Previous Year Paper

NDA General Ability Test 22 April 2018 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2018

150 questions150 minutes
With answers
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General Ability Test (150 questions)

Question 1

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

I do not want you to lead a life of sycophancy as you did during the foreign rule.

  1. AOption (a)

    admiration

  2. BOption (b)

    love

  3. COption (c)

    appreciation

  4. DOption (d)

    flattery

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

flattery

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'flattery'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Sycophancy' means the behavior in which somebody praises important or powerful people in a way to gain an advantage. (चापलूसी, चाटुकारिता, चमचेबाज़ी)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Admiration' means a feeling of liking and respecting somebody or something very much. (किसी को या किसी चीज को बहुत पसंद करने और सम्मान करने की भावना)
  • 'Love' means a strong feeling that you have when you like somebody or something very much. (प्रेम, प्‍यार)
  • 'Appreciation' means the feeling of being grateful for something. (आभार, कृतज्ञता)
  • 'Flattery' means saying good things about somebody or something that you do not really mean. (चापलूसी, चाटुकारिता, ख़ुशामद)

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Sycophancy' are "flattery, incense, overpraise".
  • The antonyms of the word 'Sycophancy' are "depreciation, detraction, disparagement".
  • Example of 'Flattery' in a sentence:
  • He thinks he can get his way through flattery.

Question 2

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

In India, it has become easy to attack cultural artefacts these days.

  1. AOption (a)

    beckon

  2. BOption (b)

    assault

  3. COption (c)

    belch

  4. DOption (d)

    appreciate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

assault

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'assault'.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word: 
  • Attack: to try to hurt or defeat using violence.
  • Example: Most wild animals won't attack unless they are provoked.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the correct word:
  • Assault: a violent attack.
  • Example: They launched an assault on the capital yesterday.
  • Therefore, the word nearest in the meaning of the underlined word 'attack' is 'assault'.
  • Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of the other given options:
  • Beckon: to move your hand or head in a way that tells someone to come nearer.
  • Belch: an act of producing a substance such as gas or smoke, especially when this is unpleasant or harmful.
  • Appreciate: to recognize how good someone or something is and to value him, her, or it.

Hinglish 

  • Attack: हिंसा का उपयोग करके चोट या हारने का प्रयास करना।
  • उदाहरण: Most wild animals won't attack unless they are provoked.
  • Assault: एक हिंसक हमला।
  • उदाहरण: They launched an assault on the capital yesterday.
  • Beckon: अपने हाथ या सिर को इस तरह से हिलाना जो किसी को पास आने के लिए कहे।
  • Belch: गैस या धुएं जैसे पदार्थ का उत्पादन करने का एक कार्य, खासकर जब यह अप्रिय या हानिकारक हो।
  • Appreciate: यह पहचानने के लिए कि कोई व्यक्ति या कोई चीज़ कितनी अच्छी है और उसे, उसे, या उसे महत्व देना।
  • अत: रेखांकित शब्द 'attack' के अर्थ में निकटतम शब्द 'assault' है।
  • अतः विकल्प 2 सही उत्तर है।

Question 3

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

A local court granted bail to the criminal on Thursday.

  1. AOption (a)

    confessed

  2. BOption (b)

    donated

  3. COption (c)

    allowed

  4. DOption (d)

    yielded

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

allowed

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'allowed'.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word:
  • Granted: to give or allow someone something, usually in an official way.
  • Example: They granted her an entry visa.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the correct answer:
  • Allowed: to give permission for someone to do something, or to not prevent something from happening.
  • Example: Do you think Dad will allow you to go to Jamie's party?
  • Therefore, the word nearest in the meaning of the underlined word 'granted' is 'allowed'.
  • Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Additional Information 

  • Let's look at the meaning of the other given options:
  • Confessed: to admit that you have done something wrong or something that you feel guilty or bad about.
  • Donated: to give money or goods to help a person or organization.
  • Yielded: to supply or produce something positive such as a profit, an amount of food, or information.

Hinglish

  • Granted: किसी को कुछ देना या अनुमति देना, आमतौर पर आधिकारिक तरीके से।
  • उदाहरण: They granted her an entry visa.
  • Allowed: किसी को कुछ करने की अनुमति देना, या कुछ होने से नहीं रोकना।
  • उदाहरण: Do you think Dad will allow you to go to Jamie's party?
  • Confessed: यह स्वीकार करने के लिए कि आपने कुछ गलत किया है या कुछ ऐसा है जिसके बारे में आप दोषी या बुरा महसूस करते हैं।
  • Donated: किसी व्यक्ति या संस्था की मदद के लिए पैसा या सामान देना।
  • Yielded: कुछ सकारात्मक आपूर्ति या उत्पादन करने के लिए जैसे लाभ, भोजन की मात्रा, या जानकारी।
  • अत: रेखांकित शब्द 'granted' के अर्थ में निकटतम शब्द 'allowed' है।
  • अत: विकल्प 3 सही उत्तर है।

Question 4

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

The judge told that he would analyze the evidence and then deliver the verdict.

  1. AOption (a)

    liberate

  2. BOption (b)

    surrender

  3. COption (c)

    transfer

  4. DOption (d)

    discharge

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

transfer

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. 'transfer'.

Key Points

  • 'Deliver' means 'Transport', 'Distribute'.
  • Related: 'Let out', 'let go', 'Release', 'transfer'.

In a sentence: The judge told that he would analyze the evidence and then transfer the verdict.

Additional Information

  • Discharge(verb)- tell (someone) officially that they can or must leave a place or situation.
  • Example: Patients were discharged from the hospital because the beds were needed by other people.
  • Transfer(verb)- to move someone or something from one place, vehicle, person, or group to another
  • Example: He has been transferred to a psychiatric hospital.
  • Surrender (Verb)- to give up possession of or power over; yield to another on demand or compulsion 
  • Example- The hijackers eventually surrendered themselves to the police.

Question 5

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

The growth and development of the peasant movement were indissolubly linked with the national struggle for freedom.

  1. AOption (a)

    firmly

  2. BOption (b)

    vaguely

  3. COption (c)

    individually

  4. DOption (d)

    steadily

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

firmly

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "firmly" 

Key Points

  • 'Indissoluble' means 'Non-destructive', 'Lasting', 'Permanent'.
  • Related: 'Firm', 'Stable', 'Undone'.
  • Contexts: 'A word spoken', 'An action committed.
  • In a sentence: A word spoken is indissoluble - it cannot be changed once spoken out.
  • Look at the following example:
  • Rekha shut the door firmly and walked away.
  • She swung her legs around and firmly planted her feet on the ground before accepting the hand he offered.

Hence, the correct answer is Option 1 i.e. Firmly.

Question 6

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Weather conditions have been improving over the past few days.

  1. AOption (a)

    mending

  2. BOption (b)

    amending

  3. COption (c)

    becoming better

  4. DOption (d)

    advancing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

becoming better

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'becoming better'.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word: 
  • Improve: to (cause something to) get better.
  • Example: He did a lot to improve conditions for factory workers.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the correct answer:
  • Better: in a more suitable, pleasing, or satisfactory way, or to a greater degree.
  • Example: The next time he took the test, he was better prepared.
  • Therefore, the word nearest in the meaning of the underlined word 'improving' is 'becoming better'.
  • Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of the other given options:
  • Mending: to repair something that is broken or damaged.
  • Amending: to change something, especially the words of a text.
  • Advancing: to go or move something forward.

Hinglish

  • Improve: (कुछ करने के लिए) बेहतर होना।
  • उदाहरण: He did a lot to improve conditions for factory workers.
  • Better: अधिक उपयुक्त, मनभावन, या संतोषजनक तरीके से, या अधिक हद तक।
  • उदाहरण: The next time he took the test, he was better prepared.
  • Mending : किसी क्षतिग्रस्त या टूटी हुई वस्तु की मरम्मत करना।
  • Amending: कुछ बदलने के लिए, विशेष रूप से किसी पाठ के शब्द।
  • Advancing: किसी चीज को आगे बढ़ाना या आगे बढ़ाना।
  • अतः रेखांकित शब्द 'improving' के अर्थ में निकटतम शब्द 'becoming better' है।
  • अत: विकल्प 3 सही उत्तर है।

Question 7

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

The confusion on the interlocutor's face was gratifying.

  1. AOption (a)

    government officer

  2. BOption (b)

    party worker

  3. COption (c)

    dialogist

  4. DOption (d)

    revolutionary

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

dialogist

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'dialogist'. 

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given word.
  • Interlocutor: a person who takes part in a dialogue or conversation.
  • ​Example: The interlocutor expressed himself cogently.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the given options.
  • ​​government officer: any employee or official of any government, including by any employee or official of any entity owned or controlled by a government,
  • party worker: a person who carries out duties for a political candidate or party, esp before an election.
  • dialogist: a person who writes or takes part in a dialogue
  • revolutionary: engaged in or promoting political revolution.
  • ​As per the meaning of the given words, "dialogist" is the nearest in meaning to the underlined word.
  • ​Example: He was more of a dialogist than a fundamentalist when it came to matters of religion.

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

Question 8

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

He spends his money lavishly.

  1. AOption (a)

    Luxuriously

  2. BOption (b)

    Generously

  3. COption (c)

    Foolishly

  4. DOption (d)

    Carefully

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Luxuriously

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Luxuriously.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word:
  • Lavishly: in a way that is expensive or impressive.
  • Example: The dining room was lavishly decorated.
  • Luxuriously: in a very comfortable and expensive way.
  • Example: She lives luxuriously in her villa.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the correct answer:
  • Therefore, the nearest meaning of the underlined word 'Lavishly' is 'Luxuriously'.

Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of the other given options: 
  • Generously: willing to give money, help, kindness, etc.
  • Foolishly: in a way that is unwise, stupid, or does not show good judgment.
  • Carefully: with great attention.

Hinglish

  • Lavishly: एक तरह से जो महंगा या प्रभावशाली हो।
  • उदाहरण: The dining room was lavishly decorated.
  • Luxuriously: बहुत ही आरामदायक और महंगे तरीके से।
  • उदाहरण: We flew home luxuriously in first class.
  • Generously: धन, सहायता, दया आदि देने को तैयार।
  • Foolishly: एक तरह से जो नासमझ है, मूर्ख है, या अच्छा निर्णय नहीं दिखाता है।
  • Carefully: बड़े ध्यान से।
  • अत: रेखांकित शब्द 'Lavishly' का निकटतम अर्थ 'Luxuriously' है।

अतः विकल्प 1 सही उत्तर है।

Question 9

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

The government's new policies will come into force from the next fiscal year.

  1. AOption (a)

    calendar

  2. BOption (b)

    academic

  3. COption (c)

    financial

  4. DOption (d)

    leap

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

financial

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Financial'.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word:
  • Fiscal: connected with (public) money.
  • Example: The governor said the fiscal crisis couldn't be solved by spending cuts alone, insisting the state needs additional revenue.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the correct answer:
  • Financial: relating to money or how money is managed.
  • Example: Independent agencies perform rigorous analysis in order to assign financial strength ratings to America's leading corporations.
  • Therefore the nearest meaning of the underlined word 'fiscal' is 'financial'.
  • Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Let's explore the other given options:
  • Calendar: a printed table showing all the days, weeks, and months of the year.
  • Academic: relating to education and scholarship.
  • Leap: to make a large jump or sudden movement, usually from one place to another.

Hinglish

  • Fiscal: (सार्वजनिक) धन से जुड़ा।
  • उद��हरण:The governor said the fiscal crisis couldn't be solved by spending cuts alone, insisting the state needs additional revenue.
  • Financial: पैसे से संबंधित या पैसे का प्रबंधन कैसे किया जाता है।
  • उदाहरण: Independent agencies perform rigorous analysis in order to assign financial strength ratings to America's leading corporations.
  • Calendar: वर्ष के सभी दिनों, सप्ताहों और महीनों को दर्शाने वाली एक मुद्रित तालिका।
  • Academic: शिक्षा और छात्रवृत्ति से संबंधित।
  • Leap: एक बड़ी छलांग या अचानक गति करना, आमतौर पर एक स्थान से दूसरे स्थान पर।
  • अतः रेखांकित शब्द 'fiscal' का निकटतम अर्थ 'financial' है।
  • अत: विकल्प 3 सही उत्तर है।

Question 10

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Abundant food was available for the soldiers in the mess.

  1. AOption (a)

    little

  2. BOption (b)

    plentiful

  3. COption (c)

    delicious

  4. DOption (d)

    wholesome

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

plentiful

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'plentiful'.

<br>

Key Points:-

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given underlined word:-
  • Abundant - existing or available in large quantities; plentiful.
  • Example - There was abundant evidence to support the theory.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the correct answer:-
  • Plentiful - existing in or yielding great quantities; abundant.
  • Example - Coal is cheap and plentiful.
  • Thus, the correct answer is Option 2. ​

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of the other options:-
  • Little - small in size, amount, or degree (often used to convey an appealing diminutiveness or express an affectionate or condescending attitude).
  • Delicious - highly pleasant to the taste.
  • Wholesome - conducive to or suggestive of good health and physical well-being.

Hinglish

  • Abundant - मौजूदा या बड़ी मात्रा में उपलब्ध; भरपूर।
  • उदाहरण: There was abundant evidence to support the theory.
  • Plentiful - बड़ी मात्रा में विद्यमान या उपज देने वाला; प्रचुर मात्रा में।
  • उदाहरण: Coal is cheap and plentiful.​
  • Little - आकार, मात्रा या डिग्री में छोटा (अक्सर एक आकर्षक कमी को व्यक्त करने या स्नेही या कृपालु रवैया व्यक्त करने के लिए उपयोग किया जाता है।
  • Delicious - स्वाद के लिए बेहद सुखद।
  • Wholesome - करने के लिए या अच्छे स्वास्थ्य और शारीरिक भलाई के विचारोत्तेजक अनुकूल।
  • अत: सही उत्��र विकल्प 2 है।

Question 11

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

The country's economy must be geared to wartime requirements.

  1. AOption (a)

    subordinated to

  2. BOption (b)

    related to

  3. COption (c)

    adjusted to

  4. DOption (d)

    unlinked to

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

unlinked to

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. unlinked to.

Geared to: Refers to the act being organized to achieve something

Unlinked to: Refers to something that is completely unrelated to something

For e.g. The shares that Mrs. James held were completely (unlinked) unrelated to her bankruptcy.

Thus, it is clear that geared to and unlinked to are opposite words.

Let's look at the meaning of other words:

  • Subordinated to: Refers to someone being put in an inferior position to someone else
  • Related to: Refers to something having a relation to something
  • Adjusted to: Refers to something that is changed in order to be made correct

 

Thus, options 1, 2 and 3 are incorrect.

Question 12

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Why does fire attract insects?

  1. AOption (a)

    discharge

  2. BOption (b)

    destroy

  3. COption (c)

    repel

  4. DOption (d)

    remove

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

repel

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'repel'.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word: 
  • Attract: Refers to the act of causing someone to have an interest in something.
  • Example: The city attracts thousands of visitors each year.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the opposite word:
  • Repel: Refers to the act of forcing someone to back away.
  • Example: The lotion claimed to repel mosquitoes*.*
  • Therefore, the word opposite in the meaning to the underlined word 'attract' is 'repel'.
  • Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

​

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Discharge: Refers to the act of allowing something to flow out of somewhere.
  • Destroy: Refers to the act of ending the existence of something.
  • Remove: Refers to the act of taking something put from somewhere.

Hinglish

  • Attract: किसी को किसी चीज़ में रुचि रखने के लिए प्रेरित करने के कार्य को संदर्भित करता है।
  • उदाहरण: The city attracts thousands of visitors each year.
  • Repel: किसी को पीछे हटने के लिए मजबूर करने के कार्य को संदर्भित करता है।
  • उदाहरण: The lotion claimed to repel mosquitoes*.*
  • Discharge: किसी चीज को कहीं से बाहर निकलने की अनुमति देने के कार्य को संदर्भित करता है।
  • Destroy: किसी चीज के अस्तित्व को समाप्त करने की क्रिया को संदर्भित करता है।
  • Remove: कहीं से रखी हुई कोई चीज लेने की क्रिया को दर्शाता है।
  • अत: रेखांकित शब्द 'attract' के अर्थ में विपरीत शब्द 'repel' है।
  • अत: विकल्प 3 सही उत्तर है।

Question 13

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

The party was excellent, and I would like to thank all the people concerned.

  1. AOption (a)

    cared

  2. BOption (b)

    attentive

  3. COption (c)

    dependable

  4. DOption (d)

    uninvolved

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

uninvolved

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'uninvolved'.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word: 
  • Concerned: Refers to someone who is worried or involved in something.
  • Example: He was concerned to hear that two of his trusted workers were leaving.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the correct answer:
  • Uninvolved: Refers to someone who is not connected or related to something.
  • Example: My parents were completely uninvolved in my graduation process.
  • Therefore, the word opposite in meaning of the underlined word 'concerned' is 'uninvolved'.
  • Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

Additional Information 

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words: 
  • Cared: Refers to interest or concern someone feels for someone.
  • Attentive: Refers to someone who is very observant and caring about something.
  • Dependable: Refers to someone who is reliable and can be counted on for something.

Hinglish

  • Concerned: किसी ऐसे व्यक्ति को संदर्भित करता है जो चिंतित है या किसी चीज में शामिल है।
  • उदाहरण: He was concerned to hear that two of his trusted workers were leaving.
  • Uninvolved: किसी ऐसे व्यक्ति को संदर्भित करता है जो किसी चीज से जुड़ा या संबंधित नहीं है।
  • उदाहरण: My parents were completely uninvolved in my graduation process.
  • Cared: किसी के लिए किसी की रुचि या चिंता को संदर्भित करता है।
  • Attentive: किसी ऐसे व्यक्ति को संदर्भित करता है जो बहुत चौकस है और किसी चीज की परवाह करता है।
  • Dependable: किसी ऐसे व्यक्ति को संदर्भित करता है जो विश्वसनीय है और जिस पर किसी चीज के लिए भरोसा किया जा सकता है।
  • अत: रेखांकित शब्द 'concerned' के अर्थ में विपरीतार्थक शब्द 'uninvolved' है।
  • अत: विकल्प 4 सही उत्तर है।

Question 14

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

He is very serious by temperament.

  1. AOption (a)

    grave

  2. BOption (b)

    trivial

  3. COption (c)

    sober

  4. DOption (d)

    stupid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

trivial

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. trivial.

Key Points 

  • Serious: Refers to someone who carefully considers everything (किसी के लिए जो ध्यान से सब कुछ मानता है)
  • Trivial: Refers to someone who is only concerned with unimportant things (किसी ऐसे व्यक्ति के लिए जो केवल महत्वहीन चीजों से संबंधित है)
  • For e.g. Steve was very trivial when it came to financial matters.
  • Thus, it is clear that serious and trivial are opposite words.
  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Grave: Refers to something that is very important and serious (किसी ऐसी चीज के लिए जो बहुत महत्वपूर्ण और गंभीर हो)
  • Sober: Refers to something that is very serious and solemn (किसी ऐसी चीज के लिए जो बहुत गंभीर और गंभीर है)
  • Stupid: Refers to someone who shows a lack of intelligence (किसी ऐसे व्यक्ति के लिए जो बुद्धि की कमी दिखाता है)

 

Thus, options 1, 3 and 4 are incorrect.

Question 15

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

There are a few miscellaneous items to discuss in this meeting.

  1. AOption (a)

    pure

  2. BOption (b)

    mixed

  3. COption (c)

    homogeneous

  4. DOption (d)

    discordant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

homogeneous

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. homogeneous.

Key Points 

  • Miscellaneous: Refers to something that has  a lot of varying aspects (किसी ऐसी चीज़ को संदर्भित करता है जिसमें बहुत सारे अलग-अलग पहलू हों)
  • Homogeneous: Refers to something that is of the same kind, something that is alike (किसी ऐसी चीज़ को संदर्भित करता है जो एक ही प्रकार की है, कुछ ऐसी है जो समान है)
  • For e.g. The students in Ms. Matthews's class were all homogeneous.
  • Thus, it is clear that miscellaneous and homogeneous are opposite words.
  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Pure: Refers to something that is not mixed in by anything else (किसी ऐसी चीज़ को संदर्भित करता है जो किसी और चीज़ से मिश्रित नहीं होती है)
  • Mixed: Refers to something that is not one thing, it is a mixture of multiple things (किसी ऐसी चीज को संदर्भित करता है जो एक चीज नहीं है, यह कई चीजों का मिश्रण है)
  • Discordant: Refers to something that is disagreeing and not matching (किसी ऐसी चीज़ को संदर्भित करता है जो असहमत है और मेल नहीं खाती)

 

Thus, options 1, 2 and 4 are incorrect.

