Previous Year Paper

NDA General Ability Test 21 April 2019 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2019

150 questions150 minutes
With answers
Free

Paper last updated:

Practise under exam conditions

Take this paper as a timed mock test. Review your answers after you submit.

Attempt timed test

Questions & answers

Read the paper at your pace. Open an explanation when you need it.

General Ability Test (150 questions)

Question 1

Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b), and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) Opening his letters

(b) reading them carefully and sending for his clerk

(c) he dictated answers with them

(d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(c)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '(c).'

Key Points

  • 'With' means ‘in the same place as someone or something’ or ‘accompanying.'
  • 'With' का अर्थ है 'किसी के या किसी चीज़ के समान स्थान पर' या 'साथ में':
  • Example: She loved him with all her heart.
  • In this sentence, the verb dictate is used.
  • इस वाक्य में dictate क्रिया का प्रयोग हुआ है।
  • Dictation (the act of saying something aloud, so that your words can be prepared in writing by someone else) is given 'to' someone.
  • शब्द Dictation (किसी बात को जोर से कहने की क्रिया, जिससे कि आपके शब्द किसी और के द्वारा लिखित रूप में तैयार किए जा सकें) के साथ पूर्वसर्ग 'to' का प्रयोग किया जाता है।​​
  • Example: The president has dictated some letters to his secretary.
  • Therefore, the use of 'with' in Part (c) of the sentence should be replaced with 'to' to make it grammatically correct.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is '(c).'

​The correct sentence: Opening his letters reading them carefully and sending for his clerk he dictated answers to them.

Additional Information

  • Prepositions indicate relationships between other words in a sentence.
  • Prepositions एक वाक्य में दूसरे शब्दों के बीच संबंधों को दर्शाता है।
  • It tell us where or when something is in relation to something else.​
  • यह हमें बताता है कि कहां या कब कोई चीज किसी और चीज के संबंध में है।
  • Example: I should rewrite the introduction of my essay.

Question 2

Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b), and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) He was my school friend,

(b) but becoming a great man

(c) he has grown proud enough to forget his old friends.

(d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(b)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '(b).'

Key Points

  • After means 'later' or 'next in time'.
  • After का अर्थ है 'बाद में' या 'अगली बार'।
  • The given sentence tells us about the past and then about what happened afterwards.
  • दिया गया वाक्य हमें अतीत के बारे में बताता है और फिर बाद में क्या हुआ।
  • So, the preposition 'after' should be inserted before 'becoming' in Part (b) of the sentence to make complete sense.
  • तो, वाक्य के Part (b) में 'becoming' से पहले पूर्वसर्ग 'after' डाला जाना चाहिए ताकि पूर्ण अर्थ हो सके।
  • Therefore, the correct answer is '(b).'

​The correct sentence: He was my school friend but after becoming a great man he has grown proud enough to forget his old friends.

Additional Information

  • Prepositions indicate relationships between other words in a sentence.
  • Prepositions एक वाक्य में दूसरे शब्दों के बीच संबंधों को दर्शाता है।
  • It tell us where or when something is in relation to something else.​
  • यह हमें बताता है कि कहां या कब कोई चीज किसी और चीज के संबंध में है।
  • Example: I should rewrite the introduction of my essay.

Question 3

Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b), and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) Rabindranath Tagore,

(b) a Nobel laureate and the author of the national anthem

(c) found Shantiniketan

(d) No error.

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(c)

Why this answer is correct

Option 3 is the right answer. It has an error.

Key Points 

  • 'Found' means having been discovered by chance or unexpectedly.
  • Founded means to establish or originate (an institution or organization).
  • Shantiniketan is an institution that was 'started' or 'founded' by Tagore.

The correct sentence is -- Rabindranath Tagore, a Nobel laureate and the author of the national anthem, founded Shantiniketan.

Question 4

Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b), and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) The art of printing was introduced into England

(b) during the reign of Edward IV

(c) by William Caxton, a native of Kent

(d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(a)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '(a).'

Key Points

  • 'Into' is used when something or someone is going or being put into another location.
  • 'Into' का प्रयोग तब किया जाता है जब कोई चीज या कोई व्यक्ति किसी अन्य स्थान पर जा रहा हो या रखा जा रहा हो।
  • Example: She walked into the room.
  • 'In' is used to describe where someone or something already is.
  • 'In' का इस्तेमाल यह बताने के लिए किया जाता है कि कोई व्यक्ति या कोई चीज़ पहले से कहां है।​
  • Example: She is in the room.
  • Therefore, the use of 'into' in Part (a) of the sentence should be replaced with 'in' to make it grammatically correct.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is '(a).'

​The correct sentence: The art of printing was introduced in England during the reign of Edward IV by William Caxton, a native of Kent.

Additional Information

  • Prepositions indicate relationships between other words in a sentence.
  • Prepositions एक वाक्य में दूसरे शब्दों के बीच संबंधों को दर्शाता है।
  • It tell us where or when something is in relation to something else.​
  • यह हमें बताता है कि कहां या कब कोई चीज किसी और चीज के संबंध में है।
  • Example: I should rewrite the introduction of my essay.

Question 5

Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b), and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) From thirty years

(b) he has devoted himself to public affairs

(c) without taking a holiday

(d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(a)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "(a)"

Key Points

  • 'From' is used to show a starting point but needs to be followed by 'to/until' to show the endpoint.-- from 2 to 4 p.m.
  • However, 'for' is used "for a period of time."
  • The given sentence needs a 'For' as a period of time is given.
  • Look at the following examples:
  • For the past ten hours, he has been shaking that car.
  • I have been working for Skillshare for the past two years.
  • The correct sentence is- For thirty years he has devoted himself to public affairs without taking a holiday.

Question 6

Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b), and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) If Ramesh will be promoted

(b) he will get

(c) a higher salary

(d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(a)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '(a).'

Key Points

  • The first conditional talks about the possibility of a future event and its consequence.
  • पहली सशर्त भविष्य की घटना और उसके परिणाम की संभावना के बारे में बात करती है।
  • Structure of the sentence: (If + subject + present simple verb) +  (subject + will + verb)
  • Example: If it rains tomorrow, I’ll stay at home.
  • Therefore, the use of 'will be' in Part (a) of the sentence should be replaced with 'is' to make it grammatically correct.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is '(a).'

​The correct sentence: If Ramesh is promoted, he will get a higher salary.

Additional Information

  • We use modal verb to show if we believe something is certain, possible or impossible.
  • हम modal verb का उपयोग यह दिखाने के लिए करते हैं कि क्या हमें लगता है कि कुछ निश्चित, संभव या असंभव है।
  • Example: That can't be Peter's coat. It's too small.
  • We also use them to do things like talk about ability, ask permission, and make requests and offers.
  • हम उनका उपयोग क्षमता के बारे में बात करने, अनुमति मांगने और अनुरोध और ऑफ़र करने जैसे काम करने के लिए भी करते हैं।​
  • Example: Could I have some tea, please?

Question 7

Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b), and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) My brother goes

(b) to the office

(c) five day week

(d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(c)

Why this answer is correct

Option 3 is the right answer. It has an error.

Key Points 

  • Since more than one is meant when we say 'five', the noun that follows it should be a plural-- Days. Also, we are mentioning the frequency of going to the office in a week. So, the use of the article 'a' will convey the correct meaning.

The sentence should be -- My brother goes to the office five days a week.

Question 8

Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b), and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) If you lend Mohan a pen

(b) he will lend it to someone else

(c) and never you will get it back

(d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(c)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '(c).'

Key Points

  • 'Never' is an adverb and it should be used after 'will'.
  • ​**'Never'** एक क्रिया विशेषण है और इसका प्रयोग 'will' के बाद करना चाहिए।
  • Its location must be between the helping verb 'will' and the verb 'get'.
  • इसका स्थान सहायक क्रिया 'will' और क्रिया 'get' के बीच होना चाहिए।
  • The sequence of the words is reversed in Part 'c' of this sentence.
  • इस वाक्य के Part 'c' में शब्दों का क्रम उलट दिया गया है।
  • Therefore, the sequence 'never you will' in Part (c) of the sentence should be replaced with 'you will never' to make it grammatically correct.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is '(c).'

​The correct sentence: If you lend Mohan a pen he will lend it to someone else, and you will never get it back.

Additional Information

  • An adverb is a word that modifies (describes) a verb (he sings loudly), an adjective (very tall), another adverb (ended too quickly), or even a whole sentence.
  • क्रिया विशेषण एक ऐसा शब्द है जो एक क्रिया को संशोधित करता है (वर्णन करता है) (वह जोर से गाता है), एक विशेषण (बहुत लंबा), एक और क्रिया विशेषण (बहुत जल्दी समाप्त हो जाता है), या यहां तक ​​कि एक पूरा वाक्य।
  • Adverbs often end in -ly, but some (such as fast) look exactly the same as their adjective counterparts.
  • क्रियाविशेषण अक्सर -ly में समाप्त होते हैं, लेकिन कुछ (जैसे तेज़) उनके विशेषण समकक्षों के समान ही दिखते हैं।
  • Example: Fortunately, I had brought an umbrella.

Question 9

Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b), and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) One of the most widely spread

(b) bad habits

(c) is the use of tobacco

(d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(a)

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous part is "(a)One of the most widely spread".

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, the usage of the adverb form of the word "widely" is incorrect.
  • The given sentence already has the superlative "most" before the noun "wide".
  • We use the superlative "most" before a noun to signify that something is of the highest or great degree.
  • So we don't need to use the adverb form "widely" which means to a great degree as it would be a repetition.

The correct sentence is - One of the most widespread bad habits is the use of tobacco.

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Question 10

Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b), and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) A great part

(b) of Arabia

(c) is a desert

(d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(d)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '(d).'

​

  • The given sentence gives an explanation about Arabia.
  • दिया गया वाक्य Arabia के बारे में स्पष्टीकरण देता है।
  • The sentence has used the verbs and other parts of speech correctly and has no errors.
  • वाक्य में क्रियाओं और भाषण के अन्य भागों का सही उपयोग किया गया है और इसमें कोई त्रुटि नहीं है।
  • Therefore, the correct answer is '(d).'

​The correct sentence: A great part of Arabia is a desert.

Additional Information

  • A helping verb (also known as an auxiliary verb) is used with a main verb to help express the main verb's tense, mood, or voice.
  • एक helping verb (जिसे auxiliary verb के रूप में भी जाना जाता है) का उपयोग मुख्य क्रिया के साथ मुख्य क्रिया के काल, मनोदशा या आवाज को व्यक्त करने में मदद के लिए किया जाता है।
  • The main helping verbs are "to be," "to have," and "to do."
  • They appear in the following forms: To Be: am, is, are, was, were, being, been, will be

                                                         To Have: has, have, had, having, will have.

  • Example: Peter has been singing for an hour.

Question 11

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Some people complain when they encounter a small misfortune in the course of their thoroughly happy life

  1. AOption (a)

    run into

  2. BOption (b)

    run away

  3. COption (c)

    run down

  4. DOption (d)

    run with

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

run into

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'run into'

Key Points 

  • Encounter means unexpectedly be faced with or experience (something hostile or difficult). (अप्रत्याशित रूप से सामना करना या अनुभव करना (कुछ शत्रुतापूर्ण या कठिन))
  • Run into means start to experience a difficult or unpleasant situation. (एक कठिन या अप्रिय स्थिति का अनुभव करना शुरू करें)
  • Run away means escape from a place, person, or situation. (किसी स्थान, व्यक्ति या स्थिति से बचना)
  • Run down means reduce (or become reduced) in size, numbers, or resources. (आकार, संख्या या संसाधनों में कमी (या कम हो जाना))
  • Run with means associate habitually with (someone). ((किसी के साथ) आदतन सहयोगी)
  • The option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word 'encounter' is ' run into'.
  • Example - Some people complain when they run into a small problem in the course of their thoroughly happy life.

Question 12

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

This world is full of miseries

  1. AOption (a)

    indifferent love

  2. BOption (b)

    perfect happiness

  3. COption (c)

    great suffering

  4. DOption (d)

    moderate sympathies

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

great suffering

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'great suffering'

Key Points 

  • Miseries mean a state or feeling of great physical or mental distress or discomfort. (बड़ी शारीरिक या मानसिक परेशानी या बेचैनी की स्थिति या भावना)
  • Indifferent love means not caring what the other person does in a relationship. (इस बात की परवाह नहीं करना कि दूसरे व्यक्ति रिश्ते में क्या करता है)
  • Perfect happiness is a feeling of contentment and joy. (संतोष और खुशी की भावना)
  • Great suffering means distress, unhappiness, misery. (संकट,दुख)
  • Moderate sympathies mean feeling sadness for other people (अन्य लोगों के लिए दुख महसूस करना)
  • The option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word 'miseries' is 'great suffering'.
  • Example - This cold turkey, if not treated, can lead to fits and even death along with great suffering.

Question 13

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

A glance at a beautiful object gives us delight.

  1. AOption (a)

    wisdom

  2. BOption (b)

    happiness

  3. COption (c)

    purity

  4. DOption (d)

    peace

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

happiness

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'happiness'

Key Points 

  • Delight means please (someone) greatly. (कृपया किसी को बहुत)
  • Wisdom means having the quality of having experience, knowledge, and good judgment; (अनुभव, ज्ञान और अच्छे निर्णय लेने का गुण होना)
  • Happiness means the state of being happy. (खुश रहने की अवस्था)
  • Purity means freedom from adulteration or contamination. (मिलावट या संदूषण से मुक्ति)
  • Peace means freedom from disturbance; tranquillity. (अशांति से मुक्ति; शांति)
  • The option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word 'delight' is 'happiness'.
  • Example - International day of happiness is celebrated across the world on 20 March to spread and make people understand that happiness is one of the best gifts that you can give.

Question 14

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

It is terrible for people to die of starvation.

  1. AOption (a)

    starch

  2. BOption (b)

    staple

  3. COption (c)

    plenty

  4. DOption (d)

    hunger

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

hunger

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'hunger'

Key Points 

  • Starvation means suffering or death caused by a lack of food. (भोजन की कमी के कारण होने वाली पीड़ा या मृत्यु)
  • Starch is an odourless, tasteless white substance occurring widely in plant tissue. (एक गंधहीन, बेस्वाद सफेद पदार्थ जो पौधे के ऊतकों में व्यापक रूप से पाया जाता है)
  • Staple means used, needed, or enjoyed constantly usually by many individuals. (आमतौर पर कई व्यक्तियों द्वारा उपयोग, आवश्यक, या लगातार आनंद लिया जाता है)
  • Plenty means a lot. (ढेर सारा)
  • Hunger means a feeling of discomfort or weakness caused by lack of food, coupled with the desire to eat. (खाने की इच्छा के साथ भोजन की कमी के कारण असुविधा या कमजोरी की भावना)
  • The option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word 'starvation' is ' hunger'.
  • Example - It is terrible for people to die of hunger.

Question 15

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

The university has constituted a grievance redressal committee to look into the matter.

  1. AOption (a)

    depression

  2. BOption (b)

    complaint

  3. COption (c)

    abrasion

  4. DOption (d)

    gratefulness

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

complaint

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'complaint'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Grievance' means an official statement of a complaint about something believed to be wrong or unfair. (शिकायत; व्‍यथा)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Depression' means a feeling of unhappiness that lasts for a long time. (दुःख की भावना जो लंबे समय तक रहती है)
  • 'Complaint' means the expression of dissatisfaction. (शिकायत, असंतोष की अभिव्यक्ति)
  • 'Abrasion' means the process of scraping or wearing something away. (किसी चीज को खुरचने की प्रक्रिया।)
  • 'Gratefulness' means appreciative of benefits received. (प्राप्त लाभों की सराहना करना)

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Grievance' are "complaint, protest, challenge".
  • The antonyms of the word 'Grievance' are "acclaim, applause, praise".
  • Example of 'Complaint' in a sentence:
  • India has lodged a complaint with the International Court of Justice.

Question 16

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Rakesh delivered a slanderous speech.

  1. AOption (a)

    abusive

  2. BOption (b)

    praiseworthy

  3. COption (c)

    moderate

  4. DOption (d)

    inspiring

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

abusive

Why this answer is correct

Option 1 is the right answer.

Slanderous means false and malicious.

Abusive means extremely offensive and insulting.

Praiseworthy means deserving approval and admiration.

Moderate means neither small nor large in size, amount, degree, or strength.

Inspiring means causing you to feel confident about yourself or eager to learn or do something.

The option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word 'slanderous' is 'abusive'.

Example - Being in an abusive relationship can be incredibly isolating.

Question 17

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Suddenly, the sky was darkened by a gigantic bird.

  1. AOption (a)

    winged

  2. BOption (b)

    small

  3. COption (c)

    tiny

  4. DOption (d)

    enormous

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

enormous

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'enormous'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Gigantic' means extremely big; huge or enormous. (अत्‍यधिक बड़ा; विशाल, विराट)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Winged' means having one or more lateral parts. (एक या एक से अधिक पार्श्व भाग होना)
  • 'Small' means not large in size, number, amount, etc. (छोटा)
  • 'Tiny' means very small. (बहुत छोटा; नन्‍हा)
  • 'Enormous' means very big or very great. (विशाल या अत्‍यधिक)

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Gigantic' are "enormous, immense, huge".
  • The antonyms of the word 'Gigantic' are "small, little, mini".
  • Example of 'Enormous' in a sentence:
  • Germany produced enormous quantities of coal, iron, and steel.

Question 18

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

To abolish poverty would be to destroy the soil upon which mankind produces the virtues conducive to a higher civilization

  1. AOption (a)

    detest

  2. BOption (b)

    eradicate

  3. COption (c)

    nurture

  4. DOption (d)

    assimilate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

eradicate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'eradicate'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Abolish' means to formally put an end to a system, practice, or institution. (किसी क़ानून या प्रथा को आधिकारिक रूप से समाप्‍त करना)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Detest' means to hate or not like somebody or something at all. (किसी से घृणा करना या किसी को बिलकुल पसंद न करना)
  • 'Eradicate' means to destroy completely; put an end to something. (किसी चीज़ को जड़ से उखाड़ देना)
  • 'Nurture' means to encourage something to develop and to help it succeed. (विकास और सफलता-प्राप्ति के लिए प्रोत्‍साहित करना)
  • 'Assimilate' means to learn and understand something. (कुछ सीखना और समझना)

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Abolish' are "eradicate, eliminate, erase".
  • The antonyms of the word 'Abolish' are "allow, authorize, permit".
  • Example of 'Eradicate' in a sentence:
  • We are determined to eradicate racism from our sport.

