Previous Year Paper

NDA General Ability Test 17 Nov 2019 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2019

150 questions150 minutes
With answers
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General Ability Test (150 questions)

Question 1

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word. 

He is always anxious.

  1. AOption (a)

    worried

  2. BOption (b)

    dispassionate

  3. COption (c)

    sluggish

  4. DOption (d)

    torpid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

worried

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'worried'.

Key Points:- 

  • Anxious means feeling or showing worry, nervousness, or unease about something.
  • Example: My mother always gets a bit anxious if we don't arrive when we say we will.
  • Worried means anxious or troubled about actual or potential problems. 
  • Example: They don't seem particularly worried about the situation.
  • Therefore, the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word 'anxious' is 'worried'.
  • Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

​

Additional Information

  • Let us explore the other given options:
  • Dispassionate means calm and reasonable, and not affected by emotions.
  • Sluggish means slow-moving or inactive.
  • Torpid means mentally or physically inactive; lethargic.

Hinglish

  • 'Anxious' मतलब किसी बात को लेकर चिंता, घबराहट या बेचैनी महसूस करना या दिखाना।
  • उदाहरण: My mother always gets a bit anxious if we don't arrive when we say we will.
  • 'Worried' मतलब वास्तविक या संभावित समस्याओं के बारे में चिंतित या परेशान।
  • उदाहरण: They don't seem particularly worried about the situation.
  • अत: रेखांकित शब्द 'anxious' के अर्थ में निकटतम विकल्प 'worried' है।
  • अतः विकल्प 1 सही उत्तर है।
  • 'Dispassionate' मतलब शांत और उचित, और भावनाओं से प्रभावित नहीं।
  • 'Sluggish' मतलब धीमी गति से चलने वाला या निष्क्रिय।
  • 'Torpid' मतलब मानसिक या शारीरिक रूप से निष्क्रिय; सुस्त।

Question 2

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word. 

The poems of Kabir are ecstatic in nature.

  1. AOption (a)

    efficacious

  2. BOption (b)

    eerie

  3. COption (c)

    rapturous

  4. DOption (d)

    reverential

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

rapturous

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "rapturous" 

Key Points

  • Look at the meaning of the given word in the question**:**
  • Ecstatic- feeling or expressing overwhelming happiness or joyful excitement.
  • Look at the meaning of the selected word:
  • Rapturous- means characterized by, feeling, or expressing great pleasure or enthusiasm.
  • Look at the meaning of the rest of the options:
  • Efficacious- successful in producing a desired or intended result; effective.
  • Eerie- strange and frightening.
  • Reverential- full of respect and admiration.
  • The option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word ' ecstatic' is 'rapturous'.
  • Look at the following example:
  • The singer was greeted with rapturous applause.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 3 i.e. rapturous.

Hinglish

  • Ecstatic- बहुत ही ज्यादा खुश
  • Efficacious- किसी कार्य को करने में सफल होना
  • Eerie- अजीब
  • Reverential- इज़्ज़त से भरपूर

Question 3

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word. 

Ravi loves seclusion. Therefore, he lives in the mountains.

  1. AOption (a)

    nature

  2. BOption (b)

    scripture

  3. COption (c)

    seafaring

  4. DOption (d)

    solitariness

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

solitariness

Why this answer is correct

Option 4 is the right answer.

Seclusion means the state of being private and away from other people.

Nature means the basic or inherent features, character, or qualities of something.

Scripture means writings that are regarded as holy in a particular religion.

Seafaring means the practice of regularly travelling by sea.

Solitariness means a person who lives alone or in solitude.

The option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word 'seclusion' is solitariness'.

Example - Prince Kaybee has chosen to use the time to enjoy solitariness.

Question 4

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word. 

Hitler was a despot.

  1. AOption (a)

    conservative

  2. BOption (b)

    dictator

  3. COption (c)

    passionate

  4. DOption (d)

    monstrous

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

dictator

Why this answer is correct

Option 2 is the right answer.

Despot means a ruler or other person who holds absolute power, typically one who exercises it in a cruel or oppressive way.

Conservative means a person who is averse to change and holds traditional values.

Dictator means a ruler with total power over a country, typically one who has obtained control by force.

Passionate means having, showing, or caused by strong feelings or beliefs.

Monstrous means inhumanly or outrageously evil or wrong.

The option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word 'despot' is 'dictator'.

Example - Hitler was a dictator.

Question 5

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word. 

The imagery used in the poem is vivid.

  1. AOption (a)

    lively

  2. BOption (b)

    inert

  3. COption (c)

    ebullient

  4. DOption (d)

    caustic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

lively

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "lively".

Key Points

  • Look at the meaning of the word in the question:
  • Vivid means intensely deep or bright.
  • Look at the meaning of the selected word:
  • Lively means full of life and energy; active and outgoing.
  • Inert- lacking the ability or strength to move.
  • Ebullient- cheerful and full of energy.
  • Caustic- sarcastic in a scathing and bitter way.
  • The option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word 'vivid' is ' lively'.
  • Look at the following example:
  • There was some lively discussion at the meeting.

Hence, the correct sentence: The imagery used in the poem is lively.

Hinglish

  • Lively- जोश से भरपूर
  • Inert- जिसके पास एनर्जी न हो, जिसको दुषरे से कोई मतलब न हो
  • Ebullient- ऊर्जा से भरपूर
  • Caustic- व्यंग्यपूर्ण

Question 6

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word. 

A human being is always vulnerable to other human beings.

  1. AOption (a)

    resilient

  2. BOption (b)

    elastic

  3. COption (c)

    defenceless

  4. DOption (d)

    crude

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

defenceless

Why this answer is correct

Option 3 is the right answer.

Vulnerable means exposed to the possibility of being attacked or harmed, either physically or emotionally.

Resilient means able to withstand or recover quickly from difficult conditions.

Elastic means able to resume its normal shape spontaneously after being stretched or compressed.

Defenceless means without defence or protection; totally vulnerable.

Crude means in a natural or raw state; not yet processed or refined.

The option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word 'vulnerable' is 'defenceless'.

Example - He punched the doorman to the ground from behind before kicking the man to the head as he lay defenceless on the ground.

Question 7

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word. 

His language is political and vitriolic.

  1. AOption (a)

    imaginative

  2. BOption (b)

    sprightly

  3. COption (c)

    vivacious

  4. DOption (d)

    abusive

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

abusive

Why this answer is correct

Option 4 is the right answer.

Key Points 

  • Vitriolic means filled with bitter criticism or malice. (कड़वी आलोचना या द्वेष से भरा हुआ)
  • Imaginative means having or showing creativity or inventiveness. (रचनात्मकता या आविष्कारशीलता होना या दिखाना)
  • Sprightly means lively; full of energy. (जीवंत; ऊर्जा से भरा हुआ)
  • Vivacious means attractively lively and animated. (आकर्षक जीवंत और एनिमेटेड)
  • Abusive means extremely offensive and insulting. (अत्यंत आपत्तिजनक और अपमानजनक)
  • The option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word 'vitriolic' is 'abusive'.
  • Example - Welsh pharmacists are reporting an increase in abusive and aggressive behaviour.

Question 8

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word. 

The Managing Director of the company declared that he was broke and there was a need to seek support from the government.

  1. AOption (a)

    bankrupt

  2. BOption (b)

    rich

  3. COption (c)

    making profit

  4. DOption (d)

    having liabilities

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

bankrupt

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'bankrupt'.

Key Points:- 

  • Bankrupt means declared in law as unable to pay their debts.
  • Example: He went bankrupt after only a year in business.
  • Broke means having completely run out of money.
  • Example: Many small businesses went broke (= lost all their money) during the recession.
  • Therefore, the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word 'broke' is 'bankrupt'.
  • Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.​

​

Additional Information

  • Rich means having a great deal of money or assets; wealthy.
  • Making a profit means money that is earned in trade or business after paying the costs of producing and selling goods and services.
  • Having liabilities means a company's legal financial debts or obligations that arise during the course of business operations.

Hinglish 

  • Bankrupt मतलब कानून में अपने कर्ज का भुगतान करने में असमर्थ घोषित किया गया है।
  • उदाहरण: He went bankrupt after only a year in business.
  • Broke मतलब पूरी तरह से पैसे खत्म हो जाना।
  • उदाहरण: Many small businesses went broke (= lost all their money) during the recession.
  • Rich मतलब बहुत सारा धन या संपत्ति होना; अमीर।
  • Making a profit मतलब वह धन जो व्यापार या व्यवसाय में वस्तुओं और सेवाओं के उत्पादन और बिक्री की लागत का भुगतान करने के बाद अर्जित किया जाता है।
  • Having liabilities मतलब कंपनी के कानूनी वित्तीय ऋण या दायित्व जो व्यवसाय संचालन के दौरान उत्पन्न होते हैं।
  • रेखांकित शब्द 'broke' के अर्थ में निकटतम विकल्प 'bankrupt' है।
  • अतः विकल्प 1 सही उत्तर है।

Question 9

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word. 

He loves doing nasty things.

  1. AOption (a)

    nice

  2. BOption (b)

    fastidious

  3. COption (c)

    foul

  4. DOption (d)

    finicky

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

foul

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "foul" 

Key Points

  • Look at the meaning of the word in the question:
  • Nasty- very bad or unpleasant.
  • Look at the meaning of the marked options:
  • Foul- having a disgusting smell or taste or being dirty.
  • Look at the meanings of the words in the options:
  • Nice- pleasant or attractive.
  • Fastidious- very concerned about matters of cleanliness.
  • Finicky- showing or requiring great attention to detail.
  • The option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word 'nasty' is 'foul'.
  • Look at the example:
  • He loves doing foul things.

Hence, the correct option: foul

Hinglish

  • Fastidious- बहुत बारिक्यों में ध्यान देना
  • Finicky- बहुत बारिक्यों में ध्यान देना

Question 10

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word. 

He could not muster the courage to speak the truth before his friend.

  1. AOption (a)

    injure

  2. BOption (b)

    spoil

  3. COption (c)

    gather

  4. DOption (d)

    maim

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

gather

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "gather" 

Key Points

  • Look at the meaning of the given word in the question:
  • Muster- to collect or assemble.
  • Look at the meaning of the selected word:
  • ​Gather-come together; assemble or accumulate.
  • Look at the meaning of the other words:
  • Injure- to harm or impair.
  • Spoil-  to diminish or destroy the value or quality of.
  • Maim- to wound or injure (a person or animal) so that part of the body is permanently damaged.
  • The option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word 'muster' is ' gather'.
  • Example:
  • ​We're still gathering organic materials such as tree leaves to add to our garden beds.
  • They gather stones to kill their stupid mother.

Hence, the correct answer: gather

Hinglish

  • Muster- इक्कठा करना
  • Maim- किसी के सरीर क किसी भाग को घायल कर देना

Question 11

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word. 

His conversations are always absurd.

  1. AOption (a)

    farcical

  2. BOption (b)

    foolish

  3. COption (c)

    preposterous

  4. DOption (d)

    rational

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

rational

Why this answer is correct

Option 4 is the right answer.

Farcical means very silly, unlikely, or unreasonable.

Foolish means lacking good sense or judgement; unwise.

Preposterous means contrary to reason or common sense; utterly absurd or ridiculous.

Rational means having the ability to reason.

Absurd means wildly unreasonable, illogical, or inappropriate.

The option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word 'absurd' is 'rational'.

Example - His conversations are always rational.

Question 12

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word. 

The politician was a dissident.

  1. AOption (a)

    agitator

  2. BOption (b)

    rebel

  3. COption (c)

    conformist

  4. DOption (d)

    revolutionary

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

conformist

Why this answer is correct

Option 3 is the right answer.

Dissident means a person who opposes the official policy.

Agitator means a person who urges others to protest or rebel.

Rebel means a person who rises in opposition or armed resistance against an established government or leader.

Conformist means a person who conforms to accepted behaviour or established practices.

Revolutionary means engaged in or promoting political revolution.

The option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word 'dissident' is ' conformist'.

Example - The politician was a conformist.

Question 13

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word. 

He wrote an incisive article on corruption in politics.

  1. AOption (a)

    vague

  2. BOption (b)

    penetrating

  3. COption (c)

    trenchant

  4. DOption (d)

    precise

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

vague

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "incisive"

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the word given in the question:
  • Incisive- quick and direct.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the selected word:
  • Vague- of uncertain, indefinite, or unclear character.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the other words:
  • Penetrating- clearly heard through or above other sounds.
  • Trenchant- forcefully and effectively expressed.
  • Precise- exact, accurate, and careful about details.
  • The option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word 'incisive' is 'vague'.
  • Example- 
  • His directions were vague.

Hence, the correct answer is Vague

Question 14

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.**

Rakesh is an eccentric prodigal.

  1. AOption (a)

    extravagant

  2. BOption (b)

    profligate

  3. COption (c)

    wasteful

  4. DOption (d)

    thrifty

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

thrifty

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'thrifty.'

Key Points

  • The given word 'prodigal' means spending money freely and rather wastefully. (फ़िज़ूलख़र्च, ख़र्चीला)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Extravagant' means spending or costing too much money. (फ़िजूलख़र्च या बेहद महँगा)
  • 'Profligate' means wasting money, time, etc., or using it in a careless way. (समय, धन आदि का बेपरवाही से प्रयोग करनेवाला; फ़िज़ूलख़र्च)
  • 'Wasteful' means using more of something than necessary; causing waste. (फ़ज़ूलख़र्च, ख़र्चीला)
  • 'Thrifty' means using money and other resources carefully and not wastefully. (कमख़र्च, किफ़ायती, किफ़ायतशार)

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the word 'prodigal' are "thrifty, miserly, niggardly".
  • The synonyms of the word 'prodigal' are "extravagant, unthrifty, wasteful".
  • Example of 'prodigal​' in a sentence:
  • He has been prodigal with company funds.

Question 15

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.**

Friendship is always reciprocal.

  1. AOption (a)

    mutual

  2. BOption (b)

    one-sided

  3. COption (c)

    shared

  4. DOption (d)

    corresponding

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

one-sided

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'one-sided.'

Key Points

  • The given word 'reciprocal' means given, felt, or done in return. (बदले में दिया, महसूस किया हुआ)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Mutual' means felt or done equally by both people involved. (दोनों पक्षों द्वारा समान रूप से एक दूसरे के प्रति अनूभूत या संपादित, पारस्‍परिक, आपसी)
  • 'One-sided' means showing only one point of view; not equal. (एकपक्षीय, इकतरफ़ा)
  • 'Shared' means to divide something between two or more people. (किसी वस्‍तु को दो या अधिक लोगों में बाँटना)
  • 'Corresponding' means related or similar to something. (किसी से संबंधित या उसके समान; मेल खाता हुआ)

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the word 'reciprocal' are "one-sided, noncomplementary, nonreciprocal".
  • The synonyms of the word 'reciprocal' are "mutual, shared, joint".
  • Example of 'reciprocal' in a sentence:
  • Our relationship is based on reciprocal respect.

Question 16

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.**

The debate was highly stimulating.

  1. AOption (a)

    arousing

  2. BOption (b)

    invigorating

  3. COption (c)

    boring

  4. DOption (d)

    stirring

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

boring

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'boring.'

Key Points

  • The given word 'stimulating' means interesting and exciting. (रोचक और उत्तेजक)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Arousing' means causing a particular reaction in people. (दूसरे व्‍यक्तियों में कोई प्रतिक्रिया विशेष जागृत करना; उत्तेजित करना)
  • 'Invigorating' means making one feel strong, healthy, and full of energy. (किसी व्‍यक्ति को स्‍वस्‍थ और ऊर्जस्वी बनाना, किसी का बलवर्धन करना)
  • 'Boring' means not at all interesting; dull. (उबाऊ, नीरस, शुष्‍क)
  • 'Stirring' means to make somebody feel a strong emotion. (किसी की भावनाओं को भड़काना)

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the word 'stimulating' are "boring, unexciting, uninteresting".
  • The synonyms of the word 'stimulating' are "interesting, energetic, lively".
  • Example of 'stimulating' in a sentence:
  • Aerobics is one of the most stimulating forms of exercise.

Question 17

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.**

Malaria is a widespread disease.

  1. AOption (a)

    endemic

  2. BOption (b)

    pervasive

  3. COption (c)

    common

  4. DOption (d)

    rare

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

rare

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'rare.'

Key Points

  • The given word 'widespread' means found or happening over a large area; affecting a large number of people. (दूर-दूर तक फैला हुआ, व्‍याप्‍त; अनेक लोगों को प्रभावित करने वाला, व्‍यापक)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Endemic' means a disease or condition regularly found among particular people or in a certain area. (किसी विशेष स्‍थान या व्‍यक्ति वर्ग में नियमित रूप से पाया जाने वाला और जिससे छुटकारा मुश्किल है; जातीय, स्‍थानिक)
  • 'Pervasive' means that is present in all parts of something. (सर्वत्र, व्‍याप्‍त, व्‍यापक)
  • 'Common' means happening or found often or in many places; usual. (प्रायः या बहुत सारे स्‍थानों पर पाया जाने या होने वाला; सामान्‍य, आम)
  • 'Rare' means not done, seen, happening, etc. very often. (दुर्लभ, विरल)

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the word 'widespread' are "rare, limited, restricted".
  • The synonyms of the word 'widespread' are "expansive, extended, extensive".
  • Example of 'widespread' in a sentence:
  • The allegations received widespread media coverage.

Question 18

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.**

The bill received a vehement resistance from the opposition party in the Parliament.

  1. AOption (a)

    animated

  2. BOption (b)

    apathetic

  3. COption (c)

    fervent

  4. DOption (d)

    vigorous

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

apathetic

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'apathetic.'

Key Points

  • The given word 'vehement' means showing very strong (often negative) feelings, especially anger. (भावना, विशेषतः क्रोध की दृष्टि से प्रचंड, उग्र)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Animated' means interesting and full of energy. (रोचक और जोशीला)
  • 'Apathetic' means showing or feeling no interest, enthusiasm, or concern. (कोई दिलचस्पी, उत्साह या चिंता नहीं दिखाना या महसूस करना)
  • 'Fervent' means having or showing very strong feelings about something. (जोशीला, उत्‍साही)
  • 'Vigorous' means strong, healthy, and full of energy. (ऊर्जायुक्त, ज़ोरदार, जोशभरा)

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the word 'vehement' are "apathetic, hesitant, understated".
  • The synonyms of the word 'vehement' are "aggressive, violent, energetic".
  • Example of 'vehement​' in a sentence:
  • Despite vehement opposition from her family, she quit school and became an actress.

Question 19

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word. 

He has been obstinate since his childhood.

  1. AOption (a)

    stubborn

  2. BOption (b)

    dogged

  3. COption (c)

    amenable

  4. DOption (d)

    rigid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

amenable

Why this answer is correct

Here the correct answer is Amenable.

Key Points:-

  • Obstinate means very difficult to change or overcome. (बदलना या दूर करना बहुत मुश्किल)
  • Stubborn means refusing to change an opinion or course of action. (किसी राय या कार्रवाई के पाठ्यक्रम को बदलने से इनकार करना)
  • Amenable means someone who is agreeable or willing to be persuaded. (कोई ऐसा व्यक्ति जो राजी हो या राजी हो जाए)
  • Example - He has been amenable since his childhood.
  • Rigid means unable to bend or be forced out of shape; not flexible. (झुकने में असमर्थ या आकार से बाहर होने के लिए मजबूर होना; लचीला नहीं)
  • The option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word 'Obstinate' is 'Amenable'.

Question 20

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word. 

Mahatma Gandhi was one of the most prominent leaders of his times.