Question 16

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Due to the postal strike, the outgoing mail got delayed.

  1. AOption (a)

    urgent

  2. BOption (b)

    incoming

  3. COption (c)

    ordinary

  4. DOption (d)

    speedy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

incoming

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'incoming'.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word:
  • Outgoing: Refers to an instance of something going out. (किसी चीज के बाहर जाने के उदाहरण को संदर्भित करता है।)
  • Example: The outgoing president.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the correct answer:
  • Incoming: Refers to the process of coming in. (आने की प्रक्रिया को संदर्भित करता है।)
  • Example: The incoming mails were flooding Terence's mailbox.
  • Therefore, the word opposite in meaning of the given underlined word 'outgoing is 'incoming'.
  • Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

Additional Information 

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words: 
  • Urgent: Refers to something that requires immediate action.
  • Ordinary: Refers to something that is common and regular.
  • Speedy: Refers to something that is fast and hurried.

Hinglish

  • Outgoing: किसी चीज़ के बाहर जाने के उदाहरण को संदर्भित करता है।
  • उदाहरण: The outgoing president.
  • Incoming: आने की प्रक्रिया को संदर्भित करता है।
  • उदाहरण:The incoming mails were flooding Terence's mailbox.
  • Urgent: किसी ऐसी चीज़ को संदर्भित करता है जिसके लिए तत्काल कार्रवाई की आवश्यकता होती है।
  • Ordinary: किसी ऐसी चीज को संदर्भित करता है जो सामान्य और नियमित हो।
  • Speedy: किसी ऐसी चीज को संदर्भित करता है जो तेज और जल्दबाजी में हो।
  • अत: दिए गए रेखांकित शब्द 'outgoing' के अर्थ में विपरीत शब्द 'incoming' है।
  • अतः विकल्प 2 सही उत्तर है।

Question 17

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

He had a fine ear for music.

  1. AOption (a)

    small

  2. BOption (b)

    close

  3. COption (c)

    coarse

  4. DOption (d)

    smooth

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

coarse

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. coarse.

Key Points 

  • Fine: Refers to something that is of very high quality, something very thin or narrow and smooth (कुछ ऐसा जो बहुत उच्च गुणवत्ता का हो, कुछ बहुत पतला या संकीर्ण और चिकना हो)
  • Coarse: Refers to something that has a harsh or rough texture (किसी ऐसी चीज़ को संदर्भित करता है जिसकी बनावट कठोर या खुरदरी हो)
  • For e.g. The grains of sand were very coarse and thus were hurting Adam.
  • Thus, it is clear that fine and coarse are opposite words.
  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Small: Refers to something that is very tiny in size (किसी ऐसी चीज़ को संदर्भित करता है जो आकार में बहुत छोटी होती है)
  • Close: Refers to something that is very near, distance-wise (किसी ऐसी चीज़ को संदर्भित करता है जो बहुत निकट है, दूरी के अनुसार)
  • Smooth: Refers to something that is very even and regular in terms of texture (किसी ऐसी चीज़ को संदर्भित करता है जो बनावट के मामले में बहुत ही समान और नियमित है)

 

Thus, options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.

Question 18

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

There is no likeness between him and his brother.

  1. AOption (a)

    unlikeliness

  2. BOption (b)

    unlikelihood

  3. COption (c)

    dissimilarity

  4. DOption (d)

    disaffinity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

dissimilarity

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'dissimilarity'.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word: 
  • Likeness: Refers to a similarity that two or more things share.
  • Example: Her likeness to him was astonishing.
  • Let's look at the meaning of the correct answer:
  • Dissimilarity: Refers to a difference or variance between two or more things.
  • Example: There was a great dissimilarity between the father-son duo.
  • Therefore, the word opposite in meaning to the underlined word 'likeness' is 'dissimilarity'.
  • Hence, option 3 is the correct answer.

Additional Information

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Unlikeliness: dissimilarity evidenced by an absence of likeness.
  • Unlikelihood: Refers to something that is in a state of not happening.
  • Disaffinity: Refers to dislike one has for something.

Hinglish

  • Likeness: एक समानता को संदर्भित करता है जो दो या दो से अधिक चीजें साझा करती हैं।
  • उदाहरण: Her likeness to him was astonishing.
  • Dissimilarity: दो या दो से अधिक चीजों के बीच अंतर या भिन्नता को संदर्भित करता है।
  • उदाहरण: There was a great dissimilarity between the father-son duo.
  • Unlikeliness: समानता की अनुपस्थिति से प्रमाणित असमानता।
  • Unlikelihood: किसी ऐसी चीज़ को संदर्भित करता है जो घटित नहीं होने की स्थिति में है।
  • Disaffinity: नापसंद करने के लिए संदर्भित करता है कि किसी के पास कुछ है।
  • अत: रेखांकित शब्द 'likeness' के अर्थ में विपरीत शब्द 'dissimilarity' है।
  • अत: विकल्प 3 सही उत्तर है।

Question 19

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Cultural diversity in the working place is good for business.

  1. AOption (a)

    variety

  2. BOption (b)

    conformity

  3. COption (c)

    identity

  4. DOption (d)

    similarity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

similarity

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'similarity'.

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word: 
  • Diversity: Refers to a state of being different or diverse.
  • Example: Does television adequately reflect the ethnic and cultural diversity of the country?
  • Let's look at the meaning of the correct answer:
  • Similarity: Refers to a state of being the same or identical.
  • Example: I can see the similarity between you and your mother.
  • Therefore the word opposite in meaning of the underlined word 'diversity' is 'similarity'.
  • Hence, option 4 is the correct answer.

Additional Information 

  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Variety: the quality or state of being composed of many different elements or types
  • Conformity: Refers to a state of trying to match the given standards.
  • Identity: Refers to the fact of who a person is.

Hinglish

  • Diversity: भिन्न या विविध होने की स्थिति को संदर्भित करता है।
  • उदाहरण: Does television adequately reflect the ethnic and cultural diversity of the country?
  • Similarity: समान या समरूप होने की स्थिति को संदर्भित करता है।
  • उदाहरण: I can see the similarity between you and your mother.
  • Variety: कई अलग-अलग तत्वों या प्रकारों से बना होने की गुणवत्ता या अवस्था।
  • conformity: दिए गए मानकों से मेल खाने की कोशिश करने की स्थिति को संदर्भित करता है।
  • Identity: इस तथ्य को संदर्भित करता है कि व्यक्ति कौन है।
  • अतः रेखांकित शब्द 'diversity' के अर्थ में विपरीत शब्द 'similarity' है।
  • अत: विकल्प 4 सही उत्तर है।

Question 20

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four words. Select the option that is similar in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

The company was liquidated within five years.

  1. AOption (a)

    bankrupt

  2. BOption (b)

    closed down

  3. COption (c)

    flourishing

  4. DOption (d)

    privatised

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

closed down

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. closed down.

Liquidated: Refers to the winding up of the affairs of a business, by analyzing their assets and liabilities

Closed Down: Refers to something that is shut or winded up

For e.g. Within 5 years of its establishment, 'Lioness and Co.' was closed down. 

Thus, it is clear that liquidated and closed down are similar words.

Let's look at the meaning of other words:

  • Bankrupt: Refers to a company declared as unable to pay their debts
  • Flourishing: Refers to something that is blooming and is very successful
  • Privatized: Refers to a transfer of a company from public to private

 

Thus, options 1, 3 and 4 are incorrect.

Question 21

Direction: Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any part and if you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

The politician lost face in his constituency (a)/ when he broke the pre-election promises (b)/ he had made to his people. (c)/ No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(d)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '(d).'

Key Points

  • There is no error in this sentence as it is satisfying all the grammatical rules.
  • इस वाक्य में कोई त्रुटि नहीं है क्योंकि यह सभी व्याकरणिक नियमों को संतुष्ट करता है।
  • Therefore, the correct answer is '(d).'

​The correct sentence: The politician lost face in his constituency when he broke the pre-election promises he had made to his people.

Additional Information

  • A helping verb (also known as an auxiliary verb) is used with a main verb to help express the main verb's tense, mood, or voice.
  • एक helping verb (जिसे auxiliary verb के रूप में भी जाना जाता है) का उपयोग मुख्य क्रिया के साथ मुख्य क्रिया के काल, मनोदशा या आवाज को व्यक्त करने में मदद के लिए किया जाता है।
  • The main helping verbs are "to be," "to have," and "to do."
  • They appear in the following forms: To Be: am, is, are, was, were, being, been, will be

                                                         To Have: has, have, had, having, will have.

  • Example: Peter has been singing for an hour.

Question 22

Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled a), b) and c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., a) or b) or c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as d).

At the request of the Defense Attorney, (a)/ the jury were called (b)/ and their individual verdicts were recorded. (c)/ No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

d

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. d.

Key Points

  • In the given question, 'Jury' is considered as an individual member's opinion so it will be followed by the plural verb 'were'.
  • ​So, the given sentence is grammatically correct.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 4.
  • The correct sentence is: At the request of the Defense Attorney, the jury were called and their individual verdicts were recorded.

Question 23

Direction: Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any part and if you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Frank Lloyd Wright has been acclaimed (a)/ by his colleagues (b)/ as the greater of all modern architects. (c)/ No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(c)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '(c).

Key Points

  • The sentence mentions that Frank Lloyd Wright is being compared to all modern architects and has been acclaimed as 'great'.
  • वाक्य में उल्लेख है कि फ्रैंक लॉयड राइट की तुलना सभी आधुनिक वास्तुकारों से की जा रही है और उन्हें 'great' के रूप में प्रशंसित किया गया है।
  • Since he is better than all other modern architects, the superlative term for 'great' needs to be used, which is 'greatest', and not the comparative term 'greater' which has been used here. 
  • चूंकि वह अन्य सभी आधुनिक वास्तुकारों से बेहतर है, इसलिए 'great' के लिए अतिशयोक्तिपूर्ण शब्द का उपयोग करने की आवश्यकता है, जो कि 'greatest' है, न कि तुलनात्मक शब्द 'greater' जो यहां इस्तेमाल किया गया है।
  • Therefore, the correct answer is '(c).'

​The correct sentence: Frank Lloyd Wright has been acclaimed by his colleagues as the greatest of all modern architects.

Additional Information

  • Adjectives are used to describe, identify, modify or quantify nouns or pronouns.
  • Adjectives have three degrees that compare one thing to another.
  • The three degrees of adjectives are positive, comparative, and superlative.
  • The comparative and superlative degrees are used to compare between two or more subjects or objects. 
  • Example: Tina is smarter than Abhishek.

Question 24

Direction: Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled a), b) and c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., a) or b) or c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as d).

In my younger days (a)/ I could run four miles (b)/ at a stretch. (c)/ No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

d

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'd'.

 

Key Points

  • The sentence "In my younger days I could run four miles at a stretch." is grammatically correct and conveys a clear meaning.
  • There are no spelling or punctuation errors.
  • The phrase "In my younger days" correctly sets up a time period in the past.
  • The phrase "I could run four miles at a stretch" correctly describes the ability to run four miles without stopping or taking a break.
  • Therefore, there is no error in any of the underlined parts a), b), or c).

Therefore, the correct answer is ‘Option 4’.

 

Additional Information

  • "In my younger days" is correctly used to describe a period in the speaker's past and does not contain any grammatical errors.
  • "I could run four miles" correctly uses the modal verb "could" to indicate past ability.
  • "at a stretch" is an idiom meaning to do something without stopping or without interruption, and it is used appropriately here.

Question 25

Direction: Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any part and if you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

The owner, (a)/ as well as his servants, (b)/ is honest. (c)/ No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(d)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '(d).'

​

  • When 'as well as' is part of the subject, the verb must agree with the noun before 'as well as'.
  • जब 'as well as' विषय का हिस्सा है, तो क्रिया को 'as well as' से पहले संज्ञा से सहमत होना चाहिए।
  • So, the subject here is 'the owner' which is singular.
  • तो, यहाँ विषय 'the owner' है जो एकवचन है।
  • ​ ​​Example: The mayor, as well as his brothers, is going to prison.
  • Thus, the use of 'is honest' is correct.
  • There is no error in this sentence as it is satisfying all the grammatical rules.
  • इस वाक्य में कोई त्रुटि नहीं है क्योंकि यह सभी व्याकरणिक नियमों को संतुष्ट करता है।
  • Therefore, the correct answer is '(d).'

​The correct sentence: The owner, as well as his servants, is honest. 

Additional Information

  • A helping verb (also known as an auxiliary verb) is used with a main verb to help express the main verb's tense, mood, or voice.
  • एक helping verb (जिसे auxiliary verb के रूप में भी जाना जाता है) का उपयोग मुख्य क्रिया के साथ मुख्य क्रिया के काल, मनोदशा या आवाज को व्यक्त करने में मदद के लिए किया जाता है।
  • The main helping verbs are "to be," "to have," and "to do."
  • They appear in the following forms: To Be: am, is, are, was, were, being, been, will be

                                                         To Have: has, have, had, having, will have.

  • Example: Peter has been singing for an hour.

Question 26

Direction: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response a), b), c) or d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Cry over spilt milk

  1. AOption (a)

    Complaining about a loss in the past

  2. BOption (b)

    Too much inquisitive about something

  3. COption (c)

    When something is done badly to save money

  4. DOption (d)

    Dealing with a problem only in an emergency situation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Complaining about a loss in the past

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. complaining about a loss in the past.

Key Points 

  • To cry over spilt milk means to display or feel sorrow over something that has already happened and cannot be undone. (किसी ऐसी चीज़ पर दुख प्रदर्शित करना या महसूस करना जो पहले ही हो चुकी है और जिसे पूर्ववत नहीं किया जा सकता है)
  • For e.g. Fatima encouraged Gale to not cry over spilt milk and try to look forward to the future.

Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

Question 27

Direction: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response 1), 2), 3) or 4) which is the most appropriate expression.

Cut the mustard

  1. AOption (a)

    Prepare spices out of mustard seeds

  2. BOption (b)

    To come up to expectations

  3. COption (c)

    Making absurd expectations

  4. DOption (d)

    Very enthusiastic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To come up to expectations

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is To come up to expectations

Key Points

  • To cut the mustard: to reach or surpass the desired standard or performance (वांछित मानक या प्रदर्शन तक पहुँचने या उससे आगे निकलने के लिए)

Example: This toaster doesn't cut the mustard anymore. No matter what setting you choose, your toast comes out charred!

Additional Information

  • Let us see the origin of the idiom:
  • The phrase “cut the mustard” originated in late 19th-century America. The Oxford English Dictionary describes it as “slang (originally U.S.),” and says the noun “mustard” here means “something which adds piquancy or zest; that which sets the standard or is the best of anything.”

Question 28

Direction: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response 1), 2), 3) or 4) which is the most appropriate expression.

Devil's advocate

  1. AOption (a)

    A dangerous person

  2. BOption (b)

    To present a counter argument

  3. COption (c)

    Very argumentative person

  4. DOption (d)

    Creating an unpleasant situation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

To present a counter argument

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. to present a counter argument.

Key Points 

  • Devil's advocate is used to refer to a person that puts forth an opposing argument for the sake of it or to provoke someone.
  • (डेविल्स एडवोकेट का उपयोग उस व्यक्ति को संदर्भित करने के लिए किया जाता है जो इसके लिए एक विरोधी तर्क देता है या किसी को उकसाता है)
  • For e.g. The student played devil's advocate with his teacher.

Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

Question 29

Direction: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response 1), 2), 3) or 4) which is the most appropriate expression.

Don't count your chickens before the eggs have hatched

  1. AOption (a)

    If you are not good at something, better to avoid that

  2. BOption (b)

    Don't make plans for something that might not happen

  3. COption (c)

    Not to come up to expectations

  4. DOption (d)

    Don't put all your resources in one possibility

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Don't make plans for something that might not happen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Don't make plans for something that might not happen."

Key Points

  • To not count chickens before they hatch means "to not expect something to happen until there is a guarantee that it will happen."
  • Not all eggs lead to living and healthy chicks and thus assuming that all eggs will lead to hens will create false hope.
  • For e.g. The groom, when on his search for a suitable bride, was asked by his mother to not count his chickens before the eggs had hatched.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

The correct answer is: Don't make plans for something that might not happen.

Question 30

Direction: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Choose the response a), b), c) or d) which is the most appropriate expression.

Give the benefit of doubt

  1. AOption (a)

    To be partial to someone

  2. BOption (b)

    To be judgmental

  3. COption (c)

    Regard someone as innocent until proven otherwise

  4. DOption (d)

    Say something exactly right

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Regard someone as innocent until proven otherwise

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "Regard someone as innocent until proven otherwise."

Key Points

  • To give someone the benefit of the doubt refers to not assuming anything more than what is factual, and not doubting whatever is present until there is evidence of things being otherwise.
  • Example: In most cases, suspects are given the benefit of the doubt until there is irrepressible evidence.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct answer is: Regard someone as innocent until proven otherwise

Question 31

Direction: In this section each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences.

S1: The Subsidiary Alliance system was extremely advantageous to the British.

P: They could now maintain a large army at the cost of Indian states

Q: if any war occurred in the territories

R: either of the British ally or of the Britishers

S: This enabled them to fight wars far away from their own territories

S6: They controlled the defence and the foreign relations of the protected ally.

The proper sequence should be

  1. AOption (a)

    P Q R S

  2. BOption (b)

    P S Q R

  3. COption (c)

    Q R P S

  4. DOption (d)

    S R P Q

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

P S Q R

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "PSQR".

Key Points

  • Let's look at the correct sequence of the given passage.
  • The passage begins with the sentence that talks about the topic at hand - how the Subsidiary Alliance was very advantageous to the British.
  • Sentence P is the first part of the given sentence after the opening statement which talks about the strategic advantages as a result of the Subsidiary Alliance for the British such as the maintenance of a large army at the cost of Indian states
  • Sentence S is the second part of the given sentence which talks about the other benefits of the alliance like the British could fight wars far away from their own territories
  • Sentence Q is the third part of the given sentence after the opening statement which begins with the conjunction "if". We use the if clause for conditional statements. The given sentence is a conditional statement that states "if any war occurred in the territories".
  • Sentence R is the second last sentence of the passage as it begins with the conjunction "either" which is used to present two alternatives. The conditional clause of the previous sentence is completed with the alternatives in this sentence. If any war occurred in the territories either of the British ally or of the Britishers
  • Then comes the final statement which talks about the consequences of this alliance by which Britishers controlled the defence and the foreign relations of the protected ally.

Thus, the correct answer is option 2. 

The complete passage: S1 The Subsidiary Alliance system was extremely advantageous to the British P. They could now maintain a large army at the cost of Indian states.S. This enabled them to fight wars far away from their own territories. Q. if any war occurred in the territories.R. either of the British ally or of the Britishers.S6: They controlled the defence and the foreign relations of the protected ally.

Question 32

Direction: In this section each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences.

S1: In reality, by signing a Subsidiary Alliance, an Indian state virtually signed away its independence.

P: and of maintaining diplomatic relations

Q: It lost the right of self-defence

R: with its neighbours

S: and of settling its disputes

S6: In fact, the Indian ruler lost all vestiges of sovereignty in external matters.

The proper sequence should be

  1. AOption (a)

    P Q R S

  2. BOption (b)

    R S P Q

  3. COption (c)

    Q P S R

  4. DOption (d)

    Q S R P

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Q P S R

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Q P S R.'

Key Points

  • While arranging the parts of the sentence given in options, we have to find some grammatical or contextual connections between them, so let’s find out.
  • QPSR is the correct answer because it is the only sequence that would make a complete sentence that is grammatically and logically correct.
  • The first part of the sentence is Q because S1 talks about how an Indian state signed away its independence and it is only logical that the following sentence explains how and what exactly the state lost.
  • ​​Correct sentence: It lost the right of self-defence, of maintaining diplomatic relations and of settling its disputes with its neighbours.

Additional Information 

  • Before rearranging parts of the sentence, it is very important to read them carefully.
  • It is very important to analyse the use of a determiner and conjunction in such cases.
  • This confusion can be eradicated by practising more and more questions of Sentence Jumbles.