Question 19

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

The Arabs who are not in the cities live in the desert throughout the year, shifting from one oasis to another.

  1. AOption (a)

    sandbank

  2. BOption (b)

    mound

  3. COption (c)

    dune

  4. DOption (d)

    spring

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

spring

Why this answer is correct

Option 4 is the right answer.

Oasis means a fertile spot in a desert, where water is found.

Sandbank means a deposit of sand forming a shallow area in the sea or a river.

Mound means a rounded mass projecting above a surface

Dune means a mound or ridge of sand or other loose sediment formed by the wind, especially on the sea coast or in a desert.

Spring means  a source of water from the ground, particularly a very small pond

The option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word **'oasis' is '**spring'

Question 20

Directions : Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

The various facets of life can be found reflected in a large city.

  1. AOption (a)

    several

  2. BOption (b)

    similar

  3. COption (c)

    valuable

  4. DOption (d)

    singular

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

several

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'several'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Various' means more than one; several. (विभिन्‍न, विविध)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Several' means more than two but not many; a few. (अनेक; कुछ)
  • 'Similar' means like somebody or something but not exactly the same. (किसी के समान; किसी के जैसा)
  • 'Valuable' means worth a lot of money. (बहुत महँगा, बहुमूल्‍य, क़ीमती)
  • 'Singular' means denoting or referring to just one person or thing. (सिर्फ एक व्यक्ति या चीज़ का ज़िक्र करना)

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Various' are "several, abundant, numerous".
  • The antonyms of the word 'Various' are "same, joint, singular".
  • Example of 'Several' in a sentence:
  • There are several amendments under consideration.

Question 21

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word. 

Ramesh is a very dubious character.

  1. AOption (a)

    shady

  2. BOption (b)

    suspicious

  3. COption (c)

    trustworthy

  4. DOption (d)

    doubtful

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

trustworthy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "trustworthy"

Key Points

  • Look at the given word in the question:
  • Dubious- hesitating or doubting.
  • Look at the selected word:
  • Trustworthy- able to be relied on as honest or truthful.
  • Look at the meaning of the other words in the options:
  • Shady- of doubtful honesty or legality.
  • Suspicious- having or showing a cautious distrust of someone or something.
  • Doubtful- feeling uncertain about something.
  • The option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word 'dubious' is 'trustworthy'.
  • Example - 
  • Jadeja is utterly trustworthy of Mahendra Singh Dhoni.
  • Renault is a trustworthy car brand in France.

Hence, the correct answer is trustworthy

Question 22

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word. 

Do not indulge in unmindful activities, please.

  1. AOption (a)

    vigilant

  2. BOption (b)

    careless

  3. COption (c)

    stupid

  4. DOption (d)

    fatuous

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

vigilant

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Vigilant.

Key Points:- 

  • Unmindful means not conscious or aware. (सचेत या जागरूक न होना)
  • Vigilant means keeping careful watch for possible danger or difficulties. (संभावित खतरे या कठिनाइयों के लिए सावधानीपूर्वक निगरानी रखना)
  • Example - The World Health Organization is calling on Asia-Pacific countries to stay vigilant in the fight against the coronavirus pandemic. ​
  • Careless means not concerned or worried about. (चिंतित न होना)
  • Stupid means having or showing a great lack of intelligence or common sense. (बुद्धि या सामान्य ज्ञान की बहुत कमी होना या दिखाना)
  • Fatuous means silly and pointless. (मूर्ख और व्यर्थ)
  • The option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word 'unmindful' is vigilant'.

Question 23

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word. 

He is suffering from a curable disease.

  1. AOption (a)

    remediable

  2. BOption (b)

    treatable

  3. COption (c)

    terminal

  4. DOption (d)

    operable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

terminal

Why this answer is correct

Option 3 is the right answer.

Curable means (of a disease or condition) able to be cured.

Remediable means action is intended to correct something that is wrong or to improve a bad situation.

Treatable means able to be healed or cured, especially medically.

Terminal means (of a disease) predicted to lead to death, especially slowly; incurable.

Operable means able to be treated by means of a surgical operation.

The option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word 'curable'  is 'terminal'.

Example - He is suffering from a terminal disease.

Question 24

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word. 

He was born on a very auspicious day.

  1. AOption (a)

    propitious

  2. BOption (b)

    fortunate

  3. COption (c)

    ominous

  4. DOption (d)

    opportune

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

ominous

Why this answer is correct

Option 3 is the right answer.

Key Points 

  • Auspicious means conducive to success; favourable. (सफलता के लिए अनुकूल; अनुकूल)
  • Propitious means giving or indicating a good chance of success; favourable. (सफलता का अच्छा मौका देना या संकेत देना; अनुकूल)
  • Fortunate means auspicious or favourable. (शुभ या अनुकूल)
  • Ominous means giving the worrying impression that something bad is going to happen; threateningly inauspicious. (चिंताजनक धारणा देना कि कुछ बुरा होने वाला है; घातक अशुभ)
  • Opportune means occurring at a favourable time; well-timed. (अनुकूल समय पर घटित होना; समयोचित)
  • The option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word 'auspicious' is 'ominous'.
  • Example - He was born on a very ominous day.

Question 25

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word. 

He has deeper hostility towards Mohan

  1. AOption (a)

    animosity

  2. BOption (b)

    belligerence

  3. COption (c)

    malice

  4. DOption (d)

    friendship

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

friendship

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'friendship'.

Key Points 

  • Option 4 is the right answer.
  • Hostility means unfriendliness or opposition. (मित्रता या विरोध)
  • Animosity means strong hostility. (मजबूत दुश्मनी)
  • Belligerence means aggressive or warlike behaviour. (आक्रामक या जंगी व्यवहार)
  • Malice means the desire to harm someone; ill will. (किसी को नुकसान पहुंचाने की इच्छा; बैर)
  • Friendship means a close association between two people marked by feelings of care, respect, admiration, concern. (देखभाल, सम्मान, प्रशंसा, चिंता की भावनाओं से चिह्नित दो लोगों के बीच घनिष्ठ संबंध)

The option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word 'hostility' is 'friendship'.

Example : Taylor Swift and Justin Bieber shared an amazing friendship bond with each other.

Question 26

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word. 

His life is rather monotonous.

  1. AOption (a)

    exciting

  2. BOption (b)

    dreary

  3. COption (c)

    tedious

  4. DOption (d)

    uneventful

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

exciting

Why this answer is correct

Option 1 is the right answer.

Key Points 

  • Monotonous means dull, tedious, and repetitious; lacking in variety and interest. (सुस्त, थकाऊ, और दोहराव; विविधता और रुचि में कमी)
  • Exciting means causing great enthusiasm and eagerness. (बहुत उत्साह और उत्सुकता पैदा करना)
  • Dreary means depressingly dull and bleak or repetitive. (निराशाजनक रूप से सुस्त और धूमिल या दोहराव)
  • Tedious means too long, slow, or dull; tiresome or monotonous. (बहुत लंबा, धीमा या सुस्त; थकाऊ या नीरस)
  • Uneventful means not marked by interesting or exciting events. (दिलचस्प या रोमांचक घटनाओं द्वारा चिह��नित नहीं)
  • The option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word 'monotonous' is 'exciting'.
  • Example: His life is rather exciting.

Question 27

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word. 

Macbeth is a morally repulsive character.

  1. AOption (a)

    abominable

  2. BOption (b)

    attractive

  3. COption (c)

    obnoxious

  4. DOption (d)

    ugly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

attractive

Why this answer is correct

Option 2 is the right answer.

Key Points 

  • Abominable means very bad; terrible. (बहुत बुरा; भयानक)
  • Attractive means appealing to look at. (देखने के लिए आकर्षक)
  • Obnoxious means extremely unpleasant. (अत्यंत अप्रिय।)
  • Ugly means unpleasant or repulsive, especially in appearance. (अप्रिय या प्रतिकारक, विशेष रूप से दिखने में)
  • Repulsive means arousing intense distaste or disgust. (तीव्र अरुचि या घृणा उत्पन्न करना)
  • The option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word 'repulsive' is 'attractive'.
  • Example : Small savings rate cuts make banking & PSU debt funds attractive.

Question 28

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word. 

The serene beauty of Kashmir had a soothing effect on his mind.

  1. AOption (a)

    placid

  2. BOption (b)

    pleasing

  3. COption (c)

    tranquil

  4. DOption (d)

    turbulent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

turbulent

Why this answer is correct

Option 4 is the right answer.

Key Points 

  • Serene means calm, peaceful, and untroubled; tranquil. (शांत, शांतिपूर्ण और अशांत; शांत)
  • Placid means not easily upset or excited. (आसानी से परेशान या उत्साहित नहीं)
  • Pleasing means satisfying or appealing. (संतोषजनक या आकर्षक)
  • Tranquil means free from disturbance; calm. (अशांति से मुक्त; शांत)
  • Turbulent means characterized by conflict, disorder, or confusion; not stable or calm. (संघर्ष, विकार, या भ्रम की विशेषता; स्थिर या शांत नहीं)
  • The option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word 'serene' is 'turbulent'.
  • Example: Turbulent seas kept us from sailing.

Question 29

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word. 

Life is transient in nature.

  1. AOption (a)

    brief

  2. BOption (b)

    momentary

  3. COption (c)

    eternal

  4. DOption (d)

    short-lived

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

eternal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "eternal" 

Key Points

  • Look at the meaning of the given word in the question**:**
  • Transient means lasting only for a short time; impermanent.
  • Look at the meaning of the selected word:
  • Eternal means lasting or existing forever; without end.
  • Look at the meanings of the rest of the words:
  • Brief means of short duration; not lasting for long.
  • Momentary means lasting for a very short time; brief.
  • Short-lived means lasting only a short time.
  • The option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word 'transient ' is 'eternal'.
  • Look at the Example: 
  • It is said that Vampire lives an eternal life.

Hence the correct answer: eternal

Question 30

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word. 

Sohan is a vain person.

  1. AOption (a)

    modest

  2. BOption (b)

    arrogant

  3. COption (c)

    conceited

  4. DOption (d)

    proud

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

modest

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "modest"

Key Points

  • Look at the meaning of the word in the question**:**
  • ​Vain means too interested in your own appearance or achievements.
  • Look at the meaning of the selected word:
  • Modest- unassuming in the estimation of one's abilities or achievements.
  • Look at the meaning of the other options:
  • Arrogant means someone who is full of self-worth or self-importance.
  • Conceited means excessively proud of oneself; vain.
  • Proud means having great self-respect or dignity.
  • The option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word 'vain' is 'modest'.
  • Look at the Example
  • Sohan is a modest person.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1 i.e. "modest"

Question 31

Direction: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate expression.

A dark horse

  1. AOption (a)

    a black coloured horse

  2. BOption (b)

    a person who wins a race or competition although no one expected him to

  3. COption (c)

    a person who keeps secrets

  4. DOption (d)

    an ignorant person

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

a person who wins a race or competition although no one expected him to

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'a person who wins a race or competition although no one expected him to.'

Key Points:-

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given idiom:-
  • 'A dark horse' means someone or something whose abilities, plans, or feelings are little known to others. ('A dark horse' का अर्थ है कोई या ऐसा कुछ जिसकी क्षमता, योजना या भावनाओं के बारे में दूसरों को कम ही पता हो।)
  • Example: The Korean movie 'Parasite' was the dark horse for the Oscar awards this year.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

Therefore, the correct meaning of the given idiom is: a person who wins a race or competition although no one expected him to.

Question 32

Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate expression.

A show-stopper

  1. AOption (a)

    someone who stops the show

  2. BOption (b)

    someone who organizes the show

  3. COption (c)

    a performance that is extremely good

  4. DOption (d)

    a fashionable person

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

a performance that is extremely good

Why this answer is correct

Option 3 is the right answer i.e. a performance that is extremely good.

Key Points

  • The idiom-'A show-stopper' means the most exceptional or memorable performance or item among others; a stand-out.
  • Example : Her performance at the gala was the show stopper of the event.
  • Thus, option 3 is the correct alternative here.

The correct answer is: a performance that is extremely good

Question 33

Direction: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate expression.

A jack of all trades

  1. AOption (a)

    Someone who has many skills

  2. BOption (b)

    A confident and not very serious young man

  3. COption (c)

    Someone who has hit the jackpot

  4. DOption (d)

    A great businessman

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Someone who has many skills

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'Someone who has many skills.'

Key Points:-

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given idiom:-
  • 'Jack of All Trades' means a person who can do various tasks but is not outstanding in any of them. ('Jack of All Trades' का अर्थ एक ऐसा व्यक्ति है जो विभिन्न कार्य कर सकता है लेकिन उनमें से किसी में भी उत्कृष्ट नहीं है।)
  • Example: Most of us today are a jack of all trades, as we have to have many skills to live in this competitive world.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

Therefore, the correct meaning of the given idiom is Someone who has many skills.

Question 34

Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate expression.

Fight tooth and nail

  1. AOption (a)

    to quarrel with someone

  2. BOption (b)

    to attack someone with a lot of force

  3. COption (c)

    to try hard to prevent something from happening

  4. DOption (d)

    to try very hard to achieve something

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

to try very hard to achieve something

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "to try very hard to achieve something"

Key Points

  • The idiom 'fight tooth and nail' mean 'to engage in vigorous combat or make a strenuous effort, using all one's resources'.
  • Example: At times we have to fight tooth and nail to bring about a new change in our society.
  • ​Thus, as per the options given, option 4 is the correct answer.

​The correct answer is: To try very hard to achieve something.

Question 35

Direction: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the most appropriate expression.

Fair and square

  1. AOption (a)

    in an honest way

  2. BOption (b)

    in a critical way

  3. COption (c)

    neither very good not very bad

  4. DOption (d)

    in a foolish way

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

in an honest way

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'in an honest way.'

Key Points:-

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given idiom:-
  • 'Fair and square' means with no cheating or lying involved. ('Fair and square' का अर्थ है जिसमें कोई धोखा या झूठ शामिल नहीं है।)
  • Example: The opponent punched him fair and square in the chest.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

Therefore, the correct meaning of the given idiom is: in an honest way.

Additional Information

  • Let's learn about the origin of the given phrase:
  • This phrase dates back to the 1600s. It is usually used in the context of sporting competitions, races or any kind of contest. (यह मुहावरा 1600 के दशक का है। यह आमतौर पर खेल प्रतियोगिताओं, दौड़ या किसी भी प्रकार की प्रतियोगिता के संदर्भ में उपयोग किया जाता है।)

Question 36

In this section, each item consists of six sentences of passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as SI and S6. The middle four-sentence in each have been jumbled up and labelled as P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences.

S1: We do not know what do to with our knowledge.

S6: In the course of time they may rule over us all together.

P: For example, we are unable to manage our machines.

Q: We already find it difficult to do without machines

R: Machines should be fed properly and waited upon attentively; otherwise they refuse to work or cause destruction.

S: Science has given us superhuman powers, which we do not use properly.

  1. AOption (a)

    S P R Q

  2. BOption (b)

    P S Q R

  3. COption (c)

    Q R P S

  4. DOption (d)

    S R P Q

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

S P R Q

Why this answer is correct

Option 1: SPRQ is the correct answer.

The passage is about how we are ignorant of our superpowers. The first line tells us about the superpowers we do not use properly. The second line is about us unable to manage our machines. It then goes on about how to treat the machines and that we find it difficult to do without machines.

The last line tells us about the machines may rule over us all together.

 The correct sequence is:

S1: We do not know what do to with our knowledge.

S: Science has given us superhuman powers, which we do not use properly.

P: For example, we are unable to manage our machines.

R: Machines should be fed properly and waited upon attentively; otherwise they refuse to work or cause destruction.

Q: We already find it difficult to do without machines.

S6: In the course of time they may rule over us all together.

Question 37

In this section, each item consists of six sentences of passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as SI and S6. The middle four-sentence in each have been jumbled up and labelled as P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences.

S1: The British rule in India has brought about moral, material, cultural and spiritual ruination of this great country.

S6: We are not to kill anybody but it is our dharma to see that the curse of this Government is blotted out.

P: I regard this rule as a curse.

Q: Sedition has become my religion

R: Ours is a non-violent battle

S: I am out to destroy this system of Government.

  1. AOption (a)

    S P R Q

  2. BOption (b)

    P S Q R

  3. COption (c)

    Q R P S

  4. DOption (d)

    S R P Q

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

P S Q R

Why this answer is correct

Option 2: PSQR is the correct answer.

The passage is in points about how the British rule has ruined the country.

The first line tells us that the rule is a curse as it destroys. It then explains about our non-violent battle and the intention of destroying the government. The last line sarcastically explains that our dharma is to see that the curse of this Government is blotted out.

 The correct sequence is:

S1: The British rule in India has brought about moral, material, cultural and spiritual ruination of this great country.

P: I regard this rule as a curse.

S: I am out to destroy this system of Government.

Q: Sedition has become my religion.

R: Ours is a non-violent battle.

S6: We are not to kill anybody but it is our dharma to see that the curse of this Government is blotted out.

Question 38

The following consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence. 

P: the urban local body elections

Q: unidentified gunmen

R: and injured another during

S: Shot dead two workers

  1. AOption (a)

    Q S R P

  2. BOption (b)

    P Q S R

  3. COption (c)

    S P R Q

  4. DOption (d)

    R P S Q

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Q S R P

Why this answer is correct

Option 1 is the right answer: QSRP.

Key Points

  • The sentence is about two workers being shot during the local body elections.
  • So, the part having 'gunman' will come first.
  • The correct sequence is--Q: unidentified gunmen S: shot dead two workers  R: and injured another during P: the urban local body elections.
  • The correct answer is option 1.

The correct sentence is: Unidentified gunmen shot dead two workers and injured another during the urban local body elections.

Question 39

The following consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence. 

P: both intensely political and

Q: this state has a history of

R: of syncretic accomplishment

S: religious contestation and

  1. AOption (a)

    S Q P R

  2. BOption (b)

    P Q S R

  3. COption (c)

    S Q R P

  4. DOption (d)

    Q P S R

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Q P S R

Why this answer is correct

Option 4 is the right answer: QPSR.