  1. AOption (a)

    renowned

  2. BOption (b)

    distinguishable

  3. COption (c)

    eminent

  4. DOption (d)

    unknown

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

unknown

Why this answer is correct

Option 4 is the right answer.

Key Points 

  • Renowned means known or talked about by many people; famous.
  • Distinguishable means clear enough to be recognized or identified as different.
  • Eminent means standing above others in some quality or position: prominent.
  • Unknown means one that is not known or not well-known especially: a person who is little known (as to the public).
  • Prominent means important; famous.

The option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word 'prominent' is ' unknown '.

Example -- How had he, a complete unknown, achieved this transformation?

Question 21

Each item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any part and if you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

He had arrived at Cairo (a)/ a few months before (b)/ protests shook the Arab world. (c)/ No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a

Why this answer is correct

The right answer is Option "1".

Key Points

  • The main clause needs a simple past tense verb 'arrived', instead of the past perfect 'had arrived'.
  • The preposition 'before' is followed by a recent action 'protests shook'.
  • Thus, it should be 'He arrived at Cairo', instead of 'he had arrived at Cairo'.
  • The correct sentence: He arrived at Cairo a few months before protests shook the Arab world.

Question 22

Direction: Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any part and if you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Most of us who are older competitive runners (a)/ are not able to race anywhere at the.same speed (b)/ as we do when we were 30. (c)/ No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(c)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '(c).'

Key Points

  • The phrase As we 'do' when we were 30 has mixed tenses.
  • As we 'do' when we were 30 मुहावरा मिश्रित काल का है।
  • In this phrase, past tense has come after the present tense.
  • इस वाक्यांश में, वर्तमान काल के बाद भूतकाल आया है।
  • This phrase should be in the past tense so the past tense must be followed by the past tense.
  • यह वाक्यांश भूतकाल में होना चाहिए, इसलिए भूत काल के बाद भूत काल होना चाहिए।
  • Therefore, the use of 'do' in Part (c) of the sentence should be replaced with 'did' to make it grammatically correct.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is '(c).'

​The correct sentence: Most of us who are older competitive runners are not able to race anywhere at the same speed as we did when we were 30.

Additional Information

  • The four present tenses are the simple present, present progressive, present perfect and present perfect progressive.
  • When any of these tenses are used in an independent clause, the verb in the dependent clause can be present tense, past tense or future tense.
  • जब इनमें से किसी भी काल का प्रयोग स्वतंत्र उपवाक्य में किया जाता है, तो आश्रित उपवाक्य में क्रिया वर्तमान काल, भूतकाल या भविष्य काल हो सकती है।
  • Example: Ram waits patiently while his father books the tickets.
  • ​If the action in the dependent clause occurred before the action in the independent clause, the past perfect is usually the most appropriate tense for the dependent clause.
  • यदि आश्रित उपवाक्य में क्रिया स्वतंत्र उपवाक्य में क्रिया से पहले हुई हो, तो आश्रित उपवाक्य के लिए भूतकाल उत्तम आमतौर पर सबसे उपयुक्त काल होता है।​
  • Example: Maria arrived at 5 p.m. but Ravi had closed the store.

Question 23

Each item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any part and if you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Work hard (a)/ lest you do not (b)/ fail. (c)/ No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

Option 2 is the right answer i.e. b.

 Key Points

  • 'Lest' as the conjunction has a negative meaning. So, it cannot be used with another negative 'do not'.
  • The verb that always follows 'lest' is 'should'.
  • Thus part b has an error. The correct answer is option 2.

The correct sentence would, thus, be -- Work hard lest you should fail.

Additional Information

  • If one negative word changes the meaning of a word or sentence, then a second negative word would change the meaning back to its original state.
  • It's a negation of the negation.
  • Example: I don't want nothing for my birthday: Incorrect

                                      I don't want anything for my birthday: Correct

Question 24

Each item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any part and if you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

The Eastern Ghats are home of 2600 plant species (a)/ and this habitat fragmentation (b) / can pose a serious threat to endemic plants. (c)/ No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "a"

Key Points

  • There is a problem regarding prepositions:
  • Look at the difference between "Home of" and "Home to"
  • 'Home of' means a general term, saying that usually, these plants live in such a habitat.
  • 'Home to' means that currently, these plant species live in such a habitat.
  • Example: Australia is home to some dangerous animals.
  • The given sentence is about the Eastern Ghats is a 'home to' 2600 plant species.
  • Also, the eastern ghats are taken as one unit, which needs a singular verb -- 'is'

So, the correct sentence is- The Eastern Ghats is home to 2600 plant species and this habitat fragmentation can pose a serious threat to endemic plants.

Question 25

Direction: Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any part and if you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Turbidity current is a fast-moving current (a)/ that sweeps down submarine canyons, (b)/ carrying sand and mud into the deep sea. (c)/ No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(d)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '(d).'

​

  • The given sentence gives an explanation about a turbidity current and its movement.
  • दिया गया वाक्य एक turbidity current और उसकी movement के बारे में स्पष्टीकरण देता है।
  • The sentence has used the verbs and other parts of speech correctly and has no errors.
  • वाक्य में क्रियाओं और भाषण के अन्य भागों का सही उपयोग किया गया है और इसमें कोई त्रुटि नहीं है।

Therefore, the correct answer is '(d).'

​The correct sentence: Turbidity current is a fast-moving current that sweeps down submarine canyons, carrying sand and mud into the deep sea.

Additional Information

  • A helping verb (also known as an auxiliary verb) is used with a main verb to help express the main verb's tense, mood, or voice.
  • एक helping verb (जिसे auxiliary verb के रूप में भी जाना जाता है) का उपयोग मुख्य क्रिया के साथ मुख्य क्रिया के काल, मनोदशा या आवाज को व्यक्त करने में मदद के लिए किया जाता है।
  • The main helping verbs are "to be," "to have," and "to do."
  • They appear in the following forms: To Be: am, is, are, was, were, being, been, will be

                                                         To Have: has, have, had, having, will have.

  • Example: Peter has been singing for an hour.

Question 26

Each item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any part and if you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Every one (a)/ of the boys (b)/ love to ride. (c)/ No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

c

Why this answer is correct

Option 3 is the right answer. It has an error.

Every  'one' shows that 'one' - a singular form of the boys - is indicated. 

Hence, it requires a singular verb.

In the present tense, nouns and verbs form plurals in opposite ways: nouns ADD an S to the singular form; verbs REMOVE the S from the singular form. Example : singular—the dog chases the cat / plural—the dogs chase the cat.

So, the verb will be  'loves'.

The correct sentence will be -- Every one of the boys loves to ride.

Question 27

Each item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any part and if you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Neither praise nor blame (a)/ seem (b)/ to affect him. (c)/ No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

Option 2 is the right answer.

Neither...nor  conjunction joins two singular nouns 'praise and blame' - it needs a singular verb.

In the present tense, nouns and verbs form plurals in opposite ways: nouns ADD an S to the singular form; verbs REMOVE the S from the singular form. Example : singular — the dog chases the cat/ plural —the dogs chase the cat.

So, the verb in the given sentence should be singular - 'seems'.

The correct sentence is -- Neither praise nor blame seems to affect him.

Question 28

Direction: Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any part and if you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Many a man (a)/ has succumbed (b)/ to this temptation. (c)/ No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(d)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '(d).'​

Key Points

  • Let us explore some rules related to the word 'many' : 
  • आइए हम 'many' शब्द से संबंधित कुछ नियमों को देखें:​
  • Many a + Sing noun + Sing verb
  • Example: Many a man has tried but few men have succeeded.
  • Many + Plural noun + Plural verb
  • Example: Many students are coming today.
  • There is no error in this sentence as it is satisfying all the grammatical rules.
  • इस वाक्य में कोई त्रुटि नहीं है क्योंकि यह सभी व्याकरणिक नियमों को संतुष्ट करता है।
  • Therefore, the correct answer is '(d).'

​The correct sentence: Many a man has succumbed to this temptation.

Additional Information

  • A helping verb (also known as an auxiliary verb) is used with a main verb to help express the main verb's tense, mood, or voice.
  • एक helping verb (जिसे auxiliary verb के रूप में भी जाना जाता है) का उपयोग मुख्य क्रिया के साथ मुख्य क्रिया के काल, मनोदशा या आवाज को व्यक्त करने में मदद के लिए किया जाता है।
  • The main helping verbs are "to be," "to have," and "to do."
  • They appear in the following forms: To Be: am, is, are, was, were, being, been, will be

                                                         To Have: has, have, had, having, will have.

  • Example: Peter has been singing for an hour.

Question 29

Each item in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any part and if you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

A time slot of fifteen minutes (a)/ are allowed (b)/ to each speaker. (c)/ No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

Option 2 is the right answer i.e. b.

Key Points

  • 'Each speaker' indicates a singular subject that needs a singular verb to agree with it - 'is'.
  • In part 'B', the verb is 'are' - a plural, which is incorrect.
  • Thus, part b has an error. The correct answer is option 2.

The correct sentence is - A time slot of fifteen minutes is a**llowed to each speaker.

Additional Information

  • When a plural number applies to time, height, weight, distance etc. take it as a single unit and apply a singular verb.
  • ​Example: Twenty five kilometers is not a small distance to walk.

Question 30

Direction: Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any part and if you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

He asked (a)/ whether either of the brothers (b)/ were at home. (c)/ No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(c)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '(c).'

Key Points

  • 'Either' is used to indicate 'one' or the other of two people or things and it needs a singular verb.
  • 'Either' का प्रयोग एक या दो लोगों या चीजों में से दूसरे को इंगित करने के लिए किया जाता है और इसे singular verb की आवश्यकता होती है।
  • However, in Part 'c', the word 'were' is used which is a plural helping verb.
  • हालाँकि, Part 'c' में 'were' शब्द का प्रयोग किया गया है जो एक plural helping verb है।
  • The correct word to be used is 'was' [ since the use of 'asked ' indicates the past tense].
  • Therefore, the use of 'were' in Part (c) of the sentence should be replaced with 'was' to make it grammatically correct.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is '(c).'

​The correct sentence: He asked whether either of the brothers was at home.

Additional Information

  • A helping verb (also known as an auxiliary verb) is used with a main verb to help express the main verb's tense, mood, or voice.
  • एक helping verb (जिसे auxiliary verb के रूप में भी जाना जाता है) का उपयोग मुख्य क्रिया के साथ मुख्य क्रिया के काल, मनोदशा या आवाज को व्यक्त करने में मदद के लिए किया जाता है।
  • The main helping verbs are "to be," "to have," and "to do."
  • They appear in the following forms: To Be: am, is, are, was, were, being, been, will be

                                                         To Have: has, have, had, having, will have.

  • Example: Peter has been singing for an hour.

Question 31

Direction: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response which is the most appropriate expression.

Be over the hill

  1. AOption (a)

    To be on a mountain top

  2. BOption (b)

    To travel in the jungle

  3. COption (c)

    To be too old to do things

  4. DOption (d)

    To do something in the most complete way

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

To be too old to do things

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'to be too old to do things.'

Key Points:-

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given idiom:-
  • Be over the hill - used for describing someone who is old and no longer useful or able to do something well. (Be over the hill - किसी ऐसे व्यक्ति का वर्णन करने के लिए उपयोग किया जाता है जो बूढ़ा हो गया है और अब उपयोगी नहीं है या कुछ अच्छा करने में सक्षम नहीं है।)
  • Example: I don’t think of myself as being over the hill yet.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

Therefore, the correct meaning of the given idiom is: To be too old to do things.

Question 32

Direction: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response which is the most appropriate expression.

Bite your tongue

  1. AOption (a)

    To stop yourself from saying something because it would be better not to

  2. BOption (b)

    To bite off your tongue while eating

  3. COption (c)

    To feel sorry

  4. DOption (d)

    To ask someone something that you want

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

To stop yourself from saying something because it would be better not to

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'to stop yourself from saying something because it would be better not to.'

Key Points

  • Let's understand the meaning of the given idiom:
  • Bite your tongue means to make a desperate effort to avoid saying something. (Bite your tongue का मतलब है कुछ कहने से बचने के लिए बेताब प्रयास करना।)
  • Example: When he was sneering at his assistants and praising himself, I had to bite my tongue from making a retort.
  • From the meaning and example, we can say the correct answer is 'to stop yourself from saying something because it would be better not to.'

Thus option 1 is the most appropriate answer

Question 33

Direction: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response which is the most appropriate expression.

Turn a blind eye

  1. AOption (a)

    To run away

  2. BOption (b)

    To begin to behave in a more positive manner

  3. COption (c)

    To change a situation

  4. DOption (d)

    To choose to ignore behaviour that you know is wrong

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

To choose to ignore behaviour that you know is wrong

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'to choose to ignore behaviour that you know is wrong.'

Key Points

  • Let's understand the meaning of the given idiom:
  • To turn a blind eye means to pretend not to notice. (To turn a blind eye का अर्थ है ध्यान न देने का नाटक करना।)
  • Example: Many leaders turn a blind eye to criminal activities in order to get their votes.
  • From the meaning and example, we can say the correct answer is 'to choose to ignore behaviour that you know is wrong.'

Thus option 4 is the most appropriate answer

Question 34

Direction: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response which is the most appropriate expression.

Yellow journalism

  1. AOption (a)

    Paid storytelling

  2. BOption (b)

    Government reports published on yellow coloured papers

  3. COption (c)

    Writings in newspapers that try to influence people's opinion by using strong language and false information

  4. DOption (d)

    Journalism which agrees completely with the policies of the governments and capitalists

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Writings in newspapers that try to influence people's opinion by using strong language and false information

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'writings in newspapers that try to influence people's opinion by using strong language and false information.'

Key Points

  • Let's understand the meaning of the given idiom:
  • 'Yellow journalism' is the use of sensational headlines, rather than factual news, to capture a reader's attention. ('Yellow journalism' पाठक का ध्यान आकर्षित करने के लिए तथ्यात्मक समाचारों के बजाय सनसनीखेज सुर्खियों का उपयोग है।)
  • Example: The film magazines indulge in yellow journalism to increase their viewership.
  • From the meaning and example, we can say the correct answer is 'writings in newspapers that try to influence people's opinion by using strong language and false information.'

Thus option 3 is the most appropriate answer

Additional Information

  • Let's learn about the origin of the idiom:
  • The term yellow journalism came from a popular New York World comic called 'Hogan's Alley,' which featured a character in a yellow dress named the 'the yellow kid.' (yellow journalism शब्द न्यूयॉर्क वर्ल्ड की एक लोकप्रिय कॉमिक 'होगन्स एले' से आया है, जिसमें 'द येलो किड' नामक पीले रंग की पोशाक में एक चरित्र दिखाया गया था।)

Question 35

Direction: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response which is the most appropriate expression.

To be in seventh heaven

  1. AOption (a)

    To fly in the air

  2. BOption (b)

    To be extremely happy

  3. COption (c)

    To be completely alone

  4. DOption (d)

    To visit a place which is in the list of the seven wonders of the world

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To be extremely happy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is- 'to be extremely happy.'

Key Points

  • Let's understand the meaning of the given idiom:
  • To be in seventh heaven means attaining a state of endless bliss. (To be in seventh heaven का अर्थ है अनंत आनंद की स्थिति प्राप्त करना।)
  • Example: A full day in a resort with all three meals is just seventh heaven.
  • From the meaning and example, we can say the correct answer is 'to be extremely happy.'

Thus option 2 is the most appropriate answer

Question 36

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

closely monitor the situation (P) by the disturbing allegations (Q) we are deeply concerned (R) and will continue to (S)

  1. AOption (a)

    R Q S P

  2. BOption (b)

    S P Q R

  3. COption (c)

    S P R Q

  4. DOption (d)

    P R S Q

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

R Q S P

Why this answer is correct

Option 1: RQSP is the right answer.

Key Points

  • The sentence is about monitoring the situation about the allegations.
  • The sequence of the phrases to make a complete sentence is -- we are deeply concerned (R), starting with the pronoun 'we', by the disturbing allegations **(Q)**and will continue to (S) closely monitor the situation (P).
  • The correct answer is option 1.

​The correct sentence is: We are deeply concerned by the disturbing allegations and will continue to closely monitor the situation.

Question 37

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

relieve nausea, pain and stress (P) aromatherapy may also help (Q) using lavender oil on their skin (R) but patients are cautioned against (S)

  1. AOption (a)

    R Q P S

  2. BOption (b)

    S Q P R

  3. COption (c)

    Q P S R

  4. DOption (d)

    R P S Q

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Q P S R

Why this answer is correct

Option 3:QPSR is the right answer.

Key Points

  • The sentence is about using aromatherapy to relieve nausea, pain and stress.
  • The sequence of the phrases to make a complete sentence is-- aromatherapy may also help (Q) relieve nausea, pain and stress (P) but patients are cautioned against (S) using lavender oil on their skin (R).
  • Thus the correct answer is option 3.

The correct sentence is: Aromatherapy may also help relieve nausea, pain and stress but patients are cautioned against using lavender oil on their skin.

Question 38

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

without any mandate of law (P)/ the plea filed through the advocate (Q)/ online is illegal and (R)/ submitted that the sale of drugs and prescription medicines (S)

  1. AOption (a)

    R Q S P

  2. BOption (b)

    Q S R P

  3. COption (c)

    Q R S P

  4. DOption (d)

    P R S Q

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Q S R P

Why this answer is correct

Option 2: QSRP is the right answer.

Key Points

  • The sentence is about a plea filed against the online sale of drugs and prescription medicines.

The sequence of the phrases to make a complete sentence is-- the plea filed through the advocate (Q) submitted that the sale of drugs and prescription medicines (S) online is illegal and (R) without any mandate of law (P).

Question 39

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

humans and machines have co-existed (P) dating back to the invention of (Q) the potter's wheel in ancient Mesopotamia (R) at the physical level for millennia (S)

  1. AOption (a)

    R S P Q

  2. BOption (b)

    Q S P R

  3. COption (c)

    Q R P S

  4. DOption (d)

    P S Q R

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

P S Q R

Why this answer is correct

The right option is 4 PSQR.

Key Points

  • The sentence is about the co-existence of humans and machines for millennia.
  • The sequence of the phrases to make a complete sentence is -- humans and machines have co-existed (P) at the physical level for millennia (S) dating back to the invention of (Q) the potter's wheel in ancient Mesopotamia (R).

Question 40

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

a sell-off as US Treasury yields (P) surged to multi-year highs (Q) on robust economic data (R) global markets also witnessed (S)

  1. AOption (a)

    R S Q P

  2. BOption (b)

    P Q S R

  3. COption (c)

    Q R P S

  4. DOption (d)

    S P Q R

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

S P Q R

Why this answer is correct

Option 4 is the right answer: SPQR.

Key Points

  • The sentence is about the surge of global markets due to robust economic data.
  • The sequence of the phrases to make a complete sentence is -- global markets also witnessed **(S)**a sell-off as US Treasury yields (P) surged to multi-year highs (Q) on robust economic data (R).
  • Thus option 4 is the correct answer.

The correct sentence is: Global markets also witnessed a sell-off as US Treasury yields surged to multi-year highs on robust economic data.

In this section, you have a short passage. After the passage, you will find questions based on the passage. First, read the passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage. 

Studies serve for delight, for ornament, and for ability. Their chief use for delight is in privateness and retiring; for ornament, is in discourse; and for ability, is in the judgment, and disposition of business. For expert, men can execute, and perhaps judge of particulars, one by one; but the general counsels, and the plots and marshalling of affairs, come best from those that are learned. To spend too much time in studies is sloth; to use them too much for ornament, is affectation; to make judgment wholly by their rules, is the humour of a scholar. They perfect nature, and are perfected by experience: for natural abilities are like natural plants, that need pruning, by study; and studies themselves do give forth directions too much at large, except they are bounded in by experience. Crafty men condemn studies, simple men admire them, and wise men use them; for they teach not their own use; but that is a wisdom without them, and above them, won by observation. Read not to contradict and confute; nor to believe and take for granted, nor to find talk and discourse, but to weigh and consider.