Hinglish 

  • विकल्पों में दिए गए वाक्य के भागों को व्यवस्थित करते समय हमें उनके बीच कुछ व्याकरणिक या प्रासंगिक संबंध खोजने होंगे, तो आइए जानें।
  • QPSR सही उत्तर है क्योंकि यह एकमात्र अनुक्रम है जो एक पूर्ण वाक्य बना सकता है जो व्याकरणिक और तार्किक रूप से सही है।
  • वाक्य का पहला भाग Q है क्योंकि S1 इस बारे में बात करता है कि कैसे एक भारतीय राज्य ने अपनी स्वतंत्रता पर हस्ताक्षर किए और यह केवल तार्किक है कि निम्नलिखित वाक्य बताता है कि राज्य ने वास्तव में कैसे और क्या खोया।

Question 33

Direction: In this section, each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

S1: A mighty popular Revolt broke out in Northern and Central India in 1857.

P: Sepoys, or the Indian soldiers of the Company's army

Q: but soon engulfed wide regions and involved the masses

R: and nearly swept away the British rule

S: It began with a mutiny of the

S6: Millions of peasants, artisans and soldiers fought heroically and wrote a glorious chapter.

The proper sequence should be

  1. AOption (a)

    R S P Q

  2. BOption (b)

    P Q R S

  3. COption (c)

    S P Q R

  4. DOption (d)

    Q R P S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

S P Q R

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "SPQR" 

Key Points

  • The passage begins with the sentence that introduces the topic to us - the mighty popular Revolt that broke out in Northern and Central India in 1857. 
  • S1: A mighty popular Revolt broke out in Northern and Central India in 1857.
  • This is followed by sentence S which talks about a description of how the mutiny began: 
  • It began with a mutiny of the
  • Sentence P then talks about who was a part of the mutiny:
  • Sepoys, or the Indian soldiers of the Company's army
  • Then comes sentence Q which talks about how the mutiny spread to other regions and included a lot of people: 
  • but soon engulfed wide regions and involved the masses
  • In the next sentence, R talks about the consequences of the sentence, and how this widespread mutiny almost swept out the British rule in India:
  • and nearly swept away the British rule
  • The last sentence talks about who participated in the mutiny - peasants, artisans, and soldiers:
  • S6: Millions of peasants, artisans and soldiers fought heroically and wrote a glorious chapter.

Hence, the correct passage: It began with a mutiny of the Sepoys, or the Indian soldiers of the Company's army but soon engulfed wide regions and involved the masses and nearly swept away the British rule.

Question 34

Direction: In this section, each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences.

S1: The Indian Civil Service gradually developed into one of the most efficient and powerful civil services in the world.

S6: though these qualities obviously served British, and not Indian interests.

P: and often participated in the making of policy

Q: independence, integrity and hard work

R: They developed certain traditions of

S: Its members exercised vast power

The proper sequence should be

  1. AOption (a)

    P Q R S

  2. BOption (b)

    Q R S P

  3. COption (c)

    R S Q P

  4. DOption (d)

    S P R Q

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

S P R Q

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "SPRQ"

Key Points

  • Let's look at the connection between the given sentences.
  • The passage begins with a sentence that introduces the topic at hand - it talks about the Indian Civil Service and how it has been developed into one of the world's finest civil services.
  • S1: The Indian Civil Service gradually developed into one of the most efficient and powerful civil services in the world.
  • This is followed by sentence S which talks about how the members of the Indian Civil Services hold vast power:
  • Its members exercised vast power
  • this is followed by sentence P which talks about how these members with vast power often participated in policymaking.
  • and often participated in the making of policy
  • This is followed by sentence R which talks about how these members went on to develop certain traditions
  • They developed certain traditions of
  • that are specifically mentioned in sentence Q - independence, integrity, and hard work.
  • independence, integrity, and hard work
  • This is followed by the last sentence which talks about how these traditional qualities workes towards serving the British more than the Indians. 
  • S6: though these qualities obviously served British, and not Indian interests.

Hence, the correct passage:  The Indian Civil Service gradually developed into one of the most efficient and powerful civil services in the world. Its members exercised vast power and often participated in the making of policy They developed certain traditions of independence, integrity, and hard work S6: though these qualities obviously served British, and not Indian interests.

Question 35

Direction: In this section, each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences.

S1: The ruin of Indian handicrafts was reflected in the ruin of the towns and cities which were famous for their manufactures.

P: Dacca, Surat, Murshidabad and many other rising industrial

Q: ravages of war and plunder, failed to

R: survive British conquest

S: Cities which had withstood the

S6: Centres were developed and laid to waste.

The proper sequence should be:

  1. AOption (a)

    P Q R S

  2. BOption (b)

    P S Q R

  3. COption (c)

    S R P Q

  4. DOption (d)

    Q R S P

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

P S Q R

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "PSQR"

Key Points

  • Look at the following logic in the given sequence.
  • The passage begins with the 1st sentence which introduces the topic at hand, the ruin of Indian handicrafts and the ruin of the cities that were famous for manufacturing them.
  • The ruin of Indian handicrafts was reflected in the ruin of the towns and cities which were famous for their manufactures.
  • This is followed by sentence P which talks about the specific cities that faced the ravages of war and plunder:
  • Dacca, Surat, Murshidabad and many other rising industrial
  • The sentence S completes the previous sentence as it states the action of the cities(Withstood):
  • Cities which had withstood the
  • The sentence Q will follow the sentence S because it tells what the city withstood (ravages of war and plunder)
  • ravages of war and plunder, failed to
  • The next sentence will be R because it completes the (failed to) in the previous sentence(they failed to survive something)
  • ​survive British conquest
  • This passage is concluded by the final sentence which talks about the specific cities that were developed and then laid to waste by the onslaught of the British.

Hence, the correct answer: The ruin of Indian handicrafts was reflected in the ruin of the towns and cities which were famous for their manufactures. Dacca, Surat, Murshidabad and many other rising industrial cities which had withstood the ravages of war and plunder, failed to survive British conquest. Centres were developed and laid to waste.

Direction: In this section, you have few short passages. After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and the opinion of the author only.

The rule of the road means that in order that the liberties of all may be preserved, the liberties of everybody must be curtailed. When the policeman, say, at a road-crossing step into the middle of the road and puts out his hand, he is the symbol not of tyranny but of liberty. You have submitted to a curtailment of private liberty in order that you may enjoy a social order which makes your liberty a reality. We have both liberties to preserve - our individual liberty and our social liberty. That is, we must have a judicious mixture of both. I shall not permit any authority to say that my child must go to this school or that, shall specialize in science or arts. These things are personal. But if I say that my child shall have no education at all, then society will firmly tell me that my child must have education whether I like it or not.

Question 36

According to the author, the "rule of the road" implies:

  1. AOption (a)

    the rule regulating the traffic on the road

  2. BOption (b)

    the principle on which a road is constructed to ensure safe traffic

  3. COption (c)

    unrestricted freedom for all to lead a happy life

  4. DOption (d)

    restricted individual freedom to ensure freedom for all

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

restricted individual freedom to ensure freedom for all

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'restricted individual freedom to ensure freedom for all.'

Key Points

  • Let us look at the first sentence of the passage:
  • 'The rule of the road means that in order that the liberties of all may be preserved, the liberties of everybody must be curtailed'.
  • This means that in order for everyone to have freedom, individual freedom has to be restricted. 
  • इसका मतलब है कि सभी को स्वतंत्रता प्राप्त करने के लिए व्यक्तिगत स्वतंत्रता को प्रतिबंधित करना होगा।
  • Therefore, the correct option is 'restricted individual freedom to ensure freedom for all.'

Additional Information

  • The meaning of the word 'restricted' is controlled or limited.
  • Example: There is only restricted parking available.

Question 37

The author thinks that when a policeman signals you to stop on a road-crossing, he is:

  1. AOption (a)

    behaving in a whimsical manner

  2. BOption (b)

    interfering with your freedom to use the road

  3. COption (c)

    protecting the liberty of all to use the road

  4. DOption (d)

    mischievously creating hurdles in your way from some personal motive

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

protecting the liberty of all to use the road

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'protecting the liberty of all to use the road.'

Key Points

  • Let us look at the second sentence of the passage:
  • When the policeman, say, at a road-crossing steps into the middle of the road and puts out his hand, he is the symbol not of tyranny but of liberty.
  • The passage mentions that when the policeman stops someone in the middle of the road, they are not doing so in order to trouble someone, but in order to provide liberty and freedom to everyone. 
  • Passage में उल्लेख है कि जब पुलिसकर्मी सड़क के बीच में किसी को रोकते हैं, तो वे किसी को परेशान करने के लिए नहीं, बल्कि सभी को स्वतंत्रता और स्वतंत्रता प्रदान करने के लिए ऐसा कर रहे हैं।
  • Hence, the author thinks that when a policeman signals you to stop on a road-crossing, he is protecting the liberty of all to use the road.
  • Therefore, the correct option is 'protecting the liberty of all to use the road.'

Additional Information

  • The meaning of the word 'liberty' is the freedom to go where you want, do what you want, etc.
  • Example: We must defend our civil liberties at all costs.

Question 38

The author is of the view that we should

  1. AOption (a)

    have absolute individual liberty without any restrictions imposed by the society

  2. BOption (b)

    have everything controlled by the society without any kind of individual liberty

  3. COption (c)

    try to strike a sensible balance between our individual liberty and our social liberty

  4. DOption (d)

    have more of social liberty than individual liberty

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

try to strike a sensible balance between our individual liberty and our social liberty

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'try to strike a sensible balance between our individual liberty and our social liberty.'

Key Points

  • Let us look at the fourth sentence of the passage:
  • We have both liberties to preserve - our individual liberty and our social liberty.
  • The passage mentions that a judicious balance needs to be struck between individual liberty and social liberty.
  • Passage में उल्लेख है कि व्यक्तिगत स्वतंत्रता और सामाजिक स्वतंत्रता के बीच एक विवेकपूर्ण संतुलन बनाने की जरूरत है।
  • This means that in order for society to function optimally, there needs to be a sensible balance between liberties. 
  • इसका मतलब यह है कि समाज को बेहतर ढंग से काम करने के लिए स्वतंत्रता के बीच एक समझदार संतुलन होना चाहिए।
  • Hence, the author is of the view that we should try to strike a sensible balance between our individual liberty and our social liberty.
  • Therefore, the correct option is 'try to strike a sensible balance between our individual liberty and our social liberty.'

Additional Information

  • ​ The meaning of the word 'sensible' is (used about people and their behaviour) able to make good judgements based on reason and experience; practical.
  • Example: I think the sensible thing to do is call and ask for directions.

Question 39

The author holds that

  1. AOption (a)

    educating or not educating his child is a matter of personal liberty

  2. BOption (b)

    educating or not educating his child is also a matter of social liberty

  3. COption (c)

    choosing the school for his child is a matter of social liberty

  4. DOption (d)

    choosing the subject of study for his child is a matter of social liberty

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

educating or not educating his child is also a matter of social liberty

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'educating or not educating his child is also a matter of social liberty.'

 Key Points

  • Let us look at the last sentence of the passage:
  • But if I say that my child shall have no education at all, then society will firmly tell me that my child must have education whether I like it or not.
  • The decision of what school one's child goes to, what subject he/she specializes in are a matter of personal liberty. But whether one's child goes to school is a matter or social liberty - society has the right to tell one that one's child has to go to school. 
  • एक बच्चा किस स्कूल में जाता है, किस विषय में उसकी विशेषज्ञता है, इसका निर्णय व्यक्तिगत स्वतंत्रता का मामला है। लेकिन किसी का बच्चा स्कूल जाता है या नहीं, यह मामला है या सामाजिक स्वतंत्रता - समाज को यह कहने का अधिकार है कि उसके बच्चे को स्कूल जाना है।
  • Hence, the author holds that educating or not educating his child is also a matter of social liberty.
  • Therefore, the correct option is 'educating or not educating his child is also a matter of social liberty.'

Additional Information

  • The meaning of the word 'liberty' is the freedom to go where you want, do what you want, etc.
  • Example: We must defend our civil liberties at all costs.

Question 40

The most suitable title of the passage would be

  1. AOption (a)

    The Policeman at a Road Crossing

  2. BOption (b)

    The Laws of the Road

  3. COption (c)

    Importance of Liberty

  4. DOption (d)

    Education of Children

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Importance of Liberty

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Importance of Liberty.'

Key Points

  • The entire passage talks about the importance of liberty and the balance that needs to be struck between personal and social liberty and how this is crucial for the optimal functioning of society.
  • संपूर्ण passage स्वतंत्रता के महत्व और उस संतुलन के बारे में बात करता है जिसे व्यक्तिगत और सामाजिक स्वतंत्रता के बीच मारा जाना चाहिए और यह समाज के इष्टतम कामकाज के लिए कैसे महत्वपूर्ण है।​
  • Hence, the most suitable title of the passage would be 'Importance of Liberty.'
  • Therefore, the correct option is 'Importance of Liberty.'

Additional Information 

  • The meaning of the word 'Importance' is the quality of being important
  • Example: The decision was of great importance to the future of the business.

Direction: In this section, you have a few short passages. After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and the opinion of the author only.

My most interesting visitor comes at night, when the lights are still burning - a tiny bat who prefers to fly in through the open door and will use the window only if there is no alternative. His object in entering the house is to snap up the moths that cluster around the lamps. All the bats I have seen fly fairly high, keeping near the ceiling; but this particular bat flies in low, like a dive-bomber, zooming in and out of chair legs and under tables. Once, he passed straight between my legs. Has his radar gone wrong, I wondered, or is he just plain crazy?

Question 41

Consider the following statements:

  1. The tiny bat flew in low like a dive-bomber.
  2. The tiny bat like all bats keeps near the ceiling.
  3. It has lost direction because its radar has gone wrong.
  4. It wants to entertain the author with its skill in flying.

Which of the above statements may be assumed to be true from the information given in the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is '1 only.'

Key Points

  • Let us look at the third sentence of the passage:
  • All the bats I have seen fly fairly high, keeping near the ceiling; but this particular bat flies in low, like a dive-bomber, zooming in and out of chair legs and under tables.
  • The paragraph mentions that, unlike other bats, the small bat that regularly visits the narrator moved around like a 'dive-bomber'.
  • पैराग्राफ में उल्लेख किया गया है कि, अन्य चमगादड़ों के विपरीत, छोटा बल्ला जो नियमित रूप से कथाकार के पास जाता है, वह 'dive-bomber' की तरह घूमता है।​
  • Thus, statement 1 is correct.
  • The paragraph mentions that, unlike other bats, this particular bat does not keep close to the ceiling.
  • पैराग्राफ में उल्लेख किया गया है कि, अन्य चमगादड़ों के विपरीत, यह विशेष बल्ला छत के करीब नहीं रहता है।​
  • Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Let us see the last sentence of the passage:
  • Has his radar gone wrong, I wondered, or is he just plain crazy?
  • The paragraph does not mention the bat's radar going wrong. As a matter of fact, it is mentioned as a question posed by the narrator.
  • पैराग्राफ में बल्ले के रडार के गलत होने का जिक्र नहीं है। तथ्य की बात के रूप में, यह वर्णनकर्ता द्वारा उठाए गए प्रश्न के रूप में उल्लेख किया गया है।​
  • Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • The paragraph makes no mention of the narrator being entertained by the flying bat.
  • Thus, statement 4 is incorrect.
  • Therefore, the correct option is '1 only.'

Additional Information

  • ​ The meaning of the word 'Fairly' is in an acceptable way; in a way that treats people equally or according to the law, rules, etc.
  • Example: I felt that the teacher didn’t treat us fairly.

Question 42

The bat entered the room:

  1. AOption (a)

    because there was no alternative

  2. BOption (b)

    to eat the moths round the lamps

  3. COption (c)

    as it had gone mad

  4. DOption (d)

    as it preferred to fly in through the open door

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

to eat the moths round the lamps

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'to eat the moths round the lamps.'

Key Points 

  • Let us look at the second sentence of the passage:
  • His object in entering the house is to snap up the moths that cluster around the lamps.
  • ​The passage mentions that the objective of the bat entering the house was to eat the insects around the lamp.
  • Passage में उल्लेख है कि घर में प्रवेश करने वाले बल्ले का उद्देश्य दीपक के चारों ओर कीड़ों को खाना था।
  • ​Hence, the bat entered the room to eat the moths round the lamps.
  • Therefore, the correct option is 'to eat the moths round the lamps.'

Additional Information 

  • ​ The meaning of the word 'Snap' is to move or be moved into a particular position, especially with a sharp noise.
  • Example: She snapped the bag shut and walked out.

Question 43

After comparing the habits of the tiny bat with those of other bats, the author was:

  1. AOption (a)

    sure that this bat had lost its direction

  2. BOption (b)

    not sure of its preferences

  3. COption (c)

    surprised to find that it was an expert flier

  4. DOption (d)

    unable to give the correct explanation for its behaviour

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

sure that this bat had lost its direction

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'sure that this bat had lost its direction.'

Key Points

 

  • Let us look at the two sentences of the passage:
  • Once, he passed straight between my legs. Has his radar gone wrong, I wondered, or is he just plain crazy?
  • The narrator mentions in the passage that, unlike other bats which prefer to fly close to the ceiling while indoors, the tiny bat few close to the ground, under tables and chairs.
  • कथावाचक ने मार्ग में उल्लेख किया है कि, अन्य चमगादड़ों के विपरीत, जो घर के अंदर छत के करीब उड़ना पसंद करते हैं, छोटा बल्ला मेज और कुर्सियों के नीचे जमीन के कुछ करीब होता है।​
  • ​The passage mentions that the objective of the bat entering the house was to eat the insects around the lamp.
  • Passage में उल्लेख है कि घर में प्रवेश करने वाले बल्ले का उद्देश्य दीपक के चारों ओर कीड़ों को खाना था।
  • ​Hence, after comparing the habits of the tiny bat with those of other bats, the author was sure that this bat had lost its direction.
  • Therefore, the correct option is 'sure that this bat had lost its direction.'

Additional Information 

 

  • ​ The meaning of the word 'Wonder' is to want to know something; to ask yourself questions about something
  • Example: I wonder what the new teacher will be like.

Question 44

The author calls the tiny bat an "interesting visitor". This means

  1. AOption (a)

    the bat visits him at night

  2. BOption (b)

    the bat is interested in the moths

  3. COption (c)

    this bat has peculiar qualities

  4. DOption (d)

    this bat surprises him by zooming in and out like a dive-bomber

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

this bat surprises him by zooming in and out like a dive-bomber

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'this bat surprises him by zooming in and out like a dive-bomber.'

Key Points

  • Let us look at the first sentence of the passage:
  • My most interesting visitor comes at night, when the lights are still burning - a tiny bat who prefers to fly in through the open door and will use the window only if there is no alternative.
  • The narrator notices that the tiny bat that visits him at night, is different from other regular bats that fly close to the ceiling.
  • कथाकार ने देखा कि रात में उसके पास आने वाला छोटा बल्ला छत के करीब उड़ने वाले अन्य नियमित चमगादड़ों से अलग है।
  • The author calls the tiny bat an "interesting visitor". This means this bat surprises him by zooming in and out like a dive-bomber.
  • लेखक छोटे बल्ले को "interesting visitor" कहते हैं। इसका मतलब यह bat, dive-bomber की तरह ज़ूम इन और आउट करके उन्हें चौंका देता है।
  • Therefore, the correct option is 'this bat surprises him by zooming in and out like a dive-bomber.'

 Additional Information 

 

  • ​ The meaning of the word 'alternative' is (of one or more things) available as another possibility or choice.
  • Example: The various alternative methods for resolving disputes are given in this section.

Question 45

What, according to you, can be the most suitable title for the passage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Someone visits me

  2. BOption (b)

    Night of Mysteries

  3. COption (c)

    My Nocturnal Visitor

  4. DOption (d)

    A Funny Visitor

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

My Nocturnal Visitor

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'My Nocturnal Visitor.'

Key Points

  • 'Nocturnal' refers to something that turns active in the night.
  • The passage talks about the tiny bat that visits the narrator in the night and how that bat is different from other bats. 
  • Passage उस छोटे बल्ले के बारे में बात करता है जो रात में कथाकार के पास जाता है और वह बल्ला अन्य चमगादड़ों से कैसे अलग है।
  • Hence, the most suitable title for the passage would be 'My Nocturnal Visitor.'
  • Therefore, the correct option is 'My Nocturnal Visitor.'