Key Points

  • The sentence is about a particular state having political and religious accomplishment.
  • So, that particular state will come as first part.
  • The correct sequence is --Q: this state has a history of P: both intensely political and S: religious contestation and R: of syncretic accomplishment.
  • Thus the correct answer is option 4.

The correct sentence is: This state has a history of both intensely political and religious contestation and of syncretic accomplishment.

Question 40

The following consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence. 

P: the father also

Q: in his quest for justice

R: by the system

S: feels let down

  1. AOption (a)

    S Q P R

  2. BOption (b)

    P S R Q

  3. COption (c)

    S Q R P

  4. DOption (d)

    P Q R S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

P S R Q

Why this answer is correct

Option 2 is the right answer: PSRQ.

Key Points

  • The sentence is about a father feeling let down (disappointed) in his quest (search) for injustice.
  • Thus the father would come first.
  • The correct sequence is--P: the father also S: feels let down R: by the system Q: in his quest for justice.
  • The correct answer is option 2.

The correct sentence is: The father also feels let down by the system  in his quest for justice.

Direction: In this section, you have a few short passages. After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and the opinion of the author only.

I do not wish to suggest that because we were one nation we had no differences, but it is submitted that our leading men travelled throughout India either on foot or in bullock-carts. They learned one another's languages and there was no aloofness amongst them. What do you think could have been the intention of those farseeing ancestors of ours who established Setubandha (Rameshwar) in the South, Jagannath in the East and Hardware in the North as places of pilgrimage? You will admit they were no fools. They knew that the worship of God could have performed just as well at home. They taught us that those whose hearts were aglow with righteousness had the Ganges in their own homes. But they saw that India was one undivided land so made by nature. They, therefore, argued that it must be one nation. Arguing thus, they established holy places in various parts of India and fired the people with an idea of nationality in a manner unknown in other parts of the world. And we Indians are one as no two Englishmen are. Only you and I and others who consider ourselves civilized and superior persons imagine that we are many nations. It was after the advent of railways that we began to believe in distinctions, and you are at liberty now to say that it is through the railways that we are beginning to abolish those distinctions. An opium-eater may argue the advantage of opium-eating from the fact he began to understand the evil of the opium habit after having eaten it. I would ask you to consider well what I had said on the railways.

Question 41

According to the author, India:

  1. AOption (a)

    has never been one nation

  2. BOption (b)

    has been an aggregate of several nations

  3. COption (c)

    has always been one nation along with differences

  4. DOption (d)

    became a nation after the British came

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

has always been one nation along with differences

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'has always been one nation along with differences.'

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the first sentence of the passage:   
  • **'I do not wish to suggest that because we were one nation we had no differences, but it is submitted that our leading men travelled throughout India either on foot or in bullock-carts.'
  • Therefore, according to the author, India has always been one nation along with differences.
  • इसलिए, लेखक के अनुसार, भारत हमेशा मतभेदों के साथ एक राष्ट्र रहा है।
  • So, the correct option is 'has always been one nation along with differences.'

 Additional Information

  • The meaning of the word 'leading' is very important or most important.
  • Example: They are the world's leading manufacturer of audio equipment.

Question 42

Why did the great sages of India establish pilgrimages in the different corners of the country?

  1. AOption (a)

    Because they wanted to push people to travel to different places

  2. BOption (b)

    Because they could observe the underlying unity of the country as made by nature

  3. COption (c)

    Because they themselves had travelled to these places

  4. DOption (d)

    Because they wanted people to be religious everywhere

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Because they could observe the underlying unity of the country as made by nature

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Because they could observe the underlying unity of the country as made by nature.'

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the seventh sentence of the passage:   
  • **'But they saw that India was one undivided land so made by nature.'
  • ​They, therefore, argued that it must be one nation. Arguing thus, they established holy places in various parts of India and fired the people with an idea of nationality in a manner unknown in other parts of the world'.
  • इसलिए, उन्होंने तर्क दिया कि यह एक राष्ट्र होना चाहिए। इस प्रकार तर्क करते हुए, उन्होंने भारत के विभिन्न हिस्सों में पवित्र स्थानों की स्थापना की और लोगों को राष्ट्रीयता के विचार से दुनिया के अन्य हिस्सों में अज्ञात तरीके से निकाल दिया।​
  • Therefore, the great sages of India established pilgrimages in the different corners of the country because they could observe the underlying unity of the country as made by nature.
  • So, the correct option is 'Because they could observe the underlying unity of the country as made by nature.'

 Additional Information

  • The meaning of the word 'pilgrimage' is a special journey made by a pilgrim.
  • Example: Muslims try to go on a pilgrimage to Mecca at least once in their life.

Question 43

In the passage, the author's attitude towards the railways is:

  1. AOption (a)

    critical

  2. BOption (b)

    sympathetic

  3. COption (c)

    indifferent

  4. DOption (d)

    apathetic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

critical

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'critical.'

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the 11th and 12th sentences of the passage:   
  • **'Only you and I and others who consider ourselves civilized and superior persons imagine that we are many nations. It was after the advent of railways that we began to believe in distinctions, and you are at liberty now to say that it is through the railways that we are beginning to abolish those distinctions.'
  • ​This shows how the author is critical of our way of thinking.
  • इससे पता चलता है कि कैसे लेखक हमारे सोचने के तरीके की आलोचना करता है।
  • Therefore, in the passage, the author's attitude towards the railways is critical.
  • So, the correct option is 'critical.'

Additional InformationIf a person or their behaviour is civilized, they are polite and behave in a calm and reasonable way.

  • Example: Let's discuss this like civilized people.

Question 44

What does the author mean when he says that "whose hearts were aglow with righteousness had the Ganges in their own homes".

  1. AOption (a)

    One need not visit the Ganges to take holy bath

  2. BOption (b)

    The Ganges has been polluted, so one should bath at home

  3. COption (c)

    One should take a holy dip in the Ganges to purify one's heart

  4. DOption (d)

    The purity of heart is superior to the observance of any ritual

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The purity of heart is superior to the observance of any ritual

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'The purity of heart is superior to the observance of any ritual.'

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the sixth sentence of the passage:   
  • **'They taught us that those whose hearts were aglow with righteousness had the Ganges in their own homes.'
  • ​Thus, the author means when he says that "whose hearts were aglow with righteousness had the Ganges in their own homes" is the purity of heart is superior to the observance of any ritual.
  • इस प्रकार, लेखक का अर्थ यह है कि जब वह कहता है कि "जिनके दिल धार्मिकता से प्रज्ज्वलित थे, उनके घरों में गंगा थी" हृदय की पवित्रता किसी भी अनुष्ठान के पालन से श्रेष्ठ है।
  • So, the correct option is 'The purity of heart is superior to the observance of any ritual.'

 Additional Information

  • The meaning of the word 'observance' is the act of obeying a law or following a religious custom.
  • Example: Financial markets will be closed Monday in observance of Labor Day.

Question 45

The paragraph is written in a:

  1. AOption (a)

    dialogic style

  2. BOption (b)

    prescriptive style

  3. COption (c)

    descriptive style

  4. DOption (d)

    analytical style

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

analytical style

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'analytical style.'

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the meaning of the given style:
  • Dialogic style: Dialogic refers to the use of conversation or shared dialogue to explore the meaning of something. (संवाद से तात्पर्य किसी चीज़ के अर्थ का पता लगाने के लिए बातचीत या साझा संवाद के उपयोग से है।)
  • Prescriptive style: Linguistic prescription, or prescriptive grammar, is the establishment of rules defining preferred usage of language. These rules may address such linguistic aspects as spelling, pronunciation, vocabulary, syntax, and semantics. (भाषाई नुस्खे, या निर्देशात्मक व्याकरण, भाषा के पसंदीदा उपयोग को परिभाषित करने वाले नियमों की स्थापना है। ये नियम वर्तनी, उच्चारण, शब्दावली, वाक्य रचना और शब्दार्थ जैसे भाषाई पहलुओं को संबोधित कर सकते हैं।)
  • Descriptive style: When an author writes in a descriptive style, they are painting a picture in words of a person, place, or thing for their audience. ... But the author is not trying to convince the audience of anything or explain the scene – merely describe things as they are. (जब कोई लेखक वर्णनात्मक शैली में लिखता है, तो वे अपने दर्शकों के लिए किसी व्यक्ति, स्थान या चीज़ के शब्दों में चित्र बना रहे होते हैं। ... लेकिन लेखक किसी भी चीज़ के लिए दर्शकों को समझाने या दृश्य की व्याख्या करने की कोशिश नहीं कर रहा है - केवल चीजों का वर्णन करें जैसे वे हैं।)
  • Analytical style: Analytical writing style is often called for at the university level. It involves reviewing what you've read in light of other evidence. (विश्लेषणात्मक लेखन शैली की अक्सर विश्वविद्यालय स्तर पर आवश्यकता होती है। इसमें अन्य सबूतों के आलोक में आपने जो पढ़ा है उसकी समीक्षा करना शामिल है।)
  • The passage analyses the different things that affect the thinking of humans from ancient to modern times by things like the railways, the idea of nationality and the holy places in various parts of India.
  • Passage रेलवे, राष्ट्रीयता के विचार और भारत के विभिन्न हिस्सों में पवित्र स्थानों जैसी चीजों से प्राचीन से आधुनिक समय तक मनुष्यों की सोच को प्रभावित करने वाली विभिन्न चीजों का विश्लेषण करता है।​
  • Hence, the paragraph is written in 'analytical style.'
  • So, the correct option is 'analytical style.'

 Additional Information

  • The meaning of the word 'analytical is relating to or using analysis or logical reasoning.
  • Example: He has a very analytical mind.

Question 46

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space.

_______ forests prevent erosion.

  1. AOption (a)

    Lean

  2. BOption (b)

    Dense

  3. COption (c)

    Sparse

  4. DOption (d)

    Tidy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Dense

Why this answer is correct

Option 2 is the right answer.

Let us look into the meaning of the given words: 

  • Lean means thin and in good physical condition.
  • Dense means parts that are close together so that it is difficult to go or see-through.
  • Erosion means the gradual destruction and removal of rock or soil in a particular area by rivers, the sea, or the weather.
  • Sparse means scanty; in short supply.
  • Tidy means arranged neatly and in order.

 

The most appropriate phrasal verb for the blank space is 'dense'. 

In a forest, if trees are close together[ dense] their intertwined roots will stop erosion.

The correct sentence is -- Dense forests prevent erosion.

Question 47

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space.

Three people were arrested and an illegal arms unit was ______ by the police in a raid.

  1. AOption (a)

    revealed

  2. BOption (b)

    searched

  3. COption (c)

    discovered

  4. DOption (d)

    busted

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

busted

Why this answer is correct

Option 4 is the right answer.

Let us look at the meaning of the given words:

  • Revealed means to make something visible or make it public information.
  • Searched means try to find something by looking or otherwise seeking carefully and thoroughly.
  • Discovered means find unexpectedly or during a search.
  • Busted means raid or search (premises where illegal activity is suspected).

 

The most appropriate word for the blank space is 'busted'.

The correct sentence is -- Three people were arrested and an illegal arms unit was busted by the police in a raid.

Question 48

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space.

A woman got into the car and _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    drove off

  2. BOption (b)

    broke down

  3. COption (c)

    rode in

  4. DOption (d)

    drove in

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

drove off

Why this answer is correct

Option 1 is the right answer.

The options are all phrasal verbs.

A phrasal verb is a phrase (such as take-off or look down on) that combines a verb with a preposition or adverb or both and that functions as a verb whose meaning is different from the combined meanings of the individual words.

Let us look at the options one by one:

  • Drove off means to leave in a car.
  • Broke  down means to lose control of one's emotions, often sadness
  • Rode in means  to sit on and manage (a horse, bicycle, etc.)
  • Drove in means travelling in an automobile

 

The most appropriate phrasal verb for the blank space is ' drove off'.

The correct sentence is -- A woman got into the car and drove off.

Question 49

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space.

The lecture was not very interesting. In fact I _______ in the middle of it.

  1. AOption (a)

    showed off

  2. BOption (b)

    put off

  3. COption (c)

    dozed off

  4. DOption (d)

    plugged-off

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

dozed off

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'dozed off'.

Key Points

  • The options are all phrasal verbs.
  • A phrasal verb is a phrase (such as take-off or look down on) that combines a verb with a preposition or adverb or both and that functions as a verb whose meaning is different from the combined meanings of the individual words.
  • Dozed off means to sleep for a short time; nap.
  • Example: The office was so hot that I nearly dozed off at my desk.
  • Therefore the most appropriate option for the given blank is 'dozed off' because it indicates that the author slept because the lecture was boring.
  • Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

 

Complete sentence: The lecture was not very interesting. In fact, I dozed off in the middle of it.

Additional Information

  • Let us look at the options one by one:
  • 'Showed off' means boastfully display one's abilities or accomplishments.
  • 'Put off' means an evasive reply.
  • 'Plugged-off' means to work hard and in a determined way.

Hinglish

  • विकल्प सभी phrasal verbs हैं।
  • एक phrasal verb एक वाक्यांश है (जैसे take-off या look down) जो एक verb को एक preposition या adverb या दोनों के साथ जोड़ती है और एक verb के रूप में कार्य करती है जिसका अर्थ अलग-अलग शब्दों के संयुक्त अर्थ से अलग होता है।
  • 'Dozed off' का मतलब है थोड़े समय के लिए सोना; झपकी।
  • उदाहरण: The office was so hot I nearly dozed off at my desk.
  • इसलिए दिए गए रिक्त स्थान के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त विकल्प 'dozed off' है क्योंकि यह इंगित करता है कि लेखक सो गया था क्योंकि व्याख्यान उबाऊ था।
  • अत: विकल्प 3 सही उत्तर है।
  • आइए एक-एक करके विकल्पों को देखें:
  • 'Showed off' करने का अर्थ है किसी की क्षमताओं या उपलब्धियों को घमंड से प्रदर्शित करना।
  • 'Put off' का मतलब है टाल-मटोल का जवाब।
  • 'Plugged-off' का अर्थ है कड़ी मेहनत और निर्धारित तरीके से काम करना।

 

पुरा वाक्य: The lecture was not very interesting. In fact, I dozed off in the middle of it.

Question 50

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space.

The cops ______ murder by kin.

  1. AOption (a)

    suspect

  2. BOption (b)

    afford

  3. COption (c)

    manage

  4. DOption (d)

    administer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

suspect

Why this answer is correct

Option 1 is the right answer.

Let us look at the meaning of given words:

  • Suspect means to believe to be guilty, false, counterfeit.
  • Afford means have enough money to pay for.
  • Manage means to be responsible for controlling or organizing someone or something.
  • Administer means to manage and be responsible for the running of (a business, organization, etc.).

 

The most appropriate word for the blank space is " suspect'.

The correct sentence is --The cops suspect murder by kin.

Question 51

Which one of the following cell organelles does NOT possess nucleic acid?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nucleolus

  2. BOption (b)

    Chloroplast

  3. COption (c)

    Ribosome

  4. DOption (d)

    Plasma Membrane

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Plasma Membrane

Why this answer is correct

Key Points

  • The plasma membrane doesn’t have any type of Nucleic Acid - either DNA or RNA.
  • The plasma membrane consists of lipids, cholesterol, phospholipid bilayer, glycol-lipids, etc.
  • The nucleus contains Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and might even contain some Ribonucleic Acid (RNA).
  • Ribosomes are made up of ribosomal Ribonucleic Acid (rRNA).
  • Mitochondria contain circular naked DNA, which is why it is capable of self-division.
  • Chloroplasts also contain DNA but may contain some RNA.
  • RNA has the primary function of converting the information stored in DNA.
  • The plasma membrane protects the cell from its surroundings.
  • Ribosomes are that cell structures that help in making proteins.

Question 52

Which one of the following cell organelles does NOT possess its own genetic material encoding proteins?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ribosome

  2. BOption (b)

    Nucleus

  3. COption (c)

    Mitochondria

  4. DOption (d)

    Chloroplast

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ribosome

Why this answer is correct

Ribosomes don't have their own genetic material or DNA as apart from Nucleus, Mitochondria, and Chloroplast, all the other cell organelles are considered to be non-living.

  • Ribosomes are the cellular machines that assemble the proteins.
  • Nucleus houses the cell’s genetic material or DNA.
  • The genetic materials of mitochondria and chloroplast are circular double stranded. This kind of material is found in the prokaryotes.
  • Examples of prokaryotes are bacteria and archaea.
  • Examples of eukaryotes are protists, fungi, plants, and animals.

Question 53

Which one of the following is NOT a component of conducting tissue in plants?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fibres

  2. BOption (b)

    Tracheids

  3. COption (c)

    Pericycle

  4. DOption (d)

    Sieve tubes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Pericycle

Why this answer is correct

Pericycle is a cylinder in the sclerenchyma or parenchyma cells lying inside of the endodermis, that is the outermost part of stele in the plants. Its functions include providing protection to vascular bundles, and strengthening the roots.

  • Tracheids are a part of the xylem as elongated cells, that help in transport of mineral salts and water.
  • Sieve Tubes are elongated cells in the phloem which help in the conduit of food transport, mostly sugar.
  • Fibres are elongated cells which help in providing support to the plant.

Question 54

Which one of the following organisms has vascular tissues?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cladophora

  2. BOption (b)

    Penicillium

  3. COption (c)

    Marsilea

  4. DOption (d)

    Anabaena

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Marsilea

Why this answer is correct

Marsilea consists of vascular tissue. Belonging to the family of genus Marsilea, these organisms grow on semi-aquatic and aquatic ecosystems.

Key Points

  • The basic difference between Vascular and nonvascular plants is that while the former has a vascular system (xylem and phloem, the latter lacks it.
  • Example of vascular plants - Conifers, Ferns
  • Examples of non-vascular plants are- Bryophyte (mosses), Marchantiophyta (liverworts), Anthrocerotophyta (hornworts), Algae (Cladophora).

Question 55

Which one of the following organisms represents the primary consumer category in an ecosystem?