Question 41

According to the author, why should one study?

  1. AOption (a)

    To gather information about the world

  2. BOption (b)

    To pass the time in a creative way

  3. COption (c)

    For pleasure, enhanced capability and holistic growth

  4. DOption (d)

    To become only worldly wise

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

For pleasure, enhanced capability and holistic growth

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'For pleasure, enhanced capability and holistic growth​.'

Key Points

  • Let us look at the first two lines of the passage:
  • Studies serve for delight, for ornament, and for ability. Their chief use for delight is in privateness and retiring; for ornament, is in discourse; and for ability, is in the judgment, and disposition of business.
  • Therefore, according to the author, one should study for pleasure, enhanced capability and holistic growth.
  • So, the correct option is 'For pleasure, enhanced capability and holistic growth​.'

 Additional Information 

  • The meaning of the word 'discourse' is communication in speech or writing.
  • Example: This is a discourse upon the nature of life after death.

Question 42

Why does the author not recommend too much of studies?

  1. AOption (a)

    Because it reflects idleness

  2. BOption (b)

    Because it requires too much money

  3. COption (c)

    Because it is dangerous for the health of the mind

  4. DOption (d)

    Because it makes men crafty

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Because it reflects idleness

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Because it reflects idleness.'

Key Points

  • Let us look at the fourth line of the passage:
  • To spend too much time in studies is sloth; to use them too much for ornament, is affectation; to make judgment wholly by their rules, is the humour of a scholar.
  • Therefore, the author does not recommend too much of studies because it reflects idleness.
  • So, the correct option is  'Because it reflects idleness.'

Additional Information 

  • The meaning of the word 'sloth' is a reluctance to work or make an effort; laziness.
  • Example: The report criticizes the government's sloth in tackling environmental problems.

Question 43

According to the author, how can the studies be perfected?

  1. AOption (a)

    By reflection

  2. BOption (b)

    By application

  3. COption (c)

    By conversation

  4. DOption (d)

    By experience

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

By experience

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'By experience.'

Key Points

  • Let us look at the fifth line of the passage:
  • They perfect nature, and are perfected by experience: for natural abilities are like natural plants, that need pruning, by study; and studies themselves do give forth directions too much at large, except they are bounded in by experience.
  • Therefore, according to the author, the studies can be perfected by experience.
  • So, the correct option is 'By experience.'

Additional Information 

  • The meaning of the word 'Forth' is (from a place) out or away, or (from a point in time) forward.
  • Example: They set forth on their travels in early June.

Question 44

Which kind of human beings denounce studies?

  1. AOption (a)

    Innocent

  2. BOption (b)

    Cunning

  3. COption (c)

    Stupid

  4. DOption (d)

    Wise

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Cunning

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Cunning​.'

Key Points 

  • Let us look at the sixth line of the passage:
  • Crafty men condemn studies, simple men admire them, and wise men use them; for they teach not their own use; but that is a wisdom without them, and above them, won by observation.
  • Crafty means cunning/sly/ clever, especially in a dishonest or secret way.
  • Therefore, cunning kinds of human beings denounces studies.
  • So, the correct option is 'Cunning​.'

Additional Information

  • The meaning of the word 'denounce' is to criticize something or someone strongly and publicly.
  • Example: The government's economic policy has been denounced on all sides.

Question 45

According to the author, one should read to:

  1. AOption (a)

    only argue

  2. BOption (b)

    only believe

  3. COption (c)

    evaluate and understand

  4. DOption (d)

    preach and believe

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

evaluate and understand

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'evaluate and understand​​.'

Key Points

  • Let us look at the last line of the passage:
  • Read not to contradict and confute; nor to believe and take for granted, nor to find talk and discourse, but to weigh and consider.
  • Therefore, according to the author, one should read to evaluate and understand.
  • So, the correct option is 'evaluate and understand​​.'

Additional Information 

  • The meaning of the word 'confute' is to prove a person or an argument to be wrong.
  • Example: He confuted his opponents by facts and logic.

Question 46

The sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space.

The Election Commission on Saturday _____ that the Assembly elections in five states will be held from November 12 to December 7.

  1. AOption (a)

    pronounced

  2. BOption (b)

    announced

  3. COption (c)

    promulgated

  4. DOption (d)

    issued

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

announced

Why this answer is correct

Option 2 is the right answer.

Key Points 

  • Pronounced means something that is pronounced and is very noticeable / to enunciate or articulate sounds, words, etc. (कुछ ऐसा जो उच्चारित किया जाता है और बहुत ही ध्यान देने योग्य / ध्वनियों, शब्दों आदि को स्पष्ट या स्पष्ट करने के लिए होता है)
  • Announced means to make a formal public statement about a fact, occurrence, or intention. (किसी तथ्य, घटना या इरादे के बारे में औपचारिक सार्वजनिक बयान देना)
  • Promulgated means to promote or make widely known (an idea or cause). (प्रचार करना या व्यापक रूप से ज्ञात करना (एक विचार या कारण))
  • Issued means supply or distribute (something) for use or sale. (उपयोग या बिक्री के लिए आपूर्ति या वितरण (कुछ)
  • The given sentence is about the election commission giving some information about some event to the public.
  • So, the right word is -- 'announced'.

The correct sentence is --  The Election Commission on Saturday announced that the Assembly elections in five states will be held from November 12 to December 7.

Question 47

The sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space.

The victims were fruit vendors and they were going in an auto when they _____ an accident on the way.

  1. AOption (a)

    met with

  2. BOption (b)

    ran into

  3. COption (c)

    experienced

  4. DOption (d)

    heard

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

met with

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'met with'.

Key Points

  • 'Met with' means to unexpectedly experience trouble, difficulty, danger, etc.
  • Example: I heard she'd met with an accident.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate option to be filled in the given blank is 'met with' because it indicates that the victims experienced an accident.
  • Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

 

Complete sentence: The victims were fruit vendors and they were going in an auto when they met with an accident on the way.

Additional Information

  • Let's explore the other given options: 
  • Ran into means to meet someone you know when you are not expecting to.
  • Experienced means having the skill and knowledge to do something.
  • Heard means to receive or become conscious of a sound using your ears.

Hinglish 

  • 'Met with' का अर्थ है अप्रत्याशित रूप से परेशानी, कठिनाई, खतरे आदि का अनुभव करना।
  • उदाहरण: I heard she'd met with an accident.
  • इसलिए, दिए गए रिक्त स्थान को भरने के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त विकल्प 'met with' है क्योंकि यह इंगित करता है कि पीड़ितों ने दुर्घटना का अनुभव किया है।
  • अतः विकल्प 1 सही उत्तर है।
  • आइए अन्य दिए गए विकल्पों का पता लगाएं:
  • Ran into का मतलब है किसी ऐसे व्यक्ति से मिलने के लिए जिसे आप जानते हैं जब आप उम्मीद नहीं करते।
  • Experienced का अर्थ है कुछ करने का कौशल और ज्ञान होना।
  • Heard का अर्थ है अपने कानों का उपयोग करके किसी ध्वनि को प्राप्त करना या उसके प्रति सचेत होना।

 

पुरा वाक्य: The victims were fruit vendors and they were going in an auto when they met with an accident on the way.

Question 48

The sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space.

Scores of villagers are __________ a sit-in protest against the construction of a new underpass.

  1. AOption (a)

    performing

  2. BOption (b)

    sitting

  3. COption (c)

    staging

  4. DOption (d)

    standing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

staging

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is staging.

Key Points

  • Let us see the meaning and usage of the words given in options- 
  • Performing: present (a form of entertainment) to an audience.
  • Sitting: in a seated position.
  • Staging: to participate in a public rally to voice opposing opinions.
  • Standing: to be in an upright position / vertical.
  • The given sentence is about protesting/speaking out against the construction of a new underpass.
  • So, the correct word is 'staging'.

Correct sentence: Scores of villagers are staging a sit-in protest against the construction of a new underpass.

Question 49

The sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space.

It is common for patients to stop _____ medicine as soon as they start feeling better.

  1. AOption (a)

    eating

  2. BOption (b)

    gulping

  3. COption (c)

    swallowing

  4. DOption (d)

    taking

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

taking

Why this answer is correct

Option 4 is the right answer.

Key Points 

  • Eating means to put (food) into the mouth and chew and swallow it. (भोजन) मुंह में डालना और चबाना और निगलना)
  • Gulping means swallow (drink or food) quickly or in large mouthfuls. (निगलना (पीना या खाना) जल्दी या बड़े कौर में।)
  • Swallowing means to enclose or envelop completely. (पूरी तरह से घेरना या घेरना)
  • Taking when used before'medicine' means the intake of the prescribed drugs for treating some illness. (किसी बीमारी के इलाज के लिए निर्धारित दवाओं का सेवन)

The correct sentence is -- It is common for patients to stop taking medicine as soon as they start feeling better.

Question 50

The sentence has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for the blank space.

A four-year-old girl got a new lease of life after doctors at a hospital ______ a cancerous tumour from one of her kidneys.

  1. AOption (a)

    rejuvenated

  2. BOption (b)

    removed

  3. COption (c)

    displaced

  4. DOption (d)

    replaced

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

removed

Why this answer is correct

Option 2 is the right answer.

Key Points 

  • Rejuvenated means to make someone look or feel young and energetic again. (किसी को फिर से युवा और ऊर्जावान दिखने या महसूस करने के लिए)
  • Removed means to move physically, take away. (शारीरिक रूप से स्थानांतरित करने के लिए, दूर ले जाना)
  • Displaced means to take the place of something or someone (किसी चीज या किसी की जगह लेना)
  • Replaced means to put something or someone in the place of something or someone else. (किसी चीज़ या किसी को किसी चीज़ या किसी और के स्थान पर रखना)
  • The given sentence is about a girl becoming better after a tumour [was taken out] from one of her kidneys. So, the correct word is 'removed'.

The correct sentence is -- A four-year-old girl got a new lease of life after doctors at a hospital removed a cancerous tumour from one of her kidneys.

Question 51

A thin disc and a thin ring, both have mass M and radius R. Both rotate about axes through their centre of mass and are perpendicular to their surfaces at the same angular velocity. Which of the following is true?

  1. AOption (a)

    The ring has higher kinetic energy

  2. BOption (b)

    The disc has higher kinetic energy

  3. COption (c)

    The ring and the disc have the same kinetic energy

  4. DOption (d)

    Kinetic energies of both the bodies are zero since they are not in linear motion

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The ring has higher kinetic energy

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Moment of inertia:

  • The moment of inertia of a rigid body about a fixed axis is defined as the sum of the product of the masses of the particles constituting the body and the square of their respective distances from the axis of the rotation.
  • The moment of inertia of a particle  is

⇒ I = mr2

Where r = the perpendicular distance of the particle from the rotational axis.

  • Moment of inertia of a body made up of a number of particles (discrete distribution)

⇒ I = m1r12 + m2r22 + m3r32 + m4r42 + -------

Rotational kinetic energy: 

  • The energy, which a body has by virtue of its rotational motion, is called rotational kinetic energy.
  • A body rotating about a fixed axis possesses kinetic energy because its constituent particles are in motion, even though the body as a whole remains in place.
  • Mathematically rotational kinetic energy can be written as -

⇒ KE =12Iω2 = \frac{1}{2}I{\omega ^2}

Where I = moment of inertia and ω = angular velocity.

EXPLANATION:

  • The moment of inertia of the ring about an axis passing through the center and perpendicular to its plane is given by

⇒ Iring = MR2

  • Moment of inertia of the disc about an axis passing through center and perpendicular to its plane is given by -

⇒Idisc=12MR2⇒ {I_{disc}} = \frac{1}{2}M{R^2}

  • As we know that mathematically rotational kinetic energy can be written as

⇒KE=12Iω2⇒ KE = \frac{1}{2}I{\omega ^2}

  • According to the question, the angular velocity of a thin disc and a thin ring is the same. Therefore, the kinetic energy depends on the moment of inertia.
  • Therefore, a body having more moments of inertia will have more kinetic energy and vice - versa.
  • So, from the equation, it is clear that,

⇒ Iring > Idisc

∴ Kring > Kdisc

  • The ring has higher kinetic energy.
BodyAxis of RotationMoment of inertia
Uniform circular ring of radius Rperpendicular to its plane and through the centerMR2
Uniform circular ring of radius RdiameterMR22\frac{MR^2}{2}
Uniform circular disc of radius Rperpendicular to its plane and through the centerMR22\frac{MR^2}{2}
Uniform circular disc of radius RdiameterMR24\frac{MR^2}{4}
A hollow cylinder of radius RAxis of cylinderMR2

Question 52

Let there be an object having some chemicals in it. It starts moving with a uniform velocity v and a chemical reaction starts happening. In this case, which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

  1. Chemical reactions happening. in the system cannot change the velocity v of the centre of mass of the object.

  2. Chemical reactions happening in the system cannot change kinetic energy of the particles inside with respect to the center of mass of object.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Velocity -

The rate of change of displacement is called as the velocity of a particle.

Velocity;(v)=Change;in;displacementTime;taken{\rm{Velocity;}}\left( {\rm{v}} \right) = \frac{{Change;in;displacement}}{{Time;taken}}

∴v=S2−S1t2−t1\therefore v = \frac{{{S_2} - {S_1}}}{{{t_2} - {t_1}}}

Where S2 = final displacement at time t2 and S1 = initial displacement at time t1.

Acceleration -

The rate of change of velocity is called the acceleration of the body.

a=v2−v1t2−t1a = \frac{{{v_2} - {v_1}}}{{{t_2} - {t_1}}}

Where v2 = Final velocity and v1 = Initial velocity of an object at time t2, t1 respectively

Force -

The product of mass and acceleration is called force.

Force (F) = M × a

Where a is the acceleration of the object and M is mass.

Kinetic energy = KE = 12mV2\frac{1}{2}m{V^2}

Where M is the mass of the object and V is the velocity of the object.

Explanation:

  • As the chemical reaction inside the object will create an internal force on the object.
  • Internal force doesn’t create acceleration in the body.
  • There is no net external force acting on the object.

Fnet = M × a = o

So the acceleration of the object (a) = 0

  • Since acceleration is zero so the velocity of the object will remain constant always. Hence chemical reactions can’t change the velocity of the centre of mass of the system. So statement 1 is correct.
  • As the velocity of each particle of the object is equal to the velocity of the centre of mass of the object.

The velocity of particles of an object with respect to the centre of mass,

V = (velocity of the object) - (velocity of the centre of mass) = 0

So kinetic energy with respect to the centre of mass = KE = 12mV2=0\frac{1}{2}m{V^2} = 0

Hence Kinetic energy of particles of the object will not change with respect to the centre of mass of the object. So statement 2 is correct.

Hence option 3 is correct**.**

Question 53

In which of the following phenomena do heat waves travel along a straight line with the speed of light?

  1. AOption (a)

    Thermal conduction

  2. BOption (b)

    Thermal convection

  3. COption (c)

    Thermal radiation

  4. DOption (d)

    Both, thermal conduction and radiation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Thermal radiation

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT: 

  • The movement of energy from one place to other is called energy transfer. Heat transfer mainly takes place due to temperature differences.

There are three modes of Heat transfer.

  1. Conduction: The mode of heat transfer in solids where heat transfer takes place without the movement of medium particles is called conduction.

For example: By heating one end of a metal rod we can feel hotness at another end. 2. Convection: The mode of heat transfer in fluids where heat transfer takes place due to the movement of particles of the medium is called convection.

For example Heating water in a pot 3. Radiation: The mode of heat transfer where heat is transferred from one place to another without affecting the medium particles is called radiation.

For example: When we place our hand nearby the burning gas stove then we can feel the hotness. This is due to radiation.

EXPLANATION:

  • Thermal radiation: The electromagnetic radiation emitted by a body by virtue of its temperature is called thermal radiation or radiant energy.
  • All bodies having a temperature above 0 K emit thermal radiation continuously.
  • For example, the radiation emitted by red-hot iron or light from a filament lamp is thermal radiation.

Properties of thermal radiation:

  • These are electromagnetic waves having a wavelength range from 1µm to 100 um. These are also called infrared waves.
  • Like light, thermal radiations travel in straight lines. Thus option 3 is correct.
  • These radiations obey the laws of reflection and refraction as light does.
  • They show the phenomena of interference, diffraction, and polarisation.
  • Thermal radiations produce heat when they are absorbed by a body.

Question 54

Which one of the following statements regarding Ohm's law is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ohm's law is an assumption that current through a conductor is always directly proportional to the potential difference applied to it.

  2. BOption (b)

    A conducting device obeys Ohm's law when the resistance of a device is independent of magnitude and polarity of applied potential difference.

  3. COption (c)

    A conducting material obeys Ohm's law when the resistance of material is independent of the magnitude and direction of applied electric field.

  4. DOption (d)

    All homogeneous materials obey Ohm's law irrespective of whether the field is within range or strong.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All homogeneous materials obey Ohm's law irrespective of whether the field is within range or strong.

Why this answer is correct

Concept -

Ohm’s law -

At constant temperature, the potential difference across a current-carrying wire is directly proportional to the current flowing through it.

V = R⋅I

Where V = potential difference, R = resistance and I = current.

Explanation -

  • If the physical conditions of the conductor (length, temperature, mechanical strain, etc.) remain constant, then the current flowing through the conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference across its two ends i.e. I ∝ R ⇒ V = IR where R is a proportionality constant, known as electric resistance. Therefore, option 1 is correct.
  • So, if we make a statement of this, a conducting device obeys Ohm’s law, if its resistance between any two points is independent of the magnitude and polarity of the potential difference applied between those points which happens in metallic conductors.
  • Then, in other words, the ratio of V/I, or I/V, remains constant all the time, so that the slope of the curve remains constant. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • Some materials and devices which are used in electric circuits do not have the proportionality between voltage and current.
  • For Example, consider a diode and plot a graph between voltage and current. When the value of voltage is marked in the reverse direction by keeping the magnitude fixed, it produces the current with a different magnitude in the opposite direction. The relationship between the voltage and current is not linear.
  • Therefore, there are some materials that do not support ohm’s law. Hence, option 4 is incorrect.

Question 55

When a ball bounces off the ground, which of the following changes suddenly?

(Assume no loss of energy to the floor)

  1. AOption (a)

    Its speed

  2. BOption (b)

    Its momentum

  3. COption (c)

    Its kinetic energy

  4. DOption (d)

    Its potential energy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Its momentum

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Conservation of momentum: When no external force acts on the system of several interacting particles, the total linear momentum of the system is conserved. The total linear momentum is the vector sum of the linear momenta of all the particles of the system.

 EXPLANATION:

  • Suppose the ball has a mass of “m” and a speed of “v”. As we know that momentum is a vector quantity therefore it has both magnitudes as well as directions.
  • When the ball is moving towards the wall, then the momentum is mass × velocity. As we know that momentum is a vector quantity, so it will point in the same direction as velocity.
  • After the ball has a perfectly elastic collision with the wall (no loss of energy) the speed of the ball is the same.
  • But its velocity is now pointing away from the wall i.e. in the negative direction with respect to the initial case. Therefore its momentum will change.

Before collision -

p = m × v = mv

After collision -

p = m × (- v) = - mv [As velocity is a vector quantity.]