Additional Information 

 

  • ​ The meaning of the word 'mystery' is something that is difficult or impossible to understand or explain.
  • Example: The mystery was solved when the police discovered the murder weapon.

Question 46

Direction: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The tired traveller ______ on in the hope of finding some resting place.

  1. AOption (a)

    strolled

  2. BOption (b)

    scurried

  3. COption (c)

    paraded

  4. DOption (d)

    plodded

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

plodded

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "plodded".

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given words:
  • Plodded: refers to moving slowly with heavy steps
  • Strolled: refers to a relaxed movement or a leisurely movement
  • Scurried: refers to moving quickly with short steps
  • Paraded: refers to marching or slowly moving around a place.
  • As per the meaning of the given words," plodded" is the appropriate word choice for the blank.
  • The implied meaning of the given sentence is that the tired traveller was moving slowly with heavy steps as a result of his exhaustion in the hope of finding some resting place.
  • The verb plodded describes the physical exhaustion in the movement of the tired traveller.
  • Options 1,2 and 3 are not suitable verbs to describe the physical exhaustion of the tired traveller.

The complete sentence is: The tired traveller plodded on in the hope of finding some resting place.

Thus, the correct answer is option 4.

Question 47

Direction: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

The car was damaged beyond repair in the ______ accident.

  1. AOption (a)

    outrageous

  2. BOption (b)

    ghastly

  3. COption (c)

    nasty

  4. DOption (d)

    heinous

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

ghastly

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "ghastly" 

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the selected word:
  • Ghastly: refers to something that causes horror.
  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Heinous- Refers to something that is very evil and wicked.
  • Outrageous-  Refers to something that is unbelievable and bold.
  • Nasty- Refers to something that is disgusting and unpleasant.
  • Look at the example:
  • Evil dead is a picture with ghastly visuals.
  • The sentence refers to damage beyond repair to a car, meaning the car must have been in a terrible accident. Thus, the word 'ghastly' is appropriate.

Hence, the correct sentence: The car was damaged beyond repair in the ghastly accident.

Hinglish

  • Ghastly: जो दर पैदा करे
  • Heinous- ऐसा जो बहु ही ख़राब हो
  • Outrageous-  अपमानजनक

Question 48

Direction: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

They gave a ______ dinner to celebrate the occasion, which impressed every guest.

  1. AOption (a)

    austere

  2. BOption (b)

    public

  3. COption (c)

    sumptuous

  4. DOption (d)

    summary

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

sumptuous

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. sumptuous.

Sumptuous: Refers to something that is splendid and amazing

Something that impresses everyone and is used for a celebration has to be amazing. 

Let's look at the meaning of other words:

  • Austere: Severe or strict
  • Public: Refers to something that concerns people as a whole
  • Summary: Refers to the brief account of the main points if something

 

Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

Question 49

Direction: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly. 

Once the ______ manuscript is received by the publishers, it is typed in double space.

  1. AOption (a)

    total

  2. BOption (b)

    full

  3. COption (c)

    complete

  4. DOption (d)

    filled

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

complete

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. complete.

Key Points

  • A 'manuscript' is a book, document or piece of information that is written by hand rather than being typed.
  • Thus, the script is 'complete' makes contextual sense - it is not a container that gets 'full' or 'filled', it is not a sum that is added up to get a 'total'.
  • Thus option 3 is the correct choice here.

The correct sentence is: Once the complete manuscript is received by the publishers, it is typed in double space.

Additional Information

  • Let's understand what double spacing is.
  • ​If you double space something you are writing or typing, you include a full line of space between each line of writing.

Question 50

Direction: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

I am used to ______ in queues.

  1. AOption (a)

    stand

  2. BOption (b)

    standing

  3. COption (c)

    stand up

  4. DOption (d)

    standing still

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

standing

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'standing'.

Key Points

  • The sentence refers to some action being conducted, meaning the verb has to be in a continuous tense.
  • Whenever 'used to' is after the linking verbs i.e. be/get we need to use to + V-ing form because 'used to' here acts as an adjective.
  • The present continuous of any verb is composed of two parts - the present tense of the verb to be + the present participle of the main verb.
  • The form of the present participle is: base+ing, e.g. talking, playing, moving, smiling, etc.
  • Example: I am going.
  • Thus, the answer should also be in the continuous tense.
  • Thus, options 1 and 3 are incorrect.
  • Ideally, people do not stand still in queues, they keep moving forward and thus the correct answer is option 2.

 

​Complete sentence: I am used to standing in queues.

Additional Information

  • The present continuous is used:
  • To describe an action that is going on at this moment.
  • Example: You are using the Internet.
  • To describe an action that is going on during this period of time or a trend.
  • Example: Are you still working for the same company?
  • To describe an action or event in the future, which has already been planned or prepared.
  • Example: Are they visiting you next winter?

Hinglish 

  • वाक्य कुछ क्रिया को संदर्भित करता है, जिसका अर्थ है कि क्रिया को continuous tense में होना चाहिए।
  • जब भी 'used to' लिंकिंग क्रियाओं यानी 'be/get' के बाद होता है हमें + V-ing फॉर्म का उपयोग करने की आवश्यकता होती है क्योंकि यहां 'used to' एक विशेषण (adjective) के रूप में कार्य करता है।
  • किसी भी क्रिया का present continuous दो भागों से बना होता है - the present tense of the verb to be + the present participle of the main verb.
  • Present participle का रूप है: base+ing, e.g. talking, playing, moving, smiling, etc.
  • उदाहरण: I am going.
  • इस प्रकार, उत्तर भी continous tense में होना चाहिए।
  • इस प्रकार, विकल्प 1 और 3 गलत हैं।
  • आदर्श रूप से, लोग कतार में खड़े नहीं होते हैं, वे आगे बढ़ते रहते हैं और इस प्रकार सही उत्तर विकल्प 2 है।
  • Present continuous प्रयोग किया जाता है:
  • इस समय चल रही किसी क्रिया का वर्णन करने के लिए।
  • उदाहरण: You are using the Internet
  • इस अवधि या प्रवृत्ति के दौरान होने वाली किसी क्रिया का वर्णन करने के लिए।
  • उदाहरण: Are you still working for the same company?
  • भविष्य में होने वाली किसी क्रिया या घटना का वर्णन करने के लिए, जिसकी योजना या तैयारी पहले ही की जा चुकी हो।
  • उदाहरण: Are they visiting you next winter?

 

पुरा वाक्य: I am used to standing in queues.

Question 51

Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Any energy transfer that does not involve temperature difference in some way is not heat

  2. BOption (b)

    Any energy transfer always requires a temperature difference

  3. COption (c)

    On heating the length and volume of the object remain exactly the same.

  4. DOption (d)

    Whenever there is a temperature difference, heat is the only way of energy transfer

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Any energy transfer that does not involve temperature difference in some way is not heat

Why this answer is correct

Concept:  

The movement of energy from one place to other is called as energy transfer. Heat transfer mainly takes place due to temperature difference.

There are three modes of Heat transfer.

1.Conduction: The mode of heat transfer in solids where heat transfer takes place without the movement of medium particles is called as conduction.

For example:  By heating one end of a metal rod we can feel hotness at other end.

2.Convection: The mode of heat transfer in fluids where heat transfer takes place due to the movement of particles of the medium is called as convection.

For example: Heating of water in a pot

3. Radiation: The mode of heat transfer where heat is transferred from one place to another without affecting the medium particles is called as radiation.

For example: When we place our hand nearby the burning gas stove then we can feel the hotness. This is due to radiation.

Explanation:

  • A Wave is a disturbance which transfers energy from one place to another. For transfer of energy due to wave doesn’t requires temperature difference. So option 1 is correct.

For example: Sound is a wave due to which we can hear music or other things.

  • So for energy transfer it is not necessary to have temperature difference. So option 2 is not correct.
  • On heating there is a thermal expansion in the material which leads to changes in length and volume of the material/object. So option 3 is not correct.
  • When there is a temperature difference then there may be other form of energy transfer taking place.

For example:  When we have both temperature difference as well as potential difference across a conductor wire then the transfer of energy due to electric current is not a heat transfer. So option 4 is not correct.

Question 52

If T is the time period of an oscillating pendulum, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The motion repeats after time T only once

  2. BOption (b)

    T is the least time after which motion repeats itself

  3. COption (c)

    The motion repeats itself after nT, where n is a positive integer

  4. DOption (d)

    T remains the same only for small angular displacements

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The motion repeats after time T only once

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Simple pendulum:

 

  • When a point mass is attached to an inextensible string and suspended from fixed support then it is called a simple pendulum.
  • The time period of a simple pendulum is defined as the time taken by the pendulum to finish one complete oscillation.

⇒T=2πLg⇒ T = 2\pi\sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}

  • The above formula is only valid for small angular displacements.

Where, T = Time period of oscillation, L = length of the pendulum, and g = gravitational acceleration

EXPLANATION:

  • The simple pendulum undergoes simple harmonic oscillation which repeats their motion after a fixed interval of time. So the motion of pendulum will repeats itself after a certain period of time. Hence options 2 and 3 are correct.
  • The time period of a pendulum remains constant for all small oscillation. So option 4 is correct.
<br>

Important Points

  • The time period of a pendulum only depends on the length (l) and acceleration due to gravity (g). So it is independent of mass of the bob.

Question 53

If an object moves with constant velocity then which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Its motion is along a straight line 

  2. BOption (b)

    Its speed changes with time

  3. COption (c)

    Its acceleration is zero

  4. DOption (d)

    Its displacement increases linearly with time

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Its speed changes with time

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Velocity: The rate of change of displacement of a body is called the velocity of that body.
  • It is a vector quantity that has both magnitudes as well as directions.

Velocity;(V)=Change;in;displacementTime;taken=S2−S1t2−t1{\rm{Velocity;}}\left( {\rm{V}} \right) = \frac{{Change;in;displacement}}{{Time;taken}} = \frac{{{S_2} - {S_1}}}{{{t_2} - {t_1}}}

Where S2 is the final displacement at time t2 and S1 is the initial displacement at time t1.

  • Acceleration: The rate of change of velocity is called the acceleration of the body.

a=v2−v1t2−t1a = \frac{{{v_2} - {v_1}}}{{{t_2} - {t_1}}}

Where v2= Final velocity and v1= Initial velocity of an object at the time t2,t1{t_2},{t_1}  respectively

EXPLANATION:

  • As velocity is a vector quantity so constant velocity means both magnitudes, as well as the direction of the velocity of the body, is the same.
  • If there will be any change in the path of the body then the direction of the body will change and hence velocity will change. So the motion of the body will always be along a straight line. Hence option 1 is correct**.**
  • As the magnitude of the velocity is nothing but the speed of the body. Since the magnitude is the same so the speed of the body will be constant. Hence option 2 is not correct.
  • Since the object is moving with constant velocity hence v2 will be equal to v1.
  • And acceleration (a) is written as:

a=v2−v2t2−t1=0t2−t1=0;;a = \frac{{{v_2} - {v_2}}}{{{t_2} - {t_1}}} = \frac{0}{{{t_2} - {t_1}}} = 0;;

  • Hence its acceleration is zero. So option 3 is correct.
  • Let the initial displacement of the body is 0 and the final displacement at time t is S.

Velocity;(V)=Change;in;displacementTime;taken=S2−S1t2−t1=;S−0t−0=St{\rm{Velocity;}}\left( {\rm{V}} \right) = \frac{{Change;in;displacement}}{{Time;taken}} = \frac{{{S_2} - {S_1}}}{{{t_2} - {t_1}}} = ;\frac{{S - 0}}{{t - 0}} = \frac{S}{t}

S = Vt

  • Here V is constant (Constant velocity). So its displacement increases linearly with time. Hence option 4 is correct

Hence the only incorrect statement is option 2).

Question 54

An object is moving with uniform acceleration a. Its initial velocity is u and after time t its velocity is v. The equation of its motion is v = u + at. The velocity (along y-axis) time (along the x-axis) graph shall be a straight line

  1. AOption (a)

    Passing through the origin

  2. BOption (b)

    With x-intercept u

  3. COption (c)

    With y-intercept u

  4. DOption (d)

    With slope u

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

With y-intercept u

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Velocity of an object is defined as rate of change of its displacement.i.e., it can be expressed as v=dxdtv=\frac{dx}{dt}
  • Acceleration of an object is defined as the rate of change of its velocity i.e., a=dvdt=d2xdt2a=\frac{dv}{dt}=\frac{{{d}^{2}}x}{d{{t}^{2}}}
  • And according to the slope of straight-line y = mx + c
  • Slope m can be given as m= !!Δ!! y !!Δ!! x ordydxm=\frac{\text{ }!!\Delta!!\text{ }y}{\text{ }!!\Delta!!\text{ x}}~or\frac{dy}{dx}
  • If the slope is positive, we can see a positive or increasing straight-line similarly for negative slope we can see a negative decreasing straight line.

here,

Displacement along x-axis = x

The velocity of the particle at any instance of time = v

Acceleration of particle at any instance = a

The slope of any line = m

some constant = c

**EXPLANATION:**​

  • Now as an object is moving with uniform acceleration a.
  • Its initial velocity is u and after time t it's velocity is v.
  • Hence according to kinematic equation, final velocity of particle is given as v = u + at.
  • By comparing the above equation with the equation of straight line (i.e., y = mx + c )
  • From this we can say that the velocity (along y-axis) vs. time (along x-axis) graph can be shown as a straight line with y-intercept u.
  • Either from the given equation, at t = 0 the graph will starts from 'u', hence u will be lowest point on the graph along Y-axis and will linearly increase with time t.

Question 55

What is the net force experienced by a bar magnet placed in a uniform magnetic field?

  1. AOption (a)

    Zero

  2. BOption (b)

    Depends upon the length of the magnet

  3. COption (c)

    Never zero

  4. DOption (d)

    Depends upon temperature

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Zero

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Bar Magnet: A bar magnet consists of two equal and opposite magnetic pole separated by a small distance.
  • Poles are not exactly at the ends.
  • The shortest distance between two poles is called effective length (Le) and is less than its geometric length (Lg) for bar magnet.
  • It act as a magnetic dipole.

EXPLANATION:

  • In a uniform magnetic field, the two poles of the Bar magnet experience equal and opposite forces.
  • The force at one end nullifies the force at the other end.
  • Hence, the needle experience only the torque due to the magnetic field and thus the net force is zero.

           Fnet = mb – mb = 0  

  • Net force doesn’t depend on length and temperature of the bar magnet. So options 2 and 4 are not correct.
<br>
  • In case of non-uniform magnetic field the two monopoles experience different force so net force will not be zero in case of non-uniform field.

Question 56

Which one of the following has maximum inertia? 

  1. AOption (a)

    An atom

  2. BOption (b)

    A molecule

  3. COption (c)

    A one-rupee coin

  4. DOption (d)

    A cricket ball

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A cricket ball

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Newton’s first law of motion: It is also called the law of inertia. Inertia is the ability of a body by virtue of which it opposes a change.
  • According to Newton’s first law of motion, an object will remain at rest or in uniform motion in a straight line unless acted upon by an external force.
  • The inertia of rest: When a body is in rest, it will remain at rest until we apply an external force to move it. This property is called inertia of rest.
  • The inertia of motion: When a body is in a uniform motion, it will remain in motion until we apply an external force to stop it. This property is called inertia of motion.

EXPLANATION:

  • The heavier the object is harder to move it or the greater the amount of force required to move it hence higher the inertia.
  • Since higher mass has higher inertia. In all the above 4 options, a cricket ball has maximum mass so it will have maximum inertia. Hence option 4 is correct.

Question 57

Which one of the following is the value of 1 KWh of energy converted into joules? 

  1. AOption (a)

    1.8 × 106 J

  2. BOption (b)

    3.6 × 106 J

  3. COption (c)

    6.0 × 106 J

  4. DOption (d)

    7.2 × 106 J

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3.6 × 106 J

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Joule is a SI unit of energy or work done which is represented by J

Watt is an S.I unit of Power and it is represented as W

power(W)=Work;done(J)time(sec)power\left( W \right) = \frac{{Work;done\left( J \right)}}{{time\left( {sec} \right)}}

Work done (J) = power (W) × time (sec)

1 joule = 1 watt-sec

CALCULATION:

Since 1 KW = 1000 W = 103 W

And 1 hour = 60 min x 60 sec

∴ 1kWh = 1 × 103 × 60 × 60

= 3600 × 103 J

= 36 × 105

Thus

1 kWh = 3.6 × 106 J

Question 58

Which of the following statements about gravitational force is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is experienced by all bodies in the universe

  2. BOption (b)

    It is a dominant force between celestial bodies

  3. COption (c)

    It is a negligible force for atoms

  4. DOption (d)

    It is same for all pairs of bodies in our universe

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

It is same for all pairs of bodies in our universe

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT

The universal law of gravitation was proposed by Sir Isaac Newton In the year 1686.

  • Newton’s law of gravitation: Every particle in the universe attracts every other particle with a force, which is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to square of distance between them.

 

  • If two bodies with mass m1 & m2, where r be the distance between two masses, then gravitational force,
<br>

F∝m1m2r2⇒F=GMmr2;F \propto \frac{{{m_1}{m_2}}}{{{r^2}}} \Rightarrow F = G\frac{{Mm}}{{{r^2}}};

Where, F = force of attraction, G = 6.67 × 10-11 N-m2/kg2 (gravitational constant), m1 & m2 = mass of bodies, r = distance between them.

  • Unit of ‘G’ is Nm2/kg2. Dimensional formula of ‘G’ is [M-1L3T-2].
<br>

EXPLANATION

As described above,

  • The Gravitational force acts upon every particle on the universe so, it is experienced by all bodies – statement 1 is correct
  • The celestial body is having huge mass since, the gravitational force directly proportional to mass so, their gravitational force is also high. Therefore, the gravitational force is dominant in them – statement 2 is correct
  • Gravitational force is directly dependent on mass. We know that the mass of atoms is very less therefore, gravitational force is negligible in atoms. Statement - 3 is correct.
  • Gravitational force is not the same for every pair of body, it will vary with different masses and distance between them. Statement – 4 is wrong and hence option 4 is correct.

Question 59

Whether an object will float or sink in a liquid, depends on

  1. AOption (a)

    Mass of the object only

  2. BOption (b)

    Mass of the object and density of the liquid only

  3. COption (c)

    Difference in densities of the object and liquid

  4. DOption (d)

    Mass and shape of the object only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Difference in densities of the object and liquid

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT

  • Density: It is defined as the mass of a body per unit volume. We can also say that how much mass it can contain in a specific volume.
  • As of dense material like Iron takes more mass in a given volume than of wood.
  • Mathematically it gives a formula Density (ρ) = mass (m) / Volume (V)
  • SI Unit is kg/m3.
  • 1m3 = 1000 litres of water.
  • Flotation: It can be defined as the tendency of an object to rise to the upper levels of the fluid or to stay on the surface of the fluid.
  • Sinking: The opposite of floatation is sinking and can be defined as the tendency of an object to go to the lower levels of the fluid.

EXPLANATION

  • Flotation and sinking of an object is dependent upon the relative density with each other.
  • If the density of the object is more than the density of the liquid, the object will sink.
  • On the other side, if the density of an object is less than the liquid, then it will float over it.
  • If the density of object and liquid is equal to each other, they are in equilibrium and float and sink both at the same time

Therefore, the sinking or floating of an object depends on the difference of density of object and liquid.

⇒ Option 3 is correct

Question 60

Which one of the following devices is non-ohmic?

  1. AOption (a)

    Conducting copper coil

  2. BOption (b)

    Electric heating coil

  3. COption (c)

    Semiconductor diode

  4. DOption (d)

    Rheostat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Semiconductor diode

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT

Ohm’s law: The Current through the metallic element is directly proportional to the potential difference when the temperature remains constant.

  • I ∝ V or V ∝ I or V = IR [where v= potential difference, I = current, R = resistance].

  • Ohm’s law is not a universal law, the substances, which obey ohm’s law are known as ohmic substances. e.g. aluminum, copper, silver conductors etc.

  • The substance which do not obey ohm’s law is non-ohmic substance e.g. gases, crystal rectifiers, thermionic valves, transistors, semiconductors, diode, bulb filaments etc.

  • If the graph between current (I) and Voltage (V) is a straight line, they obey ohm’s law.

  • The non-ohmic resistors show a curve in the graph.

