the above equation, it is clear that the velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its density, and as we know the density of moist air is less than that of dry air, therefore, the velocity of sound in moist air is greater than that in dry air. Hence option 4 is correct.

Question 134

When the short circuit condition occurs, the current in the circuit

  1. AOption (a)

    becomes zero

  2. BOption (b)

    remains constant

  3. COption (c)

    increases substantially

  4. DOption (d)

    keeps on changing randomly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

increases substantially

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Fuse: 

  • An electrical safety device that is used to protect the electrical circuit from overload is called a fuse.
  • The material used for fuse elements must be of:
  • low melting point, low ohmic loss,
  • high resistivity,
  • low cost and free from detraction.
  • The material used for making fuse element has a low melting point such as tin, lead, or zinc.
  • A low melting point is, however, available with a high specific resistance metal.
  • The material mainly used for fuse element are tin, lead, silver, copper, zinc, aluminum,  and an alloy of lead and tin
  • Working of fuse:

EXPLANATION:

  • When there is a sudden increase of current in the circuit then a huge amount of heat is generated at the fuse. Therefore option 3 is correct.
  • Due to this heat, a spark is generated.
  • Due to the huge amount of heat, the fuse melts and the circuit opened up.

Question 135

Which one of the following is NOT a component of human male reproductive system?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cervix

  2. BOption (b)

    Urethra

  3. COption (c)

    Seminal vescile

  4. DOption (d)

    Vas deferens

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Cervix

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Cervix.

  • Cervix is not a component of the human male reproductive system.
  • Cervix facilitates the passage of sperm into the uterine cavity.
  • It produces cervical mucus which changes in consistency over the course of the menstrual cycle.

Key Points

  • Male Reproductive System:
  • The male reproductive system includes testes, scrotum, spermatic ducts, sex glands, and penis.
  • All these organs work together to produce sperms, male gametes, and other components of semen.
  • The urethra is a tube-like structure that connects the urinary bladder to the urinary meatus.
  • The seminal vesicles (also known as the vesicular or seminal glands) are a pair of glands found in the male pelvis, which function to produce many of the constituent ingredients of semen.
  • The ductus deferens, also known as the vas deferens, is a tiny muscular tube in the male reproductive system that carries sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct.

Additional Information

  • Female Reproductive System:
  • The uterus is a pear-shaped, hollow organ that is a house for a developing fetus.
  • The vagina is a canal that joins the cervix to the external portion of the body.
  • Ovaries are oval-shaped glands that are located on both sides of the uterus, they produce hormones and eggs.
  • Fallopian tubes are narrow tubes that are attached to the upper portion of the uterus.
  • Fallopian tubes act as a medium of transport for the egg cells from the ovaries the to uterus.

Question 136

Which one of the following is NOT a reason of decrease in biodiversity?

  1. AOption (a)

    Large scale deforestation

  2. BOption (b)

    Exploitation of forest produce

  3. COption (c)

    Maintaining sacred groves

  4. DOption (d)

    Encroachment in forest areas

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Maintaining sacred groves

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Maintaining sacred groves.

  • Maintaining the sacred groves is not a reason for a decrease in biodiversity.

Key Points

  • Sacred groves are patches of trees on forest land which are used for religious rites and are protected communally with religious zeal and connotations.
  • Sacred groves are prohibited from cutting and not axed except when the wood is needed for religious purposes.
  • Purposes like construction and repair of temple buildings or in cases like worshipping, death ceremonies, and temple rituals.
  • Biodiversity is a variety of living beings on earth it encompasses microorganisms, plants, animals, and ecosystems, such as coral reefs, forests, rainforests, deserts, etc.
  • Reason for Loss of Biodiversity:
  • Habitat destruction
  • Invasive Species
  • Over-exploitation of Species
  • Global Warming and Climate Change

Question 137

Which one of the following is NOT a cause of depletion in groundwater?

  1. AOption (a)

    Afforestation 

  2. BOption (b)

    Loss of forests

  3. COption (c)

    Excessive pumping of ground-water

  4. DOption (d)

    Construction of large scale concrete buildings

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Afforestation 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Afforestation.