  1. AOption (a)

    Caterpillar

  2. BOption (b)

    Crabapple tree

  3. COption (c)

    Frog

  4. DOption (d)

    Sparrowhawk

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Caterpillar

Why this answer is correct

Caterpillar is a primary consumer because it depends on Plants for its nutrition, i.e it eats plants.

  • Primary consumers are defined as herbivores feeding on plants for their food.
  • Examples include Caterpillar, termites, hummingbirds, grasshoppers.
  • Crabapple tree is a Primary Producer.
  • Frogs are secondary consumers.
  • Sparrowhawk are secondary consumers too.

Question 56

Spring tides refer to

  1. AOption (a)

    greatest difference in the sea level at high and low tides

  2. BOption (b)

    lowest difference in the sea level at high and low tides

  3. COption (c)

    no difference in the sea level at high and low tides

  4. DOption (d)

    counteraction of gravitational pull of the Sun to that of moon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

greatest difference in the sea level at high and low tides

Why this answer is correct

Spring tide is when the earth, moon and the sun are all in a straight line.

  • This tide occurs at full moons and new moons each lunar month.
  • Spring tides are earth’s most extreme tides - with the greatest difference between high and low tides.
  • Neap tides are when the earth, moon and sun are at right angles to each other.
  • They occur in the first and three-quarters of the moon.
  • They are the least extreme tides - with the least difference between high and low tides.

Question 57

Which one of the following energy is stored in the links between the atoms?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nuclear energy

  2. BOption (b)

    Chemical energy

  3. COption (c)

    Potential energy

  4. DOption (d)

    Thermal energy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Potential energy

Why this answer is correct

The links between the atoms have potential energy in them.

  • The coming together of two atoms results in repulsive force and a decreased potential energy.
  • This will result in a decreased energy of the system.
  • Nuclear energy is the energy released as a result of nuclear fusion or fission.
  • Thermal energy comes from the temperature of heated substances.
  • Chemical energy is the energy stored in bonds of chemical compounds, and this energy is released when a chemical reaction takes place.

Question 58

The light energy escaping from the Sun can be spread by

  1. AOption (a)

    a shower of raindrops

  2. BOption (b)

    a plane mirror

  3. COption (c)

    a convex lens

  4. DOption (d)

    a combination of a convex lens and a concave lens

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a shower of raindrops

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The phenomenon in which a white light ray when falls on a prism get separated into its component colors is called a dispersion of light.
  • The band of the coloured components of a light beam is called its spectrum.

EXPLANATION:

  • A rainbow is a natural spectrum appearing in the sky after a rain shower.
  • It is caused by the dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets, present in the atmosphere.
  • A rainbow is always formed in a direction opposite to that of the Sun.
  • The water droplets act like small prisms.
  • They refract and disperse the incident sunlight, then reflect it internally, and finally refract it again when it comes out of the raindrop.
  • Due to the dispersion of light and internal reflection, different colours reach the observer’s eye.
  • Thus light energy escaping from the Sun can be spread by a shower of raindrops.

Question 59

The correct sequence of energy transfer that occurs when an apple falls to the ground is

  1. AOption (a)

    Gravitational potential energy → heat energy to air → kinetic energy → heat energy to ground and apple → sound energy

  2. BOption (b)

    Gravitational potential energy → sound energy → kinetic energy → heat energy to air → heat energy to ground and apple

  3. COption (c)

    Gravitational potential energy → kinetic energy → heat energy to air → heat energy to ground and apple → sound energy

  4. DOption (d)

    Gravitational potential energy → kinetic energy → sound energy → heat energy to air → heat energy to ground and apple

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Gravitational potential energy → kinetic energy → heat energy to air → heat energy to ground and apple → sound energy

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

According to the energy conservation principle,

  • The energy of any object can never be created nor can it be destroyed. It can only be converted from one form to another form.

EXPLANATION:

  • As an apple is stuck on a tree at some height it will have gravitational potential energy which can be given as P.E = mgh
  • When it starts falling because of gravitational force it will be accelerated toward the ground and will have some kinetic energy.
  • As apple falls because of air resistance or friction is provided to it and hence cause heat energy (ideally heat produced in this case is generally negligible but in case of a comet falling from space it generates a huge amount of heat as it falls through our atmosphere).
  • Finally, it hits the ground where both heat and kinetic energy is transferred to ground and rest is been transmitted in a form of sound energy
  • Thus potential energy is converted to kinetic energy and the heat produced while falling was because of air resistance as it falls and when finally it hits the ground its energy been wasted as sound and heat energy.

Question 60

Which one of the following minerals is used as a fuel in nuclear power stations?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bauxite

  2. BOption (b)

    Quartz

  3. COption (c)

    Feldspar

  4. DOption (d)

    Pitchblende

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Pitchblende

Why this answer is correct

Pitchblende is a Uranium rich radioactive mineral used as a fuel in nuclear power stations.

  • It contains radium and is largely made up of Uranium dioxide (UO2).
  • Due to radioactive decay, it also contains some traces of Lead, Thorium, and other such rare earth elements.
  • Bauxite is primarily composed of aluminum oxide compounds (alumina), silica, iron oxides, and titanium dioxide is a mineral formed by the laterite soil.
  • Quartz is a chemical with one part of Silicon and two parts of Oxygen.
  • Feldspar is rock-forming minerals making up to 41% of the Earth’s continental crust.

Question 61

Which one of the following is NOT a synthetic detergent?

  1. AOption (a)

    CH3(CH2)10CH2O SO-3Na+

  2. BOption (b)

    [CH3(CH2)15-N-(CH3)3]+Br-

  3. COption (c)

    CH3(CH2)16COO-Na+

  4. DOption (d)

    CH3(CH2)16COO(CH2CH2O)n CH2CH2OH

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

[CH3(CH2)15-N-(CH3)3]+Br-

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is [CH3(CH2)15-N-(CH3)3]+Br-.

  • Hexadecyltrimethylammonium bromide [CH3(CH2)15-N-(CH3)3]+Br- is a Cationic Surfactant.

Key Points

  • Synthetic detergents have wetting and emulsifying properties and are used for cleansing purposes.
  • They have a structure that is quite different from soaps but is similar to soaps in the way that they are composed of molecules that have both oil and water-soluble ends.
  • They can be made from petrochemicals, fats, and oils.
  • CH3(CH2)11NH3+Cl- (Dodecylamine Hydrochloride) and CH3(CH2)15N(CH3)3+Br- (Hexadecyltrimethylammonium bromide) are cationic synthetic detergents.
  • CH3(CH2)11OSO3-Na+ (sodium dodecyl sulfate) and CH3(CH2)11C6H4SO3-Na+ (sodium dodecylbenzenesulfonate) are anionic synthetic detergents.
  • Synthetic detergent molecules, like soap molecules, generally consist of a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail.
  • The hydrophobic, long hydrocarbon chain tail of the detergent molecule is attracted to particles of oil or grease by dispersion forces (London forces or Weak Intermolecular Forces).
  • The hydrophilic, charged, or polar head of the detergent molecule is attracted to water molecules.
  • ​ hydrocarbon tails. They come under the category of Polyoxyethylene.

Question 62

Which one of the following is an example of a clean fuel?

  1. AOption (a)

    Coke

  2. BOption (b)

    Propane

  3. COption (c)

    Petrol

  4. DOption (d)

    Wax

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Propane

Why this answer is correct

Propane is an example of a clean fuel.

Key Points

  • Propane is similar to Liquified Petroleum Gas, but the latter has some other traces of gases like Butane, Isobutane, and natural gas liquids.
  • Coke releases a lot of unburnt particles.
  • Petrol and Wax are not clean fuel as they release a lot of harmful gases including SOx and NOx.

Question 63

Which one of the following metals does NOT react with cold water?

  1. AOption (a)

    Calcium (Ca)

  2. BOption (b)

    Potassium (K)

  3. COption (c)

    Magnesium (Mg)

  4. DOption (d)

    Sodium (Na)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Magnesium (Mg)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Magnesium (Mg).

  • Magnesium is unreactive and unresponsive to cold water.

Key Points

  • The reaction of metals with cold or hot water depends on the reactivity of the metals.
  • Reactive metals like sodium, potassium, calcium, etc. react with cold or hot water.
  • Moderately reactive metals like magnesium react with hot water.
  • Less reactive metals do not react with cold or hot water but react with steam.
  • Least reactive metals like gold, silver, etc. do not react at all.​

Important Points

  • As the reactivity decreases in the order Potassium (K) > Sodium (Na) > Calcium (Ca) > Magnesium (Mg).
  • So, the tendency to react with cold water decreases and that's why magnesium does not react with cold water but reacts slowly with hot water and vigorously with steam

Question 64

In which of the following pairs are the ions isoelectronic?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mg2+, Ar

  2. BOption (b)

    Na+, O2-

  3. COption (c)

    Al3+, Cl-

  4. DOption (d)

    K+, Ne

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Na+, O2-

Why this answer is correct

Isoelectronic refers to two ions or molecules having the same electronic structure and the same number of valence electrons.

  • Electronic configuration of Na+ ion = 2,8
  • Electronic Configuration of O- ion = 2,7
  • The electronic configuration of O2–ion is 2,8
  • Thus, since both of them have 10 electrons, they have filled the K and L shells.
  • Sp, Na+, and O2- are isoelectronic.
  • Two or more molecular entities are described as isoelectronic if they have the same structure and the same number of valence electrons.
  • This means that the connectivity and the number of atoms are the same, but the elements involved may differ.

Question 65

Which one of the following is used as a binder in paints?

  1. AOption (a)

    Titanium dioxide

  2. BOption (b)

    Novolac

  3. COption (c)

    Phthalocyanine

  4. DOption (d)

    Silicones

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Silicones

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Silicones.

  • Silicones is used as a binder in paints.

Key Points

  • Silicones are polymers that are also known by the name polysiloxanes.
  • These are the polymers that involve any inert, synthetic compound made up of iterative units of siloxane.
  • It is a chain of alternating oxygen and silicon atoms that are frequently combined with hydrogen and carbon.
  • Properties of Silicones:
  • Silicones have low thermal conductivity and chemical reactivity.
  • Their toxicity is also low.
  • It can repel water and form watertight seals. Has high resistance to oxygen, ozone, and ultraviolet (UV) light.
  • Has both electrically insulative and conductive properties.
  • High gas permeability and high thermal stability Superior solvents for organic compounds.

Important Points

  • Applications of Silicones:
  • ​Silicones can acquire many forms from liquids to solids that allow engineers, inventors, and companies to use them as a key component in various industrial applications.
  • It is their versatile quality that makes silicones an essential ingredient in products that make our lives better, whether as rubbers, fluids, resins, silicone gels, or silicon glue.
  • Silicones can be found in a different number of applications starting from computers and engineered spacecraft, shampoo to baking moulds.
  • Silicones can also be consumed in renewable energy starting from wind turbines to solar panels rely on silicone technology.
  • Silicones are used extensively as a construction material for erecting commercial and residential buildings.
  • They are said to prevent damage from moisture and bacteria build-up​

Additional Information

  • Titanium dioxide is a white pigment in paints.
  • A micrometre sized titanium dioxide causes white coloring.
  • Phthalocyanine is a type of pigment too.
  • Novolac are used as replacements for natural resins and have industrial applications.

Question 66

Which one of the following is NOT true in reference to Air mass?

  1. AOption (a)

    Air mass forms either in tropical or in polar region

  2. BOption (b)

    Air mass develops on continents as well as over ocean

  3. COption (c)

    Air mass develops in a cyclonic condition

  4. DOption (d)

    Air mass changes the weather conditions

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Air mass develops in a cyclonic condition

Why this answer is correct

Air mass can be formed in polar, as well as tropical regions.

  • Air masses forming near the tropical regions or near the equator are warmer than those formed near the poles.
  • They do not develop in a cyclonic condition.
  • Generally, there are four types of air masses - Continental, Tropical, Maritime, Polar.
  • Maritime air masses have high humidity which takes moisture from the ocean and results in heavy rainfall.
  • Continental air masses form over large landmasses and are dry

Question 67

National Water Academy, a centre of excellence in training and capacity building in water resource, is located at

  1. AOption (a)

    New Delhi

  2. BOption (b)

    Kolkata

  3. COption (c)

    Pune

  4. DOption (d)

    Chennai

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Pune

Why this answer is correct

National Water Academy is located in Pune.

Key Points

  • It was earlier named as the Central Training Unit, and was set up under the Central Water Commission in 1988.
  • It was set up to impart training to the in-service engineers from various state and central organizations.
  • The United States Agency for International Development (USAID), an autonomous independent agency of the United States, provided assistance to the academy, which was further supported by the World Bank under Hydrology Project I.
  • Now, it functions under the Ministry of Water Resources.

Question 68

“Campos” and “Llanos”, Tropical Savanna grasslands are generally found in

  1. AOption (a)

    Australia

  2. BOption (b)

    Central Africa

  3. COption (c)

    South America

  4. DOption (d)

    East Asia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

South America

Why this answer is correct

Campos and Llanos the extensive grasslands located in Eastern part of South America.

  • These are spread across many countries like Argentina, Uruguay, and southern Brazil.
  • Important grasslands in the world are as follows -
  • Steppe - Europe and North Asia
  • Pustaz - Hungary
  • Prairies - USA
  • Pampas - Argentina
  • Veld - South Africa
  • Downs - Australia
  • Canterbury - New Zealand
  • Savannah - Africa and Australia
  • Taiga - Europe and Asia
  • Selvas - South America

Question 69

“Viticulture” is a common feature of which one of the following Australian cities?

  1. AOption (a)

    Adelaide

  2. BOption (b)

    Darwin

  3. COption (c)

    Hobart

  4. DOption (d)

    Brisbane

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Adelaide

Why this answer is correct

Adelaide, a South Australia’s capital city, is famous for Viticulture.

  • The altitude and climate of Adelaide Hills are suitable for the cultivation of grapes and production of wine.
  • Viticulture is a branch of horticulture dealing with Grape cultivation and Wine Making.
  • Suitable conditions for Viticulture - Light Sunshine, 65-70 cm of average rainfall throughout the year, frost free season, Properly aerated soil.

Question 70

“Shamal” warm and dry wind is a “Local” wind found in

  1. AOption (a)

    East Asia

  2. BOption (b)

    West Coast of Africa

  3. COption (c)

    Sahara of Africa

  4. DOption (d)

    Mesopotamia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mesopotamia

Why this answer is correct

Shamal is a northwesterly wind that blows in the Mesopotamian region over Iraq, Persian Gulf, including Kuwait and Saudi Arabia.

  • The winds are strong during the day but get weaker during the night.
  • Results in sandstorms in the Iraq region, with sand picked up from Jordan and Syria.
  • Local Wind in East Asia is named Buran.
  • Local Wind in the West Coast of Africa is Alize Maritime.
  • Local Wind in Sahara is Kalima.

Question 71

“Inversion of Rainfall” is associated with

  1. AOption (a)

    Orographic rainfall

  2. BOption (b)

    Convectional rainfall

  3. COption (c)

    Cyclonic rainfall (Tropical)

  4. DOption (d)

    Cyclonic rainfall (Temperate)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Orographic rainfall

Why this answer is correct

The orographic rainfall involves the ascent of air that is forced by the mountain barrier.

Key Points

  • The mountain barrier should be across the wind direction.
  • After the air rises and cools down, orographic clouds are formed and they serve as a source of precipitation.
  • The leeward side of the mountain range is deprived of heavy rainfall.
  • Inversion of Rainfall is associated with Orographic Rainfall.
  • Convectional Rainfall is associated with thunderstorms and lighting, with heavy rainfall but for a shorter period of time.

Question 72

Who was the author of the book ‘History of British India’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Charles Grant

  2. BOption (b)

    John Stuart Mill

  3. COption (c)

    James Mill

  4. DOption (d)

    William Jones

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

James Mill

Why this answer is correct

James Mill is the author of the book ‘History of British India’.

  • The History of British India is a book on Indian History, Religion, culture, Arts, Character, and Laws in India.
  • He covered the attacks on India within a wider theoretical framework.
  • Charles Grant is British championed the Christian missionaries cause in India.
  • John Stuart Mill was a 19th century philosopher.
  • William Jones was an English Orientalist and jurist who founded the Asiatic Society of Bengal.

Question 73

The Azamgarh Proclamation of August 25, 1857 stressed on which one of the following issues?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hindu-Muslim divide

  2. BOption (b)

    Support to the English Government

  3. COption (c)

    The return of the Badshahi

  4. DOption (d)

    The imposition of heavy Jumas (revenue demand)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Hindu-Muslim divide

Why this answer is correct

Azamgarh Proclamation of August 25, 1857, was issued in the name of the Hindu-Muslim divide.

  • The proclamation had denouncements of the tyranny and oppression of the English people.

  • Besides, it also had a form of manifesto which sought to win the support of the influential quarters.

  • It had various promises, including zamindari rights, attractive pay for soldiers, and “gratis” or the use of government vessels of the tradesmen in India.

  • While the proclamation also talked about Hindu Muslims, it called for their unity against the Christian Missionaries who had arrived in India to convert the people from their religion.

  • Hence, Option 3 is the most appropriate answer.

  • The proclamation focused on Hindu-Muslim unity, but the question has been asked differently by UPSC. However, the facts remain the same.

Question 74

Which Viceroy had made the observation, “It's a beautiful world if it wasn’t for Gandhi …”?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lord Irwin

  2. BOption (b)

    Lord Wavell

  3. COption (c)

    Lord Mountbatten

  4. DOption (d)

    Lord Willingdon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Lord Willingdon

Why this answer is correct

Lord Willingdon, in his letter of 1933 said ‘it’s a beautiful world if it wasn’t for Gandhi’.

Key Points

  • Lord Willingdon (1931 to 1936) brutally suppressed the Civil Disobedience Movement after the second Round Table Conference.
  • His period also saw the Third Round Table Conference, relaunch of the Civil Disobedience, Communal Award, Poona Pact, Separation of Burma from India, and Government of India Act 1935.
  • He was preceded by Lord Irwin and succeeded by Lord Linlithgow.

Question 75

Which Indian businessman favoured ‘healthy capitalism’ in helping Gandhiji to work towards a ‘common object’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ghanshyam Das Birla

  2. BOption (b)

    Ambalal Sarabhai

  3. COption (c)

    Sir Biren Mookerjee

  4. DOption (d)

    T. T. K. Krishnamachari

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ghanshyam Das Birla

Why this answer is correct

Ghanshyam Das Birla wanted to support only those Congressmen and Swarajists, who didn’t favor communism or socialism.