EXPLANATION

The given devices are –

  • Conducting copper coil – ohmic object
  • Electric heating coil – heating coils are of metals – ohmic device
  • Semiconductor diode – Non-ohmic in nature
  • Rheostat – multiple cooper coils are of copper metal – ohmic instrument

∴ Option 3 is correct.

Question 61

Which one of the following is the natural phenomena based on which a simple periscope works?

  1. AOption (a)

    Reflection of light

  2. BOption (b)

    Refraction of light

  3. COption (c)

    Dispersion of light

  4. DOption (d)

    Total internal reflection of light

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Reflection of light

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT

  • Reflection: The phenomena in which light ray is sent back into the same medium from which it is coming, on interaction with boundary, is called reflection.
  • Laws of reflection:
  • Angle of incidence (θ i ) = Angle of reflection (θ r )
  • The incident ray, the reflected ray, and normal to the surface of incidence always lies in the same plane.

 

  • Refraction: When a ray of light passes from one medium to another it suffers a change in direction at the boundary of two media is called refraction.
  • The change in direction because the speed of light travels at different speeds in different mediums.
  • Refractive Index of a medium defines that it is denser or rarer
  • Refractive Index = Speed of light in Vacuum /speed of light in that medium.
  • Refractive Index = η =c/v where, c = Speed of light in Vacuum, v= speed of light in that medium.

 

  • Dispersion of light: The splitting of white light, when it passes through glass prism into its constituent spectrum is known as dispersion of light.
  • Sunlight splits into 7 colours – Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, and Red (VIBGYOR).

 

  • Total Internal reflection: The total reflection of light from a higher refractive index medium to back in its medium at an angle more than a critical angle known as total internal reflection.
  • It always happens when light travels from denser medium to rarer medium.
  • At critical angle θ c it makes 900 angle with normal separating two media.

 

EXPLANATION

  • Periscope: It is an optical instrument, uses mirrors at 45° angle to observe over, around and through which is prevented by line of sight.
  • It work based on laws of reflection of light.
  • It is used in submarines to view the upper surface sight, hiding positions for military, nuclear reactor and many other ways

 

⇒ Option 1 is correct.

Question 62

Which one of the following frequency ranges is sensitive to human ears?

  1. AOption (a)

    0-200 Hz

  2. BOption (b)

    20 - 20,000 Hz only 

  3. COption (c)

    200 – 20,000 Hz only 

  4. DOption (d)

    2,000 – 20,000 Hz only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

20 - 20,000 Hz only 

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Sound waves are longitudinal mechanical waves and frequency can be defined as the number of wave cycle happening in one sec.

Explanation:

 Frequency can be divided into three categories based on their frequency range:

Audible sound waves: The frequency range of this wave is 20Hz - 20000Hz. Humans can easily detect these types of waves.

Example: Sound produced by Vocal cords.

Infrasonic waves: The frequency range of these type of wave is below 20Hz. Humans cannot detect it.

Example: Sound produced by Earthquake, Volcanic eruption and ocean waves etc.

Ultrasonic waves: The sound frequency above 20,000 Hz is known as ultrasonic waves. Humans cannot detect it too.

Examples: dog whistle.

Human ears can only sense the sound of frequency bandwidth between 20Hz to 20 kHz

Question 63

The accidental touch of Nettle leaves creates a burning sensation, which is due to inject of 

  1. AOption (a)

    Hydrochloric acid

  2. BOption (b)

    Methanoic acid

  3. COption (c)

    Citric acid

  4. DOption (d)

    Sulphuric acid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Methanoic acid

Why this answer is correct

Methanoic acid, also called Formic acid is present in the Nettle leaves.

  • The accidental touch to Nettle leaves creates a burning sensation due to this Methanoic acid.
  • The traditional remedy for the same is Dock leaves, which grows just behind the Nettle leaves.
  • Dock leaves themselves contain Oxalic acid.
  • Citric acid is present as oranges, lemon etc.
  • Hydrochloric and Sulphuric acid are used as strong inorganic acid.

Question 64

Which of the following properties is true for a tooth paste?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is acidic

  2. BOption (b)

    It is neutral

  3. COption (c)

    It is basic

  4. DOption (d)

    It is made up of Calcium Phosphate the material of tooth enamel

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It is basic

Why this answer is correct

Toothpastes are derived from a wide variety of substances including fluorides, detergents, and abrasives.

  • It is slightly basic in nature.
  • This is because it is used to neutralize the acid residue left by the bacteria in our mouth.
  • It thus helps in maintaining hygiene with respect to the mouth.
  • A small amount of calcium phosphate is used in some toothpastes which helps in remineralization of the tooth enamel.
  • However, option 3 is more appropriate

Question 65

Which one of the following gives the highest amount of hydrogen ions(H+)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sodium hydroxide solution

  2. BOption (b)

    Milk of magnesia

  3. COption (c)

    Lemon juice

  4. DOption (d)

    Gastric juice 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Gastric juice 

Why this answer is correct

The pH of Gastric juice is between 1.5-3.5 in the human stomach lumen.

  • The acidity is as a result of H+ (Hydrogen ions).
  • Sodium hydroxide is a strong base with a ph of 14.
  • Milk of Magnesia is used to neutralize the acidity in stomach and hence is a base with pH 10.5
  • Lemon Juice is acidic in nature due to the presence of citric acid. Its pH is between 2 to 3.
  • Please note that while bases release OH- ions, acids release H+ ions.

Question 66

Brine is an aqueous solution of

  1. AOption (a)

    NaCI

  2. BOption (b)

    NaOH

  3. COption (c)

    NaHCO3

  4. DOption (d)

    Na2CO3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

NaCI

Why this answer is correct

Brine is an aqueous solution of NaCl (Sodium Chloride).

  • They occur naturally on the Earth’s surface in salt lakes, or even the benthic zone of the oceans.
  • They occur due to the evaporation of ground saline leaving behind little water with high concentration of Sodium Chloride.
  • Applications include meat packing, pickling, steel quenching, heat-transfer medium.
  • NaOH is Sodium Hydroxide or Caustic Soda.
  • **NaHCO3 **is Sodium bicarbonate or Baking Soda.
  • Na2CO3 is Sodium Carbonate used in personal care products.

Question 67

Which one of the following is the chemical formula of Washing Soda?

  1. AOption (a)

    NaHCO3

  2. BOption (b)

    Na2CO3.10H2O

  3. COption (c)

    Na2CO3.5H2O

  4. DOption (d)

    NaOH

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Na2CO3.10H2O

Why this answer is correct

The chemical formula of Washing Soda is Na2CO3.10H2O.

  • Washing soda is produced using Solvay's process.
  • The process includes reaction of Sodium Chloride with ammonia, carbon dioxide, in water.
  • Carbon Dioxide is produced through calcium carbonate from which calcium oxide that gets left is used in ammonia recovery from ammonium chloride.
  • NaHCO3 is Sodium Bicarbonate.

Question 68

Which one of the following is NOT true for bleaching powder?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is used as a reducing agent in chemical industries

  2. BOption (b)

    It is used for bleaching wood pulp in paper factories 

  3. COption (c)

    It is used for disinfecting drinking water 

  4. DOption (d)

    It is used for bleaching linen in textile industry 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

It is used as a reducing agent in chemical industries

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It is used as a reducing agent in chemical industries.

Key Points

  • Calcium hypochlorite commonly known as Bleaching Powder is used for bleaching wood pulp in the paper industries.
  • Bleaching powder is yellowish powder soluble in water.
  • Formula- Ca(OCl)₂ ​​

Important Points

  • It has a strong smell of chlorine.
  • Uses:
  • Used in bleaching clothes in the laundry
  • Used in bleaching of cotton and linen in textile industries.
  • Used as an oxidizing agent.
  • used as a disinfectant for disinfecting water.
  • Used as a bathroom cleaner
  • Used to sanitize public swimming pools.
  • Preparation- Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → CaOCl2 + H2O
  • An oxidizing agent is a substance that oxidizes other substances i.e.
  • It makes them lose their electrons.
  • An oxidizing agent has the ability to accept electrons from others.

Question 69

AIDS is caused by a virus whose genetic material is

  1. AOption (a)

    single stranded circular DNA

  2. BOption (b)

    double stranded DNA

  3. COption (c)

    single stranded RNA

  4. DOption (d)

    Double stranded RNA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

single stranded RNA

Why this answer is correct

HIV is a retrovirus, meaning it carries a single-stranded RNA as its genetic material.

Key Points

  • Humans carry double-stranded DNA as a carrier of genetic material.
  • Retroviruses contain the enzyme reverse transcriptase.
  • This allows retrovirus to copy RNA into DNA.
  • This DNA “copy” infects the humans, host, or its cells.
  • First, when HIV infects a cell, it fuses with the host cell.
  • Then, the viral RNA converts into DNA and the virus uses the host cell’s machinery to replicate itself.
  • After this, the new copies of HIV then leave the host cell and move on to infect other cells.

Question 70

Which one of the following is an organelle that is NOT found in prokaryotic cells?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cell wall 

  2. BOption (b)

    Mitochondria

  3. COption (c)

    Plasma membrane 

  4. DOption (d)

    Ribosome 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mitochondria

Why this answer is correct

Prokaryotes are single-celled organisms which belong to the group of Bacteria and Archaea.

  • They are smaller than Eukaryotic cells and have no nucleus, and lack major organelles. They also lack mitochondria.
  • All prokaryotic cells are encased by a cell wall.
  • They contain Plasma membrane, Ribosomes, Capsule, and Bacterial Flagellum for locomotion towards nutrients.

Question 71

Which one of the following parts of the body does NOT take part in the process of breathing?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bronchi

  2. BOption (b)

    Bowman’s capsule

  3. COption (c)

    Diaphragm 

  4. DOption (d)

    Trachea

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bowman’s capsule

Why this answer is correct

Bowman’s capsule helps in the cleansing/filtration of blood to form urine.

  • It is a closed cup-shaped and double-walled structure of the Malpighian body of a Kidney and is thus a part of the human excretion process.
  • Thus, it doesn’t form part of the breathing process.
  • The Human Respiratory System consists of the nose, larynx, bronchi, trachea, bronchioles, alveoli, and lungs.
  • Diaphragm is a dome shaped sheet separating the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity.
  • It plays an important role during the respiratory process, flattening and contracting when we inhale.
  • Trachea or Windpipe conducts air to lungs and bronchi are the branches of windpipe inside the lungs.

Question 72

Which one of the following statements about classification of plants is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Thallophytes have well differentiated body design

  2. BOption (b)

    Funaria is a fungus

  3. COption (c)

    All Pteridophytes are Phanerogams

  4. DOption (d)

    Vascular system is not found among Bryophytes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Vascular system is not found among Bryophytes

Why this answer is correct

Bryophytes do not have a vascular system. Hence, option 4 is correct.

  • This means that they don’t have vascular tissues like xylem and phloem.
  • Examples include mosses, liverworts, and hornworts.
  • They help the ecosystem by acting as an important buffer system for other plants.
  • Thallophytes are basically algaes not having well differentiated body organelles like stem, roots, and leaves.
  • Funaria (Moss) is a Bryophyte and not a fungus.
  • Pteridophytes are the vascular plants having hidden reproductive organs, and they are also called cytogasms.
  • Gymnosperms and angiosperms are phanerogams, meaning they produce seeds.

Question 73

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of levels of hierarchy of classification of organisms from higher to lower?

  1. AOption (a)

    Phylum-Class- Order – Family – Genus 

  2. BOption (b)

    Phylum – Class – Family – Order – Genus 

  3. COption (c)

    Family – Order – Class – Species – Genus 

  4. DOption (d)

    Class – Family – Order – Species - Genus 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Phylum-Class- Order – Family – Genus 

Why this answer is correct

A hierarchical system is used for taxonomic classification of organisms.

  • Each level in the classification has organisms having similar characteristics.
  • Linnaean hierarchy as proposed by Carolus Linnaeus (Father of systematic Botany), the hierarchy involves seven obligate categories as shown below
  • Kingd om → Phylum (in Animals)/Division (in Plants) → Class

Order

Family → Genus → Species

Question 74

Which one of the following statements about meristematic tissues in plants is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    These are dead tissues and form wood

  2. BOption (b)

    They provide flexibility to plant due to their thickened walls.

  3. COption (c)

    These are present in the bark of a tree only

  4. DOption (d)

    Growth occurs in plants due to division of cells of these tissues 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Growth occurs in plants due to division of cells of these tissues 

Why this answer is correct

Growth occurs in Plants due to the division of meristematic cells.

Key Points

  • Meristematic tissues are the group of undifferentiated immature cells that are either in the continuous state of division, or preparing to divide.
  • These tissues contribute to the growth of the plants.
  • This is because they are present in the actively growing regions of the plants. Example - tip of the shoots and root tip in plants.
  • Due to meristematic tissues, a plant body retains the capacity of unlimited growth throughout their life.

Question 75

Which one of the following Union Territories has the highest female literacy rate?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chandigarh 

  2. BOption (b)

    Lakshadweep 

  3. COption (c)

    Andaman and Nicobar Island 

  4. DOption (d)

    Puducherry 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Lakshadweep 

Why this answer is correct

Lakshadweep, with a literacy rate of 92.28%, is the Union Territory with the highest female literacy rate at 88.25% according to Census 2011.

  • Kerala ranks the highest in terms of literacy rate with 93.91% literacy rate.
  • Overall, Kerala ranks highest among female literacy rate in India with 91.98% literacy rate.
  • Bihar ranks the last in the country with a literacy rate of 63.82%.
  • In terms of male literacy rate, Lakshadweep ranks first overall with 96.11% literacy rate.
  • Chandigarh’s female literacy rate is 81.38%.
  • Puducherry’s female literacy rate is 81.22%.
  • Andaman and Nicobar Islands female literacy rate is 81.84%

Question 76

Consider the following statements about Roaring Forties:

  1. There are strong Westerly winds found in the oceans of the Southern Hemisphere.

  2. The strong east to west air currents are caused by the combination of air being displaced from the equator towards the South Pole and the earth’s rotation and abundance of landmasses to serve as windbreaks.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only 

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only 

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 only 

Why this answer is correct

The Roaring Forties are strong westerly winds active in the southern hemisphere.

  • They are found generally between the latitudes of 40°S and 65°S.
  • They are west to east air currents (and not east to west) which are caused by the combination of air displaced from the equator towards the South Pole. Hence, statement 2 is NOT correct.
  • Further, few landmasses serve as the windbreak for the formation of these roaring forties.
  • Westerlies blow from the subtropical high pressure belt to the subpolar low pressure belts.
  • They constantly blow from the west and hence called Westerlies.
  • They blow from south-west to north-east in the northern hemisphere and north-west to south-east in the southern hemisphere.
  • They are called Roaring forties because the southern hemisphere lacks landmass between 40-65°S latitudes to break the flow of the Westerlies

Question 77

Consider the following statements:

  1. The doldrums is a low pressure area around the Equator where the prevailing winds are calm.

  2. Chinook is a hot and dry wind that blows in winter and therefore raises the temperature for a short time.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only 

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only 

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 or 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

Doldrums are the low pressure regions in the 10°N and 10°S latitudes.

  • It is here that the trade winds from both the hemisphere converge.
  • They are called Doldrums because they are associated with extremely calm air movements. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
  • Chinook at the warm and dry winds which blow on the eastern slope (leeward side) of the Rockies Mountain. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • They are so warm, that they help in melting/removal of the underlying snow. Hence, they are also called Snow Eaters.
  • They help in the early sowing of the spring wheat in the United States.

Question 78

Which one of the following is the driest desert of the world?

  1. AOption (a)

    Atacama

  2. BOption (b)

    Gobi

  3. COption (c)

    Sahara

  4. DOption (d)

    Kalahari 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Atacama

Why this answer is correct

Located in the Andes Mountain, South America, Atacama desert is known as the driest non-polar desert of the world.

Key Points

  • It spreads through Chile.
  • It is also known as Peruvian Desert.
  • Because of rain shadow effect and off-shore trade winds, it is the driest desert with practically no rainfall.
  • Gobi desert is a mid-latitude temperate desert located in China and Mongolia.
  • Sahara is a mid-latitude hot desert spread across Algeria, Chad, Egypt, Libya, Mali, Mauritania, Niger, Western Sahara, Sudan and Tunisia.
  • Kalahari Desert is also a hot desert spread across Botswana, parts of South Africa, and parts of Namibia.

Question 79

Which of the following statements about latent heat for a given substance is/are correct?

  1. It is fixed at a given temperature
  2. It depends upon temperature and volume
  3. It is independent of temperature and volume
  4. It depends on the temperature but independent of volume
  1. AOption (a)

    2

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 3

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT

  • Latent Heat: The amount of heat required per mass to change the state of any substance. It is a hidden form of heat.
  • The change in state always occurs at a constant temperature.
  • The SI unit of latent heat is Joule/kg
  • Latent heat of fusion and vaporization:
  • In the process of melting or vaporization, the temperature remains constant. The amount of heat needed to change the state of matter having mass m is-
  • Q = m L [Q= heat required, m = mass of the body, L = latent heat]
  • Latent heat of fusion: It is the heat required for 1 kg of substance to change it from solid to liquid state without change of temperature.
  • Latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.36 × 105 J/kg
  • In CGS = 80 cal / gm.
  • Latent heat of Vaporization: It is the heat required for 1 kg of substance to change it from liquid to gaseous state without change of temperature.
  • Latent heat of vaporization of water = 2.25 × 106 J/kg.
  • In CGS = 536 cal / gm

EXPLANATION

The latent heat is hidden heat for change in state.

In the process of change of state temperature remains constant.

⇒ Latent heat is fixed at a given temperature, thus independent of temperature

The volume of the object while changing the state is fixed.

⇒ Latent heat is independent of volume.

∴ Statement 1and 3 are true ⇒ Option 2 is correct.

Question 80

Which of the following statements about the mass of a body is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    It changes from one place to another

  2. BOption (b)

    It is same everywhere

  3. COption (c)

    It depends on its shape

  4. DOption (d)

    It does not depend on its temperature

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

It is same everywhere

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT

  • Mass (m): It is the property of the physical body which defines the amount of matter it contains.
  • It is measured in kg /g /milligram etc.
  • Mass is the measure of the inertia of a body.
  • It is a scalar quantity and has only magnitude.
  • Mass is a constant thing, it does not change anywhere in-universe.
  • It is measured with Physical balance, beam balance, etc.
<br>

EXPLANATION

  • It does not change from place to place – Option 1 is incorrect.
  • Weight (W) can change from place to place, as it is a pull of gravity of the planet. The weight is different on different planets as gravity changes.
  • It is same everywhere – yes, mass is same everywhere – Option 2 is correct.
  • It depends on its shape – No, mass does not depend on shape e.g. 1 kg of cotton is of great size than of 1 kg of iron still, both masses are 1 kg – Option 3 is incorrect.
  • It does not depend on temperature –
  • Density = (mass /volume) ⇒ mass = density × volume.
  • Density of a substance depends on temperature.
  • Temperature increases, density decreases and vice-versa
  • So, mass depends on temperature – Option 4 is incorrect
<br>

∴ Option 2 is correct.

Question 81

A ball balanced on a vertical rod is an example of

  1. AOption (a)

    Stable equilibrium

  2. BOption (b)

    Unstable equilibrium

  3. COption (c)

    Neutral equilibrium

  4. DOption (d)

    Perfect equilibrium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Unstable equilibrium

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT

  • Equilibrium: It is a state where resultant of all forces acting on a body is zero.

  • Stable equilibrium: A system is said to be in stable equilibrium if, when displaced from equilibrium, it experiences a net force or torque in a direction opposite the direction of the displacement.

  • The potential energy is minimum in this case.

  • Unstable equilibrium: A system is in unstable equilibrium if, when displaced from equilibrium, it experiences a net force or torque in the same direction as the displacement from equilibrium.

  • The potential energy is maximum in this case.

  • Neutral equilibrium: A system is in neutral equilibrium if its equilibrium is independent of displacements from its original position.

  • The potential energy remains constant in this case.

EXPLANATION

  • If a ball is placed on vertical rod, it is in unstable equilibrium because once it is displaced from its place, it will experience the net force in the direction of displacement and never come back to its original position.
  • The potential energy of the ball is maximum at this point.

 

∴ Option 2 is correct.

Question 82

Which of the following statements about a fluid at rest in a cup is/are correct?