  • Afforestation is not the cause of depletion in groundwater

Key Points

  • Afforestation is the plantation of trees that facilitates proper seepage of rainfall into the ground which will lead to groundwater recharge.

Additional Information

  • Causes of depletion of groundwater:
  • Groundwater depletion most commonly occurs because of the frequent pumping of water from the ground.
  • A large amount of groundwater goes to farming & other agricultural practices.
  • Climatic changes across various parts of the globe.
  • Loss of forests will produce the reverse effect of afforestation.
  • Construction of large scale concrete building reduces seepage of rainfall.

Question 138

Which one among the following types of radiations has the smallest wave length?

  1. AOption (a)

    Microwaves

  2. BOption (b)

    Infra-red

  3. COption (c)

    Visible light

  4. DOption (d)

    X-rays

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

X-rays

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Electromagnetic spectrum: The complete range of light that exists in nature is called an electromagnetic spectrum.
  • Light is an electromagnetic wave and the distance between two successive crests or two successive troughs of the light wave is called a wavelength of the light wave.
  • The wavelength of light is denoted by λ.
  • As shown in the spectrum, the wavelength increases when we go from left to right.

EXPLANATION:

  • The above picture shows that out of the given options, X -rays have the least wavelength. Therefore option 4 is correct.

Question 139

The instrument used for detecting the presence of electric current in a circuit is

  1. AOption (a)

    Refractometer

  2. BOption (b)

    Galvanometer

  3. COption (c)

    Viscometer

  4. DOption (d)

    Diffractometer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Galvanometer

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The refractometer measures the refractive index through which the mole fraction(Composition) can be obtained.
  • A galvanometer is used for detecting and indicating electric current.
  • A viscometer is an instrument used for measuring the viscosity of a fluid. 
  • In the capillary tube viscometer, the pressure needed to force the fluid to flow at a specified rate through a narrow tube is measured.
  • A diffractometer is an instrument for measuring diffraction.
  • Most useful in the characterization of crystalline materials.
  • Ex- Metals, inter-metallic, ceramics, minerals, polymers, and plastics.

EXPLANATION:

  • From the above, it is clear that the galvanometer is the instrument used for detecting the presence of electric current in a circuit. Therefore option 2 is correct.

  

Difference between Ammeter and Galvanometer:

  • The ammeter shows only the magnitude of the current.
  • The galvanometer shows both the direction and magnitude of the current.

 

  • The generator works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
  • It was discovered by Michael Faraday.
  • A galvanometer works as an actuator.
  • An ammeter is always connected in series.
  • A voltmeter is always connected in parallel.

Question 140

Which one of the following is the largest composition in biogas?

  1. AOption (a)

    Carbon dioxide

  2. BOption (b)

    Methane

  3. COption (c)

    Hydrogen

  4. DOption (d)

    Hydrogen sulphide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Methane

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

BIOGAS:

  • Biogas is a mixture of gases produced by anaerobic degradation of biomass in the presence of water but in the absence of oxygen.

EXPLANATION:

  • It is a renewable source of energy on account of its production from vastly and continuous organic wastes.
  • From the above, it is clear that biogas is a mixture of gases produced during the decomposition of biomass necessarily in the absence of oxygen.
  • The spent slurry, being rich in nitrogen and phosphorus, thus it is good manure.
  • Biogas generation reduces soil and water pollution
  • Biogas is mainly composed of methane (up to 75%), CO2 (25%), and traces of other gases such as nitrogen and hydrogen. Therefore option 2 is correct.
  • Whereas methane is a high-value calorific fuel, carbon dioxide is an inert gas. Therefore it has a high heating capacity.

Question 141

The Sun appears reddish during sunrise and sunset. The phenomenon in optics which is responsible for this appearance of the Sun is

  1. AOption (a)

    Reflection

  2. BOption (b)

    Total internal reflection

  3. COption (c)

    Scattering

  4. DOption (d)

    Interference

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Scattering

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Rayleigh's law of scattering:

  • According to Rayleigh's law of scattering, the intensity of light of wavelength λ present in the scattered light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of λ, provided the size of the scattering particles is much smaller than λ. Mathematically,

I∝1λI \propto \frac{1}{\lambda }

  • Thus the scattered intensity is maximum for shorter wavelength.