  • The net change in momentum is, pnet = mv - (-mv) = 2mv. Therefore, the momentum has changed.
  • If we talk about other terms like speed, kinetic energy, and potential energy, all are scalar quantities. Hence, they depend only on magnitude. Therefore these all will remain the same at that instant.

Question 56

Which one of the following compounds does not exhibit a different oxidation number of the same element.

  1. AOption (a)

    Pb3O4

  2. BOption (b)

    Fe3O4

  3. COption (c)

    Fe2O3

  4. DOption (d)

    Mn3O4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Fe2O3

Why this answer is correct

Fe2O3 is a compound that doesn’t exhibit a different oxidation number for the same element.

  • Fe2O3 is a not a spinel, meaning, for one mole of Fe2O3 there are no 2 atoms of Iron (Fe) that exist in a +3 oxidation state, and one Fe atom exists in a +2 oxidation state.
  • Fe2O3 is a simple compound, has Fe in only +3 oxidation states.
  • In Pb3O4 lead is in +4 and +2 oxidation states, it is a mixture of PbO & PbO2.
  • Again, Mn2O3 is a spinel with Mn atoms having +2 and +3 oxidation states.

Question 57

Which one of the following statements about glass is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Glass is often said to be a super cooled liquid

  2. BOption (b)

    Glass has no definite melting point

  3. COption (c)

    Soda glass is harder than pyrex glass

  4. DOption (d)

    Boron is present in pyrex glass

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Soda glass is harder than pyrex glass

Why this answer is correct

Soda glass doesn’t have the same hardness or tolerance level to heat as compared to Pyrex glass.

Key Points

  • This is because Pyrex is one particular blend of Borosilicate glass that shows high resistance to heat and doesn’t expand as much when heated.
  • Glass has a melting point of approximately 1400 °C to 1600 °C. So, it varies according to composition.
  • The original Pyrex glass is known to scientists and artists as borosilicate, “boro” for short.
  • The main ingredients in the glass are oxides of the elements silicon, sodium, aluminum, and boron.

Question 58

Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Both boiling and evaporation are surface phenomena

  2. BOption (b)

    Boiling is a surface phenomenon, but evaporation is a bulk phenomenon

  3. COption (c)

    Both boiling and evaporation are bulk phenomena

  4. DOption (d)

    Boiling is a bulk phenomenon, but evaporation is a surface phenomenon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Boiling is a bulk phenomenon, but evaporation is a surface phenomenon

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Boiling is a bulk phenomenon while evaporation is a surface phenomenon.

Key Points

  • The surface phenomenon is the phenomenon in which the accumulation of a large number of molecules at the surface of the liquid phase or solid phase is more as compared to the bulk.
  • Adsorption is also an example of a surface phenomenon because in this the unbalanced or residual forces are present at the surface.
  • Evaporation is a surface phenomenon because the surface of the water will evaporate from the whole water.
  • The kinetic energy of the topmost molecules will get dissipated in the air.
  • The melting process is also an example of a surface phenomenon.
  • A bulk phenomenon is a phenomenon in which the whole of the substance or the compound is involved.
  • Boiling is the bulk phenomenon because in this the particles of the bulk of liquid gain energy and then get converted into a gaseous or vapor state.
  • The heat energy is transferred to all the particles that are the entire bulk of the liquid.
  • When a liquid is boiled the heating of the substance starts from the bottom of the vessel so that the temperature of the whole liquid reaches its boiling point.
  • Hence boiling is a bulk phenomenon and evaporation is a surface phenomenon.

Question 59

Which one of the following statements about diamond and graphite is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Diamond has a tetrahedral structure, whereas graphite has a hexagonal planar structure

  2. BOption (b)

    Both physical and chemical properties of diamond and graphite are different

  3. COption (c)

    Graphite is soft but diamond is hard

  4. DOption (d)

    Graphite is a good conductor of electricity while diamond is not

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both physical and chemical properties of diamond and graphite are different

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both the physical and chemical properties of diamond and graphite are different.

Key Points

  • An allotrope is another form of the same element having different physical properties but the same chemical properties.
  • For example, Graphite and diamond are two different allotropes of carbon.
  • They are different in physical properties but resemble carbon in chemical properties.
DiamondGraphite
1) It has a crystalline structure.1) It has a layered structure.
2) It is made up of tetrahedral units.2) It has a planar geometry.
3) In a diamond, each carbon atom is sp3sp3 hybridized and is bonded to four other carbon atoms through a sigma bond.3) In graphite, each carbon atom is sp2sp2 hybridized and is bonded to three other carbon atoms through a sigma bond while the fourth electron forms a ΠΠ-bond.
4) The C-C bond length in the diamond is1544) The C-C bond length in the graphite is
141.5pm.141.5pm.
5) It has a rigid covalent bond network which is difficult to break.5) It is quite soft and its layers can be separated easily.
6) It acts as an electric insulator.6) It is a good conductor of electricity.
<br>

Additional Information

  • Note:
  • ​The possibility to make a mistake is that Graphite and Diamond are the allotropes of carbon and they are not the isotopes of each other.
  • Allotropes are the different forms of an element having different physical properties while isotopes are the atoms of an element having the same atomic number but different atomic mass.

Question 60

The raw materials used for the manufacture of Portland cement are

  1. AOption (a)

    Lime, silica and sulfur dioxide

  2. BOption (b)

    Lime, silica and carbon dioxide

  3. COption (c)

    Lime, silica and alumina

  4. DOption (d)

    Lime, silica and boric acid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Lime, silica and alumina

Why this answer is correct

The raw material that is used in the manufacturing of Portland cement mainly consists of lime, silica, alumina, and iron oxide.

  • The first step of manufacturing Portland Cement includes quarrying, followed by Primary Crushing.
  • Further, the raw materials are mixed in the right amount, and fed to the kiln system.
  • Other materials which are used to manufacture Portland Cement include - shells, chalk, shale, clay, slate, and silica sand.

Question 61

Which one of the following statements about water is not true?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hydrogen bonds are present in liquid water

  2. BOption (b)

    Water has a high boiling point

  3. COption (c)

    Water has a high heat of fusion

  4. DOption (d)

    Water is a nonpolar molecule

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Water is a nonpolar molecule

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Water is a nonpolar molecule.

Key Points

  • Water is a polar molecule:
  • Water is a polar molecule.
  • While the overall charge of the molecule is neutral, the orientation of the two positively charged hydrogens (+1 each) at one end and the negatively charged oxygen (-2) at the other end give it two poles.
  • This property causes water molecules to be weakly attracted to other water molecules (positive to negative, negative to positive) and results in the cohesion of water to itself.
  • Water droplets on a flat piece of glass, for example, form droplets and bead up.​
  • This means that the negatively and positively charged particles are unevenly distributed.
  • Electrons supply the negative charge, while the atomic nucleus provides a positive charge.
  • Water (H2O) is polar because of the bent shape of the molecule.
  • The boiling point of water is 100°C.
  • water molecules are polar:

Additional Information

  • Hydrogen bonding forms in liquid water because the hydrogen atoms of one water molecule are attracted toward the oxygen atom of a neighboring water molecule; generally, a proton is shared by two lone electron pairs.

Question 62

A sample of 'soft soap' contains

  1. AOption (a)

    Caesium

  2. BOption (b)

    Potassium

  3. COption (c)

    Calcium

  4. DOption (d)

    Magnesium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Potassium

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Potassium.

Key Points

  • Soft Soap is made up of Potassium Hydroxide.
  • Soft water feels slippery or slimy as if it does not rinse off.
  • It can taste salty due to its prevalent sodium content.
  • Soap and detergent will not lather up if used in too great a quantity.
  • Soft water leaves no mineral deposits in the shower, bath, or on your dishes.
  • Very soft water leaches metals such as lead and copper from pipes, plumbing fixtures, and solder, lending a metallic taste and odor to the water.
  • Soft water can be easily identified by its characteristic of forming a lather with soap.
  • Soft water has numerous benefits, most of which come from removing or reducing the levels of hard minerals.

Important Points

  • Chemical Composition of Soft Water:
  • Soft water contains 0 to 17.1 ppm (parts per million) of hard minerals.
  • Due to the relative absence of hard minerals, soft water has high sodium content.
  • Hard water is surface water that contains more than 50 mg/l of calcium carbonate.
  • Soap is a sodium salt or potassium salt of fatty acids having cleansing action in the water.
  • Vinegar and baking soda can be used for converting hard water into soft water.

Additional Information

  • Generally, hard soaps are made up of Sodium Hydroxide.
  • Softsoap has a low melting point.
  • Softsoap would lather with soft water as they would lower the concentration of Magnesium and Calcium ions.

Question 63

If an object moves at a non-zero constant acceleration for a certain interval of time, then the distance it covers in that time

  1. AOption (a)

    depends on its initial velocity

  2. BOption (b)

    is independent of its initial velocity

  3. COption (c)

    increases linearly with time

  4. DOption (d)

    depends on its initial displacement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

depends on its initial velocity

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Acceleration (a) -

  • Acceleration is the rate of change of the velocity of an object.

a=dvdt=v2−v1t2−t1a = \frac{{dv}}{{dt}} = \frac{{{v_2} - {v_1}}}{{{t_2} - {t_1}}}

Where v2 is final velocity at time t2 and v1 is final velocity at time t1.

EXPLANATION:

By using third equation of kinematics

s=ut+12at2s = ut + \frac{1}{2}a{t^2}

Where s = displacement, u = initial velocity, a = acceleration and t = time.

  • We can clearly say that, at non-zero constant acceleration for a certain interval of time, distance covered depend upon its initial velocity. Therefore option 1 is correct.
  • From above equation it is very much clear that displacement time graph is parabolic in nature, therefore option 3 is incorrect.
  • From above equation it is clear that distance covered depend upon its initial velocity. Therefore option 4 is incorrect.

Question 64

A solid disc and a solid sphere have the same mass and same radius. Which one has the higher moment of inertia about its centre of mass?

  1. AOption (a)

    The disc

  2. BOption (b)

    The sphere

  3. COption (c)

    Both have the same moment of inertia

  4. DOption (d)

    The information provided is not sufficient to answer the question

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The disc

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Moment of inertia:

  • Moment of inertia of a rigid body about a fixed axis is defined as the sum of the product of the masses of the particles constituting the body and the square of their respective distances from the axis of the rotation.
  • The moment of inertia of a particle  is

⇒ I = mr2

Where r = the perpendicular distance of the particle from the rotational axis.

  • Moment of inertia of a body made up of a number of particles (discrete distribution)

⇒ I = m1r12 + m2r22 + m3r32 + m4r42 + -------

EXPLANATION:

  • Moment of inertia of the disc about an axis passing through center and perpendicular to its plane is given by -

⇒Idisc=12MR2=0.5MR2⇒ {I_{disc}} = \frac{1}{2}M{R^2} = 0.5M{R^2}

  • Moment of inertia of the solid sphere about an axis passing through center and perpendicular to its plane is given by -

⇒Isphere=25MR2=0.4MR2⇒ {I_{sphere}} = \frac{2}{5}M{R^2} = 0.4M{R^2}

  • So, from above it is very clear that the moment of inertia of the disc is greater than the moment of inertia of the solid sphere.
BodyAxis of RotationMoment of inertia
Uniform circular ring of radius Rperpendicular to its plane and through the centerMR2
Uniform circular ring of radius RdiameterMR22\frac{MR^2}{2}
Uniform circular disc of radius Rperpendicular to its plane and through the centerMR22\frac{MR^2}{2}
Uniform circular disc of radius RdiameterMR24\frac{MR^2}{4}
A hollow cylinder of radius RAxis of cylinderMR2

Question 65

Two substances of densities r1 and r2 are mixed in equal volume and their relative density is 4.

When they are mixed in equal masses, relative density is 3. The values of r1 and r2 respectively are

  1. AOption (a)

    6, 2

  2. BOption (b)

    3, 5

  3. COption (c)

    12, 4

  4. DOption (d)

    9, 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

6, 2

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The relative density is defined as the ratio of the density of a substance to the density of water.
  • Mathematically relative density can be written as,
  • Relative;density=Density;of;bodyDensity;of;waterRelative;density = \frac{{Density;of;body}}{{Density;of;water}}

Let m be the mass of the given substance of volume V and density ρ. Let m1 be the mass of water of volume V and density ρ1 at 4°C. Then, m = Vρ and m1 = Vρ1

  • Relative density, ρr=mm1=VρVρ1=ρ;ρ1;;{\rho _r} = \frac{m}{{{m_1}}} = \frac{{V\rho }}{{V{\rho _1}}} = \frac{{\rho ;}}{{{\rho _{1;}}}};

EXPLANATION:

Given = ρv = 4 and ρm = 3

If two liquids of same masses but densities ρ1 and ρ2 respectively are mixed, then the density of the mixture is

ρm=2ρ1ρ2(ρ1+ρ2){\rho _m} = \frac{{2{\rho _1}{\rho _2}}}{{\left( {{\rho _1} + {\rho _2}} \right)}}

3=2ρ1ρ2(ρ1+ρ2)3 = \frac{{2{\rho _1}{\rho _2}}}{{\left( {{\rho _1} + {\rho _2}} \right)}}

⇒3(ρ1+ρ2)=2ρ1ρ2\Rightarrow 3\left( {{\rho _1} + {\rho _2}} \right) = 2{\rho _1}{\rho _2}

⇒3ρ1+3ρ2=2ρ1ρ2\Rightarrow 3{\rho _1} + 3{\rho _2} = 2{\rho _1}{\rho _2}     ----(1)

If two liquids of same volume but densities ρ1 and ρ2 respectively are mixed, then the density of the mixture is

ρv=ρ1+ρ22{\rho _v} = \frac{{{\rho _1} + {\rho _2}}}{2}

4=ρ1+ρ224 = \frac{{{\rho _1} + {\rho _2}}}{2}

⇒ ρ1+ρ2=8{\rho _1} + {\rho _2} = 8       ----(2)

On solving (1) and (2) we get

ρ1=6,ρ2=2{\rho _1} = 6,{\rho _2} = 2

Question 66

A car starts from Bengaluru, goes 50 km in a straight line towards south, immediately turns around and returns to Bengaluru. The time taken for this round trip is 2 hours. The magnitude of the average velocity of the car for this round trip

  1. AOption (a)

    is 0

  2. BOption (b)

    is 50 km/hr

  3. COption (c)

    is 25 km/hr

  4. DOption (d)

    cannot be calculated without knowing acceleration

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

is 0

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

 Average velocity -

  • The average velocity of an object is its total displacement divided by the total time taken.

 

vav=Total;displacementTotal;time;taken{v_{av}} = \frac{{Total;displacement}}{{Total;time;taken}}

Calculation:

Given - Distance from starting point to Bengaluru = 50 km and time taken for this round trip = 2 hours.

A car starts from Bengaluru, goes 50 km in a straight line towards south, immediately turns around and returns to Bengaluru i.e. it reach’s to its starting point.

It means displacement is zero as displacement is defined as the difference between the final and initial position of the object in a given time.

As average velocity is defined as,

Avergae;velocity=Total;displacementTotal;time=50+(−50)2;=0Avergae;velocity = \frac{{Total;displacement}}{{Total;time}} = \frac{{50 + \left( { - 50} \right)}}{{2;}} = 0

Important points -

  • The magnitude of displacement is equal to the minimum possible distance between two positions. So distance ≥ Displacement.
  • For a moving particle, distance can never be negative or zero while displacement can be. (Zero displacement means that body after motion has come back to initial position). i.e., Distance > 0 but Displacement > = or < 0.
  • For motion between two points displacement is single-valued while distance depends on the actual path and so can have many values.
  • For a moving particle, distance can never decrease with time while displacement can. A decrease in displacement with time means the body is moving towards the initial position.

Question 67

"The sum of emf’s and potential differences around a closed loop equals zero" is a consequence of

  1. AOption (a)

    Ohm's law

  2. BOption (b)

    Conservation of charge

  3. COption (c)

    Conservation of momentum

  4. DOption (d)

    Conservation of energy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Conservation of energy

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

There are two types of Kirchoff’s Laws:

Kirchoff’s first law:

  • This law is also known as junction rule or current law (KCL). According to it the algebraic sum of currents meeting at a junction is zero i.e. Σ i = 0.
  • In a circuit, at any junction the sum of the currents entering the junction must be equal the sum of the currents leaving the junction.
  • This law is simply a statement of “conservation of charge” as if current reaching a junction is not equal to the current leaving the junction, charge will not be conserved.

Kirchoff’s second law:

  • This law is also known as loop rule or voltage law (KVL) and according to it “the algebraic sum of the changes in potential in complete traversal of a mesh (closed loop) is zero”, i.e. Σ V = 0.
  • This law represents “conservation of energy” as if the sum of potential changes around a closed loop is not zero, unlimited energy could be gained by repeatedly carrying a charge around a loop.
  • If there are n meshes in a circuit, the number of independent equations in accordance with loop rule will be (n - 1).

EXPLANATION:

  • From above it clear that "The sum of emf’s and potential differences around a closed loop equals zero" is a consequence of conservation of energy

Question 68

A student measure certain lengths using a meter scale having least count equal to 1 mm. Which of the following measurements are more precise?

  1. AOption (a)

    0·50 mm

  2. BOption (b)

    29·07 cm

  3. COption (c)

    0·925 m

  4. DOption (d)

    910 mm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

0·925 m

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Least Count:

  • Least Count of an instrument is the smallest measurement that can be taken using an instrument. In other words, it is the smallest change an instrument can measure.
  • For example, the ruler can measure a minimum 1 mm length. Therefore ruler L.C. is 1 mm.
<br>

Least Count vs Precision:

  • L.C. is directly related to precision. If an instrument has a small L.C, that means it is more precise.
<br>

Formula to calculate least count is:

  • Least Count for an instrument is calculated by dividing main scale reading with number of divisions i.e.

Instrument least Count = Main Scale least Count / Divisions in secondary Scale

<br>

EXPLANATION:

  • The precision of a measuring tool is reflected in significant figures in the value.
  • Since 1 m = 1000 mm
  • As the given scale is a meter scale so it can measure 1000 mm with a least count of 1mm.
  • The precision of any measuring tool depends on the size of its measurement increments.
  • The smaller is the measurement increment, the more precise will be the tool.
  • The number having more digits after the points will be more precise because it can measure the very small differences in length. So option 3 is correct which is having 3 digits after the points.

Question 69

If the work done on the system or by the system· is zero, which one of the following statements for a gas kept at a certain volume is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Change in internal energy of the system is equal to flow of heat in or out of the system.

  2. BOption (b)

    Change in internal energy of the system is less than heat transferred.

  3. COption (c)

    Change in internal energy of the system is more than the heat flow.

  4. DOption (d)

    Cannot be determined.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Change in internal energy of the system is equal to flow of heat in or out of the system.

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

First Law of Thermodynamics:

  • It is a statement of conservation of energy in thermo dynamical process.
  • According to it heat given to a system (ΔQ) is equal to the sum of increase in its internal energy (ΔU) and the work done (ΔW) by the system against the surroundings.

i.e ΔQ = ΔU + ΔW          [∴ ΔW = p ΔV]

  • It makes no distinction between work and heat as according to it the internal energy (and hence temperature) of a system may be increased either by adding heat to it or doing work on it or both.

EXPLANATION:

  • According to question, if the work done on the system or by the system is zero which is only possible when system has constant volume (ΔV = 0) the term –PΔV = 0 and work is equal to zero.
  • Thus, in the equation ΔU = ΔQ + ΔW = ΔQ + 0 = ΔQ
  • ΔU = ΔQ
  • The internal energy is equal to the heat of the system. Hence option 1 is correct.