  1. Pressure is same at all the points in the fluid
  2. Pressure is exerted on the walls
  3. Pressure exists everywhere in the fluid
  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT

  • Fluid Pressure: Pressure P at every point in a fluid is defined as the normal force per unit area.

P=dF⃗⊥dAP = \frac{{d{{\vec F}_ \bot }}}{{dA}}

Where, P = pressure, d F = perpendicular force/normal force, d A = area

  • The S.I unit of pressure is the Pascal, 1 Pascal = 1 N/m2
  • Pressure at two-point in the horizontal plane or same level when the fluid is at rest or uniform velocity is the same.

 

  • Pressure at two-point at depth separation ‘h’ when fluid is at rest or uniform velocity is expressed by P2 – P1 = ρ × g × h

  • Where, P2 and P1 are pressure at two different points, ρ = density of fluid, h = distance between them.

  • The walls of the container always exert the force on the fluid.

EXPLANATION

According to the options,

  • The pressure is same at all points in fluid – This is incorrect as pressure is same in a horizontal position but not in the vertical position – statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Pressure is exerted on the walls – This is correct the pressure is exerted on the walls and from the walls to balance it – statement 2 is correct.
  • Pressure exists everywhere in the fluid – This is correct the pressure is everywhere in the fluid at some points they are same and some are not – statement 3 is correct.
<br>

∴ Option 2 is correct

Question 83

Which one of the following devices is used to measure atmospheric pressure?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ammeter

  2. BOption (b)

    Barometer 

  3. COption (c)

    Potentiometer

  4. DOption (d)

    Lactometer 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Barometer 

Why this answer is correct

A barometer is an instrument which is used to measure atmospheric pressure.

  • Ammeter is used to measure current in a circuit.
  • A potentiometer is a three-terminal resistor with a rotating or sliding contact. This contact forms an adjustable voltage divider. In case of two terminals being used, it acts as rheostat.
  • A Lactometer is a hydrometer which is used to test milk, and check the amount of dilution of water in the same.

Question 84

Which one of the following is the number of water molecules that share with two formula unit CaSO4 in plaster of Paris?

  1. AOption (a)

    One 

  2. BOption (b)

    Two

  3. COption (c)

    Five 

  4. DOption (d)

    Ten 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

One 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is one. 

Mistake Points

  • Plaster of Paris is Chemically known as Calcium Sulphate hemihydrate (CaSO4.1/2H2O)
  • The reaction is given as:
  • \(CaSO_4.\frac 12H_2O~+\frac 32H_2O \rightarrowCaSO_4.2H_2O\)

         (Plaster of Paris)                     (Gypsum)

  • Note that only half a water molecule is shown to be attached as water of crystallisation.
  • It is written in this form because **two formula units of CaSO4 share one molecule of water.**​

Additional Information

  • Above 393 K, no water of crystallisation is left and anhydrous calcium sulphate, CaSO4 is formed. This is known as ‘dead burnt plaster’.
  • Uses:
  • The largest use of Plaster of Paris is in the building industry as well as plasters.
  • It is used for immoblising the affected part of the organ where there is a bone fracture or sprain.
  • It is also employed in dentistry, in ornamental work, and for making casts of statues and busts.

Question 85

How is carbon black obtained?

  1. AOption (a)

    By heating wood at high temperature in absence of air.

  2. BOption (b)

    By heating coal at high temperature in absence of air

  3. COption (c)

    By burning hydrocarbons in a limited supply of air

  4. DOption (d)

    By heating coal at high temperature in presence of air

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

By burning hydrocarbons in a limited supply of air

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

Carbon black is obtained by burning hydrocarbons in limited supply of air.

CH4 + 2O2 →CO2 + 2H2O

  • It is used as a black pigment in black ink.
  • It is also used as a filler in automobile tyres.
  • Heating wood at high temperature in absence of air releases charcoal and volatile tars.
  • Heating coal at high temperature in absence of air results in destructive distillation of coal.
  • Heating coal at high temperature in the presence of air would produce Carbon dioxide.

Question 86

Which one of the following properties is NOT true for graphite?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hybridisation of each carbon atom is sp3

  2. BOption (b)

    Hybridisation of each carbon atom is sp2

  3. COption (c)

    Electrons are delocalized over the whole sheet of atoms 

  4. DOption (d)

    Each layer is composed of hexagonal rings. 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Hybridisation of each carbon atom is sp3

Why this answer is correct

A graphite crystal consists of layers of Carbon atoms, or sheets of carbon atoms.

  • The hybridization of each carbon atom is sp3 in Diamond while it is sp2 in Graphite.
  • This is because only 3 of the 4 valence electrons of C participate in bonding, resulting in hybridization having corresponding covalent bonds between C-C in the same plane.
  • Hence, option 1 is not true and hence the incorrect option.
  • The two dimensional layer structure, and each has regular hexagonal rings.
  • The fourth free electron is responsible for conductivity.

Question 87

Which one of the following is the purest form of Carbon?

  1. AOption (a)

    Charcoal 

  2. BOption (b)

    Coke

  3. COption (c)

    Fullerene

  4. DOption (d)

    carbon black 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Fullerene

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Fullerene.

Key Points

  • The purest form of carbon is fullerenes since they have a smooth structure without dangling which can be utilised completely (98-99%)
  • Fullerene is an allotrope of carbon having single and double carbon bonds forming a closed mesh.
  • Charcoal is the impure form of carbon of its porous structure and large surface area.
  • Coke contains about 80-85% carbon and is used as fuel and a reducing agent in metallurgy.

Question 88

The poisonous nature of Carbon monoxide (CO) is due to its 

  1. AOption (a)

    insolubility in water 

  2. BOption (b)

    ability to form a complex with haemoglobin

  3. COption (c)

    ability to reduce some metal oxides 

  4. DOption (d)

    property of having one sigma bond 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

ability to form a complex with haemoglobin

Why this answer is correct

Carbon Monoxide (CO), is highly poisonous to living beings.

  • This is because it produces Carboxyhaemoglobin.
  • When the concentration of this complex reaches about 3-4%, the oxygen carrying capacity of blood is greatly reduced.
  • The deficiency of oxygen may result in nausea, headache, weak eyesight.
  • Carbonmonoxide binds very strongly to haemoglobin

Question 89

Which one of the following elements is needed in the human body to transfer electrical signals by nerve cells?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lithium 

  2. BOption (b)

    Sodium 

  3. COption (c)

    Rubidium 

  4. DOption (d)

    Caesium 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sodium 

Why this answer is correct

Sodium in the form of ions are found in large quantities in biological fluids.

  • Sodium plays an important role in transmission of electrical signals by nerve cells.
  • It is also helpful in transporting sugars, and amino acids into the cells.
  • It helps in regulating the flow of water across the cell membranes.

Question 90

Who among the following first discovered cells?

  1. AOption (a)

    Robert Brown

  2. BOption (b)

    Robert Hooke

  3. COption (c)

    Leeuwenhoek 

  4. DOption (d)

    Rudolf Virchow

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Robert Hooke

Why this answer is correct

Robert Hooke was the first to study and discover cells.

Key Points

  • He discovered it from a thin section of dead cork.
  • The small honeycomb like structures were named cells by him.
  • Robert Brown discovered the presence of nucleus in a cell.
  • Leeuwenhoek was the first to observe cells under the microscope.
  • Rudolf Virchow proposed cells arising from pre-existing cells.

Question 91

Which one of the following groups of organisms forms a food chain?

  1. AOption (a)

    Grass, human and fish 

  2. BOption (b)

    Grass, goat and human

  3. COption (c)

    Tree, tree cutter and tiger

  4. DOption (d)

    Goat, cow and human 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Grass, goat and human

Why this answer is correct

Option 2 is the correct answer i.e Grass, goat and human.

Key Points

  • Grass is eaten by the goat, which in turn is eaten by humans forming the food chain.
  • Humans don’t eat grass and get eaten by a fish.
  • Tree cutters don't consume trees.
  • Cow is herbivores and doesn’t eat goats

Question 92

Which one of the following types of tissues will have contractile proteins?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nervous tissue

  2. BOption (b)

    Muscle tissue

  3. COption (c)

    Bone tissue

  4. DOption (d)

    Blood tissue 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Muscle tissue

Why this answer is correct

Contractile proteins are found in muscle tissues.

  • The contractile proteins are myosin and actin.
  • They form the thin and thick filaments that control the skeletal muscle contraction and relaxation.
  • Troponin and tropomyosin are regulatory proteins.
  • Blood proteins are plasma proteins like albumin and globulin.

Question 93

If by an unknown accident the acid secreting cells of the stomach wall of an individual are damaged, digestion of which one of the following biomolecules will be affected to greater extent?

  1. AOption (a)

    Protein only

  2. BOption (b)

    Lipid

  3. COption (c)

    Carbohydrate only 

  4. DOption (d)

    Protein and Carbohydrate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Protein only

Why this answer is correct

The stomach produces pepsin activated by HCl.

  • Pepsin is a protein digesting enzyme.
  • So, if the acid secreting cells of the stomach wall get damaged due to some reasons, the digestion of protein would be affected to a large extent.
  • Pepsin activation would be reduced resulting in low to no protein digestion.
  • This may also lead to an increased bacterial growth as a result of non production of HCl.

Question 94

In which one of the following places, Headquarters of Eastern Central Railway Zone is located?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kanpur

  2. BOption (b)

    Lucknow

  3. COption (c)

    Hajipur

  4. DOption (d)

    New Jalpaiguri 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Hajipur

Why this answer is correct

The headquarters of the Eastern Central Railway Zone (ECR) is located in Hajipur.

  • It is a place in Bihar and has Sonpur, Samastipur, Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Station, Sonpur, Dhanbad, and Danapur divisions.
  • At present there are 17 Railway Zones and 68 Divisions in the country.
  • Zonal and Divisional boundaries are decided by operational/administrative requirements and not on considerations of State boundaries and as such there are some States which have railway lines under jurisdictional control of more than one Zonal Railway/Division.

Question 95

Which of the following statements about Indian Academy of Highway Engineers is/are correct?

  1. It is a registered society.

  2. It is a collaborative body of both Central Government and State Governments.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only 

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only 

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2 

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

  • Indian Academy Of Highway Engineers:
  • It was formerly called NITHE.
  • It is a registered Society (Annexure I) under the administrative control of the Ministry of Road Transport & Highways (M/o RT&H), Govt. of India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Minister-in-charge is the President and Secretary, M/o RT&H is the Vice President of this Society.
  • It is a collaborative body of the Central and State Governments. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Its primary objective is to fulfil the long-standing need for Training of Highway Engineers at the Entry Level and during the Service.

Question 96

Which one of the following is NOT a tributary of Indus River?

  1. AOption (a)

    Beas 

  2. BOption (b)

    Ravi

  3. COption (c)

    Chenab 

  4. DOption (d)

    Tawi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Tawi

Why this answer is correct

Tawi is the left bank tributary of Chenab River.

  • The different tributaries of Indus include Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Satluj, Shyok, the Gilgit, the Zaskar, the Hunza, the Nubra, the Shigar, the Gasting, Dras, Khurram, the Tochi, the Gomal, the Viboa and the Sangar.
  • These Himalayan tributaries originate from the Sulaiman Ranges.
  • The Indus is also known as the Singi Khamban in Tibet.
  • Flowing between Zaskar and Ladakh in the northwest direction, it passes through Baltistan and Ladakh.

Question 97

Which one among the following is the largest tiger reserve of India in terms of area of the core/critical tiger habitat

  1. AOption (a)

    Manas

  2. BOption (b)

    Pakke

  3. COption (c)

    Nagarjunasagar Srisailam

  4. DOption (d)

    Periyar 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Nagarjunasagar Srisailam

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Nagarjunasagar Srisailam.

Key Points

Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam is the largest tiger reserve in terms of Area 3296.31 km². It is located in Andhra Pradesh.

  • Pench Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh has the minimum area.
  • NTCA website says Sundarban has the highest number of tigers.
  • Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is also a National Tiger Reserve in Assam.
  • Pakke Tiger Reserve is located in Arunachal Pradesh.
  • Periyar Tiger Reserve is located in Kerala.

Question 98

Which one of the following is NOT a coastal depositional feature?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tombolo 

  2. BOption (b)

    Sand bar 

  3. COption (c)

    Stack 

  4. DOption (d)

    Spit 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Stack 

Why this answer is correct

Stack/Sea Stack is a geological landform that consists of a steep and vertical column of rocks.

  • They are formed as a result of wave erosion. Hence, they are not depositional, rather erosional landforms.
  • Tombolo is a depositional landform in which an island is attached to the mainland by a narrow piece of land such as a spit or bar.
  • Sandbar is a depositional landform in which gravel, sand and fine sediment sits above the water.
  • Spit is a depositional landform created by the deposition of the sand by the tidal movements.

Question 99

Which of the following is/are the coastal erosional feature(s)?

  1. Notch

  2. Sea Arch

  3. Cliff

  4. Hook

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    2, 3 and 4

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is: 1, 2 and 3

Key Points

  • Notch:
  • This is an erosional coastal landform.
  • Formed due to continuous wave action at the base of a cliff, a notch appears as an indentation.
  • With time, the notch enlarges and can lead to the collapse of the overhanging rock, contributing to cliff formation.
  • Sea Arch:
  • This is also a coastal erosional feature.
  • It forms when waves erode both sides of a coastal headland, eventually breaking through to form an arch-like structure.
  • Sea arches are part of a sequence of erosional features that also include caves and stacks.
  • Cliff:
  • This is a prominent coastal erosional landform.
  • Cliffs form due to the undercutting action of waves at the base of rock faces along the coast.
  • Over time, continuous erosion leads to the steep or vertical faces we identify as cliffs.
  • Hook:
  • This is a depositional feature, not erosional.
  • A hook is a narrow, curved spit of sand or gravel that develops due to longshore drift and sediment deposition.
  • It usually forms where the coastline changes direction or where wave refraction occurs around a headland.

Additional Information

  • Other Coastal Erosional Features:
  • Sea Caves: Hollowed-out spaces formed at the base of cliffs due to wave action.
  • Stacks: Isolated vertical columns left behind after a sea arch collapses.
  • Wave-cut Platforms: Flat surfaces at the base of cliffs formed by wave erosion.
  • Depositional Features for Contrast:
  • Spits, Bars, Tombolos: Formed by sediment deposition due to longshore drift.
  • Beaches: Composed of accumulated sand or pebbles due to gentle wave action.

Question 100

Chemical weathering of rocks is much greater in a place with 

  1. AOption (a)

    cold and dry climate 

  2. BOption (b)

    hot and humid climate 

  3. COption (c)

    hot and dry climate 

  4. DOption (d)

    cold and humid climate 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

hot and humid climate 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hot and Humid Climate

Chemical Weathering is as a result of chemical reactions on the mineral rocks and agents like water or air.

  • Oxygen oxidizes the minerals on the rocks to alteration products.
  • Water turns minerals to clay or dissolves them.
  • All this takes place majorly in hot and humid conditions.
  • Chemical weathering results in formation of new minerals and salts as a result of chemical reaction between rainwater and mineral grains in the rocks.
  • Slightly acidic water results in Chemical weathering.
  • Oxidation, Solution and Carbonation are all Chemical Weathering processes.
  • Oxidation or Rusting is the reaction of rocks with oxygen and hence a chemical weathering process.
  • Solution chemical weathering is when minerals dissolve in acidic solutions. Example - Limestone dissolving in Carbonic Acid.
  • Carbonation involves mixing of Carbon Dioxide with water to make carbonic acid and is a type of chemical weathering.

Question 101

Which of the following statements about specific heat of a body is/are correct?

  1. It depends upon mass and shape of the body

  2. It is independent of mass and shape of the body

  3. It depends only upon the temperature of the body

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    2 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2 only

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Specific heat or specific heat capacity of a body is the amount of heat required for a unit mass of body to raise the temperature by 1 degree Celsius.
  • It is generally denoted by C.

Q=mCΔTQ = mCΔ T              

Where Q = heat required, ΔT =  change in temperature and m = mass of the body.

So Specific heat capacity (C) is given by

;;C;=;QmΔT;;{\rm{;;C;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{Q}{{mΔ T{\rm{;}};}}

EXPLANATION:

  • As it is heat required for unit mass of the body so specific heat doesn’t depend on mass of that body.

  • Specific heat capacity of anybody/material is a property of that body/material. It is same for each and every molecules of that body. So it doesn’t depend on the shape of the body. Thus  independent of mass and shape of the body.

  • As per the definition of the specific heat, it is the heat required to raise the temperature by 1°C. Hence the specific heat doesn’t depend on the temperature of the body.

  • Since material to material the required heat energy to raise the temperature by 1°C per unit mass will differ. Hence specific heat capacity depends on material of the body/substance.

  • Specific heat doesn’t depend on heat given because required heat energy for unit mass per rise of 1℃ can be calculated from the given heat energy to get specific heat.

Question 102

Which one of the following is an example of the force of gravity of the earth acting on a vibrating pendulum bob?

  1. AOption (a)

    Applied force

  2. BOption (b)

    Frictional force

  3. COption (c)

    Restoring force

  4. DOption (d)

    Virtual force 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Restoring force

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Force of gravity by earth is the attraction force on anybody kept on or above the surface of earth.
  • It always acts in downward direction on the body.
  • It is equal to mg, where m is mass of the body and g is acceleration due to gravity.
  • The force which acts to bring a body to its mean position/equilibrium position is called as restoring force.
  • For example: The spring force is a restoring force because it always applies a force towards the equilibrium point.

EXPLANATION:

  • As shown in the diagram, the force of gravity by earth on the bob is acting in downward direction which has two components. One is along the string of the pendulum which balances the tension produced in the string (T= mgCos).
  • The other component of mg is perpendicular to string (mg Sinθ) which try to pull the bob towards its mean position. The force which acts to bring a body to its mean position is called as restoring force.
  • Thus the force of gravity by earth on the bob of a vibrating pendulum is an example of restoring force.
  • There is no external applied force on the bob other than force of gravity so option 1 is not correct.
  • Frictional force comes into picture only when there is a relative motion between two surfaces in contact. Here there is no relative motion between two contact surfaces so option 2 is not correct.
  • The work done by a force acting on a particle is different for different displacements on a specific path is called as virtual work and this type of force is called as virtual force. Here there is no virtual force acting on the bob. Option 4 is incorrect.

Question 103

Which one of the following statements about the refractive index of a material medium with respect to air is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    It can be either positive or negative

  2. BOption (b)

    It can have zero value

  3. COption (c)

    It is unity of all material 

  4. DOption (d)

    It is always greater than one

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

It is always greater than one

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Refractive index: The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to speed of light in a medium is called the refractive index of that medium. It is also called an absolute refractive index.

Refractive;index;(μ)=;;Speed;of;light;in;vaccum(C)Speed;of;light;in;a;medium(v){\rm{Refractive;index;}}\left( \mu \right) = {\rm{;;}}\frac{{Speed;of;light;in;vaccum\left( C \right)}}{{Speed;of;light;in;a;medium\left( v \right)}}

  • Relative refractive index: When a light ray is going from one medium (other than vacuum) to another medium then the value of the refractive index is said to be a relative refractive index.

Refractive;index;of;medium;1;with;respect;to;medium;2(n21)=;;refractive;index;of;medium;1(n1);Refractive;index;of;medium;2(n2){\rm{Refractive;index;of;medium;}}1{\rm{;with;respect;to;medium;}}2{(n_{21})} = {\rm{;}}\frac{{;refractive;index;of;medium;1 {(n_1)}}}{{;Refractive;index;of;medium;2{(n_2)}}}

EXPLANATION:

  • The speed of light in a vacuum is maximum (3×1083 \times {10^8} m/s) and the speed of light in air is almost same as in a vacuum. The speed of light in the liquid material is less than that in air and the speed of light in a solid is less than that in liquid.
  • Thus the refractive index of solid > Refractive index of liquid > Refractive index of air.
  • The Refractive index of material with respect to air will be equal to the ratio of the refractive index of the material to the refractive index of air.

Refractive;index;of;material;with;respect;to;air=Refractive;index;of;materialRefractive;index;of;airRefractive;index;of;material;with;respect;to;air = \frac{{Refractive;index;of;material}}{{Refractive;index;of;air}}

  • As the refractive index of any material is more than that of air always. So the refractive index of material with respect to air will be always greater than 1.
  • Thus Refractive index of material with respect to air > 1

Table:

MaterialIndex of Refraction (n)
Vacuum1.000
Air1.000277
Water1.333333
Ice1.31
GlassAbout 1.5
Diamond2.417

Question 104

Which one of the following statements about magnetic field line is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    They can emanate from a point

  2. BOption (b)

    They do not cross each other

  3. COption (c)

    Field lines between two poles cannot be precisely straight lines at the ends.