EXPLANATION:

  • The sun looks reddish at the time of sunrise and sunset:

  • At the time of sunrise and sunset, the sun is near the horizon. The rays from the sun have to travel a larger part of the atmosphere.

  • As the wavelength of red colour is more than that of blue colour (λb≪< λr) and the intensity of scattered light is ∝1λ4\propto\frac{1}{{{\lambda ^4}}}, therefore, most of the blue light is scattered away.

  • Only a red colour, which is least scattered enters our eyes and appears to come from the sun. Hence the sun looks red, both at the time of sunrise and sunset.

  • The red color of the sun at sunset and sunrise is due to the scattering of sunlight.

Question 142

A lens has a power of +2.0 Dioptre, Which one of the following statements about the lens is true?

  1. AOption (a)

    The lens is concave and has a focal length of 0.5 metre

  2. BOption (b)

    The lens is convex and has a focal length of 2.0 metre

  3. COption (c)

    The lens is convex and has a focal length of 0.5 metre

  4. DOption (d)

    The lens is concave and has a focal length of 2.0 metre

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The lens is convex and has a focal length of 0.5 metre

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Power of Lens: The inverse of the focal length is known as the power of the lens.
  • It shows the bending strength for the light ray of the lens.
  • The unit of power of a lens is Dioptre when the focal length of the lens is taken in meter (m).

P=1fP = \frac{1}{f}

where P is the power of the lens and f is the focal length of the lens.

  • Concave lens: It is a diverging lens that diverges the parallel beam of light.
  • It can also gather light from all directions and project it as a parallel beam.
  • The focal length of the concave lens is negative.
  • It has a virtual focus from the diverging rays of light that seem to converge.
  • Convex lens: The lens whose refracting surface is upside is called a convex lens.
  • The convex lens is also called a converging lens.
  • The focal length of a convex lens is positive.

CALCULATION:

Given - Power of lens (P) = + 2D

  • The power of a lens is given by

⇒f=1P=12=0.5,m\Rightarrow f = \frac{{1}}{{{P}}} = \frac{{1}}{{ 2}} = 0.5,m

  • As the focal length is positive, therefore the lens is convex and has a focal length of 0.5 metre.

Question 143

At nearly 70°C, sodium bicarbonate shows the property of gradually decomposing, which makes it usable in bakery products. The product of decomposition responsible for this use of sodium bicarbonate is

  1. AOption (a)

    Carbon dioxide

  2. BOption (b)

    Hydrogen

  3. COption (c)

    Water vapour

  4. DOption (d)

    Oxygen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Carbon dioxide

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Carbon dioxide.

  • At nearly 70°C, sodium bicarbonate shows the property of gradually decomposing, which makes it usable in bakery products. The product of decomposition responsible for this use of sodium bicarbonate is Carbon dioxide.

2 NaHCO3(s) → Na2CO3(s) + CO2(g) + H2O(g)

Important Points

  • Properties of Sodium Bicarbonate:
  • It is non-flammable.
  • Powder dust is not as explosive.
  • It has a melting point of 500
  • NaHCO3 is a white crystalline solid which is odourless.
  • It is basic in nature.
  • Uses of Baking Soda:
  • Acts as an antacid that is used to treat stomach upset and indigestion
  • Used in the process of washing as a water softener
  • Due to the formation of soapy foam, it is used in fire extinguishers.
  • Acts as a pesticide.
  • It is used in ear drops, cosmetics, and personal care products.
  • It is used as a neutralizer to neutralize the effect of acid.

Question 144

Number of molecules of water of crystallization in copper sulphate, sodium carbonate and Gypsum are

  1. AOption (a)

    5, 10 and 2 respectively

  2. BOption (b)

    10, 2 and 5 respectively

  3. COption (c)

    5, 2 and 10 respectively

  4. DOption (d)

    2, 5 and 10 respectively

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

5, 10 and 2 respectively

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 5, 10 and 2 respectively.