Question 70

Consider the following part of an electric circuit:

The total electrical resistance in the given part of the electric circuit is

  1. AOption (a)

    15/8 ohm

  2. BOption (b)

    15/7 ohm

  3. COption (c)

    15 ohm

  4. DOption (d)

    17/3 ohm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

15/7 ohm

Why this answer is correct

Concept-

Obstruction offered to the flow of current is known as resistance. When two resistors are connected in series then the equivalent resistance is Rser = R1 + R2

When two resistors are connected in parallel then the equivalent resistance is

\(\frac{1}{{{R}{para}}}=~\frac{1}{{{R}{1}}}+\frac{1}{{{R}_{2}}}\)

Explanation-

From the above figure it is very much clear that 2 Ω, 4 Ω and 8 Ω are in parallel combination.

∴ Equivalent resistance is

\(\frac{1}{{{R}{para}}}=~\frac{1}{{{R}{1}}}+\frac{1}{{{R}{2}}}+\frac{1}{{{R}{3}}}\)

1Rpara=;12;Ω+14;Ω+18;Ω=;4+2+18=78\frac{1}{{{R_{para}}}} = ;\frac{1}{{2{\rm{;\Omega }}}} + \frac{1}{{4{\rm{;\Omega }}}} + \frac{1}{{8{\rm{;\Omega }}}} = ;\frac{{4 + 2 + 1}}{8} = \frac{7}{8}

Rpara=87Ω{R_{para}} = \frac{8}{7}{\rm{\Omega }}

From above figure it is very clear that 8/7 Ω and 1 Ω are in series.

∴ Rser = R1 + R2

Rser=87+1=8+77=157Ω{R_{ser}} = \frac{8}{7} + 1 = \frac{{8 + 7}}{7} = \frac{{15}}{7}{\rm{\Omega }}

Question 71

Which of the following statements regarding lenses is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    A convex lens produces both real and virtual images.

  2. BOption (b)

    A concave lens produces both real and virtual images.

  3. COption (c)

    A convex lens can produce an image equal, greater and smaller than the size of the object.

  4. DOption (d)

    A concave lens always produces images smaller than the size of the object.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A concave lens produces both real and virtual images.

Why this answer is correct

Concave lens –

  • A concave lens is thin in middle and thick at the edges.
  • A concave lens is a spherical lens whose two surfaces are concave or bent inward.
  • A concave lens is also know known as a diverging lens.

Convex lens –

  • A convex lens is thick in middle and thin at the edges.
  • A convex lens is a spherical lens whose two surfaces are bent outwards.
  • A convex lens is also know known as a converging lens.

Explanation –

  • The nature of the image formed by the convex lens is real and inverted but in one case when the object is placed between the pole and the focus of the convex lens the image formed is virtual and erect. Therefore option 1 is correct.
  • The nature of the image formed by the concave lens is always virtual and erect. Therefore option 2 is incorrect.
  • A convex lens can produce an image equal, greater and smaller than the size of the object is true. Therefore option 3 is correct.
  • The nature of the image formed by the concave lens is always virtual and erect and diminished in size. Therefore option 4 is correct.

Question 72

10 g of ice at - 10°C is mixed with 10 g of water at 0°C. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of mixture to 10°C is

  1. AOption (a)

    400 cal

  2. BOption (b)

    550 cal

  3. COption (c)

    1050 cal

  4. DOption (d)

    1200 cal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1050 cal

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Specific heat or specific heat capacity of a body:

  • The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of unit mass of a body through 1° C (or K) is called specific heat of the material of the body.
  • It is generally denoted by S.

Q = mS∆T              

Where Q = heat required, ∆T = change in temperature and m = mass of the body

Latent heat:

  • The amount of heat required to change the state of unit mass m of the substance at constant temperature is called latent heat of the substance.
  • It is written as: Q = mL, where L is the latent heat.
  • Latent heat is also called as heat of Transformation.

EXPLANATION:

10 g of ice at -10° C

First it will convert into 10 g of ice at 0° C.

∴ Heat required (Q1) = miSi∆T              

Here, ΔT = temperature change = 0° - (-10° C) = 10° C

Mass of ice (m) = 10 g

Specific heat of ice (Si) = 0.5 cal/gram ° C

Hence,

Q1 = 10 × 0.5 × 10              

Q1 = 50 cal

Then 10 g of ice will converted into 10 g of water.

∴ Latent heat required is

Q2 = mL

Latent heat of melting of ice = 80 Calories / gram

∴ Q2 = 10 × 80

Q2 = 800 cal

Now total amount of water = 10 g +10 g =20 g

This 20 g of water at 0° C will converted to 10° C water.

∴ heat given is

Q3 = mwSw∆T              

Specific heat of water (Sw) = 1 cal/gram ° C

ΔT = temperature change = 10° - 0° C = 10° C

∴ Q3 = 20 × 1 × 10              

Q3 = 200 cal

Total heat Q = Q1+ Q2+ Q3

∴ Q = 50 + 800 + 200

Q = 1050 cal

Question 73

Which one of the following does not represent the salt, calcium carbonate?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lime water

  2. BOption (b)

    Limestone

  3. COption (c)

    Chalk

  4. DOption (d)

    Marble

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Lime water

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lime Water.

Key Points

  • Limestone, chalk, and marble have calcium carbonate.
  • Lime water has lime or citrus.
  • It does not have calcium carbonate.
  • Limewater is calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)₂.
  • It is soluble (only sparsely) in water at room temperature.
  • Excessive Calcium Hydroxide when added, it results in a milky solution.
  • Thus the answer will be lime water.

Question 74

On the basis of which principle does soap clean surfaces?

  1. AOption (a)

    Viscosity

  2. BOption (b)

    Flotation

  3. COption (c)

    Elasticity

  4. DOption (d)

    Surface tension

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Surface tension

Why this answer is correct

Soaps and detergent act like emulsifiers and surfactants respectively, while cleaning clothes. Soaps use the principle of surface tension to clean surfaces.

  • Surface tension is that property of water through which it acts like an elastic membrane.
  • When soap is added, it lowers the surface tension of water.
  • This helps soaps in cleaning the surface due to reduced intermolecular forces in water, through which hydrophilic and hydrophobic ends can work.
  • Viscosity is the resistance offered to deformation at a given rate by a liquid.
  • Flotation is a method widely used in Wastewater Treatment.

Question 75

Which one of the following substances is not a mixture?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tin

  2. BOption (b)

    Sea water

  3. COption (c)

    Soil

  4. DOption (d)

    Air

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Tin

Why this answer is correct

Tin is a Pure Substance.

  • A Pure substance is something having a homogeneous composition.
  • Other examples of pure substances include - Diamond, Sulfur, Iron, Steel, and Water.
  • Sea Water, Soil, and Air are mixtures.
  • A mixture is a combination of two or more pure substances in which each pure substance retains its individual chemical properties.
  • Tin can be mixed with other elements like copper to make Bronze. (An alloy)

Question 76

Which one of the following is termed as ‘Dry ice’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ice present in ice-cream

  2. BOption (b)

    Solid water at Antarctica

  3. COption (c)

    Solid state of carbon dioxide

  4. DOption (d)

    Solid water of ionosphere

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Solid state of carbon dioxide

Why this answer is correct

Dry ice is the solid form/state of carbon dioxide (CO2).

  • It is a molecule that consists of a single carbon atom bonded to two other oxygen atoms.
  • Dry ice is non-flammable and colorless.
  • When dissolved in water, dry ice can lower the pH of a solution, and form carbonic acid.
  • Applications - Food preservation, Airline Shipping, Freeze Branding.

Question 77

Net movement of water from a dilute to a concentrated solution through a selectively permeable membrane is called?

  1. AOption (a)

    Diffusion

  2. BOption (b)

    Dispersion

  3. COption (c)

    Osmosis

  4. DOption (d)

    Absorption

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Osmosis

Why this answer is correct

Movement from a solvent molecule from a diluted solution/less concentrated solution to a more concentrated solution through a permeable membrane is called osmosis.

  • Dispersion involves a system in which the distributed particles disperse from one material to another material in a continuous phase.
  • Diffusion is the movement of particles or ions from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
  • Absorption is the act of assimilating. Example - Absorption of drugs in the bloodstream.

Question 78

Blood is a type of _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Epithelial tissue

  2. BOption (b)

    Muscular tissue

  3. COption (c)

    Nervous tissue

  4. DOption (d)

    Connective tissue

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Connective tissue

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Connective tissue.

  • Blood is a type of connective tissue.

Key Points

  • Blood is a fluid connective tissue containing plasma, red blood cells (RBC), white blood cells (WBC), and platelets.
  • It is the main circulating fluid that helps in the transport of various substances.
  • Connective tissues are most abundant and widely distributed in the body of complex animals.
  • They are named connective tissues because of their special function of linking and supporting other tissues/organs of the body.
  • They range from soft connective tissues to specialized types, which include cartilage, bone, adipose, and blood.

Question 79

Mitochondria are able to produce their own______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Nucleus

  2. BOption (b)

    Proteins

  3. COption (c)

    Chloroplasts

  4. DOption (d)

    Digestive enzymes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Proteins

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Proteins.

Key Points

  • Due to the presence of a nucleus and ribosomes, mitochondria are able to produce their own proteins.
  • Mitochondria is is a double-layered cell organelle, in which the outer layer is porous and the inner layer is folded upon itself is known to be cristae.
  • The number of mitochondria in a single cell may be up to 50 to 5000.
  • The inner lumen of mitochondria contains ribosome phosphate particles and DNA molecules.
  • It has the potential to synthesize its own protein and oxidation of carbohydrates and fats are taken place with the help of enzymes in mitochondria.
  • This energy is stored in the form of ATP ( Adenosine Triphosphate ) so, these are known as the "Powerhouse of the cell".

Important Points

  • Ribosomes are first observed under the electron microscope by George Palade.
  • They are composed of ribonucleic acid and protein and are not surrounded by any membrane.
  • They are the site of protein synthesis.
  • There are two types of ribosome
  • Eukaryotic ribosomes-  80s
  • Prokaryotic ribosomes-  70s​
  • S = Svedberg unit or sedimentation rate.
  • It indirectly is a measure of density and size.

Additional Information

  • Chloroplasts - They are disc-shaped organelles that are found in the cytosol of a cell. Chloroplasts are found in algae and plants and are responsible for capturing light to make sugar through photosynthesis.
  • Nucleus - They are membrane-bound organelle that is found in Eukaryotic Cells.

Question 80

Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Xylem consists of tracheids, vessels, xylem parenchyma and xylem fibres

  2. BOption (b)

    Flexibility in plants is due to sclerenchyma

  3. COption (c)

    Parenchyma have no intercellular spaces

  4. DOption (d)

    Xylem consists of sieve plate, sieve tube and companion cells

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Xylem consists of tracheids, vessels, xylem parenchyma and xylem fibres

Why this answer is correct

The xylem is the principal water-conducting tissue in vascular plants consisting of tracheids, wood vessels, xylem fibers, and xylem parenchyma.

  • The flexibility in plants is due to collenchyma allowing the leaves and stem to bend without breaking.
  • Sclerenchyma, a dead cell having lenin in their cell wall, have no intercellular space.
  • Parenchyma, on the other hand, are branched cells with a high amount of lacunose, meaning it has a large volume of intercellular space.
  • It is the Phloem consists of sieve elements, companion cells, phloem parenchyma cells and phloem fibers.

Question 81

Who among the following popularized the use of embryological characters in taxonomy?

  1. AOption (a)

    Carl Linnaeus

  2. BOption (b)

    Panchanan Maheshwari

  3. COption (c)

    Birbal Sahni

  4. DOption (d)

    Bentham and Hooker

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Panchanan Maheshwari

Why this answer is correct

Panchanan Maheshwari popularized the use of embryological characters in taxonomy.

  • He established the Department of Botany in the University of Delhi as an important center of research in embryology and tissue culture.
  • UGC recognized it as the Centre of Advanced Study in Botany.
  • He founded “Phytomorphology”, an international research journal.
  • Along with this, he founded ‘The Botanica’ magazine in 1950.
  • Carl Linnaeus is a Swedish Botanist who formalized Binomial Nomenclature.
  • Birbal Sahni was an Indian paleobotanist studying fossils on the Indian Subcontinent.
  • The taxonomic system Bentham and Hooker system of seed plants is attributed to Bentham and Hooker.

Question 82

Water is heated with a coil of resistance R connected to domestic supply. The rise of temperature of water will depend on

  1. Supply voltage

  2. Current passing through the coil.

  3. Time for which voltage Is supplied

Select the correct answer from among the following:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 only

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

Concept –

Joules Heating –

  • When some potential difference V is applied across a resistance R then the work done by the electric field on charge q to flow through the circuit in time t will be

W=Vq=VIt=I2Rt=V2tRW = Vq = VIt = {I^2}Rt = \frac{{{V^2}t}}{R}

  • This work appears as thermal energy in the resistor.
  • The heat produced by the resistance R is

H=Vq=VIt=I2Rt=V2tRH = Vq = VIt = {I^2}Rt = \frac{{{V^2}t}}{R}

  • This relation is called joule’s heating.
<br>

Explanation –

From Joule’s Law of Heating, we get, H = VIt

Therefore, the rise of the temperature of water depends on

  • Supply voltage
  • Current passing through the coil.
  • Time for which voltage Is supplied

Hence option 1 is correct.

Question 83

A pendulum clock is lifted to a height where the gravitational acceleration has a certain value g. Another pendulum clock of same length but of double the mass of the bob is lifted to another height where the gravitational acceleration is g/2. The time period of the second pendulum would be:

(in terms of period T of the first pendulum)

  1. AOption (a)

    √2 T

  2. BOption (b)

    1√2T\frac{1}{{\surd 2}}T

  3. COption (c)

    2√2 T

  4. DOption (d)

    T

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

√2 T

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Simple Pendulum:

  • An ideal simple pendulum consists of a heavy point mass body (bob) suspended by a weightless, inextensible and perfectly flexible string from a rigid support about which it is free to oscillate.

For a simple pendulum the time period of swing of a pendulum depends on the length of the string and acceleration due to gravity.

T=2;ΠlgT = 2;{\rm{\Pi }}\sqrt {\frac{l}{{\rm{g}}}}

The above formula is only valid for small angular displacements.

Where, T = Time period of oscillation, l = length of the pendulum and g = gravitational acceleration

  • The force which acts to bring a body to its mean position/equilibrium position is called as restoring force.
  • For example:  The spring force is a restoring force because it always applies a force towards the equilibrium point.

EXPLANATION:

Given – Time period of first pendulum = T, Time period of first pendulum = T1, acceleration due to gravity of first pendulum = g and acceleration due to gravity of second pendulum (g1) = g/2 and mass of second bob (m1) = 2m

Time period of first pendulum is,

T=2;ΠlgT = 2;{\rm{\Pi }}\sqrt {\frac{l}{{\rm{g}}}}

Time period of second pendulum is,

T1=2;Πlg1=2;Πl×2g=2;T{T_1} = 2;{\rm{\Pi }}\sqrt {\frac{l}{{{{\rm{g}}_1}}}} = 2;{\rm{\Pi }}\sqrt {\frac{{l \times 2}}{{\rm{g}}}} = \sqrt 2 ;T

The time period of the second pendulum is T√2.

Question 84

The loudness of sound depends upon the

  1. AOption (a)

    velocity of sound waves in the medium.

  2. BOption (b)

    amplitude of the sound waves.

  3. COption (c)

    frequency of the sound waves.

  4. DOption (d)

    frequency and velocity of the sound waves.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

amplitude of the sound waves.

Why this answer is correct

Explanation

Pitch –

  • The pitch of a sound is the characteristic which distinguishes between a sharp sound and a flat sound. The pitch we hear depends on the frequency of the sound waves with the amplitude unchanged.
  • A sound of high pitch is said to be shrill and it's frequency is high.
  • A sound of low pitch is said to be grave and it's frequency is low

Loudness –

  • Characteristic of sound, on account of which the sound appears to be intense or slow.
  • The loudness that we sense is related to the intensity of sound though it is not directly proportional.
  • The loudness depends on intensity or amplitude as well as upon the sensitiveness of ear.
  • The relation between the loudness and the intensity is given by –
<br>

Intensity ∝ A2

Where A is the amplitude.

Question 85

Two bodies of mass M each are placed R distance apart. In another system, two bodies of mass 2M each are placed R/2 distance apart. If F be the gravitational force between the bodies in the first system, then the gravitational force between the bodies in the second system will be

  1. AOption (a)

    16 F

  2. BOption (b)

    1 F

  3. COption (c)

    4 F

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

16 F

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Newton's law of Gravitation:

  • Newton's law of gravitation states that everybody in this universe attracts every other body with a force, which is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between their centers.
  • The direction of the force is along the line joining the particles.
  • The magnitude of the gravitational force F is

⇒F=GM1M2R2⇒ F = G\frac{{{M_1}{M_2}}}{{{R^2}}}

Where G = universal gravitational constant, M1 = mass of 1st body, M2 = mass of 2nd body, and R = distance between the two bodies.

<br>

EXPLANATION:

Given – Mass of each body in 1st system = M, Distance between the two bodies 1st system = R, Mass of each body in 2nd system = 2M, Distance between the two bodies 2nd system = R/2.

  • The magnitude of the gravitational force F in 1st system is

⇒F=GM×MR2=GM2R2⇒ F = G\frac{{M \times M}}{{{R^2}}} = G\frac{{{M^2}}}{{{R^2}}}       ----(1)

  • The magnitude of the gravitational force F in 2nd system is

⇒F1=G2M×2M(R2)2=G16M2R2⇒ {F_1} = G\frac{{2M \times 2M}}{{{{\left( {\frac{R}{2}} \right)}^2}}} = G\frac{{16{M^2}}}{{{R^2}}}      ----(2)

Dividing equations (1) and (2), we get

⇒FF1=GM2R216GM2R2=116⇒ \frac{F}{{{F_1}}} = \frac{{\frac{{G{M^2}}}{{{R^2}}}}}{{\frac{{16G{M^2}}}{{{R^2}}}}} = \frac{1}{{16}}

⇒ F1 = 16F

Question 86

Light rays move in straight lines. But through an optical fibre, they can move in any type of zigzag path because

  1. AOption (a)

    the holes through the fibre are extremely fine.

  2. BOption (b)

    light rays are absorbed at the entry end and relieved at the exit end of the fibre.

  3. COption (c)

    scattering of light occurs inside the fibre.

  4. DOption (d)

    successive total internal reflections occur as a ray moves through the fibre.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

successive total internal reflections occur as a ray moves through the fibre.

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Total Internal Reflection (TIR):

  • Total Internal Reflection (TIR): When a ray of light goes from denser to rarer medium it bends away from the normal and as the angle of incidence in denser medium increases, the angle of refraction in rarer medium also increases and at a certain angle, angle of refraction becomes 90°, this angle of incidence is called critical angle (C).
  • When Angle of incidence exceeds the critical angle than light ray comes back in to the same medium after reflection from interface. This phenomenon is called Total internal reflection (TIR).

Conditions for TIR: 

  1. The ray must travel from denser medium to rarer medium.
  2. The angle of incidence i must be greater than critical angle C.

EXPLANATION:

Optical fibre:

  • Optical fibres consist of many long high quality composite glass/quartz fibres. Each fibre consists of a core and cladding.
  • The refractive index of the material of the core (μ1) is higher than that of the cladding (μ2).
  • When the light is incident on one end of the fibre at a small angle, the light passes inside, undergoes repeated total internal reflections along the fibre and finally comes out.
  • The angle of incidence is always larger than the critical angle of the core material with respect to its cladding.
  • Even if the fibre is bent, the light can easily travel through along the fibre.