  4. DOption (d)

    There are continuous field lines within a bar magnet

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

They can emanate from a point

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Magnetic field lines: The imaginary lines which represent the direction of the magnetic field are called as magnetic field lines.

 

  • The tangent at any point on the field lines gives the direction of the magnetic field vector at that point.
  • Magnetic lines of force always emerge or start from the North Pole and terminate on the South Pole.

EXPLANATION:

  • A magnetic monopoles (either North Pole or South Pole) never exists alone due to which the magnetic field lines cannot emanate from a point or terminate at a point.
  • The two magnetic field lines do not intersect each other because if they do it means at the point of intersect the compass needle is showing two different directions which is not possible.
  • There can't be such straight field lines between magnetic poles as the magnetic field always form closed loops.
  • There are continuous field lines exists inside the bar magnet.

Question 105

Two convex lenses with power 2 diopter are kept in contact with each other. The focal length of the combined lens system is

  1. AOption (a)

    0.10 m

  2. BOption (b)

    2 m

  3. COption (c)

    4 m

  4. DOption (d)

    0.25 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

0.25 m

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Power of a lens is its ability to bend light and it is equal to the reciprocal of the focal length of the lens in meters.
  • P  = 1/f         where f is focal length of the lens in meters
  • The equivalent power for a system, where two thin lenses are sharing an axis are kept in contact with each other, is given by the following formula:
<br>

P = P1 + P2

Where,    P1 is the power of first lens and P2 is the power of second lens.

Calculations:

Given;  P1 = P2 = 2D

Equivalent power = P = P1 + P2 = 2 + 2 = 4D

Focal length of the combination = f = 1/P = ¼ = 0.25 m

Points to remember: Unit of Power is taken as Diopter (D) only when focal length is taken in meters. If focal length is in cm then power is equal to cm-1.

Question 106

Which one of the following alkali metals has the lowest melting point?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sodium 

  2. BOption (b)

    Potassium 

  3. COption (c)

    Rubidium 

  4. DOption (d)

    Caesium 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Caesium 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Caesium.

  • Cesium has the least melting point.

Key Points

  • In alkali metals, Caesium has the lowest boiling point (28.44 C).
  • As we can see that in alkali metals as we move down the group in the periodic table the distance of the electron from the nucleus increases.
  • Thus the metallic bond weakens thus the melting point of the metal decreases.
  • In the given options, the melting point sequence is
  • Na > K > Rb > Cs

​

Question 107

Which one of the following metals is alloyed with sodium to transfer heat in a nuclear reactor?

  1. AOption (a)

    Potassium 

  2. BOption (b)

    Calcium 

  3. COption (c)

    Magnesium 

  4. DOption (d)

    Strontium 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Potassium 

Why this answer is correct

Sodium-Potassium alloy (NaK) is an alloy of two alkali metals sodium and Potassium.

  • It is used as a heart-transfer coolant in fast-breeder reactors.
  • It is also used experimentally in gas-turbine power plants.

Question 108

Which one of the following metals is used in the filaments of photo-electric cells that convert light energy into electric energy?

  1. AOption (a)

    Tungsten 

  2. BOption (b)

    Copper

  3. COption (c)

    Rubidium 

  4. DOption (d)

    Aluminium 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Rubidium 

Why this answer is correct

Photo-electric cells are devices which use photoelectric effect to generate electricity.

  • Due to high resistance and low leakage of current, Rubidium is used for the filament of these photoelectric cells.
  • Rubidium is highly electropositive, meaning it tends to lose electrons and form positive ions in a chemical reaction.
  • Thus, when light strikes its surface, it tends to lose electrons, a phenomenon called photoelectric effect.
  • Hence, it is highly effective as a filament for photo-electric cells.

Question 109

Which of the following statements about Ring of Fire is/are correct?

  1. It is a zone of convergence plate boundaries

  2. It is an active seismic and volcanic zone

  3. It is associated with deep trench

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only 

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 only 

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

All the above statements with respect to Ring of Fire are correct.

  • The Ring of Fire is also known as the Circum-Pacific Belt.
  • It is that path along the Pacific Ocean where volcanoes are highly active and experience frequent earthquakes.
  • Majority of Earthquakes and volcanoes are registered in and around the Ring of Fire.
  • It’s length is approx 40,000 km
  • The abundance of earthquakes is due to the major tectonic plates surrounding the region.
  • Plates overlap at convergent boundaries, called the subduction zones.
  • They are associated with deep trenches.
  • The tectonic plates include Pacific, Juan de Fuca, Cocos, Indian-Australian, Nazca, North American, and Philippine Plates

Question 110

Which one of the following Himalayan Vegetation species is found between the altitudes of 1800 to 2600 metres?

  1. AOption (a)

    Saal

  2. BOption (b)

    Chir

  3. COption (c)

    Spruce 

  4. DOption (d)

    Deodar 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Deodar 

Why this answer is correct

The corect option is Deodar.

Key Points

Deodar or Cedrus deodara are large evergreen coniferous trees found at altitudes between 1800-2600 metres and even higher altitudes.

  • They are native to the Western Himalayas.
  • Sal belongs to the Tropical Deciduous category.
  • Chir are native Himalayan Coniferous plants found at an altitude of 500-2000 m.
  • Spruce are evergreen coniferous plants found in Boreal and Northern Temperate regions.

Question 111

Which one of the following rivers is NOT a tributary of river Cauvery?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hemavati

  2. BOption (b)

    Arkavati

  3. COption (c)

    Indravati

  4. DOption (d)

    Amravati 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Indravati

Why this answer is correct

Amravati 

Indravati is NOT a tributary of Cauvery.

  • Instead, it is the tributary of Godavari.
  • Tributaries of Cauvery -
  • Right Hand tributaries - Lakshmana Tirtha, Kabini, Bhavani, Noyyal, Amaravati, Moyar
  • Left Hand tributaries - Harangi, Hemavati, Shimsha, Arkavathy
  • Tributaries of Godavari -
  • Right hand tributaries - Pravara, Mula, Manjra, Peddavagu, Maner.
  • Left Hand tributaries - Dharna, Penganga, Wainganga, Wardha, Pranahita, Pench, Kanhan, Sabari, Indravati

Question 112

Which of the following conditions is/are essential for tea cultivation?

  1. Tropical and subtropical climate

  2. Heavy rainfall ranging from 150 cm to 250 cm

  3. Soil should contain a good amount of lime.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only 

  4. DOption (d)

    1 only 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

Answer is: 1 and 2 only

<br>

Key PointsTea cultivation is an example of plantation agriculture.

  • The tea plant grows well in tropical and sub-tropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained soil, rich in humus and organic matter. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Tea bushes require warm and moist frost-free climate all through the year.
  • Frequent showers evenly distributed rainfall (150 cm-250 cm) over the year ensure continuous growth of tender leaves. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • They require loamy soil for their growth. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Tea is a labour intensive industry. It requires abundant, cheap and skilled labour.
  • Major tea producing states are Assam, hills of Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Apart from these, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh and Tripura are also tea-producing states in the country.

Question 113

Bharatmala project is related to 

  1. AOption (a)

    Improving road connectivity 

  2. BOption (b)

    Interlinking ports and railways 

  3. COption (c)

    Interlinking of rivers

  4. DOption (d)

    Interlinking major cities with gas pipelines 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Improving road connectivity 

Why this answer is correct

Bharatmala Project is the second largest highways construction project in the country under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.

  • Under this, almost 50,000 km or highway roads were targeted across the country.
  • Bharatmala will look to improve road connectivity particularly on economic corridors, border areas and far flung areas with an aim of quicker movement of cargo and boosting exports.
  • Option 2 is the Sagarmala Project under the Ministry of Shipping.
  • Option 3 is Urja Ganga Project being implemented by GAIL.

Question 114

Which one of the following is local wind that blows out from Siberia?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bora

  2. BOption (b)

    Purga

  3. COption (c)

    Mistral

  4. DOption (d)

    Blizzard 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Blizzard 

Why this answer is correct

Blizzard is a cold and violent polar wind which blows in the Northern and Southern Polar regions like Siberia, Canada, the US.

  • They are cold winds because they pick dry snow from the ground and blow.
  • Bora is a cold wind blowing in Northern Italy.
  • Purga, also known as Buran which blows across the Eastern Asia.
  • Mistral blows in Spain and France and is a cold wind.

Question 115

Which one of the following centres is NOT known for the iron and steel industry?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bhadravati

  2. BOption (b)

    Salem

  3. COption (c)

    Visakhapatnam 

  4. DOption (d)

    Renukoot 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Renukoot 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Renukoot.

Key Points

  • Hindalco Plant Renukoot is known for the smelting of Aluminium.
  • Mysore Iron and Steel Company (MISCO) is located in Bhadravati in Shimoga district, Karnataka.
  • Salem Steel Plant is located in Salem District of Tamil Nadu.
  • Vizag Steel Plant is located in Visakhapatnam.

Question 116

Which of the following are essential prerequisites for establishment of a thermal power station?

  1. Availability of fossil fuels

  2. Proximity to river, lake or sea

  3. Good transport network

  4. Proximity to an urban centre

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 4

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 3 only 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

Proximity to an urban centre is not an important prerequisite for establishment of a thermal power station.

  • Infact, it should be located as far as possible from a Thermal Power plant to reduce the harmful effects of release of toxic gases.
  • However, it is important for the plant to be near the source of fossil fuel.
  • Water source like a river, lake, or sea is important to use it as a coolant for steam.
  • Good transportation is important for the access to market for finished goods, as well as to fulfill the requirement of raw materials.

Question 117

Which of the following statements about ‘Aadi Mahotsav’ held recently in New Delhi is/are correct?

  1. The theme of the festival was ‘a Celebration of the Spirit of Tribal Culture, Cuisine and commerce’

  2. The festival was organized by the Ministry of Tourism, Government of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 only

Why this answer is correct

‘Aadi Mahotsav” held recently in New Delhi was organized by a joint initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Government of India & Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED). Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

  • The Mahotsav will comprise of display and sale of items of tribal art and craft, tribal medicine & healers, tribal cuisine and display of tribal folk performance, in which tribal artisans, chefs, folk dancers/musicians from 23 States of the country shall participate and provide glimpse of their rich traditional culture.
  • The theme of the festival is: “A celebration of the spirit of Tribal Craft, Culture and Commerce”. TRIFED essentially is to play the role of a ‘Service provider’ & ‘Market Developer.’ Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Question 118

Light year is a unit for measurement of 

  1. AOption (a)

    Age of universe

  2. BOption (b)

    Very small time intervals

  3. COption (c)

    Very high temperature 

  4. DOption (d)

    Very large distance

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Very large distance

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Light year:

  • The distance travelled by light in one year is called as light year.
  • It is the unit of astronomical distance.
  • 1 light year = 9.461 trillion kilometers which is a very large distance.
<br>

EXPLANATION:

  • As light year is the distance travelled by light in a year so light year is a unit of distance.
  • We can measure a very large distance with the help of light year. Thus light year is a unit for measurement of very large distance.
  • Age of universe is basically a time period so option 1 is not correct.
  • In option 2 we have time intervals so it is not correct.
  • In option 3 we have temperature so it is not correct.

Question 119

Which of the following statements about electromagnetic waves, sound waves and water waves is/are correct?

  1. They exhibit reflection

  2. They carry energy

  3. They exert pressure

  4. They can travel in vacuum

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 4

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Wave: The disturbance that transfers energy from one place to another is called a wave.

There are mainly two types of waves:

Electromagnetic waves: The wave which is generated due to vibration between electric field and magnetic field and it does not need any medium to travel is called an electromagnetic wave. It can travel through a vacuum.

  • Light is a form of energy which is an example of electromagnetic waves.
  • Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature because they propagate by varying their electric and magnetic fields so that both the fields propagate perpendicular to each other.

Mechanical waves: The oscillation of matter which is responsible for the transfer of energy through a medium is called a mechanical wave. It can’t travel through a vacuum.

There are two types of mechanical waves:

Transverse waves: The wave in which the movement of the particles is at right angles to the motion of the energy is called a transverse wave. Light is an example of a transverse wave.

Longitudinal wave: The wave in which the movement of the particles is parallel to the motion of the energy is called a longitudinal wave. The sound wave is an example of a longitudinal wave.

  • A water wave is a combination of longitudinal waves and transverse waves. It can be seen when we throw a piece of stone in water and there is a vibration on the surface of the water.

EXPLANATION:

  • When any wave falls on a surface and after striking the surface come back in the same medium then this is called a reflection of the wave. This property can be seen in all types of waves.
  • For example: the reflection of light on a plane mirror, reflection of sound from a wall.
  • A wave always carries energy/transfers energy.
  • When light/electromagnetic waves or mechanical waves fall on a surface then it exerts pressure on the surface.
  • Sound waves can’t travel through a vacuum. Thus except option 4 all are correct.

Question 120

Thermal capacity of a body depends on the

  1. AOption (a)

    Mass of the body only

  2. BOption (b)

    Mass and shape of the body only 

  3. COption (c)

    Density of the body 

  4. DOption (d)

    Mass, shape and temperature of the body

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Mass of the body only

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The amount of heat required for a mass of a material to produce a unit change in its temperature is called a Thermal capacity/heat capacity of that material.
  • It is denoted by C.
  • Thermal capacity (C) = m S

Q = C.∆T = mSΔT

Where Q = the heat required, ∆T = change in temperature, m = mass of the body and S = specific heat capacity of the material.

So Thermal capacity (C) is given by:

;C;=;QΔT;;{\rm{;C;}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{Q}{{Δ T{\rm{;}};}}

EXPLANATION:

  • Since thermal capacity is an extensive property so it depends on the mass of the material.
  • It is the same for each and every molecule of the body. So it doesn’t depend on the shape of the body.
  • As thermal capacity is the property of material so it is independent of the density of the material.
  • As per the definition of the Thermal capacity, it is the heat required to raise the temperature by 1°C. Hence it doesn’t depend on the temperature of the body.

Question 121

Who among the following first used the term ‘Industrial Revolution’ in English to describe the changes that occurred in British industrial development between 1760 and 1820?

  1. AOption (a)

    Karl Marx

  2. BOption (b)

    Georges Michelet

  3. COption (c)

    Arnold Toynbee

  4. DOption (d)

    Friedrich Engels 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Arnold Toynbee

Why this answer is correct

The term Industrial Revolution was first popularized by the English economic historian Arnold Toynbee (1852–83).

  • It was used to describe Britain’s economic development from 1760 to 1840.
  • Karl Marx is famous for his Communist Manifesto where he discussed the Labor Theory of Value along with Friedrich Engels.
  • Jules Michelet abhorred the Middle Ages and explained how transformational and dynamic Renaissance could emerge from the middle ages.

Question 122

Which one of the following statements about the Olympe de Gouges (1748 – 1793) is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    She declared that although citizens should have equal rights, they are not entitled to the same honours by the State 

  2. BOption (b)

    She was a supporter of the Jacobin government 

  3. COption (c)

    She was jailed for treason by the National Assembly 

  4. DOption (d)

    She declared that the nation is the union of woman and man 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

She declared that the nation is the union of woman and man 

Why this answer is correct

De Gouges sided with the moderate Girondins. So statement 2 is wrong.

  • She was sent to guillotine after the fall of Girondins following a mock trial and not to jail. Hence, statement 3 is wrong.
  • Azoulay (2009) suggests that De Gouges talked about preservation of the State. However, she advocated equal rights so it is incorrect to say that she advocated different honors for state and citizens. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • This leaves us with the last option. Being an advocate of equal citizenship rights and strong supporter of female rights, it is only right to say that she declared the nation as a union of women and men. Hence, only statement 4 is correct.

Question 123

Who among the following built a model steam engine in 1698 called “Miner’s Friend” to drain mines?

  1. AOption (a)

    Thomas Savery 

  2. BOption (b)

    Thomas Newcomer

  3. COption (c)

    James Watt 

  4. DOption (d)

    Richard Arkwright 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Thomas Savery 

Why this answer is correct

Thomas Savery was an English inventor and engineer, who was born in England.

  • He invented the first commercially used steam engine in 1698, although he didn't give any illustration in his patent.
  • He described his machine in the book “The Miner’s Friend”.
  • Thomas Newcomer invented the atmospheric steam engine, a precursor of James Watt’s steam engine.
  • Richard Arkwright invented the Spinning Frame.

Question 124

Which one of the following statements about Renaissance Humanist culture is NOT true?

  1. AOption (a)

    It slackened the control of religion over human life 

  2. BOption (b)

    It believed that human nature was many-sided

  3. COption (c)

    It was concerned with good manners 

  4. DOption (d)

    It criticized material wealth, power and glory 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It was concerned with good manners 

Why this answer is correct

The term ‘Renaissance Humanist’ was derived from the program of studies called the Studia Humanitatis.

  • It talked about the loosening of control of religion over human life. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The idea believed in humans having many-sided nature. The term ‘Renaissance Man’ is often used to describe a person with many interests and skills, because many of the individuals who became well known at this time were people of many parts.
  • They were scholar-diplomat-theologian artists combined in one. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • It wasn’t concerned about good manners. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • However, it criticized power, glory, and material wealth. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Question 125

Who gave the Badshah Nama to King Georgen in 1799?

  1. AOption (a)

    Abul Fazl

  2. BOption (b)

    Abdul Hamid Lahori

  3. COption (c)

    Nawab of Awadh

  4. DOption (d)

    William Jones 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Nawab of Awadh

Why this answer is correct

In 1799, the Nawab of Awadh gifted the illustrated Badshah Nama to King George III.

  • Gifting of precious manuscripts was considered a diplomatic custom by the Mughals.
  • Since then, the gift has been preserved in the English Royal Collections at Windsor Castle.
  • In 1997 for the first time, the Badshah Nama paintings were shown in exhibitions in New Delhi, London and Washington.
  • Badshah Nama was a genre of works written as the official history of Mughal emperor, Shah Jahan.
  • It was written by Abdul Hamid Lohari.
  • Abul Fazl was the writer of Akbar Nama.
  • The Asiatic Society was founded by civil servant Sir William Jones on 15 January 1784 in Calcutta.

Question 126

What is the name of the award given to meritorious men in the Mughal Court in the form of a robe of honour that was once worn by the Emperor?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sarapa

  2. BOption (b)

    Patka

  3. COption (c)

    Padma murassa

  4. DOption (d)

    Khilat 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Khilat 

Why this answer is correct

Grand titles were adopted by the Mughal emperors at the time of coronation or after a victory over an enemy.

  • Robe of honour (khilat), was a garment once worn by the emperor and imbued with his benediction.
  • One gift, the sarapa (“head to foot”), consisted of a tunic, a turban and a sash (patka)
  • Jewelled ornaments were often given as gifts by the emperor.
  • The lotus blossom set with jewels (padma murassa) was given only in exceptional circumstances.
  • A courtier never approached the emperor empty handed: he offered either a small sum of money (nazr) or a large amount (peshkash).

Question 127

Who among the following social reformers started a society for the encouragement of widow remarriage in 1866 in Maharashtra?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bal Gangadhar Tilak

  2. BOption (b)

    Jyotirao Phule

  3. COption (c)

    Vishnushastri Pandit 

  4. DOption (d)

    Pandita Ramabai 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Vishnushastri Pandit 

Why this answer is correct

Vishnushastri Pandit established an association to further the cause of widow remarriage in 1866.

  • The association was called Punarvivah Uttejak Mandal and was established in Maharashtra.
  • He published a Marathi translation of Vidyasagar’s book in Indu Prakash in 1868.
  • Bal Gangadhar Tilak was a modern extremist leader in the National Congress who played a significant role in the Swadeshi Movement in 1905.
  • Jyotirao Phule was a prominent leader who advocated a fight against the caste system in the country.
  • Pandita Ramabai, a great scholar of Sanskrit, felt that Hinduism was oppressive towards women, and wrote a book about the miserable lives of upper-caste Hindu women.
  • She founded a widows’ home at Poona to provide shelter to widows.

Question 128

Name the first major voluntary association representing primarily Indian Landlord interests that was set up in Calcutta in 1851? 