  • The number of molecules of water of crystallization in copper sulphate, sodium carbonate and Gypsum are 5, 10 and 2 respectively.

Key Points

  • The water of crystallization is the water that occurs in the crystals.
  • Sodium carbonate (Na2CO3.10 H2O) contains 10 water molecules.
  • Sodium carbonate is also known as washing soda.
  • It is called sodium carbonate decahydrate.
  • Copper Sulphate (CuSO4. 5 H2O) contains 5 water molecules this is the reason why crystals of copper sulphate appear blue.
  • Gypsum (CaSO4 . 2 H2O)  contains 2 water molecules.
  • The chemical name of gypsum is calcium sulphate dehydrate.

Additional Information

  • Sodium carbonate is used in cleaning products, and glass production, as a food additive.
  • Copper sulfate is used as a fungicide, algaecide and herbicide in both agriculture and non-agricultural settings.
  • Gypsum is used to manufacture wallboard, cement, plaster of Paris, soil conditioning, a hardening retarder in portland cement.

Question 145

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of change in colours when a turmeric stain on white clothes is scrubbed by soap and then washed with water?

  1. AOption (a)

    Yellow - pink - blue

  2. BOption (b)

    Yellow - reddish brown - yellow

  3. COption (c)

    Yellow - reddish brown - blue

  4. DOption (d)

    Yellow - blue - pink

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Yellow - reddish brown - yellow

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Yellow - reddish-brown - yellow.

  • when a turmeric stain on white clothes is scrubbed by soap and then washed with water the correct sequence of change in colours is Yellow - reddish brown - yellow.

Key Points

  • This change in colour takes place because turmeric is a natural colour indicator and it changes its colour in the acid medium as well as in the basic medium.
  • When turmeric is combined with any base liquid it turns red. Since soap is basic in nature and it changes its colour to red.
  • When the cloth is washed with water again and the soap is removed then the yellow colour of the stain reappears to yellow.

Additional Information

  • Acid:
  • They are sour to taste.
  • They turn blue litmus paper into red.
  • They contain replaceable hydrogen.
  • They give hydrogen ions (H+) in an aqueous solution.
  • They donate a proton.
  • They accept an electron.
  • Bases:
  • They are bitter in taste.
  • They turn red litmus paper into blue.
  • They give hydroxyl ions (OH-) in an aqueous solution.
  • They accept a proton.
  • They donate electrons.

Question 146

Which one of the following statements regarding Bleaching powder and D.D.T. is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Both are inorganic compounds

  2. BOption (b)

    Both are organic compounds

  3. COption (c)

    Both contain chlorine

  4. DOption (d)

    Both contain calcium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both contain chlorine

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both contain chlorine.

  • D.D.T. and Bleaching Powder are compounds of chlorine.

Key Points

  • DDT is which is Dichloro Diphenyl Trichloroethane.
  • It was discovered in 1939 by Paul Hermann Müller.
  • The bleaching powder is CaOCl2 and its chemical name is Calcium hypochlorite.

Additional Information

  • Gammaxene is gamma-hexachlorocyclohexane and is used as an insecticide.
  • DDT is used to make synthetic insecticides.
  • Bleaching powder is used as a disinfectant.
  • It is used as an oxidizer in industries.
  • It is used as a disinfectant to make potable water.

Question 147

Which one of the following is the best example of desiccant?

  1. AOption (a)

    Silica gel

  2. BOption (b)

    Polystyrene

  3. COption (c)

    Sodium chloride

  4. DOption (d)

    Sodium carbonate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Silica gel

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Silica gel.

  • Silica gel is the best example of a desiccant.

Key Points

  • Desiccants are drying agents that extract water from various kinds of materials.
  • Desiccants work by a process called adsorption.
  • Adsorption is described as a surface phenomenon where particles are attached to the top layer of material.
  • Desiccant is used where the rate of evaporation is quite low due to the high percentage of humidity in the atmosphere.

Additional Information

  • Polystyrene is a hard and brilliantly transparent synthetic resin produced by the polymerization of styrene.
  • It is used to make polythene bags.
  • Sodium chloride is common table salt.
  • Sodium carbonate is commonly known as washing soda.