Question 87

Which one of the following statements regarding cathode rays is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cathode ray particles are electrons.

  2. BOption (b)

    Cathode ray particles start from anode and move towards cathode.

  3. COption (c)

    In the absence of electrical and magnetic fields, cathode rays travel in straight lines.

  4. DOption (d)

    Television picture tubes are cathode ray tubes.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Cathode ray particles start from anode and move towards cathode.

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Cathode rays: Cathode rays are the stream of high speed negatively charged particles moving from cathode to anode in a discharge tube.

Properties of Cathode Rays:

  • Cathode rays travel in a straight line.
  • They are streams off fast-moving electrons.
  • Cathode rays heat up the material on which they fall.
  • The cathode rays in the discharge tube are the electrons produced due to the ionization of gas and that emitted by cathode due to the collision of positive ions.
  • Cathode rays are emitted normally from the cathode surface. Their direction is independent of the position of the anode.
  • Cathode rays are deflected by an electric field and also by a magnetic field.
  • Cathode rays ionise the gases through which they are passed.
  • Cathode rays can penetrate through thin foils of metal.

EXPLANATION:

  • From above it is clear that Cathode ray particles start from cathode and move towards anode. Thus option 2 is incorrect.

Question 88

A very large volume of hydrogen can be accommodated by making__________.

  1. AOption (a)

    non-metallic hydrides

  2. BOption (b)

    hydrogen peroxide

  3. COption (c)

    non-stoichiometric hydrides

  4. DOption (d)

    alkali metal hydrides

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

non-stoichiometric hydrides

Why this answer is correct

Non-stoichiometric hydrides or Metallic Hydrides are hydrogen deficient.

  • This means that they don’t hold the Law of Constant Composition.
  • Hydrides of Nickel, Palladium, Cerium, and Actinium occupy the interstitial position in the lattice.
  • This allows a large amount of hydrogen absorption.
  • Metals like Palladium and Platinum can store large amounts of hydrogen and hence are used for the same.

Question 89

Which one of the following is not a monatomic element?

  1. AOption (a)

    Copper

  2. BOption (b)

    Helium

  3. COption (c)

    Iodine

  4. DOption (d)

    Barium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Iodine

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Iodine.

  • Iodine is not a monoatomic element. It is a diatomic element.

Key Points

  • Diatomic molecules are those molecules that are composed of only two atoms.
  • If a diatomic molecule is composed of the same element it is known as a homonuclear and if it is composed of two different elements it is known as heteronuclear
  • Seven diatomic elements are:
  • Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Oxygen, Fluorine, Chlorine, Iodine, and Bromine.

Additional Information

  • Monatomic is a combination of two words “mono” and “atomic” which means a single atom.
  • This term is used in both Physics and Chemistry and is applied to the gases as a monatomic gas.
  • In the gaseous phase at sufficiently high temperatures, all the chemical elements are monatomic gases.
  • Noble gases are monatomic gases as they are unreactive in nature which is a property of these gases.
  • Monatomic Examples
  • ​The noble gases are examples of monatomic gases, and they are: Helium, Radon, Neon, Xenon, Argon, Krypton
  • Helium is a monatomic noble gas with a full outer valence shell.
  • Diatomic molecules consist of two atoms bonded together. Eg - Copper, Barium.

Question 90

Which one of the following represents the correct order of electron releasing tendency of metals?

  1. AOption (a)

    Zn > Cu > Ag

  2. BOption (b)

    Ag > Cu > Zn

  3. COption (c)

    Cu > Zn > Ag

  4. DOption (d)

    Cu > Ag > Zn

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Zn > Cu > Ag

Why this answer is correct

Metals differ in their tendency to release valence electrons.

  • Activity is the chemical name for this tendency to release electrons.
  • The activity series is the arrangement of elements according to their ability to release electrons.
  • The activity series is shown below
  • Li > K > Ba > Sr > Ca > Na > Mg > Al > Mn > Zn > Fe > Cd > Co > Ni > Sn > Pb > H2 > Cu > Hg > Ag > Au

Question 91

Which one of the following is the major constituent of biogas?

  1. AOption (a)

    Carbon dioxide

  2. BOption (b)

    Nitrous oxide

  3. COption (c)

    Methane

  4. DOption (d)

    Oxygen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Methane

Why this answer is correct

Biogas primarily comprises methane and carbon dioxide.

  • It also has traces of Hydrogen Sulphide, Siloxanes, and Moisture.
  • Gases like hydrogen, carbon dioxide, and hydrogen can be oxidized with oxygen.
  • Biogas thus is used for heating purposes such as cooking.
  • Biogas can be compressed in the same way natural gas is compressed to CNG.

Question 92

Thyroid gland produces a hormone called "Thyroxine" which_________.

  1. AOption (a)

    controls blood glucose levels

  2. BOption (b)

    controls ovulation.

  3. COption (c)

    controls metabolic rate

  4. DOption (d)

    maintains pregnancy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

controls metabolic rate

Why this answer is correct

Thyroxine stimulates oxygen consumption with the help of metabolically active tissues.

  • It helps in increasing the oxidation of glucose in tissues.
  • This helps in regulating/controlling metabolic rate.
  • Insulin controls blood glucose levels.
  • The hypothalamus controls the ovulation.
  • Oxytocin, progesterone, and oestrogen regulate various processes of Pregnancy.

Question 93

Which one of the following is a bacterium that causes disease in the human body?

  1. AOption (a)

    Varicella zoster

  2. BOption (b)

    Trypanosoma gambiense

  3. COption (c)

    Salmonella typhi

  4. DOption (d)

    Plasmodium falciparum

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Salmonella typhi

Why this answer is correct

Salmonella typhi is a type of bacterium that can cause typhoid.

  • Varicella zoster is a virus that causes chickenpox.
  • Trypanosoma gambiense is a parasite causes vector-borne diseases in vertebrate animals.
  • Plasmodium falciparum is a unicellular protozoan parasite of humans that causes malaria.

Question 94

Which one of the following statements regarding viruses is not true?

  1. AOption (a)

    Viruses need living cells to reproduce

  2. BOption (b)

    All viruses are parasites

  3. COption (c)

    Viruses can synthesize their food through photosynthesis

  4. DOption (d)

    Viruses are similar to chemical substances outside the host

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Viruses can synthesize their food through photosynthesis

Why this answer is correct

Viruses lack protein and they don’t contain chlorophyll. Hence, viruses cannot synthesize their food through photosynthesis.

  • Viruses, in order to reproduce, depend on the host cells.
  • Viruses are similar to chemical substances outside the host. They are dormant.
  • All viruses are obligate parasites, which means they lack metabolic machinery to generate proteins or generate any type of energy.

Concept:

  • The term Virus in Latin means Poison.
  • Viruses are small submicroscopic pathogenic agents that infect all the different life forms, from animals and plants to microbes and archaea.
  • TMV was the first discovered virus.
  • The study of Virus is called Virology

Explanation:

  • A virus cannot replicate outside a living cell. It requires a host body to complete its replication, without the host it is considered Non-living. It lives in the host body as an obligate, intracellular parasite.
  • They enter the host cells and captures all their metabolic activity.
  • So for this reason, viruses are exclusively parasites.

Note: A virus is considered a connecting link between Living and Non-living things because of its biotic and abiotic characters.

Additional Information

  • Saprophytes: These are the organisms that depend on the dead and decaying matter to complete their food requirement. Eg. some fungi, slime mould & bacteria
  • Autotrophs: The organisms that prepare their own food are called autotrophs. These can be photo-autotrophs & chemo-autotrophs. Eg. Green plant, BGA

Question 95

Which one of the following diseases may be caused by the deficiency of vitamin C?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rickets

  2. BOption (b)

    Rabies

  3. COption (c)

    Hepatitis

  4. DOption (d)

    Scurvy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Scurvy

Why this answer is correct

Scurvy is caused due to the deficiency of Vitamin C.

Key Points

  • Vitamin C
  • It is a water-soluble vitamin that plays a vital role in repairing, production, regeneration, and maintenance of tissues, bones, blood vessels, and skin.
  • It is a powerful antioxidant, which helps in protecting against heart-related disorders, a variety of cancers and neutralizes the effects of nitrites.
  • It also absorbs iron and prevents scurvy, and decreases LDL or bad cholesterol and triglycerides.

Additional Information

  • Hepatitis is an inflammatory condition of the liver, caused by a viral infection.
  • Caused by the rabies virus, rabies is spread through the saliva of infected animals.
  • Rickets is a bone disorder which is caused by deficiency of Vitamin D.

Important Points

  • Vitamins
  • ​They are organic compounds that help in performing the biological functions of a living organism.
  • It is a vital nutrient that should be included in our daily diet in the required quantity.
  • They are referred to as organic compounds, are required in very small amounts, hence, they are mentioned as micronutrients.
  • They perform vital functions and an essential role in our body functions such as metabolism, immunity and digestion.

Question 96

Compared to audible sound waves, ultrasound waves have

  1. AOption (a)

    higher speed.

  2. BOption (b)

    higher frequency.

  3. COption (c)

    longer wavelength.

  4. DOption (d)

    both higher speed and frequency.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

higher frequency.

Why this answer is correct

Concept –

 Waves –

  • Waves can occur whenever a system is disturbed from equilibrium and when the disturbance can travel or propagate from one region of the system to another.
<br>

Types of Waves

Audible or sound waves

  • Range 20 Hz to 20 KHz.
  • These are generated by vibrating bodies such as vocal cords, stretched strings, or membranes.

Infrasonic waves

  • Frequency lies below 20 Hz and wavelengths are greater than 16.6 cm.
  • Examples: waves produced during earthquakes, ocean waves, etc.

Ultrasonic waves

  • Frequency greater than 20 kHz.
  • The human ear cannot detect these waves, and certain creatures such as mosquitoes, dogs, and bat show responses to these.
  • As the velocity of sound in air is 332 m/sec so the wavelength λ < 1.66 cm.
  • These waves are used for navigation underwater (SONAR).
  • They are used in ultrasonography (in photography or scanning soft tissue of the body).
<br>

Explanation –

  • From above it is very much clear that the frequency of ultrasound waves is much more than that of the audible wave.
  • Sound waves are independent of wave characteristics such as frequency, period, and amplitude.
  • Its speed depends on the properties of the medium through which it travels.
  • Sound waves travel faster in solid, fast in liquid, and slow in air.
  • It cannot travel in a vacuum.

Hence option 2 is correct.

Question 97

A rigid body of mass 2 kg is dropped from a stationary balloon kept at a height of 50 m from the ground. The speed of the body when it just touches the ground and the total energy

when it is dropped from the balloon are respectively

(acceleration due to gravity =  9·8 m/s-2)

  1. AOption (a)

    980 m.s-1 and 980 J

  2. BOption (b)

    980;m.s−1;and;980;J\sqrt {980} ;m.{s^{ - 1}};and;\sqrt {980} ;J

  3. COption (c)

    980 m.s-1 and √980 J

  4. DOption (d)

    √980 m.s-1 and 980 J

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

√980 m.s-1 and 980 J

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Potential energy (PE): The energy possessed by a body by virtue of its position or configuration is called potential energy.

Where, m = mass of the body, g = acceleration due to gravity, and h = height of the body

  • Newton’s equation of motion:

⇒ v2 = u2 + 2 a s

Where v = final velocity, u = initial velocity, a = acceleration, and s = distance.

EXPLANATION:

Given that:

Mass of the body (m) = 2 kg and height of the balloon (h) = 50 m

As the ball is at rest initially,

∴ The initial velocity of the ball will be 0 m /s.

From Newton’s equation:

a = g = acceleration due to gravity

⇒ v2 = u2 + 2gs

⇒ v2 = (0)2 + 2 × 9.8 × 50

⇒ v2 = 980 m/s

⇒v=980;m/s\Rightarrow v = \sqrt {980;m/s}

∴ velocity at the ground is √980 m/s.

Initial Potential energy is, PE = mgh

⇒ PE = 2 × 9.8 × 50

⇒ PE = 980 J

So option 4 is correct.

Question 98

The temperature of a place on one sunny day is 113 in Fahrenheit scale. The Kelvin scale reading of this temperature will be

  1. AOption (a)

    318 K

  2. BOption (b)

    45 K

  3. COption (c)

    62·8 K

  4. DOption (d)

    335·8 K

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

318 K

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Celsius scale:

  • In this scale, the lower fixed point (ice point) is taken at 0° and the upper fixed point  (steam point) is taken at 100°.
  • The temperature measured on this scale is all in degrees Celsius (°C).

Fahrenheit scale:

  • This scale of temperature has a lower fixed point (ice point) of 32° F and an upper fixed point  (steam point) of 212° F.
  • The change in temperature of 1° F corresponds to a change of less than 1° on the Celsius scale.

Kelvin scale:

  • The Kelvin temperature scale is also known as the thermodynamic scale. The triple point of water is also selected to be the zero of the scale of temperature.
  • The temperatures measured on this scale are in Kelvin (K).

All these temperatures are related to each other by the following relationship –

F−32∘9=C5=K−2735\frac{{F - 32^\circ }}{9} = \frac{C}{5} = \frac{{K - 273}}{5}

EXPLANATION: 

Given – the temperature of a place 113 on the Fahrenheit scale.

The relation between Fahrenheit and Kelvin is

F−32∘9=K−2735\frac{{F - 32^\circ }}{9} = \frac{{K - 273}}{5}

∴113−32∘9=K−2735\therefore \frac{{113 - 32^\circ }}{9} = \frac{{K - 273}}{5}

9=K−27359 = \frac{{K - 273}}{5}

K = 318 K

Question 99

Radiations coming from the Sun are mostly in the form of

  1. AOption (a)

    light only.

  2. BOption (b)

    light and long wavelength infrared.

  3. COption (c)

    light and short wavelength infrared.

  4. DOption (d)

    both short and long wavelength infrared.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

light and short wavelength infrared.

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

The Sun emits a broad spectrum of electromagnetic radiation, which includes radio waves, microwaves, infrared (IR), visible light, ultraviolet (UV), X-rays, and gamma rays.

However, the bulk of the Sun's emission is in the form of visible light and short-wavelength infrared radiation.

When we look at the solar spectrum:

Visible Light:

  • The Sun emits most of its radiation in the visible spectrum, which is why our eyes evolved to see in this range.
  • This spans from approximately 400 nm (violet) to 700 nm (red) in wavelength.

Short-wavelength Infrared (IR):

  • Just beyond the red part of the visible spectrum, the Sun emits a significant amount of its radiation in the near-infrared range, which is shorter IR wavelengths.

Ultraviolet (UV):

  • The Sun also emits UV radiation, but a substantial portion of this is absorbed by the Earth's atmosphere, specifically by the ozone layer. This is beneficial for life on Earth, as excessive UV radiation can be harmful.

The reason the Sun emits most of its energy in the visible and short-wavelength infrared range is related to its surface temperature, approximately 5,500°C (9,932°F). According to Wien's Displacement Law, a black body's temperature determines the peak wavelength at which it emits radiation. For the Sun, this peak is in the visible range.

Question 100

Which of the followings are the characteristics of electromagnetic waves?

  1. They are elastic waves.

  2. They can also move in a vacuum.

  3. They have electric and magnetic components that are mutually perpendicular.

  4. They move with a speed equal to 3 lakh meters per second.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    3 and 4 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Electromagnetic waves or EM waves: The waves that are formed as a result of vibrations between an electric field and a magnetic field and they are perpendicular to each other and to the direction of the wave is called electromagnetic waves.
  • The accelerating charged particle produces an electromagnetic (EM) wave.
  • A charged particle oscillating about an equilibrium position is an accelerating charged particle.
  • Electromagnetic waves do not require any matter to propagate from one place to another as it consists of photons. They can move in a vacuum.

Properties of electromagnetic waves:

  • Not have any charge or we can say that they are neutral.
  • Propagate as a transverse wave.
  • They move with a velocity the same as that of light i.e 3 × 108 m/s.
  • It contains energy and they also contain momentum.
  • They can travel in a vacuum also.

EXPLANATION:

  • From the above discussion, they can travel in a vacuum and they have electric and magnetic components that are mutually perpendicular. options 2 and 3 are correct.

Question 101

Which one of the following is a non-metallic mineral?

  1. AOption (a)

    Iron

  2. BOption (b)

    Mica

  3. COption (c)

    Copper

  4. DOption (d)

    Bauxite

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mica

Why this answer is correct

Mica is a non-metallic mineral.

Minerals are those inorganic substances that occur naturally. They are found in varying conditions. Minerals have a crystalline structure coming with definite chemical composition.

  • Metallic minerals are minerals with metals present in raw form.
  • Non-metallic minerals are minerals that don’t have any metal presence in them.
  • Examples of metallic minerals - Iron, Copper, Gold, Silver, and Bauxite.
  • Examples of non-metallic minerals - Limestone, Mica and Gypsum, Coal, and Petroleum.
  • The major composition of Mica is inorganic, non-metallic silicate.

Question 102

Which one of the following is a Rabi crop in the Northern States of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rice

  2. BOption (b)

    Bajra

  3. COption (c)

    Barley

  4. DOption (d)

    Ragi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Barley

Why this answer is correct

Barley is a Rabi Crop in the Northern States of India.

Key Points

  • The Rabi crops include Wheat, Barley, Oats, chickpea/gram (pulses), linseed, mustard (oilseeds) etc.
  • Rabi is harvested in springtime, usually starts in November and ends till March/April.
  • Rabi crops need extensive irrigation facilities.
  • The Kharif crops include Maize, Rice, Sorghum, Pearl Millet/Bajra, Finger Millet/Ragi, Soyabean, Cotton and Groundnut.
  • The word “Kharif” is Arabic denoting autumn.
  • It is because the season coincides with the beginning of winter or autumn.
  • Kharif crops are also called Monsoon Crops.
  • Generally sown from June to September.

Question 103

The rivers of North-West Europe are good examples of

  1. AOption (a)

    parallel pattern of drainage

  2. BOption (b)

    radial pattern of drainage

  3. COption (c)

    barbed pattern of drainage.

  4. DOption (d)

    trellis pattern of drainage

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

barbed pattern of drainage.

Why this answer is correct

  • The rivers of North-West Europe are good examples of barbed patterns of drainage.
  • The great northwest European rivers include the drainage systems of the Elbe, Weser, Rhine, Meuse, Scheldt, Thames, Somme and Seine.
  • This is because certain patterns in the North-Western Rivers emerge and indicate the presence of tectonically controlled variables.
  • The barbed pattern is the drainage system where the stream suddenly bends back and flows in a reverse direction due to some tectonic activity.
  • Trellis drainage pattern - The shorter subsequent streams meet the mainstream at right angles.
  • Parallel drainage pattern - Tributaries run parallel to each other.
  • Radial drainage pattern - Tributaries flow down from the summit downwards in all directions.

Question 104

Which one of the following ocean currents is a cold current?

  1. AOption (a)

    South Atlantic Drift

  2. BOption (b)

    Mozambique Current

  3. COption (c)

    East Australian Current

  4. DOption (d)

    Caribbean Current

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

South Atlantic Drift

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e., South Atlantic Drift.

Key Points

  • South Atlantic Drift is also known as the Atlantic Drift or Westerlies Drift, and it is a cold current which is an eastward deflection of Brazil Current.
  • Mozambique Current is a relatively warm surface current of the western Indian Ocean.
  • East Australian Current is a warm ocean current in the South Western boundary of Australia.
  • Caribbean Current is a warm ocean current that flows northwestward through the Caribbean from the east coast of South America, into the Gulf of Mexico.