  1. AOption (a)

    British Indian Association

  2. BOption (b)

    Landholders Society 

  3. COption (c)

    Madras Native Association

  4. DOption (d)

    Bombay Association 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

British Indian Association

Why this answer is correct

British Indian Association was created as a result of amalgamation of Landholders Society and British India Society.

  • It was established on 31st October, 1851.
  • Raja Radhakanta Deb was the President of the first committee of the organization.
  • Debendranath Tagore was its secretary.
  • Madras Native Association, the first political association in Madras presidency was founded by Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty in 1852.
  • Bombay Association was the first political organization of the Bombay Presidency which was started on 26 August 1852.

Question 129

Who among the following introduced the Permanent Settlement of Bengal in 1793?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lord Cornwallis

  2. BOption (b)

    Lord Ripon

  3. COption (c)

    Robert Clive

  4. DOption (d)

    John Adam 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Lord Cornwallis

Why this answer is correct

The Permanent Settlement was introduced in Lord Cornwallis in 1793.

  • It covered around one fifth of British territory in India, including Bengal, Bihar, Orissa, parts of Northern Karnataka, Varanasi and some other areas.
  • Zamindars, who were hitherto only collectors of revenue having no ownership of land, were given permanent hereditary rights to collect revenue.
  • Zamindars needed to pay a fixed amount of revenue on a fixed date each year to the government, failing which their land was auctioned.

Question 130

Name the rebel who fought against the British in the Battle of Chinhat in the course of the 1857 Revolt?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ahmadullah Shah 

  2. BOption (b)

    Shah Mal

  3. COption (c)

    Mangal Pandey

  4. DOption (d)

    Kunwar Singh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ahmadullah Shah 

Why this answer is correct

Barkat Ahmad on June 30th, led one of the most powerful rebel armies of 5000 soldiers with Ahmadullah Shah as his commander.

  • He fought against Henry Lawrence in Chinat, outside Lucknow.
  • The confrontation between them is known as the Battle of Chinat.
  • Henry Lawrence died as a result of the fierce battle.

Question 131

Who among the following are the two civil servants who assented the two civil servants who assisted the constituent Assembly in framing the Constitution of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    B. N Rau and K. M. Munshi 

  2. BOption (b)

    S. N. Mukherjee and Alladi Krishnaswanmy Aiyar 

  3. COption (c)

    M. N. Rau and S. N. Mukherjee

  4. DOption (d)

    K. M. Munshi and Alladi Krishanswamy Aiyar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

M. N. Rau and S. N. Mukherjee

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is M. N. Rau and S. N. Mukherjee.

  • M. N. Rau and S. N. Mukherjee are the two civil servants who assented the two civil servants who assisted the constituent Assembly in framing the Constitution of India.

Key Points

  • Sir M.N Rau and S.N Mukherjee were the civil servants who helped in the framing of the Indian Constitution.
  • B.R Ambedkar served as a Chairman of the Drafting Committee.
  • K.M Munshi from Gujarat and Alladi Krishnaswamy Aiyar from Madras were the two lawyers who were giving their crucial inputs in the drafting of the constitution.

Additional Information

  • Drafting Committee
  • The Constituent Assembly appointed a Drafting Committee on August 29, 1947.
  • Dr B.R. Ambedkar submitted a Drafting Constitution of India to the President of the Assembly on February 21, 1948.
  • The members of the Drafting Committee were N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar, Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayya, K.M. Munshi, Mohd. Saadullah, B.L. Mitter (later replaced by N. Madhava Rao), and Dr D.P. Khaitan (replaced on death by T.T. Krishnamachari).

Question 132

Which member of the Constituent Assembly proposed the resolution that the National Flag of India is a “horizontal tricolor of saffron, white and dark green in equal proportion”, with a wheel in navy blue at the centre?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jawaharlal Nehru 

  2. BOption (b)

    B. R Ambedkar 

  3. COption (c)

    Rajendra Prasad 

  4. DOption (d)

    Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Jawaharlal Nehru 

Why this answer is correct

Out of the 300 representatives in the Constituent Assembly, three were the representatives of the Congress.

  • These were Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabh Bhai Patel, and Rajendra Prasad.
  • It was Jawaharlal Nehru who moved the crucial “Objectives Resolution”, as well as the resolution proposing that the National Flag of India be a “horizontal tricolor of saffron, white and dark green in equal proportion”, with a wheel in navy blue at the centre.
  • He moved this resolution on 22nd July 1947

Question 133

Which of the following is/are NOT historical biography / biographies?

  1. Dipavamsa

  2. Harshacharita

  3. Vikramankadevacharita

  4. Prithvirajavijaya

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    2, 3 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2, 3 and 4 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 only

Why this answer is correct

Dipavamsa is one of the most important works in Pali literature.

  • It details the tooth relic and Bodhi Tree’s arrival in Sri Lanka.
  • Dipavamsa literally means the chronicle of the island and is not a historical “biography”.
  • Harshacharita was written by Banabhatta, a historical biography of Harsvardhana, the ruler from the Pushyabhuti dynasty.
  • Bilhana's Vikramankadevacharita is an account of the later Chalukyan King Vikramaditya and his victories.
  • Prithv iraja Vijaya is a Sanskrit epic poem on the life of Chahamana king Prithviraja III, believed to be composed by the Kashmiri poet Jayanaka in 1191-1192 CE.

Question 134

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

TravellerCountry from
1. Marco PoloItaly
2. Ibn BattutaMorocco
3. NikitinRussia
4. Seydi Ali ReisTurkey

 

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3 only 

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only 

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 4 only 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Why this answer is correct

All options are correctly matched.

  • Muhammad ibn Ahmad Abu Raihan al-Biruni (from Uzbekistan) - 973-1048
  • Marco Polo (from Italy) - 1254-1323
  • Ibn Battuta (from Morocco) - 1304-77
  • Abd al-Razzaq Kamal al-Din ibn Ishaq al-Samarqandi (from Samarqand) - 1413-82
  • Afanasii Nikitich Nikitin (fifteenth century, from Russia) - 1466-72
  • Duarte Barbosa, d.1521 (from Portugal) - 1518
  • Seydi Ali Reis (from Turkey) - 1562
  • Antonio Monserrate (from Spain) - 1536-1600
  • Mahmud Wali Balkhi (from Balkh) - 1626-31
  • Peter Mundy (from England) - 1600-67
  • Jean-Baptiste Tavernier (from France) - 1605-89
  • François Bernier (from France) - 1620-88

Question 135

Which of the following clans are included in the Agnikula Rajputs?

  1. Pratiharas

  2. Chalukyas

  3. Paramaras

  4. Chahamanas

Select the correct answer from the code given below;

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 3 and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 4 only 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Why this answer is correct

The four Rajput clans from Agnikula are Chalukyas, Parmaras, Pratiharas, Chauhans.

  • The Agnikula theory comes from Prithviraj.
  • It says that the forefathers of the Rajputs were born at Mount Abu.
  • Kashtriya Heroes theory says that Rajputs were descendants of Rama.
  • Some theorists like Col. James Todd says that Rajputs were of foreign origin, particularly Hunas and Sakas as they worshipped Fire, the main deity of Hunas and Shakas.

Question 136

Who among the following was the author of Humayun Nama?

  1. AOption (a)

    Roshanara Beguam 

  2. BOption (b)

    Ruquaiya Sultan Begum 

  3. COption (c)

    Gulbadan Begum 

  4. DOption (d)

    Gauhara Begum 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Gulbadan Begum 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Gulbadan Begum.

  • Gulbadan Begum was the author of Humayun Nama.

Key Points

  • Shahzadi Gulbadan Begum (c. 1523 – 1603) was a Perso-Turkic Princess, the daughter of Emperor Babur of the Mughal Empire.
  • Later, her nephew, Prince Jalal-ud-Dīn ascended the imperial throne as Emperor Akbar the Great.
  • She was also the paternal aunt of Akbar's chief consort, Empress Ruqaiya Sultan Begum.
  • She is the author of Humayun Nama, the account of the life of her half-brother, Humayun.

Additional Information

  • Humayun (1530-1540, 1555-1556):
  • Humayun was the eldest son of Babar.
  • In the Battle of Chausa, 1539 and Battle of Bilgram, 1540 (Battle of Kanauj), Humayun was defeated by Sher Khan.
  • After losing his kingdom, Humayun became an exile for the next 15 years.
  • In 1555, Humayun defeated the Afghans and recovered the Mughal Throne.
  • He died in 1556 due to his fall from the staircase of his library.
  • He loved painting and wrote poetry in the Persian language.

Question 137

Which one of the following about the Parliament of India is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Parliament consists of the President, the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha

  2. BOption (b)

    There are two nominated members in the Lok Sabha 

  3. COption (c)

    The Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved

  4. DOption (d)

    Some members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the president 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

There are two nominated members in the Lok Sabha 

Why this answer is correct

There are no nominated members to the Lok Sabha. Hence, the second statement is wrong.

  • Though the President of India is not a member of either House of Parliament and does not sit in the Parliament to attend its meetings, he is an integral part of the Parliament. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • This is because a bill passed by both the Houses of Parliament cannot become law without the President’s assent.
  • Rajya Sabha is a permanent house and doesn’t dissolve.
  • It was first constituted in 1952 and is a continuing chamber.
  • However, one-third of its members retire every second year.
  • The president nomin ates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha from people who have special knowledge or practical experience in art, literature, science, and social service

Additional Information

Question 138

Which one of the following statements with regard to the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    He is appointed by the president of India

  2. BOption (b)

    He can be removed from office in the same way as the judge of the Supreme court Of India. 

  3. COption (c)

    The CAG is eligible for further office under the Government of India after he has ceased to hold his office

  4. DOption (d)

    The salary of the CAG is charged upon the Consolidated fund of India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The CAG is eligible for further office under the Government of India after he has ceased to hold his office

Why this answer is correct

The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for an independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG).

  • He is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state, after he ceases to hold his office. Hence, option 3 is incorrect.
  • He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department.
  • He is the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the levels—the Centre and the state.
  • He holds office for a period of six years or upto the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
  • He can also be removed by the President on the same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the Supreme Court, on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.

Question 139

The Superintendence, direction and control of elections in India is vested in 

  1. AOption (a)

    The Supreme Court of India 

  2. BOption (b)

    The Parliament of India

  3. COption (c)

    The Election Commission of India 

  4. DOption (d)

    The chief Election Commissioner 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The Election Commission of India 

Why this answer is correct

The Election Commission is a permanent and independent body established by the Constitution of India directly to ensure free and fair elections in the country.

  • Article 324 of the Constitution provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to Parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of Vice President of India shall be vested in the election commission.
  • Election commission is not concerned with the elections to panchayats and municipalities in the states.
  • For this, the Constitution of India provides for a separate State Election Commission.

Question 140

Which of the following provision (s) of the constitution of India became effective from 26th November 1949?

  1. Elections

  2. Citizenship

  3. Emergency provisions

  4. Appointment of the Judges

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only 

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2, and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 4 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 2 only

Why this answer is correct

The constitution came into force on 26 January 1950 but some provisions came into immediate effect on 26th November, 1949. These include

  • Subject related to Elections. (Statement 1 is correct)
  • Subjects related to Citizenship. (Statement 2 is correct)
  • Subject related to Provisional Parliament.
  • Provision related to Election Commission (Article 324)
  • Provision related to Oath or Affirmation of the President (Article 60).

Question 141

Which of the following statements regarding construction of the Rohtang tunnel is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is located at an altitude of 5,000 feet

  2. BOption (b)

    It will provide all-year connectivity to Lahaul and Spiti Valley 

  3. COption (c)

    The tunnel is being built by the Border Roads Organization 

  4. DOption (d)

    It will reduce the length of the LehManali highway by approximately 50 km

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

It is located at an altitude of 5,000 feet

Why this answer is correct

The Rohtang tunnel is located at an altitude of approximately 10,171 ft or 3100 metres. Hence, the first statement is incorrect.

  • It has been renamed to Atal Tunnel, in the memory of the ex-Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
  • The Border Roads Organisation (BRO) develops and maintains road networks in India's border areas and friendly neighboring countries, and works under the ambit of the Ministry of Defence.
  • BRO is responsible for the construction of the tunnel.
  • The tunnel would provide all-year connectivity to Lahaul and Spiti Valleys.

Question 142

Who among the following recently became the first woman pilot in Indian Navy?

  1. AOption (a)

    Astha Segal 

  2. BOption (b)

    Roopa A

  3. COption (c)

    Sakthi Maya S

  4. DOption (d)

    Shubhangi Swaroop 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Shubhangi Swaroop 

Why this answer is correct

Shubhangi Swaroop, a native of Bareilly, Uttar Pradesh, was part of the first batch of female officers to graduate from the Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala, Kannur.

  • A biotechnology engineer from VIT, she is also a national taekwondo champion.
  • Apart from making history, this achievement also holds personal value, for she has now followed in the footsteps of her father Gyan Swaroop, a serving Naval officer.
  • Three other women cadets, Astha Segal from New Delhi, Roopa A from Puducherry and Sakthi Maya S from Kerala, also created history by becoming the country's first women officers at the Naval Armament Inspectorate (NAI) branch of the Navy.

Question 143

Who among the following Indians did NOT hold the title of Miss world?

  1. AOption (a)

    Reita Faria

  2. BOption (b)

    Sushmita Sen 

  3. COption (c)

    Diana Hayden

  4. DOption (d)

    Yukta Mookhey 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sushmita Sen 

Why this answer is correct

While Sushmita Sen has won the prestigious Miss Universe title 1994 , she has never won the Miss World title.

  • She is the first Indian woman to win the Miss Universe title.
  • Diana Hayden is the winner of Miss World 1997 pageant.
  • Yukta Mookhey is the winner of the Miss World 1999 pageant.
  • Reita Faria is a beauty pageant titleholder who won the Miss World title in 1966, making her the first Asian woman to win the event.

Question 144

Which one of the following countries has failed to qualify for the first time in 60 years for the FIFA World Cup to be held in Russia in the year 2018?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mexico 

  2. BOption (b)

    Iran 

  3. COption (c)

    Saudi Arabia

  4. DOption (d)

    Italy 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Italy 

Why this answer is correct

Italy failed to qualify for the first time since 1958 and are the only previous winners not to qualify.

  • Iran have qualified for back-to-back World Cups for the first time in their history.
  • Mexico have qualified for the World Cup the most times (16) without winning it.
  • Saudi Arabia have played in five FIFA World Cup tournaments in 1994, 1998, 2002, 2006 and 2018.

Question 145

The Defence Technology and Trade Initiative (DTTI) is a forum for dialogue on defence partnership between India and 

  1. AOption (a)

    Russia

  2. BOption (b)

    United States of America

  3. COption (c)

    Israel 

  4. DOption (d)

    France 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

United States of America

Why this answer is correct

Defence Technology Trade Initiative (DTTI) is a forum of defence partnership dialogue between India and the United States of America.

  • It came about to expedite the scope of cooperation between partner countries on defence technology that become narrow due to the presence of differing bureaucratic processes and legal requirements.
  • Essentially, DTTI is an initiative to provide increased US senior level oversight and engagement to get beyond these obstacles.
  • DTTI initiative is led by Undersecretary of Defence for Acquisition and Sustainment from US and Secretary for Defence Protection from India.
  • The aim of DTTI is to bring sustained leadership focus to the bilateral defence trade relationship and create opportunities for co-production and co-development of defence equipment.

Question 146

As per the policy applicable in 2017, how much Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is permitted in the defence sector in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    49 per cent through the automatic route

  2. BOption (b)

    26 per cent through the government route

  3. COption (c)

    26 per cent through the automatic route and beyond that up to 49 per cent through the government route

  4. DOption (d)

    75 percent through the automatic route

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

49 per cent through the automatic route

Why this answer is correct

As per the extant FDI policy, foreign investment up to 49% is permitted under the automatic route.

  • Foreign investment beyond 49% and upto 100% is permitted through Government approval, wherever it is likely to result in access to modern technology or for other reasons to be recorded.
  • FDI in the defence sector is subject to Industrial Licence under the Industries (Development & Regulation) Act, 1951.

Question 147

Which one of the following countries did NOT participate in the 21st edition of Exercise Malabar?

  1. AOption (a)

    United States of America

  2. BOption (b)

    Japan

  3. COption (c)

    India

  4. DOption (d)

    Australia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Australia

Why this answer is correct

Australia is NOT a participant of the Exercise Malabar.

  • The Malabar exercises were first established in 1992 between India and the United States, but due to tensions arising from India’s nuclearization in 1998, it became an annual feature only in 2002.
  • Japan joined the Malabar exercises as a permanent member in 2015.
  • The 21st edition of the Malabar exercises in mid-July 2017 saw 16 ships, two submarines, 95 aircraft, Marine Commandos and Special Forces from the three countries (the Quad minus Australia).
  • AUSINDEX is bilateral defense cooperation between India and Australia.
  • Australia was in talks to join the grouping in 2007, but grew because of growing discomfort of China which labelled the grouping ‘Anti-China’.

Question 148

Justice Dalveer Bhandari of India was recently re - elected to the International Court of Justice after Christopher Greenwood pulled out before the 12th round of voting. Christopher Greenwood was a nominee of

  1. AOption (a)

    Canada

  2. BOption (b)

    Russia

  3. COption (c)

    Britain

  4. DOption (d)

    USA

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Britain

Why this answer is correct

The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the highest judicial body having trans-national jurisdiction. Dalveer Bhandari, an incumbent who represented India at the ICJ has been re-elected for the second time.

  • Christopher Greenwood was the nominee of Britain/United Kingdom.
  • The U.K. wanted to end the voting and move to a conference mechanism, which involves selecting a panel of three UNGA members and three UNSC members, who would then elect the judge.
  • This mechanism has never been used before and India opposed the move.
  • This resulted in Britain withdrawing its candidate Christopher before the 12th round.

 

About ICJ

  • The International Court of Justice (ICJ) started work in 1946.
  • ICJ has its seat at The Hague, the Netherlands.
  • It has the jurisdiction to settle disputes between countries and examine cases pertaining to violation of human rights according to the tenets of international law.
  • ICJ has a total strength of 15 judges who are elected to nine-year terms of office.
  • Five of the 15 judges of the ICJ are elected every three years.

Question 149

In order to review the Income Tax Act, 1961 and to draft a new Direct Tax

Law in consonance with economic needs of the country, the Government of India in November 2017 has constituted a Task Force. Who among the following is made the convenor of it?

  1. AOption (a)

    Shri Arvind Subramanian

  2. BOption (b)

    Shri Arbind Modi

  3. COption (c)

    Shri Amitabh Kant

  4. DOption (d)

    Dr. Bibek Debroy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Shri Arbind Modi

Why this answer is correct

Income-tax Act, 1961 (the Act) was drafted more than 50 years ago and it needed to be re-drafted.

  • Accordingly, in order to review the Act and to draft a new Direct Tax Law in consonance with economic needs of the country, the Government constituted a Task Force with Arbind Modi as the convenor of it.
  • Arvind Subramanian, the Chief Economic Adviser, will be a permanent Special Invitee in the Task Force.
  • Other members include Girish Ahuja, Rajiv Memani, Mukesh Patel, Mansi Kedia, G.C. Srivastava.

Question 150

The 5th Global Conference on Cyber Space (GCCS) was held in New Delhi in November, 2017. Which of the following statements about GCCS is/are correct?

  1. The 4th version of GCCS was held in London.

  2. The main theme of GCCS 2017 is ‘Cyber4All: A Secure and Inclusive Cyberspace for Sustainable Development’.

  3. ‘Bindu’ is the logo of GCCS 2017.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The fourth Global Conference on Cyberspace (GCCS) was held in April 2015 in Hague, the Netherlands. Hence, the 1st statement is incorrect.

  • The theme for the Global Conference on Cyberspace for the 5th conference was Cyber 4 All: A Secure and Inclusive Cyberspace for Sustainable Development’. Hence, the 2nd statement is correct.
  • According to the official answer key of UPSC, Bindu is the logo of GCCS 2017 which was conducted in New Delhi. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • The first conference was held in London (2011).
  • Second conference was held in Budapest (2012).
  • Third conference was held in Seoul (2013).
  • The GCCS is a prestigious international conference that aims at encouraging dialogue among stakeholders of cyberspace.
  • The GCCS brings various stakeholders, private players, government and civil society together to encourage practical cooperation in cyberspace.

150 questions in the full paper