Question 148

Which one of the following was the first mineral acid discovered?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sulphuric acid

  2. BOption (b)

    Hydrochloric acid

  3. COption (c)

    Nitric acid

  4. DOption (d)

    Phosphoric acid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Sulphuric acid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sulphuric acid.

  • Sulphuric acid was the first mineral acid discovered.

Key Points

  • A mineral acid is an acid derived from an inorganic compound that dissociates to produce hydrogen ions (H+) in water.
  • It is also known as inorganic acid.
  • Mineral acids are highly soluble in water but are insoluble in organic solvents.
  • Sulphuric acid was first prepared by Johann Glauber.

Additional Information

  • Sulphuric acid is used in the production of fertilizers, sulfate salts, synthetic detergents, dyes and pigments, explosives, and drugs.
  • Hydrochloric acid is used to process steel, production of batteries, photoflash bulbs, and fireworks.
  • Nitric acid is used in the production of fertilizers.
  • Phosphoric acid is used as a food additive, Removal of Rust, and production of fertilizers.

Question 149

The refractive index of fused quartz is 1.46 and that of sapphire is 1.77. If Vq is the speed of light in quartz and vs is the speed of light in sapphire, then which one of the following relations is correct ?

  1. AOption (a)

    vq > vs

  2. BOption (b)

    vs > vq

  3. COption (c)

    vs = vq

  4. DOption (d)

    vs=vq2v_s = \frac{v_q}{2}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

vq > vs

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Refractive index: 

  • The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to speed of light in a medium is called the refractive index of that medium.
  • It is also called an absolute refractive index.

Refractive;index;(μ)=;Speed;of;light;in;vaccum(C)Speed;of;light;in;a;medium(v){\rm{Refractive;index;}}\left( μ \right) = {\rm{;}}\frac{{Speed;of;light;in;vaccum\left( C \right)}}{{Speed;of;light;in;a;medium\left( v \right)}}

EXPLANATION:

Given - Refractive index of fused quartz (μQ) = 1.46 and the refractive index of sapphire (μS) = 1.77

Refractive;index;(μ)=;Speed;of;light;in;vaccum(C)Speed;of;light;in;a;medium(v){\rm{Refractive;index;}}\left( μ \right) = {\rm{;}}\frac{{Speed;of;light;in;vaccum\left( C \right)}}{{Speed;of;light;in;a;medium\left( v \right)}}

  • From the above equation, it is clear that the refractive index is inversely proportional to the speed of light in a medium i.e., the lower the refractive index, the faster the velocity of light and vice-versa.
  • Here the refractive index of the sapphire is more than that of fused quartz, therefore the speed of light in sapphire will be less than that in fused quartz or the speed of light in fused quartz will be more than that in sapphire. Hence vq > vs

NOTE:

  • Refractive index of a different medium is given by:
Transparent mediumRefractive Index
Water1.33
Crown glass1.52
Dense flint glass1.62
Diamond2.42
Ice1.31
Water1.33
Alcohol1.36
Kerosene oil1.44

Question 150

In case of a concave mirror, if an object is kept between principal focus F and pole P of the mirror, then which one of the following statements about the image is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The image will be virtual

  2. BOption (b)

    The image will be enlarged or magnified

  3. COption (c)

    The image will be formed at infinity

  4. DOption (d)

    The image will be erect

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The image will be formed at infinity

Why this answer is correct

Important Note: We are asked to find the INCORRECT statement from the given Options about the image.

CONCEPT:

Concave mirror: 

  • If the inner surface of the spherical mirror is the reflecting surface, then it is called a concave mirror. It is also called a focusing mirror/converging mirror.
  • The size of the image produced by these mirrors can be larger or smaller than the object, depending upon the distance of the object from the mirror.
  • The concave mirror can form both real as well as virtual images of any object.

EXPLANATION:

  • If an object is kept between principal focus F and pole P of the mirror, the nature of the image will be a virtual, erect, and enlarged. Therefore option 1, 2, and 4 is correct.

150 questions in the full paper