Key Points

  • On 3rd August 1934, Birla wrote to Thakurdas, “Vallabhbhai, Rajaji and Rajendra Babu are all fighting against Communism and Socialism. It is therefore necessary that some of us who represent healthy capitalism should help Gandhiji as far as possible and work with a common object’.
  • Foremost Congress leader who had socialistic and communist leaning was Nehru, and he was in jail at that time.

Question 76

The art piece “In Memoriam” was a creation of which one of the following European painters?

  1. AOption (a)

    Thomas Jones Barker

  2. BOption (b)

    Joseph Noel Paton

  3. COption (c)

    Thomas Daniell

  4. DOption (d)

    Charles D’Oyly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Joseph Noel Paton

Why this answer is correct

In Memoriam is a creation of Sir Joseph Noel Paton from 1858, an oil on canvas.

The painting is an illustration of British Women/children attacking in the 1857 sepoy mutiny.

  • Paton’s famous painting was dedicated to the heroism shown by British women during the Sepoy Mutiny in 1857.
  • Thomas Jones Barker is famous for Relief of Lucknow, currently kept in the National Portrait Gallery, London.
  • Thomas Daniell is famous for The Rope Bridge at Serinagur.
  • Charles D ’Oyly has an extensive gallery named View of Calcutta and Environs, 1848.

Question 77

Which one of the following can charge an insulator?

  1. AOption (a)

    Current electricity

  2. BOption (b)

    Static electricity

  3. COption (c)

    Magnetic field

  4. DOption (d)

    Gravitational field

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Static electricity

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Concept:

  • Insulators are made up of materials that lack conduction of electricity or heat (either it’s made from a type of material which are considered to be a bad conductor of heat and electricity )
  • Even if an excess charge is added to an insulating material, it cannot move, remaining indefinitely in place.
  • And materials like amber, fur, glass, plastic, wool are examples of Insulators and as we know static electricity effects such kind of materials.

Explanation:

  • Electrical charge is one of the fundamental property of matter, hence proton is considered to be (+1) and electron as (-1).
  • When two objects rubbed with each other to create Static electricity, it means potential difference is generated because one object gives up electron and becomes more positive charge and other negative charge and cause a disproportion between positive charges and negative in an object.
  • These charges can build up on the surface of an object until they find a way to be released or get discharged.
  • One way to discharge them is through making them in contact with each other.
  • Thus when an insulator is rubbed static electricity is generated and charge it.

Question 78

At 20°C, the speed of sound in water is approximately

  1. AOption (a)

    330 m/s

  2. BOption (b)

    800 m/s

  3. COption (c)

    1500 m/s

  4. DOption (d)

    5000 m/s

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1500 m/s

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Some specific speed of sounds at room temperature can be given as

  • The speed of sound in air at room temperature will be approximately 330 m/s
  • The speed of sound in water at room temperature will be approximately 1500 m/s
  • Speed of sound at all temperature will always be around this range only

Explanation:

These is the following examples of the speed of sound in different material

speed of sound in different media at 25° C
statesubstanceSpeed m/s
SolidAluminum6420
nickel6040
steel5960
iron5950
brass4700
glass(flint)3980
Liquidwater (Sea)1531
water (distilled)1498
Ethanol1207
Methanol1103
GasesHydrogen1284
helium965
air349
Oxygen316

Question 79

Which one of the following could be the melting point of iron?

  1. AOption (a)

    25 ° C

  2. BOption (b)

    37° C

  3. COption (c)

    500° C

  4. DOption (d)

    1500° C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1500° C

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Iron is a chemical element with symbol Fe and atomic number 26.

It is a metal in the first transition series. It is by mass the most common element on Earth, forming much of Earth's outer and inner core.

Irons melting point is 1540 degrees Celsius.

Explanation:

From the above explanation, we can see that the melting point of iron is approximately around 1500° C

Question 80

Let us consider a copper wire having radius r and length l. Let its resistance be R. If the radius of another copper wire is 2r and the length is l/2 then the resistance of this wire will be

  1. AOption (a)

    R

  2. BOption (b)

    2R

  3. COption (c)

    R/4

  4. DOption (d)

    R/8

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

R/8

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Electrical Resistance of a wire can be defined as a property of a material to oppose the flow of current passing through a conductor.

The resistance of a wire is given as 

R=ρlAR = \frac{{\rho l}}{A}

ρ  = resistivity of the material, 

l = is the length and  

A = area of cross-section. 

Explanation:

As seen the resistance varies inversely to an area of cross-section and directly proportional to its length here ρ is constant known as the resistivity of the material.

Using this we can say that since material remains the same resistivity (ρ) is the same and the ratio of both the resistance can be given as below

Given:

R1 = R,

l1 = l and l2 = l/2

r1 = r and r2 = 2r

R1R2=ρl1A1ρl2A2=l1A2l2A1\frac{{{R_1}}}{{{R_2}}} = \frac{{\frac{{\rho {l_1}}}{{{A_1}}}}}{{\frac{{\rho {l_2}}}{{{A_2}}}}} = \frac{{{l_1}{A_2}}}{{{l_2}{A_1}}}

R1R2=l×π×4r2l2×π×r2=8;\frac{{{R_1}}}{{{R_2}}} = \frac{{l \times \pi \times 4{r^2}}}{{\frac{l}{2} \times \pi \times {r^2}}} = 8;

Hence R2 = R/8

Question 81

Basic scientific principle behind a nuclear reactor is

  1. AOption (a)

    Nuclear fusion

  2. BOption (b)

    Controlled nuclear fusion

  3. COption (c)

    Uncontrolled nuclear fission

  4. DOption (d)

    Controlled nuclear fission

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Controlled nuclear fission

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • On earth, till now we are only able to create fission by bombarding fast neutron on unstable or heavy atoms like uranium, plutonium, and thorium which radiates the huge amount of energy, this property is performed in a controlled manner is used by us in our nuclear reactor, although we are trying to produce fusion reactors but till date, it not cost-effective and not effective.

Explanation:

  • In modern physics, a nuclear reaction can be classified into two types
  • Nuclear fusion is a reaction in which two or more atomic nuclei come close enough to form one or more different atomic nuclei and subatomic particles (neutrons or protons).

Either

  • Nuclear fusion is the process of forming a heavy nucleus from two lighter nuclei.
  • For example Hydrogen atoms are fused to form Helium
  • Fission reaction or nuclear fission is a process in which the nucleus of a heavy atom (such as uranium, plutonium or thorium) when bombarded with low-energy neutrons and it split apart into lighter nuclei and few neutrons which causes a chain reaction. When this is done, a tremendous amount of energy is released if the mass of the original nucleus is just a little more than the sum of the masses of the individual products.
  • Fission reaction can further be classified into controlled and uncontrolled fission reaction
  • In controlled fission the chain reaction is controlled and only a controlled amount of reaction is allowed, nuclear reactors in nuclear power plants are one of the examples of the controlled fission reaction.
  • And for uncontrolled fission chain reaction is allowed to happen unless fission material is over, nuclear bomb is one of the examples of an uncontrolled fission reaction

Question 82

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct for the given reaction?

Fe(S) + CuSO4(aq) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)

  1. AOption (a)

    Iron is the reducing agent

  2. BOption (b)

    The solution turns green in colour after the reaction

  3. COption (c)

    Copper is a more reactive metal than iron

  4. DOption (d)

    The reaction is an example of a redox reaction

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Copper is a more reactive metal than iron

Why this answer is correct

Copper doesn’t replace iron from its solution.

  • This is because Copper is less reactive than iron.
  • A more reactive metal displaces the less reactive metal from its solution.
  • In the given reaction, Iron (Fe) displaces Copper (Cu) by giving up two electrons and gets oxidized and forms a new compound called ferrous sulfate.
  • Copper gets reduced.
  • Iron is a reducing agent, meaning that it loses 2 electrons.
  • CuSO4 is an oxidizing agent, taking 2 electrons.
  • The final solution turns green on exposure to moist air.
  • The reaction is a redox reaction as it involves both loss and gain of electrons by different elements.

Question 83

Which one of the following is an organic acid?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hydrochloric acid

  2. BOption (b)

    Nitric acid

  3. COption (c)

    Acetic acid

  4. DOption (d)

    Sulphuric acid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Acetic acid

Why this answer is correct

Acetic acid is an organic compound classified as carboxylic acid with the chemical formula CH3COOH.

  • It is the second simplest carboxylic acid (has a carboxyl (-COOH) group present in its chemical structure)
  • Organic Acid examples - Acetic Acid, Lactic Acid, Oxalic Acid, Uric Acid, Malic Acid, Formic Acid.
  • Inorganic acids are compounds which comprise hydrogen and non-metallic elements or their groups, e.g. Hydrochloric acid (HCl), Nitric acid (HNO3), Sulphuric acid (H2SO4) etc

Question 84

Dinitrogen (N2) and dioxygen (O2) are the main constituents of air but they do not react with each other to form oxides of nitrogen because

  1. AOption (a)

    the reaction requires initiation by a catalyst

  2. BOption (b)

    oxides of nitrogen are unstable

  3. COption (c)

    the reaction is endothermic and requires very high temperature

  4. DOption (d)

    the stoichiometry of N2 and O2 in air is not ideal for the reaction to take place

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

the reaction is endothermic and requires very high temperature

Why this answer is correct

The major components of air include Nitrogen, Oxygen, and Water Vapor.

  • Nitrogen - 78.08%
  • Oxygen - 20.95%
  • So, even though dinitrogen and dioxygen are the main constituents of air, they don’t react with each other as the reaction requires a high temperature (around 3000 degree centigrade).
  • Thus, an exothermic reaction in a high temperature would result in oxides of nitrogen being formed.

Question 85

Who among the following has explained the phenomenon of photoelectric effect?

  1. AOption (a)

    Max Planck

  2. BOption (b)

    Albert Einstein

  3. COption (c)

    Neils Bohr

  4. DOption (d)

    Ernest Rutherford

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Albert Einstein

Why this answer is correct

Albert Einstein explained the phenomenon of the Photoelectric Effect.

  • He won the Nobel Prize for the services in Theoretical Physics, with special regard to the discovery of Photoelectric effect.
  • Photoelectric effect is the phenomenon where when photons hit an electron on the metal surface, electrical effect due to release of electrons takes place.
  • Wave-duality effect was discovered due to this very phenomenon.
  • Max Plank discovered Energy Quanta (Nobel Prize in 1918)
  • Neils Bohr - Atomic Structure and Quantum Theory (Nobel Prize in 1922)
  • Ernest Rutherford - First who split the atom (Theory of Atomic Structure, Nobel Prize in 1908)

Question 86

The equivalent weight of oxalic acid in C2H2O4⋅2H2O is

  1. AOption (a)

    45

  2. BOption (b)

    63

  3. COption (c)

    90

  4. DOption (d)

    126

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

63

Why this answer is correct

The equivalent weight of oxalic acid in C2H2O4⋅2H2O is 63.

  • The molecular weight of oxalic acid (C2H204) is 90.
  • But since Oxalic Acid exists with 2 molecules of water, hence molecular weight of Oxalic acid (C2H2O4⋅2H2O) = 126
  • Now, Equivalent weight = Molecular weight/Basicity
  • Therefore, Equivalent Weight = 126/2 = 63 (As 2 is the basicity)
  • Basicity here means Oxalic Acid release 2 H+ ions

Question 87

Which one of the following is NOT a west flowing river?

  1. AOption (a)

    Periyar

  2. BOption (b)

    Bharatpuzha

  3. COption (c)

    Pamba

  4. DOption (d)

    Tamraparni

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Tamraparni

Why this answer is correct

Tamraparni River or Porunai is a perennial river originating in Agastyarkoodam peak, a hill (Pothigai) in Western Ghats.

  • The river flows through various districts in Tamil Nadu and finally drains off in Gulf of Mannar.
  • Hence, it is an East flowing river.
  • Periyar is the second longest river in Kerala which drains off in the Vembanad Lake (West flowing river)
  • Bharathapuzha rises near Annamalai hills. It is also known as Ponnani. It is the longest river in Kerala and drains in the Arabian Sea.
  • Pamba river, Kerala also falls in the Vembanad lake after traversing a course of 177 km.
  • Other West Flowing Rivers - Sabarmati, Mahi, Dhandhar, Kalinadi, Sharavati.
  • East flowing rivers - Subarnarekha, Baitrani, Brahmani, Penner, Palar.

Question 88

Which one of the following rivers was earlier known as “Vitasta”?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tista

  2. BOption (b)

    Jhelum

  3. COption (c)

    Tungabhadra

  4. DOption (d)

    Bharatpuzha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Jhelum

Why this answer is correct

Jhelum is an important tributary of the Indus that rises from a spring at Verinag, situated at the foot of the Pir Panjal in the south-eastern part of the valley of Kashmir.

  • Historically, it was known as ‘Vitasta’ by the ancient Greeks.
  • The river flows through Srinagar and Wular lake and enters Pakistan through a deep narrow gorge.
  • Jhelum joins Chenab near Jhang in Pakistan.
  • Tista is a river in Bangladesh which joins the Brahmaputra on the right bank after which it is called Jamuna.
  • Bharathapuzha rises near Annamalai hills. It is also known as Ponnani. It is the longest river in Kerala and drains in the Arabian Sea.
  • Tungabhadra is a major tributary of the River Krishna and is historically associated with the Vijayanagara Kingdom.

Question 89

River Sarda drains in the Northern Plains of Uttar Pradesh. Before entering in the Plains, Sarda is known as

  1. AOption (a)

    Saraswati

  2. BOption (b)

    Bhagirathi

  3. COption (c)

    Kali

  4. DOption (d)

    Pindar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kali

Why this answer is correct

The Sarda or Saryu river rises in the Milam glacier in the Nepal Himalayas where it is known as the Goriganga.

  • Along the Indo-Nepal border, it is called Kali or Chauk, where it joins the Ghaghara.
  • Sarda is known as Kali or Kali Ganga when it joins the Ghaghara river in the Uttar Pradesh plains.
  • After this, it finally meets the Ganga at Chhapra, Bihar.
  • Ghagra originates in the glaciers of Mapchachungo and its tributaries include Tila, Seti, and Beri.
  • Pindar is a tributary of the Alaknanda joining it at Karnaprayag.
  • Mandakakini/Kali Ganga joins Alaknanda at RudraPrayag.
  • Bhagirathi meets Alaknanda at DevPrayag.

Question 90

“Mission Indradhanush” is related to

  1. AOption (a)

    Bullet train project

  2. BOption (b)

    Agriculture development

  3. COption (c)

    Women empowerment

  4. DOption (d)

    Full immunization

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Full immunization

Why this answer is correct

Mission Indradhanush was started in December 2014 with the aim of strengthening and re-energizing the programme and achieving full immunization coverage for children and pregnant women at a rapid pace by 2020.

  • Ultimate goal is focussed on children up to two years of age and pregnant women.
  • 201 high focus districts have been identified for the same.
  • Further, an advanced version of the program called Intensified Mission Indradhanush was started by PM Modi in October 2017.

Question 91

Which of the following is/are environmental effects of Rotation of the Earth?

  1. Daily or diurnal rhythm in day-light and air temperature
  2. Flow path of both air and water are turned consistently in a side-ward direction
  3. The movement of the tides

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

All the statements are correct.

  • Movement of the tides are caused majorly by the Moon’s gravitational pull and to a lesser extent due to the sun’s gravitational pull.
  • But according to Alan Strahler & Arthur Strahler’s book on Physical Geography (which seems to be the source UPSC picked for this question), Tides are also an environmental effect of Rotation of Earth.
  • Hence, the third statement is correct.
  • Rotation of Earth leads to change in the location of the earth surface towards and away from the Sun. Thus, the change in rate of solar insolation and hence the change in air temperature and diurnal rhythm in day-light. Hence, the first statement is correct.
  • A third natural effect is the flow path of both air and water are turned consistently in a side-ward direction.
  • The flow in the northern hemisphere changes/moves towards the right and the flow in the Southern Hemisphere moves/changes towards the left, called the coriolis effect.
  • Hence, the second statement is correct.

Question 92

Who among the following historians have described the Quit India movement as a ‘spontaneous revolution’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Gordon Johnson

  2. BOption (b)

    David Arnold

  3. COption (c)

    F G Hutchins

  4. DOption (d)

    Peter Robb

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

F G Hutchins

Why this answer is correct

F G Hutchins described Gandhi’s Quit India Movement as a ‘spontaneous revolution’

  • Hutchins described the Quit Indian Movement as the event that was responsible for the British Political Parties to resign and leave quickly.
  • While the movement started as a non-violent mass struggle, it was nowhere non-violent.
  • Major leaders were sent to jail as a result and the movement was virtually leaderless.
  • But the impact was a result of the mass based struggle.
  • The following 3 (three) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below:

Question 93

Statement I: Abul Fazl shaped, represented and articulated the ideas associated with the reign of Akbar

Statement II: The qualities of Abul Fazl impressed Akbar who found the former suitable as an adviser and spokesperson for his policies

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement 

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement 

Why this answer is correct

Abul Fazl was a political advisor and high ranked official in the Akbar administration.

  • Abul Fazl helped Akbar with the framing of vision of governance with Sulh-i-kul.
  • It was about peaceful and harmonious relationships among the different religions in his administration.
  • Abul Fazl also wrote a three-volume history of Akbar’s reign, titled Akbar Nama.
  • First volume deals with Akbar’s ancestry.
  • Second volume recorded events from Akbar’s reign.
  • Third volume is the Ain-i Akbari
  • It deals with Akbar’s administration, including rich statistics on crop diversity, wages, revenue, prices.
  • Hence, both statements are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

Question 94

Statement I: The Kisan manifesto adopted by the All India Kisan Sabha in August 1936 contained radical demands

Statement II: The All India Kisan Sabha was a part of the Congress and maintained close relationship with the Provincial Congress Committees

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

  • After the Meerut Conference held in January 1936, some leftist politicians and Congress Socialist Party leaders met to discuss the horrible situation of the peasantry.
  • They decided to form an organizing committee with Jayprakash Narayan and N.G. Ranga as the convener to All India Kisan Congress.
  • The Kisan Manifesto, released in August 1936, demanded the abolition of the zamindari system and the cancellation of rural debts. Hence statement I is true.
  • In October 1937 it adopted the red flag as its banner.
  • Further, it was due to the presence of leaders from the Congress Socialist Party that the AIKS remained a part of the Congress and maintained a close relationship with the provincial Congress Committee (From Plassey to Partition). Hence, statement II is true.
  • ​Soon, its leaders became increasingly distant from Congress and repeatedly came into confrontation with Congress governments, in Bihar and United Province.