Question 105

Paradeep Port is located on the delta of river

  1. AOption (a)

    Rihand

  2. BOption (b)

    Ganga

  3. COption (c)

    Mahanadi

  4. DOption (d)

    Baitarani

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Mahanadi

Why this answer is correct

Paradip Port is a major port in East Central Odisha.

  • It is located on the delta of Mahanadi.
  • The port is administered by the Paradip Port Trust (PPT) which is an autonomous corporation wholly owned by the Government of India.
  • Baitarani river is a tributary of the Brahmani river which flows in Odisha and the border of Jharkhand.
  • Rihand river is a tributary of Son that flows in the State of Chattisgarh.

Question 106

Which one of the following hypotheses/theory explains the origin of the universe?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nebular hypothesis

  2. BOption (b)

    Binary theory

  3. COption (c)

    Big Bang theory

  4. DOption (d)

    Planetesimal hypothesis

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Big Bang theory

Why this answer is correct

Big Bang Theory is a hypothesis that explains how our universe originated from a small singularity.

Key Points

  • Nebular Hypothesis is about the origin of the Solar System, Sun, and Stars.
  • Binary Theory states how all Chemical Compound are made up of two constituents of opposing characteristics.
  • Planetesimal Hypothesis states that the planets are a result of the accumulation of small bits of matter.
  • Planetesimals planets revolve around the Sun.

Question 107

Which among the following struggles, based on Gandhi's philosophy of Satyagraha, involved the industrial working class?

  1. AOption (a)

    Champaran

  2. BOption (b)

    Kheda

  3. COption (c)

    Ahmedabad

  4. DOption (d)

    Bardoli

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ahmedabad

Why this answer is correct

The Ahmedabad Mill Strike was based on Gandhi's philosophy of Satyagraha that involved the industrial working class.

  • The Ahmedabad Mill Strike was on the question of Plague Bonus of 1917.
  • Mill owners wanted to withdraw the bonus at the same time workers demanded a 50% wage hike.
  • The Mill owners agreed to give only a 20% hike.
  • It was during this mill strike, that Gandhi, for the first time, used the weapon of Hunger Strike.
  • In the end, the workers got a 35% hike.
  • The protest was purely non-violent in nature.
  • Champaran Revolt was a farmer uprising against the Indigo plantation.
  • Bardoli Satyagraha was also concerned with increased taxes and the plea to remove the same.

Question 108

Consider the following statements related to the Virashaiva tradition in Karnataka:

  1. The Virashaiva movement was led by a Brahmana named Basavanna, a minister in the court of the Kalachuri ruler in the twelfth century.

  2. The Virashaivas encouraged practices, approved by the Dharmashastras, like post-puberty marriages and remarriage of widows.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 only

Key Points

A new movement under Basavanna in the 12th century, previously Jaina and a minister in the court of Chalukyan King.

  • He acted as administrator of the royal treasury of the Kalachuri-dynasty king Bijjala I.
  • His followers were known as Virashaivas (heroes of Shiva) or Lingayats (wearers of the linga).
  • The Lingayats called the idea of ‘caste’ polluting.
  • They also questioned the Theory of Rebirth.
  • The Lingayats also called for post-puberty marriages and widow remarriage, which was disapproved in Dharmashastras.
  • Our understanding of their tradition is derived from vachanas or literal sayings that are composed in Kannada.

Question 109

Consider the following statements related to Wellesley's administration:

  1. In the six years of Wellesley's administration, the army accounted for 42.5 percent of the Company's total expenditure.

  2. Wellesley's administrative measures were restricted to the affairs of the Company and had nothing to do with the commercial and military affairs of the Indian ruling families.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Neither 1 nor 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Neither 1 nor 2.

Key Points

  • Statement 1- While the cost of maintaining an army was high, there is no source to identify with the number. So, it's finally up to the UPSC to decide if the first option is correct.
  • Statement 2 - Lord Wellesley intervened in the administration of the local royal families by his Subsidiary Alliance.
  • According to this, in exchange for payment or subsidy, the company would place garrison troops in that ruler’s territory to fight against their enemies.
  • It was accepted by Mysore, Jodhpur, Jaipur, Bundi, Macheri, Bharatpur, Oudh, Tanjore, Berar, Peshwa, and the Nizam of Hyderabad.
  • Hence, the second statement is wrong.

 

Additional Information

  • Lord Wellesley (1798 AD-1803 AD ):
  • He introduced the system of the Subsidiary alliance.
  • Madras Presidency was formed during his tenure.
  • The fourth Anglo-Mysore War was fought during his tenure in 1799 AD, and Tipu Sultan died.
  • First subsidiary treaty with Nizam of Hyderabad.
  • He set up Fort William College in Calcutta in 1800 AD. 
  • He was also known as Bengal Tiger.
  • He brought the censorship of the Press Act, 1799 AD.
  • Treaty of Bassein was signed during his tenure in 1802 AD.

Question 110

Consider the following statements concerning the Russian Revolution:

  1. The Bolsheviks believed that in a repressive society like Tsarist Russia, the party should be disciplined and should control the number of its members.

  2. The Mensheviks believed that the party should be opened to all (as in Germany).

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

Bolsheviks were the ones under their leader Lenin and they constituted a majority of the socialists.

  • They believed in a disciplined party that controlled the members and their quality. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • They wanted to make the party an instrument to bring revolution.

Mensheviks were the members of the non-Leninist wing of the Russian Social Democratic Workers’ Party, which later evolved into a separate organization.

  • They believed in the liberal policy of working along with capitalism as they believed it was the precursor to a truly socialist regime.
  • They wanted to gradually establish a democratic parliamentary form of government, like the one in Britain and France.
  • They favored an open for all parties and to work together within the system. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Question 111

Which of the following was/were among the decisions taken by the First Continental Congress held in Philadelphia in September 1774?

  1. It rejected a plan for a colonial union under the British authority.

  2. It drew up a statement of grievances.

  3. It agreed upon a scheme to stop trade between the Colonies and England.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 2 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 only

Why this answer is correct

A petition to address grievances which was sent to King George III of Britain after the First Continental Congress in 1774, remained unanswered. Hence the 2nd statement is correct.

  • The plan was to reject the legal authority of the Parliament to regulate trade. But they didn’t repudiate control of the Royal authority, which was mentioned explicitly in a petition to the King. Hence, the 1st statement is incorrect.
  • The Declaration and Resolves also talked about Boycott of British Goods to take effect from December 1774. But they didn’t explicitly talk about banning any kind of trade between American colonies and Britain. Hence, the 3rd statement is also incorrect.

Question 112

Which one of the following land territories of Indonesia is not touched by the Equator?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sumatra

  2. BOption (b)

    Sulawesi

  3. COption (c)

    Java

  4. DOption (d)

    Kalimantan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Java

Why this answer is correct

The Equator doesn’t pass through Java, one of the land territories of Indonesia.

  • Java lies between Sumatra and Bali.
  • It is a volcano-dotted island.
  • Located at the economic and geographic center of Indonesia, it is the home to over half the people of Indonesia.
  • Java is the largest modern city in Indonesia.
  • Countries through which the Equator passes include - Ecuador, Colombia, Brazil, Sao Tome & Principe, Gabon, Republic of the Congo, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Uganda, Kenya, Somalia, Maldives, Indonesia and Kiribati.

Question 113

Which one of the following sedimentary rocks is organically formed?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shale

  2. BOption (b)

    Chert

  3. COption (c)

    Halite

  4. DOption (d)

    Chalk

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Chalk

Why this answer is correct

  • Chalk is an organically formed sedimentary rock.
  • There are three major types of sedimentary rocks; Chemical Sedimentary Rocks, Clastic Sedimentary Rocks**,** and Organic Sedimentary Rocks.
  • Chemical Sedimentary Rocks include Gypsum, Rock Salt/Halite, Chert, and Travertine.
  • Clastic Sedimentary Rocks include Breccia, Conglomerate, Sandstone, Mudstone, Shale.
  • Organic Sedimentary Rocks include Chalk, Coal, and Limestone with Fossils.

Question 114

According to the Koppen's climatic classification, the letter code Cfa denotes

  1. AOption (a)

    Tropical wet climate

  2. BOption (b)

    Humid subtropical climate

  3. COption (c)

    Tundra climate

  4. DOption (d)

    Tropical wet and dry climate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Humid subtropical climate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ‘Humid subtropical climate’

Key Points

  • Cfa (Humid subtropical climate):
  • In the :contentReference[oaicite:0]{index=0}, the letter C denotes a warm temperate (mesothermal) climate with mild winters.
  • The letter f indicates the absence of a dry season, meaning rainfall occurs throughout the year.
  • The letter a signifies a hot summer, where the average temperature of the warmest month exceeds 22°C.
  • Together, the code Cfa represents regions with hot, humid summers and mild winters.

Additional Information

  • Climatic characteristics:
  • Humid subtropical climates experience high humidity, especially during summer months due to intense convectional rainfall.
  • Winters are generally mild and rarely experience severe frost.
  • Geographical distribution:
  • This climate is typically found on the eastern margins of continents in the mid-latitudes.
  • Examples include parts of eastern China, Japan, southeastern United States, and eastern Australia.

Important Points

  • The Cfa climate should not be confused with tropical climates, which fall under the A-type classification in Köppen’s system.
  • Unlike tropical wet and dry climates, Cfa regions do not have a marked dry season.
  • Tundra climates belong to the E-type and are characterized by extremely low temperatures, making them entirely different from Cfa climates.

Question 115

In which one of the following folds is the axial plane found to be virtually horizontal?

  1. AOption (a)

    Isoclinal

  2. BOption (b)

    Anticlinal

  3. COption (c)

    Recumbent

  4. DOption (d)

    Monoclinal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Recumbent

Why this answer is correct

The recumbent fold has a vertically horizontal axial plane.

  • The Linear, Fold, and Axial planes are oriented at a low angle which results in overturned strata in the fold’s one limb.
  • Fold is an undulation or wave in stratified rocks belonging to the Earth’s crust.
  • An anticline is a convex upward fold.
  • A syncline has a concave upward fold.
  • Isoclinal is when the fold limbs are parallel to each other and parallel to the axial plane.
  • Monoclinal has two horizontally inclined limbs connected by a shorter limb.

Question 116

How many Ramsar conservation have been enlisted from India so far? (as of 2019)

  1. AOption (a)

    32

  2. BOption (b)

    52

  3. COption (c)

    42

  4. DOption (d)

    62

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

42

Why this answer is correct

UPDATE -  the number of wetlands in India has increased to 42.

Key Points

The Ramsar Convention:

  • Ramsar Convention, 1971: on Wetlands of International Importance especially as Waterfowl Habitat is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands
  • The Convention on Wetlands is an intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources.
  • The Convention was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and came into force in 1975. Since then, almost 90% of UN member states, from all the world’s geographic regions, have acceded to become “Contracting Parties”.
  • India is a party to the Ramsar Convention. India signed under it on 1st February 1982.
  • Chilika Lake (Orissa) and Keoladeo National Park (Rajasthan) were recognized as the first Ramsar Sites of India
  • Sundarbans is the largest Ramsar Site of India
  • On 2nd February 2021, India’s first Centre for Wetland Conservation and Management has been set up in Chennai.
  • There are 42 wetlands in India that have international importance and hence recognized as the Ramsar Sites in India. Ramsar Sites are wetlands that have international importance.

Three Pillars:

  • ​Under the “three pillars” of the Convention, the Contracting Parties commit to:
  • work towards the wise use of all their wetlands;
  • designate suitable wetlands for the list of Wetlands of International Importance (the “Ramsar List”) and ensure their effective management;
  • cooperate internationally on transboundary wetlands, shared wetland systems, and shared species.

The Montreux record:

  • The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution, or other human interference.
  • It is maintained as part of the Ramsar List.

Question 117

The Munda language group belongs to which family?

  1. AOption (a)

    Austric

  2. BOption (b)

    Dravidian

  3. COption (c)

    Sino-Tibetan

  4. DOption (d)

    Indo-European

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Austric

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Austric.

  • The Munda language group belongs to the Austric family.

Key Points

  • Munda Language is one of the languages spoken by the tribals in Central and Northern India. It is an Austroasiatic or Austric Language.
  • The language has been divided into the Northern Munda and Southern Munda.
  • Some of the Munda languages spoken include Ho, Korku, Bhumij, Santhali, Bhandari.
  • Austric Languages:
  • It is a group of proposed language families which includes the Austronesian languages which are spoken in Taiwan, Maritime Southeast Asia, the Pacific Islands, and Madagascar.
  • These languages are also spoken in Mainland Southeast Asia and South Asia.

Additional Information

  • Dravidian languages include Kannada, Tamil, Telugu, Malayalam.
  • Sino-Tibetan languages include both Tibeto-Burman and Chinese languages.

Question 118

Which one of the following statements about the Suez Canal is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Suez Canal was constructed in 1869

  2. BOption (b)

    It links the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea

  3. COption (c)

    It has a six lock system and ships cross the different levels through these locks

  4. DOption (d)

    It has given Europe a new gateway to the Indian Ocean

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It has a six lock system and ships cross the different levels through these locks

Why this answer is correct

Suez Canal is a sea-level waterway that runs across the Egyptian Isthmus of Suez to connect the Red sea and Mediterrranean sea.

  • The Suez Canal was completely built by 1869.
  • The Suez Canal is an open cut, without locks. Hence, the third statement is incorrect and hence the correct answer.
  • The Canal is responsible for providing Europe with a new gateway to the Indian Ocean, as well as the Western Pacific Oceans.

Question 119

Which among the following statements is not correct about the Reign of Terror?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Jacobins dashed out the Girondists with the help of sans-culottes

  2. BOption (b)

    The Jacobins were in league with the French clergy.

  3. COption (c)

    The arrest for anti-revolutionary activities was by law restricted to the political class**.**

  4. DOption (d)

    The Reign of Terror came to end with the execution of Robespierre by guillotine in July 1794

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The arrest for anti-revolutionary activities was by law restricted to the political class**.**

Why this answer is correct

While the Hébertists (Left Wing) and Indulgents (Right Wing) were executed in large numbers, the ones who had differing views about the French Revolution were also not spared.

  • Further, there were no laws to restrict arrest only to the Political class.
  • The Jacobins led by Robespierre executed as many as 17,000 were executed officially while 10,000 were arrested unofficially.
  • A dictatorial rule as a result of the Committee of Public Safety, with Robespierre as a prominent member exercised a virtual dictatorial control over the French Government.
  • Reign of Terror ended when Robespierre was executed in the same way by a guillotine in July 1794.

Question 120

Who among the following was the first Indian to qualify for the Indian Civil Service?

  1. AOption (a)

    Satyendranath Tagore

  2. BOption (b)

    Surendranath Banerjee

  3. COption (c)

    R.C. Dutt

  4. DOption (d)

    Subhas Chandra Bose

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Satyendranath Tagore

Why this answer is correct

The first exam for Indian Civil Services was held in London 1855 and not a single Indian went there to give the exam.

  • Satyendranath Tagore, the elder brother of Rabindranath Tagore, became the first Indian to qualify for the Indian Civil Service in 1863.
  • He was allocated the Bombay Presidency as his cadre.
  • Kapur Singh became the first ICS officer to be removed from the services in 1948.
  • Surendranath Banerjee founded the Indian National Association and led two sessions of Indian National Conference in 1883 and 1885 respectively.
  • R.C Dutt was a former Indian Civil Servant who wrote the Economic History of India. He stood second in the exams.
  • Subhas Chandra Bose was a freedom movement leader who resigned from the Indian Civil Services in 1921. He secured fourth position in the exam.

Question 121

Which among the following was/were among the factors for England to experience the Industrial Revolution first?

  1. The scientific inventions had paved the way for the Industrial Revolution.

  2. It had favourable social and political structures in place.

  3. Navigable rivers had made inland transport easier.

  4. It had seen the ascendancy of capitalist practices.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 3 and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Why this answer is correct

All the above mentioned factors played a role for the success of the Industrial Revolution in Britain.

  • During the Industrial Revolution, one of the cheapest modes to transfer heavy products like coal and iron was waterways. As a result, canals were widened and deepened. This allowed more boat transport.
  • The invention of the steam engine in 1769 by James Watt revolutionized transportation.
  • Technology thus helped with the Industrial Revolution.
  • While the whole of Europe was facing political instability, the English capitalists were getting the support from British Government. This thus saw an ascendancy of capitalist practices.
  • Serfdom ended and the Enclosure Movement paved the way for an emerging middle class in search of job opportunities. Thus, the social and political structure helped too.

Question 122

Article 46 of the Constitution of India refers to the promotion of educational and economic interests of

  1. AOption (a)

    religious minorities

  2. BOption (b)

    Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections

  3. COption (c)

    displaced persons from large irrigation projects

  4. DOption (d)

    the economically deprived

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e., Article 46.

  • Article 46 calls for the promotion of educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections.
  • It states that the state shall have the responsibility to promote the economic and educational interests with respect to the weaker section of the society. This includes Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes.
  • To prevent their exploitation and prevent any kind of social injustice.
  • Article 29 and Article 30 deals with the Rights of religious minorities.

Question 123

Who was the Education Minister in the first Cabinet of independent India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sarvepalli Radha. krishnan

  2. BOption (b)

    Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

  3. COption (c)

    Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

  4. DOption (d)

    Acharya Narendra Dev

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option3 i.e., Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

  • Maulana Abul Kalam Azad was the education minister in the first cabinet of Independent India.
  • With Jawaharlal Nehru as the first Prime Minister of Independent India, Fourteen ministers were inducted into the country’s cabinet.
  • Jawaharlal Nehru: Prime Minister; External Affairs and Commonwealth Relations; Scientific Research.
  • Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel: Home; Information and Broadcasting; States.
  • Maulana Abul Kalam Azad: Education Minister.
  • Dr. John Matthai: Railways and Transport Minister.
  • Sardar Baldev Singh: Defence Minister.
  • Shri Jagjivan Ram: Labour Minister.

Question 124

Who among the following died in exile?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rani Laxmibai

  2. BOption (b)

    Bahadur Shah Zafar

  3. COption (c)

    Tantia Tope

  4. DOption (d)

    Nana Saheb

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bahadur Shah Zafar

Why this answer is correct

After the defeat of the Indian allies in the Sepoy Mutiny of 1857, the symbolic emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar was imprisoned after being tried for treason, and sent into exile in Burma (Myanmar).

  • He eventually died in Burma.
  • Lakshmi Bai was killed in a combat with General Hugh Rose.
  • Tantia Tope was hanged on 18th April, 1859.
  • Nana Sahib died in combat with the British troops in Nepal Hills.

Question 125

The normal lapse rate of temperature of Earth's atmosphere drops to 0°C at the

  1. AOption (a)

    upper part of ionosphere

  2. BOption (b)

    upper-boundary of the tropopause.

  3. COption (c)

    lower part of mesosphere

  4. DOption (d)

    upper boundary of stratopause

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

upper-boundary of the tropopause.

Why this answer is correct

Normal Lapse rate is the rate of decrease in temperature with height. It is 6.5°C per 1,000 m on an average.

The temperature of the troposphere generally decreases as altitude increases.

The temperature generally decreases with increasing height.

Altitude Region (m)Lapse Rate in degree celsius/kmLayer of Atmosphere
0-110006.5Troposphere
11000-200000.0upper-boundary of the tropopause
20,000-32,000-1.0Stratosphere
32,000-47,000-2.8Upper Stratosphere

Question 126

The headquarters of National Research Laboratory for Conservation of Cultural Property (NRLC) is located at Research Cultural __________.

  1. AOption (a)

    New Delhi

  2. BOption (b)

    Lucknow

  3. COption (c)

    Kolkata

  4. DOption (d)

    Bhopal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Lucknow

Why this answer is correct

The National Research Laboratory for Conservation of Cultural Property (NRLC), is a premier organization established in 1976 located in Lucknow.

  • It was established under the Ministry of Culture.
  • It is a premier organization focused on the research activities in cultural property conservation.
  • It also conserves monuments and sites, like libraries, museums, and archive collection

Question 127

Loktak lake is situated in the State of

  1. AOption (a)

    Sikkim

  2. BOption (b)

    Manipur

  3. COption (c)

    Odisha

  4. DOption (d)

    Mizoram

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Manipur

Why this answer is correct

Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in Manipur.

  • It is famous for Phumdis.
  • Keibul Lamjao National Park is the only floating national park in the world.
  • Sa ngai, the endangered animal and the state animal of Manipur, is only found here.

Question 128

Stalactite, stalagmite and pillars are the depositional landforms of

  1. AOption (a)

    running water

  2. BOption (b)

    wind

  3. COption (c)

    glacier

  4. DOption (d)

    underground water.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

underground water.

Why this answer is correct

Hence, these depositional landforms are formed by underground water running from the roofs in the cave.

  • Stalactites are the slender and sharp icicles having different diameters hanging from the roof of the caves.
  • Stalagmites are formed by dripping of water from the cave surface.
  • Mergers of Stalactites and Stalagmites form pillars/columns.

Question 129

A deep valley characterized by steep step-like slope is known as

  1. AOption (a)

    U-shaped valley

  2. BOption (b)

    Blind valley

  3. COption (c)

    Gorge

  4. DOption (d)

    Canyon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Canyon

Why this answer is correct

Canyon is a deep, steep-walled, V-shaped valley.

Key Points

  • These valleys cut a river through rocks.
  • These valleys occur in the upper courses of the rivers.
  • The upper course is characterized by strong, swift currents digging its valleys.
  • Example - Colorado in the United States.
  • A U–shaped valley is formed by strong lateral erosion of glaciers at high altitudes.
  • Blind valley is a narrow, deep, and flat-bottomed valley which has an abrupt ending.
  • Gorge is a narrow valley between steep mountains or hills.

Question 130

Which one of the following is a major plate?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pacific Plate

  2. BOption (b)

    Cocos Plate

  3. COption (c)

    Arabian Plate

  4. DOption (d)

    Philippine Plate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Pacific Plate

Why this answer is correct

Pacific Plate is a major plate while the rest of the plates are minor plates.

  • Major Plates - North American plate, South American plate, Pacific Plate, Antarctica, Eurasian Plate, African Plate, India-Australia-New Zealand Plate.
  • Minor Plates - Caribbean Plate, Cocos Plate, Caroline Plate, Nazca Plate, Nubian Plate, Philippines Plate, Somalian Plate, Arabian Plate, Fiji Plate.
  • Pacific Plate is the largest plate.
  • The South American Plate is the smallest plate

Question 131

Lithosphere consists of

  1. AOption (a)

    upper and lower mantle

  2. BOption (b)

    crust and core.

  3. COption (c)

    crust and uppermost solid mantle

  4. DOption (d)

    mantle and core

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

crust and uppermost solid mantle

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is crust and uppermost solid mantle.

Key Points

Earth's lithosphere includes the crust and the uppermost solid mantle, which constitute the hard and rigid outer layer of the Earth.

  • It extends to a depth of about 100 km.
  • The crust consists of a number of plates, and rigid blocks, as propounded by the Plate Tectonic Theory.
  • The convection currents in the mantle generated by the interior heating, courtesy of radioactive material, is believed to be the cause of the movement of these plates.
  • The mantle extends to a depth of 2,890 km.
  • It is the thickest layer of the Earth consisting of the upper mantle and lower mantle.
  • While the inner core (5,150 to 6,276 km)  is solid, the outer core (2,897 to 5,150 km) is liquid.

Question 132

The principal component(s) of Nehru-Mahalanobis strategy of economic development was/were

  1. Restructuring economic dependency on metropolitan capitalism into independent economic development.

  2. Transition from semi-feudal agriculture to capitalist farming.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

Nehru-Mahalanobis strategy of economic development:

  • Mahalanobis was the founder of the Indian Statistical Institute, along with being a close advisor to the then Prime Minister, Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru.
  • The Mahalanobis model was the Second Five year plan between 1956-1961.
  • The 1948 Industrial Policy Resolution was revised and the new resolution of 1956 was adopted.
  • The strategy emphasised the rapid development of heavy industry so as to build an industrial base of the economy.
  • One important aim was to make India independent as quickly as possible of growth of producer goods so that the accumuIation of capital would not be hampered by difficuIties in securing supplies of asential producer goods from other countries. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
  • The objective was to make the economy self-reliant in terms of the capital-goods sector.
  • Emphasis on transition from semi-feudal agriculture to capitalist farming. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
  • Hydroelectric power projects and five steel plants were established at and with assistance of respectively -
  • Bhilai - Russia
  • Durgapur - Britain
  • Rourkela - West Germany

Question 133

The provisions of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India shall not apply to the administration and control of the Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in

  1. Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Odisha

  2. Assam and Tripura

  3. Meghalaya and Mizoram

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2 and 3 only.

Key Points

  • The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the control and administration of Scheduled Areas and Schedule Tribes except for the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Tripura. 
  • Hence, options 2 and 3 are the correct answer.
  • Sixth Schedule provisions deal with the administration of the Tribal Areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
  • While Tribal Advisory Councils are prescribed under the 5th Scheduled, District and Regional Council are prescribed under the 6th Schedule.

Question 134

Consider the following statements related to Dayanand's idea of social reform:

  1. Dayanand's reform envisaged a social order, where different castes performed functions suitable to their status determined by merit.

  2. Dayanand's 'robust Vedic counterpart' challenged the masculine West that had enslaved the Aryavarta.

Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 only

Why this answer is correct

Swami Dayananda Saraswati was against the caste system in India and believed that idolatry, untouchability and caste system were against the values enshrined in the Vedas.

  • He wanted to establish a caste free society. Hence, statement 1 is wrong.
  • After the completion of his education, his mission was to spread the true Hindu culture and Religion, for which he relied solely on the Vedas.
  • He thus founded the “Arya Samaj” at Bombay on 10th April, 1875.
  • Accepting Vedas as the absolute truth, he propounded ‘Back to the Vedas’ as his strategy for Hindu Revivalism.
  • He opposed child marriage and polygamy, and had faith in female education.
  • Using his robust “Vedic Counterpart”, he challenged the masculine West.

Question 135

Consider the following statements concerning the American War of Independence:

  1. The Americans raised the slogan, 'No taxation without representation'.

  2. The American merchants resorted to the boycott of the British products.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

After the enactment of the Stamp Act in 1765 by the British Parliament, the Americans responded by boycott of the British Goods. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  • It was because the British Parliament imposed stamp taxes on all the business transactions in the US.
  • The British Parliament had no representation from the US and hence they opposed the British right to levy taxes on them.
  • Further, they were furious over the fact that the money was being used for the interest of the British instead of being used for the development of the American population.
  • Hence, the leaders of the 13 colonies gathered in the Massachusetts Assembly and adopted the slogan ‘No Taxation without Representation’. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Question 136

The first UDAY (Utkrisht Double Decker Air-Conditioned Yatri) Express train runs between

  1. AOption (a)

    Delhi and Kalka

  2. BOption (b)

    Bengaluru and Coimbatore

  3. COption (c)

    Chennai and Visakhapatnam

  4. DOption (d)

    Visakhapatnam and Vijayawada

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bengaluru and Coimbatore

Why this answer is correct

The 1st UDAY Express - Utkrisht Double Decker Air-Conditioned Yatri was started between Bengaluru and Coimbatore in June 2018.

  • The 2nd UDAY Express will run between Visakhapatnam and Vijayawada.
  • The train is specially designed double decker air conditioned train.
  • It has chair car coaches allocated to these routes which have a comparatively heavy passenger traffic.
  • Another UDAY Express has been proposed between Chennai and Bengaluru.

Question 137

Who among the following were selected for the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2019?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vijay Kumar and Yogeshwar Dutt

  2. BOption (b)

    Sakshi Malik and Jitu Rai

  3. COption (c)

    Virat Kohli and Mirabai Chanu

  4. DOption (d)

    Bajrang Punia and Deepa Malik

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Bajrang Punia and Deepa Malik

Why this answer is correct

To recognize excellence in sports and recognize them, the National Sports Awards are given each year.

  • Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award is given to the most outstanding performance in the field of sports.
  • Now, this award is renamed Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award.
  • It is given after a period of four years.
  • Sh. Bajrang Punia was awarded for Wrestling, while
  • Ms. Deepa Malik was awarded for Para Athletics.
  • Other National Sports Awards include Dronacharya Awards, Arjuna Awards, and Dhyan Chand Award.

Question 138

Betel leaf of which one of the following States has been accorded a GI tag recently?

  1. AOption (a)

    Andhra Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Madhya Pradesh

  3. COption (c)

    Kerala

  4. DOption (d)

    Mizoram

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kerala

Why this answer is correct

Kerala was accorded the Geographical Indication (GI) tag for Tirur betel by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

  • Tawlhlohpuan, a woven fabric from Mizoram, was also accorded the Geographical Indication status.
  • Mizo Puanchei is a colourful Mizo shawl considered essential by most women, and was also accorded the Geographical indication status for the State of Mizoram.
  • Madhya Pradesh Registered GI - Chanderi Fabric, Leather Toys of Indore, Ratlami Sev.
  • Andhra Pradesh Registered GI: Pochampalli Ikat, Kondapalli Bommallu, Tirupathi Laddu.

Question 139

SAMARTH is a flagship skill development scheme of which one of the following Ministries?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ministry of Textiles

  2. BOption (b)

    Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare

  3. COption (c)

    Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

  4. DOption (d)

    Ministry of Human Resource Development

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ministry of Textiles

Why this answer is correct

Samarth, or ‘Scheme for Capacity Building in Textile Sector’ is aimed at skilling the youth for employment in the textile sector.

  • It was an initiative of the Ministry of Textile.
  • The aim is to deliver amenable skills to the youth to promote industrial efforts in organized textile.
  • The focus would also be on traditional sectors of handicrafts, handlooms, sericulture and jute.

Question 140

CORAS is a separate Commando Unit of

  1. AOption (a)

    National Security Guard

  2. BOption (b)

    Central Industrial Security Force

  3. COption (c)

    Railway Protection Force

  4. DOption (d)

    Central Reserve Police Force

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Railway Protection Force

Why this answer is correct

CORAS was planned in Railway Protection Force keeping in mind the threat from disruptive forces.

Key Points

  • Former Railway Minister Piyush Goyal launched the Commandos for Railway Safety (CORAS).
  • It comprises Railway Protection Force (RPF) and Railway Protection Special Force (RPSF) personnel and is headed by the RPF DG.
  • It is armed with special uniforms with bullet-proof jackets, helmets and sophisticated weapons.
  • There are 14 battalions of the RPSF and one of its battalions had been converted into CORAS.
  • The men of CORAS have been trained in the National Security Guard (NSG) academy and Greyhounds.
  • Greyhounds specialise in anti-insurgency operations against Naxalites. CORAS commandos will be undergoing training programmes, including basic and advanced commando courses with specialisation in handling landmines and improvised explosive devices, hostage rescue, sniping and breaching.
  • The first deployment of the Railway’s commando unit CORAS will be in the Naxal-hit areas of Chhattisgarh.

Question 141

Which one of the following statements is not true about the Izaredari system?

  1. AOption (a)

    It was a system of revenue farming

  2. BOption (b)

    It encouraged the role of middlemen

  3. COption (c)

    Under this system, land revenue was fixed for the peasant

  4. DOption (d)

    The ijaradari paid a fixed amount to the State treasury

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Under this system, land revenue was fixed for the peasant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is under** this system, land revenue was fixed for the peasant.**

Key Points

  • Izaredari system:
  • There was a frequent change in the assessment period and no fixed revenue generation. Hence, the 3rd statement is incorrect.
  • Izaredari system was introduced by Warren Hastings in 1773 in Bengal.
  • Features of Izaredari System:
  • According to this land tenure, the right to collect revenue was auctioned to the highest bidder.
  • Initially, it was imposed for 5 years but in 1777 it was made annually.
  • Zamindars were considered as revenue collectors and not as landlords for which they got a commission.
  • The peasants, merchants and shopkeepers had to pay their rent to the Izaredar.
  • The system was eventually ended by the Permanent Settlement under the Cornwallis Code in 1793.

Question 142

During the Swadeshi movement, a National College was started in Calcutta under the principalship of

  1. AOption (a)

    Rabindranath Tagore

  2. BOption (b)

    Aurobindo Ghosh

  3. COption (c)

    Rajani Kant Sen

  4. DOption (d)

    Syed Abu Mohammad

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Aurobindo Ghosh

Why this answer is correct

Bengal National College was set up on August 14th, 1906 as a part of the Swadeshi Movement.

  • It was started with Sri Aurobindo Ghosh as the first principal of the College.
  • It was included as part of the four-fold Programme of the new Nationalist Party of the Extremists.
  • The boycott of Foreign Schools, colleges, and goods as a result of the Swadeshi Movement was a result of the Partition of Bengal announced by Lord Curzon.

Question 143

The ruins of Vijayanagara (Hampi) were brought to public light in the year 1800 by the following British surveyor and engineer:

  1. AOption (a)

    James Prinsep

  2. BOption (b)

    Colin Mackenzie

  3. COption (c)

    James Rennell

  4. DOption (d)

    Charles Metcalfe

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Colin Mackenzie

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Colin Mackenzie.

  • Hampi ruins came into light in 1800 by Colin Mackenzie, who was an engineer and antiquarian.

Key Points

  • He prepared the first survey map of the site as an employee of the East India Company.
  • The epigraphists began collecting inscriptions in the other temples at Hampi.
  • James Prinsep was the founding editor of Asiatic Society of Bengal, and known for deciphering the Brahmi and Kharosthi script.
  • James Renell was an English Geographer known for constructing the first accurate map of India.
  • Lord Metcalfe, the successor of Lord William Bentick was known as the ‘liberator of the Indian press’.

Question 144

Which country among the following was not a part of the Third Coalition against Napoleon?

  1. AOption (a)

    Russia

  2. BOption (b)

    Prussia

  3. COption (c)

    Sweden

  4. DOption (d)

    France

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

France

Why this answer is correct

France was not part of the Third Coalition.

Key Points

  • In fact, the third coalition led by Britain was in direct conflict with France led by Napoleon.
  • The first two coalitions (1793-1797 and 1799-1801) were unable to defeat the French Expansion.
  • The result was the Peace of Amiens signed between Britain and France in 1802.
  • But the peace treaty didn’t last long.
  • Eventually, the Third Coalition was formed to put an end to the continuous military conquest bestowed by France in Europe.
  • The Third Coalition included Britain, Russia, Prussia, Austria, and Sweden

Question 145

Which one of the following pairs of travellers and their nationality is not correctly matched?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ibn Battuta -Moroccan

  2. BOption (b)

    Duarte Barbosa-Portuguese

  3. COption (c)

    Jean Baptiste Tavernier- Dutch

  4. DOption (d)

    Niccolao Manucci-Venetian

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Jean Baptiste Tavernier- Dutch

Why this answer is correct

Jean Baptiste Tavernier was a French Jeweller who came to India at least six times.

  • He was fascinated by the Indian Trading system.
  • He compared India to Iran and Ottoman Empire.
  • Niccolao Manucci was from Venetia, Italy, who never went back to Italy and breathed his last in Madras.
  • Duarte Barbosa was a Portugese Writer who wrote a detailed account on the Society and Trade in South India.
  • Ibn Battuta was a Moroccan Traveller who arrived in Delhi in the 14th Century. He wrote Rihla, a book throwing light on the conditions during Muhammad Bin Tughlaq regime.

Question 146

World Humanitarian Day is celebrated on

  1. AOption (a)

    26th June

  2. BOption (b)

    17th July

  3. COption (c)

    19th August

  4. DOption (d)

    27th September

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

19th August

Why this answer is correct

Solution:

World Humanitarian Day is celebrated on 19th August each year.

  • The day is to celebrate the contributions made by aid workers who provide humanitarian assistance for the people affected with crisis around the world.
  • The 2019 theme was focussed on Women Humanitarians.
  • June 26 is celebrated as the United Nations' (UN) International Day Against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking.
  • 17th July is celebrated as the World Day for International Justice.
  • 27th September is celebrated as the World Tourism Day

Question 147

Which one of the following is the name given to the Lander of Chandrayaan-2?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vigyan

  2. BOption (b)

    Anusandhan

  3. COption (c)

    Pragyan

  4. DOption (d)

    Vikram

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Vikram

Why this answer is correct

The Lander of Chandrayaan-2 was named Vikram.

  • It was named so after Dr Vikram A Sarabhai.
  • He is known as the Father of the Indian Space Programme.
  • It was designed to function for one lunar day, equivalent to 14 days on Earth.
  • Chandrayaan-2 mission will explore the unexplored South Pole of the Lunar Surface.
  • The weight of the Orbiter of the Chandrayaan 2 is 2,379 kg.
  • The Electric Power Generation Capability of the Orbiter is 1000 W.

Question 148

Along with Pranab Mukherjee, how many more persons were conferred the Bharat Ratna Award in the year 2019?

  1. AOption (a)

    One

  2. BOption (b)

    Two

  3. COption (c)

    Three

  4. DOption (d)

    Four

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Two

Why this answer is correct

Pranab Mukherjee, Bhupen Hazarika, and Nanaji Deshmukh were awarded the Bharat Ratna. So along with Pranab Mukherjee, two more were awarded with the Bharat Ratna in the year 2019.

  • Pranab Mukherjee served as the President (2012-2017) and Finance Minister (2009-2012).
  • Bhupen Hazarika was responsible for the introduction of Assam culture folk music to Hindi Film Industry.
  • Nanaji Deshmukh, a part of the RSS established the first Saraswati Shishu Mandir at Gorakhpur, 1950.

Question 149

Aishwarya Pissay excels in which of the following sports?

  1. AOption (a)

    Badminton

  2. BOption (b)

    Boxing

  3. COption (c)

    Motorsports

  4. DOption (d)

    Chess

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Motorsports

Why this answer is correct

Aishwarya Pissay is a Bengaluru based biker who became the first Indian to win a world title in motorsports.

  • She won the FIM World Cup in the women's category in 2019.
  • The event was conducted by the International Motorcycling Federation.
  • This FIM Bajas Championships is held in 4 different countries: UAE (Dubai), Portugal, Spain and Hungary.
  • Aishwarya finished with a tally of 65 points, while Portugal’s Rita Vieira ended the runner up with 61 points in the final standings for women.

Question 150

Which one of the following films was adjudged as the Best Feature Film in the 66th National Film Awards?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bulbul Can Sing

  2. BOption (b)

    Hellaro

  3. COption (c)

    Badhaai Ho

  4. DOption (d)

    Uri

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Hellaro

Why this answer is correct

Hellaro has been awarded as the Best Feature Film in the 66th National Film Awards, 2019.

  • Bulbul Can Sing won the award for the Best Assamese Film.
  • Badhaai Ho won the Best Popular Film award.
  • Andhadhun won the award for the Best Hindi Film.
  • Aditya Dhar (Uri) won the Best Director Award.
  • Ayushmann Khurrana, Vicky Kaushal were awarded the award for the Best Actor category.
  • Keerthy Suresh won the Best Actress award.

150 questions in the full paper