Therefore, both the statements are individually true and Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I.

Question 95

Statement I: The British ruled India through a modern bureaucracy headed by the Indian Civil Service, whose members were recruited through merit based on open competition

Statement II: The Indian Civil Service was based on the wholehearted participation of Indians

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

Key Points

  • It was only after the Charter Act of 1853 was passed, that an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants.
  • The covenanted civil service was thus thrown open to the Indians also. Hence, a statement I is correct.
  • Accordingly, the Macaulay Committee (the Committee on the Indian Civil Service) was appointed in 1854.
  • Satyendranath Tagore, became the first Indian to qualify the ICS in 1863, 10 years after the open competition was started.
  • Till 1871, only 4 Indians had joined the services. Hence, statement II is false.

 

 

Additional Information

  • Charter Act of 1853
  • As per this act, a separate Governor for Bengal was to be appointed.
  • The recruitment of the Company’s employees was to be done through competitive exams.
  • British Parliament was empowered to put the Company’s governance of India to an end at any suitable time.
  • It introduced the local representation in the Indian (Central) Legislate Council.

Question 96

Two metallic wires A and B are made using copper. The radius of wire A is r while its length is l. A dc voltage V is applied across the wire A, causing power dissipation, P. The radius of wire B is 2r and its length is 2l and the same dc voltage V is applied across it causing power disspation P1. Which one of the following is the correct relationship between P and P1?

  1. AOption (a)

    P = 2P1

  2. BOption (b)

    P = P1/2

  3. COption (c)

    P = 4P1

  4. DOption (d)

    P = P1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

P = P1/2

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

When current passes through a resistance voltage drop across it dissipates electrical power.

This electrical power is converted into heat energy hence all resistors have a power rating.

Electrical power can be expressed by,

P = V × I =I2 × R

Where

electrical power disspation = p

current through wire = I

voltage drop across wire = V

internal resistance of wire = R

Explanation:

Given:

Length of wire A (l) = l

Length of wire B (l1) = 2l

radius of wire A (R) = r and radius of wire B (R1) = 2r

The voltage drop across both wire A and B are constant.

Power dissipation because of the internal resistance of a metallic wire can be given as

P=VI=V2R;;;;;;;;V=IRP = VI = \frac{{{V^2}}}{R};;;;;;;;V = IR

PP1=V2RV2R1=R1R\frac{{{P}}}{{{P_1}}} = \frac{{\frac{{{V^2}}}{{{R}}}}}{{\frac{{{V^2}}}{{{R_1}}}}} = \frac{{{R_1}}}{{{R}}}

As mentioned, the voltage applied across both the wire is the same.

Also, the resistance of a wire can be given as ;R=ρlA;R = \frac{{\rho l}}{A} , 

hence the equation for power dissipation will be  

PP1=ρlAρ1l1A1\frac{P}{P_1}=\frac{\frac{\rho l}{A}}{\frac{\rho_1 l_1}{A_1}}

P1P=A1ρ1l1×ρlA\frac{P_1}{P}= \frac{A_1}{\rho_1l_1} \times \frac{\rho l}{A}

P1P=lA1l1A\frac{P_1}{P}=\frac{ lA_1}{l_1A}

P1P=l×πr12l1×πr2\frac{P_1}{P}=\frac{ l \times \pi r_1^2}{l_1 \times \pi r^2}

P1P=l×4r22l×r2\frac{P_1}{P}=\frac{ l \times 4r^2}{2l \times r^2}

P1P=2\frac{P_1}{P}=2

P=P12P=\frac{P_1}{2}

Question 97

Consider the following statements about a solenoid:

  1. The magnetic field strength in a solenoid depends upon the number of turns per unit length in the solenoid
  2. The magnetic field strength in a solenoid depends upon the current flowing in the wire of the solenoid
  3. The magnetic field strength in a solenoid depends upon the diameter of the solenoid

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 2 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • A solenoid is an instrument consists of copper coiling over a cylinder designed to create a strong magnetic field inside the coil because of the flow of current through the coil.
  • By wrapping the same wire many times around a cylinder, the magnetic field due to the flow of current can become quite strong.
  • Hence we can say that the strength of the magnetic field will change as a current through coil or number of turn’s changes.
  • Magnetic field strength is independent of the diameter of the cylinder of a solenoid.
  • Strength of the magnetic field in a solenoid will be directly proportional to the number of turns and amount of current flowing through a wire and will be inversely proportional to its length

Thus It can be given as, B=μ0NILB = \frac{{{\mu _0}NI}}{L}

where, B is Magnetic field strength, N is Number of turns, I is the Current, L is Length of solenoid, and μ0 is Permeability of air

Question 98

A light year is a unit of measurement of

  1. AOption (a)

    very large distances

  2. BOption (b)

    time interval in years

  3. COption (c)

    amount of light received on earth in a year

  4. DOption (d)

    mass of atoms

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

very large distances

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

A light-year is an astronomical unit used to measure the distances between celestial bodies, it’s a unit used to measure the large distance between planets or stars.

Explanation:

  • 1 light-year is equal to 9.467 × 1015 m.

since speed of light = 3×108 m/s

  • Distance covered by light in year

 = 3×108 m/s × 60 sec × 60 min × 24 hours × 365 days

 = 9.467 × 1015 m.

  • A unit of length used to describe astronomical distances is the light-year.
  • The distance that light travels in a vacuum in one Julian year (365,25 days) is a light-year.
  • The light-year unit appeared in 1838 by Friedrich Bessel after the first accurate calculation of the distance to a star other than the Sun.
  • In a star system, distances between objects tend to be small fractions of a light-year, and are typically represented within astronomical units

Question 99

The focal length of the objective lens of a telescope is 50 cm. If the magnification of the telescope is 25, then the focal length of the eye-piece is

  1. AOption (a)

    12.5 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    5 cm

  3. COption (c)

    2 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    10 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2 cm

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Telescope: A telescope is an optical device that enables us to see distant objects clearly. It provides an angular magnification of distant objects.
  • Magnification of a telescope is given by

M=∣fofe∣M = \left| {\frac{{{f_o}}}{{{f_e}}}} \right|

Where

fo = focal length of the objective lens

fe = focal length of the eyepiece lens

CALCULATION:

Given that

magnification of the telescope (M) = 25

Focal length of objective (fo) = 50 cm

M=fofeM = \frac{{{f_o}}}{{{f_e}}}

⇒fe=foM=5025=2;cm \Rightarrow {f_e} = \frac{{{f_o}}}{M} = \frac{{50}}{{25}} = 2;cm

Question 100

Which one of the following forces is non-central and non-conservative?

  1. AOption (a)

    Frictional force

  2. BOption (b)

    Electric force

  3. COption (c)

    Gravitational force

  4. DOption (d)

    Mechanical force

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Frictional force

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Conservative force: 

  • A force is conservative if the work done by the force in displacing an object from one point to another point is independent of the path followed by the object and depends only on the endpoints.
  • Electrostatic forces, gravitational forces, elastic forces, magnetic forces, etc and are the examples of a conservative force.

Non-conservative forces: 

  • A force is said to be non-conservative if work done by or against the force in moving a body from one position to another, depends on the path followed between these two positions.
  • Example:  Frictional force, Viscous force, Airdrag, etc.

Central force:

  • A central force is a force that points from the particle directly towards (or directly away from) a fixed point in space, the center, and whose magnitude only depends on the distance of the object to the center.

EXPLANATION:

  • If a body is moved from position A to another position B on a rough table, work done against frictional force shall depend on the length of the path between A and B and not only on the position A and B. Therefore frictional force is non-conservative force and non - central force.
  • Gravitational force is a type of conservative force because the work done to move an object to and away in the gravitational field is independent of the path taken.
  • Gravitational force does not depend on the intervening medium between the objects.
  • Gravitational force is a  central force i.e., it acts along the line joining the centres of the two bodies.

Question 101

On exposure to moist air, copper gains a green coat on its surface due to formation of which one of the following compound?

  1. AOption (a)

    Copper carbonate 

  2. BOption (b)

    Copper oxide 

  3. COption (c)

    Copper sulphate 

  4. DOption (d)

    Copper nitrate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Copper carbonate 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Copper carbonate.

Key Points

  • Copper metal when exposed to air turns green in color due to corrosion.
  • When the copper vessel is exposed to air in the rainy season, the metal reacts with gases and moisture and atmospheric gases to form a mixture of copper carbonate and copper hydroxide.
  • This gives a green color to the surface of copper metal.

The reaction is:

2Cu + H2O + CO2 + O2 →  Cu(OH)2  +  CuCO3

Question 102

Which one of the following will NOT produce carbon dioxide on reacting with an aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid?

  1. AOption (a)

    Limestone

  2. BOption (b)

    Quick Lime

  3. COption (c)

    Chalk

  4. DOption (d)

    Marble

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Quick Lime

Why this answer is correct

Quicklime reacts with aqueous solution of Hydrochloric Acid gives Calcium Chloride and water.

  • However, carbon dioxide is not released.
  • The reaction is an example of an exothermic reaction which doesn’t release Carbon dioxide.
  • Marble, Limestone and Chalk are all types of Calcium Carbonate which when reacted with Hydrochloric acid release Carbon dioxide.
  • CaO+dil. 2HCl→CaCl2+H2O

Question 103

Which one of the following substances is NOT a mixture?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ice

  2. BOption (b)

    Ice-cream

  3. COption (c)

    Air

  4. DOption (d)

    Honey

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ice

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ice.

Key Points

  • Mixture: A mixture contains particles of two or more pure substances which may be present in it in any ratio. Hence, their composition is variable.
  • For example, sugar solutions in water, air, tea, etc., are all mixtures. A mixture may be homogeneous or heterogeneous.
  • Compound: When two or more atoms of different elements combine together in a definite ratio, the molecule of a compound is obtained.
  • Ice is the solid state of water and since water is a compound of hydrogen and oxygen, hence ice is a compound.
  • Air is a mixture of various gases, including impurities and suspended particles.
  • Ice cream is a mixture of various compounds.
  • Honey is a homogenous mixture of different types of sugar compounds.

Question 104

Which one of the following is an example of Salt-Crystal growth?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chemical weathering

  2. BOption (b)

    Physical weathering

  3. COption (c)

    Biological weathering

  4. DOption (d)

    Bio-chemical weathering

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Physical weathering

Why this answer is correct

Salt-crystal growth, abrasion, temperature change, frost action, are all examples of Physical weathering.

  • Salt crystal growth can also result in the breaking of rock materials.
  • Crystal growth takes place when the groundwater seeps into the empty pores of rocks through capillary action.
  • Evaporating water leads to accumulation and growth of salt crystals that puts pressure on the rock resulting in the rock breaking apart.
  • Crystal growth is common in places with drier climate.
  • Chemical weathering is when release of chemicals result in disintegration of a rock.
  • Biological weathering involves the disintegration of rocks by microbes, plants, and animals.

Question 105

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of proved coal reserves in the Indian States in decreasing order?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, West Bengal

  2. BOption (b)

    Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal

  3. COption (c)

    Odisha, West Bengal, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh

  4. DOption (d)

    Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, Jharkhand

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal

Why this answer is correct

India has one of the highest reserves of coals, ranked 5th in the whole world.

Coal deposits are found mainly in the Eastern and South-Eastern part of the country.

Jharkhand, Orissa, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh, Telangana and Maharashtra

accounted for 98.26% of the total known coal reserves in India.

According to the Ministry of Coal, following is the distribution of Coal statewise in India

  • Jharkhand - 83152 million tonnes
  • Odisha - 79295 million tonnes
  • Chattisgarh - 57206 million tonnes
  • West Bengal - 31667 million tonnes
  • Madhya Pradesh - 27987 million tonnes
  • Telangana - 21702 million tonnes

Question 106

Consider the following statements relating to Richter scale:

  1. It was devised in 1935 by Charles F. Richter
  2. It describes the quantity of energy released by a single earthquake
  3. Richter Scale has no upper limit

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The Richter Scale records the magnitude of an earthquake.

  • It was developed by Charles F. Richter in 1935.
  • It describes the quantity of energy that gets released by a single earthquake.
  • Theoretically, the richter scale has no upper limit.
  • However, in practice, no earthquake registers a magnitude over 8.6.

Question 107

Which one of the following ocean currents is NOT a cold ocean current?

  1. AOption (a)

    Canary current

  2. BOption (b)

    California curren

  3. COption (c)

    Kuroshio current

  4. DOption (d)

    Oyashio current

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kuroshio current

Why this answer is correct

Kuroshio Current is a warm current, also called the Pacific/Japan current, a warm northeasterly coastal current off the coast of Japan.

  • Canary Current is a cold current that is a part of the North Atlantic Gyre. Along the margin of West Africa, Portugal, Spain.
  • California current is a Pacific Ocean cold current moving Southwards along the United States coast.
  • Oyashio current is a cold current which collides with the Kuroshio current off the Eastern shore of Japan and is an ideal location for fishing.

Question 108

What is the time gap in occurrence of two successive tides at a given place on the ocean surface?

  1. AOption (a)

    12 hours

  2. BOption (b)

    12 hours 26 minutes

  3. COption (c)

    24 hours

  4. DOption (d)

    24 hours 52 minutes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

12 hours 26 minutes

Why this answer is correct

The time gap between two successive occurrences of tides at a given place on the ocean surface is 12 hours 26 minutes.

  • Unlike the solar day with 24 hours, lunar day is 24 hours and 50 minutes long.
  • This is because on that day, the direction of the moon's revolution around the Earth and Earth’s rotation around its axis is the same.
  • So, it takes around 50 mins for Earth to match the speed with the Moon.
  • Earth rotates through two tidal ‘bulges’ every lunar day.
  • Coastal areas experience two high and two low tides every 24 hours and 50 minutes.
  • It takes around 12 hours and 26 minutes between two successive high tides, or two successive low tides.

Question 109

Tooth enamel is made up of which one of the following calcium compounds?

  1. AOption (a)

    Calcium carbonate

  2. BOption (b)

    Calcium sulphate

  3. COption (c)

    Calcium hydroxide

  4. DOption (d)

    Calcium phosphate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Calcium phosphate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Calcium phosphate.

Key Points

  • Enamel is composed of the mineral calcium phosphate that is arranged in a crystal structure.
  • It is called hydroxyapatite.
  • Calcium phosphate is fundamental to the formation of bone and teeth.
  • It is essential for achieving optimal peak bone mass in the first 2–3 decades of life and for the maintenance of bone in later life.

Important Points

  • The chemical substance present in bones and teeth is Calcium Phosphate or Ca3(PO4)2.
  • Bones:-
  • Bones are mostly made of collagen, a type of protein.
  • Calcium phosphate, a mineral, is the other main component of the bones.
  • Collagen gives the bones a soft framework, while calcium phosphate is what makes them hard and strong.
  • Bones are made of living tissues, so old bone tissue is broken down and removed, and then new tissue is created to replace the old.
  • Teeth:-
  • Enamel – the hard, outer layer of your teeth – is made of minerals like calcium phosphate.
  • Enamel is harder than bones. It's the hardest substance in the whole body.
  • However, unlike the bones, the teeth enamel doesn't contain any living tissues and so can't heal on its own.

Additional Information

  • Seashells are composed of Calcium Carbonate.
  • Calcium Sulphate is used to manufacture Plaster of Paris.
  • Calcium Hydroxide has many industrial applications like plaster, mortars, and cement.

Question 110

Suppose there are two planets, 1 and 2, having the same density but their radii are R1 and R2 respectively, where R1 > R2. The accelerations due to gravity on the surface of these planets are related as

  1. AOption (a)

    g1 > g2

  2. BOption (b)

    g1 < g2

  3. COption (c)

    g1 = g2

  4. DOption (d)

    Can’t say anything

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

g1 > g2

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Acceleration due to gravity (g): The force of attraction exerted by the earth on a body is called gravitational pull or gravity. We know that when a force acts on a body, it produces acceleration. Therefore, a body under the effect of gravitational pull must accelerate.
  • Acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth is –

⇒g=GMR2\Rightarrow g = \frac{{GM}}{{{R^2}}}

Where G = Universal gravitational constant, M = mass of the earth, and R = radius of the earth.

  • The relationship between the density of the earth and acceleration due to gravity is given by

⇒g=(4πGR)ρ3\Rightarrow g = \frac{{\left( {4\pi GR} \right)\rho }}{3}

Where ρ = density of the earth

EXPLANATION:

Given – radius of 1st planet = R1, radius of 2nd planet = R2 and R1 > R2

  • The relationship between the density of the earth and acceleration due to gravity is given by

⇒g=(4πGR)ρ3\Rightarrow g = \frac{{\left( {4\pi GR} \right)\rho }}{3}

  • As G, π, and density (ρ) is constant therefore acceleration due to gravity will be directly proportional to the radius of the planet i.e. g ∝ R

⇒ g1 = kR1

⇒g1g2=R1R2 \Rightarrow \frac{{{g_1}}}{{{g_2}}} = \frac{{{R_1}}}{{{R_2}}}

As R1 > R2

∴ g1 > g2

Question 111

The Sun is seen little before it rises and for a short while after it sets. This is because of

  1. AOption (a)

    total internal reflection

  2. BOption (b)

    atmospheric refraction

  3. COption (c)

    apparent shift in the direction of Sun

  4. DOption (d)

    dispersion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

atmospheric refraction

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The bending of the ray of light passing from one medium to the other medium is called the refraction of light.
  • The refraction of light takes place on going from one medium to another because the speed of light is different in the two media.
  • When a ray of light goes from a rarer medium to a denser medium, it bends towards the normal.
  • When a ray of light goes from a denser medium to a rarer medium, it bends away from the normal.

EXPLANATION:

  • The refraction of light through the atmosphere is responsible for many interesting phenomena. For example, the Sun is visible a little before the actual sunrise and until a little after the actual sunset due to refraction of light through the atmosphere.

  • The layers of air nearer to earth are denser than those above it.

  • At sunrise and sunset when the sun is below the horizon, the light rays starting from the sun are incident on these layers.

  • They pass through successively denser layers and thus get bent more and more towards the normal until they fall upon the eye of the observer.

  • To the observer, these rays appear to come from S’ which is above the horizon. It is for this reason that the sun is visible to us a little before it rises above the horizon and so also till a little later it sets below the horizon.

  • The difference in time is about 2 minutes each for an early rise and late setting of the Sun.

  • This phenomenon is also responsible for the twinkling of light as the movements of air and convection currents cause a change in the density of the layers of air.

  • As a result, the position of the image of the star goes on changing after every short interval.

  • These different positions of the images formed at short intervals of time give the impression that the star is twinkling.

​

Question 112

The figure shown above gives the time (t) versus position (x) graphs of three objects A, B and C. Which one of the following is the correct relation between their speeds VA, VB and VC, respectively at any instant (t > 0)?

  1. AOption (a)

    VA < VB < VC

  2. BOption (b)

    VA > VB > VC

  3. COption (c)

    VA = VB = VC ≠ 0

  4. DOption (d)

    VA = VB = VC = 0

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

VA > VB > VC

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Velocity:The rate of change of displacement of a body is called as velocity of that body.
  • It is a vector quantity which has both magnitude as well as direction.

Velocity;(V)=Change;in;displacementTime;taken=S2−S1t2−t1{\rm{Velocity;}}\left( {\rm{V}} \right) = \frac{{Change;in;displacement}}{{Time;taken}} = \frac{{{S_2} - {S_1}}}{{{t_2} - {t_1}}}

Where S2 is final displacement at time t2 and S1 is initial displacement at time t1.

EXPLANATION:

  • We can note from the graph
  • Shallow the steep of distance vs time graph faster the particle's displacement would be
  • Hence A will have the highest speed compared to B and C
  • This general graph represents the motion of a body traveling at a constant velocity.
  • As shown when the graph is linear (that is, a straight line).

 

  • Now according to the linear equation of line y = mx, where m is constant and x is variable
  • In the above graph, we represent it as
  • Time = slope × displacement
  • Hence slope;(m)=1velocity(v)slope;\left( m \right) = \frac{1}{{velocity\left( v \right)}}
  • From this, we can say that shallow the slope higher the velocity and steeper the slope lower will be its velocity
  • ∴ from this, the sequence will be  VA > VB > VC

Question 113

1 dyne (a unit of force in CGS system) equals to

  1. AOption (a)

    103 g cm/s2

  2. BOption (b)

    10-3 g cm/s2

  3. COption (c)

    105 kg m/s2

  4. DOption (d)

    10-5 kg m/s2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

10-5 kg m/s2

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Both Dyne and Newton are units of force in the CGS and S.I system.
  • Newton and dyne can also be written as(1 N = kg-m/s2) and (1 dyne = gm-cm/s2).
<br>

CALCULATION

1 dyne = 1 gm-cm/s2and 1 newton = 1 kg-m/s2

1 kg = 1000 gm.

1 m = 100 cm.

∴ 1 kg-m/s2 = 1000 gm × 100 cm/s2 ⇒ 105 gm-cm/s2 = 105 dyne.

∴ 1 dyne = 10-5 kg-m/s2 ⇒ 10-5 N.

Question 114

In the given velocity (V) versus time (t) graph, accelerated and decelerated motions are respectively represented by line segments

  1. AOption (a)

    CD and BC

  2. BOption (b)

    BC and AB

  3. COption (c)

    CD and AB

  4. DOption (d)

    AB and CD

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

CD and AB

Why this answer is correct

​CONCEPT:

  • The rate of change of velocity is called as acceleration of the body.

a=v2−v1t2−t1a = \frac{{{v_2} - {v_1}}}{{{t_2} - {t_1}}}

Where v2= Final velocity and v1= Initial velocity of an object at time t2,t1{t_2},{t_1} respectively

  • It is a vector quantity because it has both magnitude and direction.

EXPLANATION:

This graph shows three cases when

  1. When the body is moving with constant velocity, there won't be any acceleration and it can be shown as a straight line on the graph as we can see between point BC.
  2. If we get ascending or increasing slope on the graph then, it shows that the object is accelerating also we can see this between point CD.
  3. If we get descending or decreasing slope on the graph, then it shows that the object is decelerating which we can see between point AB.

​

Question 115

Which one of the following statements regarding a thermos flask is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The walls of flask are separated by vacuum and made of glass which is a poor conductor of heat

  2. BOption (b)

    The glass walls themselves have shiny surfaces

  3. COption (c)

    The surface of inner wall radiates a good amount of heat and the surface of the outer wall absorbs some of the heat that is radiated from the inner wall

  4. DOption (d)

    The cork supports are poor conductors of heat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The surface of inner wall radiates a good amount of heat and the surface of the outer wall absorbs some of the heat that is radiated from the inner wall

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • A thermos flask is an instrument that keeps hot liquids hot and cold liquids cold for long hours.
  • So it’s an ideal example of a closed system so ideally no heat is radiated/absorbed through thermos.

Explanation:

As we can see

  • It consists of a glass vessel with double walls. The glass vessel is enclosed by a metal or plastic cover for protection against damage.
  • The space between the walls is a vacuum which reduces the heat loss due to conduction and convection.
  • The outer surface of the inner wall and the inner surface of the outer wall are silvered (shining). The shining surfaces reduce heat loss due to radiation.
  • An insulating stopper (cork) is used to close the mouth of the vessel. The vessel is kept over an insulating (cork ) pad.
  • It is therefore thermally insulated. Hence, heat does not leave or enter easily and hot liquids remain hot while cold liquids remain cold inside the flask.
<br>

And as given in option 3 the inner wall radiates a good amount of heat and the surface of the outer wall absorbs some of the heat that is radiated from the inner wall if this is true then the heat will be radiated through the surface of a thermos and we know that’s not true hence this option is incorrect.

Question 116

‘Black hole’ is a

  1. AOption (a)

    huge black star which has zero acceleration due to gravity on its surface

  2. BOption (b)

    star which has moderate acceleration due to gravity on its surface

  3. COption (c)

    star which has collapsed into itself and has large acceleration due to gravity on its surface

  4. DOption (d)

    star which has collapsed into itself and has zero acceleration due to gravity on its surface

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

star which has collapsed into itself and has large acceleration due to gravity on its surface

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Acceleration Due to Gravity:

  • The force of attraction exerted by the earth on a body is called gravitational pull or gravity.
  • We know that when a force acts on a body, it produces acceleration. Therefore, a body under the effect of gravitational pull must accelerate.
  • The acceleration produced in the motion of a body under the effect of gravity is called acceleration due to gravity, it is denoted by g.
  • If g is the acceleration due to gravity, then

g=GMR2g = \frac{{GM}}{{{R^2}}}

Where G = universal gravitational constant, M = mass of the earth and R = radius of the earth

EXPLANATION:

  • Blackhole is a very dense body where the gravitational field is so strong that it absorbs all the radiation flowing from near it.
  • Blackhole is just like any other star but because of its high density and small radius it exerts huge force due to gravity hence acceleration due to gravity on its surface will be very large.
  • This was proved experimentally, that the value acceleration due to gravity of a black hole is infinity i.e., g = ∞.

Question 117

The formula for conversion between Fahrenheit and Celsius is

°F = X + (1⋅8 × °C)

What is factor X?

  1. AOption (a)

    32

  2. BOption (b)

    22

  3. COption (c)

    98

  4. DOption (d)

    42

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

32

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • To convert degree Celsius to Fahrenheit
  • 0 degrees Celsius is equal to 32 degrees Fahrenheit:
  • 0°C = 32°F
  • Completing the given equation for the conversion is °F ⇒ °C according to the definition:
  • The relationship for conversion from one temperature scale to the others is
  • ∘R80=∘C100=∘K−273100=∘F−32180\frac{^{\circ}R}{80}=\frac{^{\circ}C}{100}=\frac{^{\circ}K-273}{100}=\frac{^{\circ}F-32}{180}
  • From the above,

∘C100=∘F−32180\frac{^{\circ}C}{100}=\frac{^{\circ}F-32}{180}

180×∘C100=F−32\frac{180×^{\circ}C}{100}=F-32

1.8 × °C = F - 32 

(1.8 × °C) + 32 = F 

∴ F = (1.8 × °C) + 32

Question 118

When a beam of white light passes through  a glass prism, the colour of light beam that deviates the least is 

  1. AOption (a)

    Blue 

  2. BOption (b)

    Red

  3. COption (c)

    Green

  4. DOption (d)

    Violet 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Red

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Dispersion of light: The splitting of white light, when it passes through glass prism into its constituent spectrum is known as the dispersion of light.

  • This is the reason why white light from the sun splits into 7 colours – Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, and Red (VIBGYOR).

  • And from this, we can see that red deviates least from its mean path and violet is deviated most.

Explanation:

From the above explanation we can see that, when a beam of white light passes through a glass prism, the colour of the light beam that deviates the least is Red.

Question 119

LIGO stands for

  1. AOption (a)

    Laser Interferometer Gravitational wave Observatory

  2. BOption (b)

    Light Interferometer Gravitational wave Observatory

  3. COption (c)

    Light Induced Gravity Observatory

  4. DOption (d)

    Laser Induced Gaseous Optics

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Laser Interferometer Gravitational wave Observatory

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Laser Interferometer Gravitational wave Observatory.

Key Points

  • Laser Interferometer Gravitational-wave Observatory is a full form of LIGO which is a huge observatory to detect cosmic gravitational waves.
  • LIGO is the largest and most ambitious project ever funded by the NSF(national science foundation).
  • And because of this In 2017, the Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded to Rainer Weiss, Kip Thorne and Barry C. Barish "for decisive contributions to the LIGO detector and the observation of gravitational waves.

Question 120

A fuse wire must be

  1. AOption (a)

    conducting and of low melting point

  2. BOption (b)

    conducting and of high melting point

  3. COption (c)

    insulator and of high melting point

  4. DOption (d)

    insulator and of low melting point

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

conducting and of low melting point

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

Explanation:

  • A fuse is nothing more than a short length of wire designed to melt and separate in the event of short circuit or excessive current flow.
  • Fuse is generally placed in series with the device so that in case of short circit or excess amount of current start flowing in a circuit the fuse blows or melt, it will open the entire circuit and stop current through the main component and hence prevents damage to equipment.
  • Mostly fuse wire has a low melting point. If it is having a high melting point, the current could easily flow through it and will damage the equipment’s.

Question 121

Kamarajar Port was commissioned in 2001 to handle thermal coal requirements. It is situated along the coast of which Indian State?

  1. AOption (a)

    Andhra Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Odisha

  3. COption (c)

    Tamil Nadu

  4. DOption (d)

    Karnataka

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Tamil Nadu

Why this answer is correct

Kamarajar Port is located in Tamil Nadu.

Key Points

  • There are a total of 12 major ports and ~200 minor/non-major ports along India’s coastline.
  • Major Eastern Coasts - 6 - Kolkata (now Shyamaprasad Mukerji port), Paradip, Visakhapatnam, Kamarajar (Ennore, Tamilnadu), Chennai and V.O. Chidamananar (Tuticorin).
  • Major Western Coast - 6 - Cochin, New Mangalore, Mormugao, Mumbai, Jawaharlal Nehru Port (Sheva, Navi Mumbai) and Deendayal (erstwhile Kandla)
  • Major Ports come under the direct administrative control of Central Government (Union List)
  • Minor Ports come under the jurisdiction of respective state governments and in the Concurrent List.

Question 122

Which one of the following Union Territories of India is the smallest in terms of geographical area?

  1. AOption (a)

    Daman and Diu

  2. BOption (b)

    Chandigarh

  3. COption (c)

    Dadra and Nagar Haveli

  4. DOption (d)

    Lakshadweep

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Lakshadweep

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lakshadweep.

  • Lakshadweep has the smallest geographical area among the Union Territories with just 32 sq km area.
  • It is an archipelago with 36 islands.
  • The capital is Kavaratti.
  • The 8 Degree Channel separates islands of Minicoy and Maldives.
  • The 9 Degree Channel separates the island of Minicoy from the main Lakshadweep archipelago.
  • Daman and Diu have an area of 112 sq km.
  • Dadra and Nagar Haveli has an area of 491 sq km.
  • Chandigarh has an area of 125191 sq km.

Question 123

Which one of the following can be said to be essentially related to ‘Polar Front Theory’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Anticyclone

  2. BOption (b)

    Tropical Cyclone

  3. COption (c)

    Temperate Cyclone

  4. DOption (d)

    Inter Tropical Convergence

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Temperate Cyclone

Why this answer is correct

Temperate Cyclones are extra-tropical cyclones which emerge at mid and high latitudes.

  • These low pressure systems are associated with fronts - cold, warm, and occluded fronts.
  • These cyclones are formed across the Polar front.
  • Anticyclones are formed from air masses, are high pressure cyclones affecting a larger area.
  • Inter Tropical Convergence is the area of convergence of trade winds between North and South Hemisphere.

Question 124

Brahmaputra and Indus rivers are antecedent rivers. Which one of the following may be the true definition of an antecedent drainage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Which follows the initial slope of the Himalaya

  2. BOption (b)

    Which existed before the Himalayan range came into existence

  3. COption (c)

    Which followed the dip or rock beds of the Himalaya

  4. DOption (d)

    Which followed the strikes of rock beds of the Himalaya

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Which existed before the Himalayan range came into existence

Why this answer is correct

The Antecedent or Inconsequent Drainage - Rivers which existed before the upheaval of the Himalayas.

  • They cut their courses southward making gorges in the mountain.
  • Example - Indus, Ganga, Satluj, Saryu (Kali Ganga), Arun (tributary of Kosi), Tista.
  • They originate from beyond the Himalayas.

Consequent Rivers: They are the rivers following the general direction of slope.

Most of the peninsular rivers are consequent rivers.

  • The rivers which follow the general direction of slope are known as the consequent rivers.
  • Most of the rivers of peninsular India are consequent rivers.
  • For example, rivers like Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri.

Question 125

The Karachi resolution of Congress in 1931 advocated which one of the following issues?

  1. AOption (a)

    State shall not own or control key industries and services

  2. BOption (b)

    State shall handover the key industries and services to the Indian business groups

  3. COption (c)

    State should allow the Indian business group to invest fifty per cent of the capital

  4. DOption (d)

    State shall own or control key industries and services

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

State shall own or control key industries and services

Why this answer is correct

Karachi Resolution of Congress, 1931 had the following aspects -

  • Basic civil rights like freedom of speech, free assembly, freedom of association, free press.
  • Equality before law
  • Elections based on Universal Adult Franchise.
  • Free and compulsory primary education.
  • Better living conditions for workers
  • Government ownership of key industries and services, mines, and transport. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
  • Protection of women and peasants
  • Protection of Minorities.
  • The Karachi Session was presided over by Sardar Vallabhai Patel.

Question 126

The treaty of Schonbrunn (1809) was signed after which one of the following battles?

  1. AOption (a)

    Battle of Austerlitz

  2. BOption (b)

    Battle of Tilsit

  3. COption (c)

    Battle of Wagram

  4. DOption (d)

    Battle of Lisbon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Battle of Wagram

Why this answer is correct

The Treaty of Schönbrunn was an agreement signed in 1809 between Schloss Schonbrunn between Austria and France after the Battle of Wagram.

  • It was a result of Austria’s premature defeat for the war of liberation that they fought against Napoleon's France.
  • According to experts, one of the main reasons for the defeat was also the failure to get support from Prussia which they had expected.
  • The Battle of Austerlitz was the first engagement of the War of the Third Coalition.
  • The Battle of Tilsit was fought between Napoleon with Russia and France on the other side.
  • The Battle of Lisbon was a capture of the city of Lisbon by the Christians from the Almoravid Muslims.

Question 127

Which of the following statements about The New Model Unions is/are correct?

  1. The New Model Unions were formed in the 1850s
  2. The New Model Unions were formed in the 1880s
  3. The New Model Unions comprised a Labour Party idea
  4. The New Model Unions excluded women in the 1920s

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1

  2. BOption (b)

    2

  3. COption (c)

    3 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1

Why this answer is correct

New Model Unions were a variety of trade unions that were prominent in the 1850s-1860s.

  • While the Consolidated Unions were not restricted to any particular industry, the New Model Unions were restricted to the individual trades and industries.
  • The restricted union had highly skilled trades, focussed mostly on education and negotiations, rather than the consolidated of the unions which conducted strikes.
  • They didn’t follow the Labor Party idea of strikes.
  • Women were included in the Union.

Question 128

The Truman Doctrine of 1947 was announced to achieve which one of the following?

  1. AOption (a)

    Containment of the USSR

  2. BOption (b)

    Increasing agricultural production in the USA

  3. COption (c)

    Offering friendship to Europe

  4. DOption (d)

    Strengthening the UNO

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Containment of the USSR

Why this answer is correct

Truman Doctrine was a proposed doctrine by the then US President Harry S. Truman, was the policy of containment of USSR(communism).

  • The immediate effect was heavy disbursal of funds and military support to Greece and Turkey, which resisted the communist guerillas from taking control of power in the respective countries.
  • The aim was to safeguard the Western interests in the Mediterranean Region.
  • The policy cemented the hitherto unspoken Cold War and acted as the initial phase of the same.

Question 129

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. In 1948, Burma was admitted to the United Nations and immediately supported the USA in the Cold War.
  2. In 1948, Burma joined the United Nations but refused to denounce China as the aggressor in the Korean War.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 only

Why this answer is correct

Burma joined the United Nations in April 1948.

  • During U Nu's time, Burma declared neutrality in the Cold War. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Burma along with India, were the only two countries who refused to vote for a motion recognizing China as an aggressor in the Korean Wars. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • After the Korean War broke out, however, Burma enforced the UN Security Council resolution that labeled North Korea as the aggressor.

Question 130

Who among the following presented ‘The April Theses’ to the Russian people in 1917?

  1. AOption (a)

    Stalin

  2. BOption (b)

    Trotsky

  3. COption (c)

    Bukharin

  4. DOption (d)

    Lenin

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Lenin

Why this answer is correct

April Theses is a program which was developed by Lenin during the Russian Revolution 1917.

  • It called for the Soviet control of state power.
  • The theses was published in April, 1917 and was one of the major reasons for the July Days uprising.
  • It was a 10 directive series.
  • He called for new communist policies, denouncing liberals, and a unified voice of the Soviets.
  • October Revolution too was heavily influenced by The April Theses.

Question 131

An Election Commissioner can be removed from office on the recommendation of

  1. AOption (a)

    The Chief Justice of India

  2. BOption (b)

    The Chief Election Commissioner

  3. COption (c)

    The President of India

  4. DOption (d)

    The Parliament

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The Chief Election Commissioner

Why this answer is correct

Under the safeguards provided by Article 324 of the Indian Constitution

  • Any other election commissioner or a regional commissioner cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the chief election commissioner. Hence, option 2 is correct.
  • The chief election commissioner is provided with the security of tenure - 6 years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier.
  • He cannot be removed from his office except in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
  • Thus, he does not hold his office until the pleasure of the president, though he is appointed by him.
  • The service conditions of the chief election commissioner cannot be varied to his disadvantage after his appointment.
  • The other election commissioners, however, don’t get the same safeguards as the Chief Election Commissioner.

Question 132

Which one of the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Its members are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of a State

  2. BOption (b)

    The election follows the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote

  3. COption (c)

    1/3rd of its members retire after every two years

  4. DOption (d)

    It is a permanent body, but can be dissolved earlier by the President

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

It is a permanent body, but can be dissolved earlier by the President

Why this answer is correct

The Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved by the President.

  • It is a permanent body.
  • However, one third of the members retire every second year. Hence
  • The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of state legislative assemblies.
  • The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
  • The president nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha from people who have special knowledge or practical experience in art, literature, science and social service.

Question 133

Fundamental right guaranteed under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is available only to the citizens of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 19

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 20

  3. COption (c)

    Article 21

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 22

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Article 19

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Article 19.

  • Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, 30 are available only to Indian Citizens.

Key Points

  • Article 15 - Prohibition of discrimination on the basis of race, caste, gender, sex, place of birth.
  • Article 16 - Provision for reservation in public employment.
  • Article 19 - Freedom of Speech and Expression (includes six rights)
  • Article 28-30 - Cultural and educational rights
  • Article 20 - Protection in respect of conviction of offenses
  • Article 21 - Protection of life and personal liberty
  • Article 22 - Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases

Question 134

The treaty of Yandaboo was signed in

  1. AOption (a)

    1826

  2. BOption (b)

    1825

  3. COption (c)

    1824

  4. DOption (d)

    1823

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1826

Why this answer is correct

Post the Anglo-Burmese Wars, (1824–26, 1852, 1885), the situation of Burma was vulnerable which forced Burma to concede British Hegemony.

The Treaty of Yandabo was signed in February 1826 formally ending the First Anglo-Burmese War.

  • The Burmese forces were responded by a force when they tried to cross the frontier.
  • The large seaborne expedition took Rangoon without a fight in 1824.
  • India’s superior resources helped Britishers achieve the win through a sustained campaign.
  • It was signed between Governor Legaing Maha Min and General Campbell.

Question 135

In the Manusmriti which form of marriage results from the “Voluntary union of a maiden and her lover”?

  1. AOption (a)

    Eighth form

  2. BOption (b)

    Fifth form

  3. COption (c)

    Seventh form

  4. DOption (d)

    Sixth form

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sixth form

Why this answer is correct

There are a total eight forms of Marriages given in Manusmriti. NCERT Class 12th mentions four of these eight marriage forms. These are -

  • First: The gift of a daughter, after dressing her in costly clothes and honouring her with presents of jewels, to a man learned in the Veda whom the father himself invites.
  • Fourth: The gift of a daughter by the father after he has addressed the couple with the text, “May both of you perform your duties together”, and has shown honour to the bridegroom.
  • Fifth: When the bridegroom receives a maiden, after having given as much wealth as he can afford to the kinsmen and to the bride herself, according to his own will.
  • Sixth: The voluntary union of a maiden and her lover which springs from desire.

Question 136

Consider the following description of the Samadhi of a former Prime Minister of India:

Central Samadhi platform comprises nine square black polished granite solid stone blocks, capped with a ‘Diya’ in the centre. The number nine holds significance and represents the navarasas, navaratras and navagrahas. Then placement of the nine-square Samadhi is in a circular lotus shaped pattern. The nine-square platform is accessed in four cardinal directions by pathways made in white composite tiles so that the floor does not get heated.

Identify the Samadhi:

  1. AOption (a)

    Shakti Sthal

  2. BOption (b)

    Shantivan

  3. COption (c)

    Sadaiv Atal

  4. DOption (d)

    Veer Bhumi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sadaiv Atal

Why this answer is correct

Sadaiv Atal — The Samadhi of Bharat Ratna & Former PM Atal Bihari Vajpayee is being described in the above description.

  • Atal Vajpayee was a Humanist statement and a Poet who played a pivotal role in the expansion of the Bharatiya Janata Party politically in the country.
  • His birth anniversary (25th December) is celebrated as the Day of Good Governance.
  • The Shakti Sthal is a memorial for the former Indian Prime Minister, Indira Gandhi.
  • Veer Bhumi is a crafted memorial on the spot where Rajiv Gandhi's last rites took place.

Question 137

IMBEX is a joint exercise conducted regularly between Armies of India and ___?

  1. AOption (a)

    Malaysia

  2. BOption (b)

    Maldives

  3. COption (c)

    Mauritius

  4. DOption (d)

    Myanmar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Myanmar

Why this answer is correct

IMBEX is a joint bilateral army exercise conducted between India and Myanmar. The 2018-19 exercise was the second edition of the bilateral army exercise.

  • It was conducted at Chandimandir Military Station which houses the headquarters of the Western Command.
  • Objective includes training the Myanmar Army delegation on tactics, procedure and methodology for participation in United Nations peacekeeping missions.
  • India-Malaysia - Exercise Harimau Shakti
  • India-Maldives - Ekuverin

Question 138

Who among the following was awarded The Hindu Prize in Fiction category for the year 2018?

  1. AOption (a)

    Neelum Saran Gour

  2. BOption (b)

    N Kalyan Raman

  3. COption (c)

    Manoranjan Byapari

  4. DOption (d)

    Arunav Sinha

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Neelum Saran Gour

Why this answer is correct

Writer Neelum Saran Gour won The Hindu Prize 2018.

  • She won the award in the fiction category.
  • She won it for her novel Requiem in Raga Janki.
  • Manoranjan Byapari won the prize in the non-fiction category.
  • He won for Interrogating My Chandal Life.

Question 139

Who among the following was appointed as head of the seven member committee to look into revenue shortfall being faced by the states after the GST roll-out in India and suggest steps for augmenting collections?

  1. AOption (a)

    Himanta Biswa Sharma

  2. BOption (b)

    Thomas Isaac

  3. COption (c)

    Sushil Modi

  4. DOption (d)

    Capt Abhimanyu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sushil Modi

Why this answer is correct

Sushil Modi will be the head of the committee GST revenue shortfall faced by the states.

  • The other members of the GoM include Punjab Finance Minister Manpreet Singh Badal, Kerala Finance Minister Thomas Isaac, Karnataka Rural Development Minister Krishna Byre Gowda, Odisha Finance Minister Shashi Bhushan Behera, Haryana Taxation Minister Capt Abhimanyu and Goa Panchayat Minister Mauvin Godinho.
  • The central government has released Rs. 48,202 crore as GST compensation to states during April-November 2018.
  • It is higher than the Rs. 48,178 crore paid in the previous financial year.
  • The GST Council is headed by the Finance Minister.
  • Out of 31 states, only Andhra Pradesh and five north eastern states — Mizoram, Andhra Pradesh, Manipur, Sikkim and Nagaland — have recorded revenue increase post the GST roll out.
  • The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is governed by the GST Council.
  • Article 279 (1) of the amended Indian Constitution states that the GST Council has to be constituted by the President within 60 days of the commencement of the Article 279A.
  • As a member, the Union Minister of State will be in charge of Revenue of Finance.
  • The Minister in charge of finance or taxation or any other Minister nominated by each State government, as members.

Question 140

The 15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas, 2019 was held in

  1. AOption (a)

    New Delhi

  2. BOption (b)

    Gandhi Nagar

  3. COption (c)

    Prayagraj

  4. DOption (d)

    Varanasi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Varanasi

Why this answer is correct

15th Pravasi Bharatiya Divas, 2019 was held in the holy city of Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.

  • It starts from 21 January up to 23 January 2019.
  • The theme for this year was ‘Role of Indian Diaspora in Building a New India’.
  • It was organized by the Ministry of External Affairs in association with the Uttar Pradesh government.
  • It was inaugurated by Narendra Modi and his Mauritian counterpart Pravind Jugnauth.
  • Pravasi Bharatiya Divas are celebrated every year in India on 9 January.
  • This day commemorates the return of the nation's father Mahatma Gandhi from South Africa.
  • This day was formally established in 2003 to mark the contributions of the overseas Indian community to the development of India.

Question 141

Which one of the following cities was named by UNESCO as the World Capital of Architecture for 2020?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tokyo

  2. BOption (b)

    Johannesburg

  3. COption (c)

    Rio de Janeiro

  4. DOption (d)

    New Delhi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rio de Janeiro

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Rio de Janeiro.

  • Rio de Janeiro was named by UNESCO as the World Capital of Architecture for 2020.

Key Points

  • Rio de Janeiro has officially been named UNESCO’s first World Capital of Architecture.
  • It has been created by UNESCO in partnership with the International Union of Architects (UIA).
  • The designation will take effect in 2020.
  • UNESCO says the World Capital of Architecture will serve as the international annual forum to discuss global problems with the lenses of heritage, culture, planning, and architecture.
  • Year 2020 will be hosted by Rio de Janeiro over the theme “All the worlds. Just one world.”
  • The UIA will also host its triennial World Congress during the year-long event.

Additional Information

  • UNESCO:
  • It stands for United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation.
  • It was formed on 4th November 1945.
  • Its headquarters are in Paris, France.
  • Currently, UNESCO has 193 members and 11 associate members.
  • The US, Israel, and Liechtenstein are members of the UN, but not members of UNESCO.
  • Three countries, namely, Palestine, Niue, and the Cook Islands are members of UNESCO, but not of the UN.
  • India was the founding member of UNESCO.

Question 142

Who among the following was named ICC’s emerging player of the year 2018?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rishabh Pant

  2. BOption (b)

    Josh Hazlewood

  3. COption (c)

    Hasan Ali

  4. DOption (d)

    Mustafizur Rahman

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Rishabh Pant

Why this answer is correct

Rishabh Pant - India’s fastest rising wicketkeeper-batsman, was named the International Cricket Council’s Emerging Player of the Year 2018.

  • The 21-year-old Pant was picked by the ICC’s voting academy for a stellar show in his breakthrough test year in 2018.
  • He equalled the record for the most catches taken in a Test - with 11 catches against Australia in Adelaide (December).
  • He became the first Indian wicket-keeper to score a Test century in England.
  • He also became the first India wicketkeeper to score a Test century in Australia.

Question 143

India’s first private sector Howitzer gun-making unit is located at

  1. AOption (a)

    Jamshedpur

  2. BOption (b)

    Kolkata

  3. COption (c)

    Hazira

  4. DOption (d)

    Gwalior

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Hazira

Why this answer is correct

India’s first private sector howitzer gun-making unit is located in Hazira, Gujarat.

  • It is a transshipment port and a suburb in the Surat district of Gujarat.
  • The contract was won by Larsen and Toubro to supply 100 self-propelled gun systems in the army.
  • This complex is spread over 40 acres, within L&T’s 755 acre Hazira manufacturing complex.
  • This is the country's first private facility where K9 Vajra self-propelled Howitzer guns will be manufactured.
  • The K9 Vajra contract involves the delivery of 100 such systems in 42 months.
  • L&T had signed a transfer of technology contract for guns with South Korean company Hanwha Corporation.

Question 144

Which of the following pairs of old names and new names of islands in India is/are correctly matched?

  1. Ross Island : Shaheed Dweep
  2. Neil Island : Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose Dweep
  3. Havelock Island : Swaraj Dweep

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 2 only

  4. DOption (d)

    3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3 only

Why this answer is correct

Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced the renaming of three islands of Andaman and Nicobar archipelago as a tribute to Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose.

  • The Ross Island was renamed as Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose Dweep.
  • Neil Island was renamed to Shaheed Dweep. Neil Island is India’s Island in Bay of Bengal.
  • The Havelock Island was renamed as Swaraj Dweep. Havelock Island is part of Ritchie’s archipelago in India’s island in Andaman.

Question 145

Who among the following was posthumously conferred with the Ashoka Chakra, India’s highest peacetime gallantry award, in 2019?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jyoti Prakash Nirala

  2. BOption (b)

    Nazir Ahmad Wani

  3. COption (c)

    Hangpan Dada

  4. DOption (d)

    Mohan Nath Goswami

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Nazir Ahmad Wani

Why this answer is correct

Lance Naik Nazir Ahmad Wani was posthumously conferred with Ashoka Chakra.

  • The soldier was once a terrorist, but gave up those activities and joined the Territorial Army.
  • He was in the 34 Rashtriya Rifles when intelligence received information regarding the presence of heavily armed Hizb-ul and Lashkar terrorists at Batagund village.
  • Ashok Chakra is the highest peacetime Gallantry medal, a peacetime equivalent of the Param Vir Chakra.
  • Awarded for the most daring act of self-sacrifice for the cause of the nation.
  • The award can be awarded to both military or civilian personnel.
  • It was originally established on 4th January 1952.
  • Lieutenant Suhas Biswas was the first person to be awarded the Ashoka Chakra award in 1952.
  • Kamlesh Kumari was the first woman to get Ashok Chakra 2002.

Question 146

As per the code of the nomenclature, which one of the following is the correct way of writing a biological name?

  1. AOption (a)

    Amoeba Proteus

  2. BOption (b)

    Amoeba proteus

  3. COption (c)

    amoeba proteus

  4. DOption (d)

    amoeba Proteus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Amoeba proteus

Why this answer is correct

The Latin scientific name of a species, be it an animal, plant, fungus, or bacteria, is a two-name that consists of the genus name as the first, and species name as the second.

  • Example, the scientific name of Tiger is Panthera tigris.
  • Thus, the correct option is option 2, i.e Amoeba proteus.
  • The first name should be the name of the Genus.
  • The next name should be the name of the species.
  • The whole name should be italicized.
  • Only the genus name should be capitalized, while the name of species should start with a small letter.

Question 147

Which one of the following statements regarding Electrocardiogram is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of electrical activity of cornea

  2. BOption (b)

    Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of activity of kidney

  3. COption (c)

    Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of activity of brain

  4. DOption (d)

    Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of electrical activity of heart

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Electrocardiogram is graphical representation of electrical activity of heart

Why this answer is correct

Electrocardiogram is a test checking the functioning of the heart measuring the heart's electrical activity.

Key Points

  • An electrical impulse travels through the heart with every heartbeat.
  • The electrical wave makes the muscles squeeze and pump blood from the heart.
  • The process of producing Electrocardiography is called Electrocardiogram.
  • Renogram is the graphical representation of the activity of the kidney.
  • An electroencephalogram (EEG) is a test used to find problems related to the electrical activity of the brain.

Question 148

Which one of the following statements regarding Penicillin is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Penicillin resistant bacteria can store this antibiotic in vacuole

  2. BOption (b)

    Penicillin resistant bacteria can degrade this antibiotic by an enzyme called β-lactamase

  3. COption (c)

    Penicillin resistant bacteria can degrade this antibiotic by an enzyme called lactic acid dehydrogenase

  4. DOption (d)

    Penicillin is not absorbed by bacteria; so most bacteria are resistant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Penicillin resistant bacteria can degrade this antibiotic by an enzyme called β-lactamase

Why this answer is correct

Using β-lactamase, the Penicillin Bacteria can degrade this antibiotic and thus become resistant to it.

  • Penicillin fungi are the source of penicillin.
  • People take this antibiotic either orally or through injection.
  • Alexander Fleming was the one who discovered Penicillin.
  • It is not humans who are attaining resistance against the antibiotic, rather the bacteria.
  • It is not because the bacteria is absorbing the antibiotic that they are becoming resistant to it.

Question 149

Which one of the following organelles of mammalian cells is rich in hydrolytic enzymes?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mitochondria

  2. BOption (b)

    Ribosomes

  3. COption (c)

    Lysosome

  4. DOption (d)

    Nucleus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Lysosome

Why this answer is correct

Lysosomes are formed by the Golgi apparatus and are the membrane bound structure.

Key Points

  • This organelle in the mammalian cell is rich in all types of hydrolytic enzymes.
  • These hydrolytic enzymes include hydrolase, lipases, carbohydrases, proteases.
  • They help in digesting carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids at acidic Ph.
  • They are also called the suicidal bags.
  • Mitochondria is known as the powerhouse of the cell.
  • Ribosomes are a cell structure that makes protein
  • Nucleus stores the cell's hereditary material, or DNA, and it coordinates the cell's activities.

Question 150

Which one of the following statements regarding Cholera is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cholera is a disease that causes loss of memory

  2. BOption (b)

    Cholera is a disease of muscles due to consumption of alcohol

  3. COption (c)

    Cholera is a disease due to consumption of contaminated food or water

  4. DOption (d)

    Cholera is a genetic disease

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Cholera is a disease due to consumption of contaminated food or water

Why this answer is correct

Cholera is an acute diarrhoeal disease that can kill within hours if left untreated.

Key Points

  • It is caused due to the consumption of contaminated food or water.
  • Provision of safe water and sanitation is critical to control the transmission of cholera and other waterborne diseases.
  • It is caused by bacterium Vibrio cholerae.
  • Effects both children and adults.
  • People may feel pain in their abdomen, nausea, vomiting or watery Diarrhoea.
  • Whole body will feel dehydration, lethargy or water-electrolyte imbalance.
  • Cholera is NOT a genetic disease.
  • Alcoholic myopathy is due to consumption of alcohol.
  • Alzheimer's disease causes loss of memory.

150 questions in the full paper