Previous Year Paper

NDA General Ability Test 10 Sept 2017 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2017

150 questions150 minutes
With answers
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General Ability Test (150 questions)

Question 1

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four options. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

The discussion was wound up after a long and fruitful exchange of views.

  1. AOption (a)

    postponed

  2. BOption (b)

    cut short

  3. COption (c)

    interrupted

  4. DOption (d)

    concluded

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

concluded

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "concluded"

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the word in the question:
  • **Wound up-**Refers to something that is brought to an end
  • Look at the meaning of the select option:
  • Concluded: Refers to something that is brought to an end
  • Look at the example:
  • The seminar was concluded on a very light note.
  • Thus, it is clear that 'wound up' and 'concluded' are similar words.
  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Postponed: Refers to the act of delaying something from its set time
  • Cut short: Refers to something that is brought to an abrupt end
  • Interrupted: Refers to someone being stopped from doing something in between

Hence, the correct answer is Option 4.

Question 2

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four options. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

He was fully alive to the need for making adjustments.

  1. AOption (a)

    concerned about

  2. BOption (b)

    worried about

  3. COption (c)

    aware of

  4. DOption (d)

    indifferent about

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

aware of

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "aware of"

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given word in the question:
  • Alive to: Refers to someone being aware of something
  • Let's look at the meaning of the selected word:
  • Aware of: Refers to someone who is familiar with something
  • Look at the following example:
  • The cub scouts were aware of the dangers of hiking*.*
  • Thus, it is clear that 'alive to ' and 'aware is' are similar terms.
  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Concerned about: Refers to someone who is worried about something
  • Worried about: Refers to someone who cares for and is anxious about something
  • Indifferent about: Refers to someone who does not care about anything

Hence, the correct answer: aware of

Question 3

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four options. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

The police officer tried to intimidate the witness but in vain.

  1. AOption (a)

    inform

  2. BOption (b)

    reward

  3. COption (c)

    frighten

  4. DOption (d)

    persuade

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

frighten

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'frighten'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Intimidate' means to frighten or threaten somebody. (किसी को डराना या धमकाना)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Inform' means to give somebody information about something. (किसी को किसी के विषय में सूचना देना)
  • 'Reward' means to give something to somebody in recognition of service, effort, or achievement. (किसी को अच्‍छा काम करने, परिश्रम करने आदि के लिए पुरस्‍कार देना)
  • 'Frighten' means to make someone afraid or shocked. (किसी व्‍यक्ति या वस्‍तु को भयभीत कर देना या सदमा पहुँचाना)
  • 'Persuade' means to make somebody do something by giving good reasons. (समझा-बुझाकर किसी को काम के लिए राज़ी करना, मनाना)

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Intimidate' are "frighten, horrify, scare".
  • The antonyms of the word 'Intimidate' are "persuade, encourage, cheer".
  • Example of 'Frighten' in a sentence:
  • He tried to frighten me by showing me a knife.

Question 4

Directions**: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four options. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.**

We must adopt drastic measures to control population growth.

  1. AOption (a)

    simple

  2. BOption (b)

    dramatic

  3. COption (c)

    realistic

  4. DOption (d)

    severe

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

severe

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'severe'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Drastic' means extreme, and having a sudden very strong effect. (अत्‍यधिक और भरपूर असरदार, उग्र, प्रचंड)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Simple' means not difficult or complicated. (कठिन या जटिल नहीं, सरल)
  • 'Dramatic' means noticeable or sudden and often surprising. (ध्यान देने योग्य या अचानक और अक्सर आश्चर्यजनक)
  • 'Realistic' means representing things in a way that is accurate and true to life. (चीजों का इस तरह से प्रतिनिधित्व करना जो जीवन के लिए सटीक और सत्य हो)
  • 'Severe' means extremely bad or serious. (बहुत कठिन, कष्‍टप्रद या गंभीर)

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Drastic' are "severe, radical, serious".
  • The antonyms of the word 'Drastic' are "calm, easy, mild".
  • Example of 'Severe' in a sentence:
  • He developed a severe migraine headache.

Question 5

Directions**: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four options. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.**

He is extremely meticulous in his approach.

  1. AOption (a)

    simple

  2. BOption (b)

    careful

  3. COption (c)

    fair

  4. DOption (d)

    reasonable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

careful

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'careful'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Meticulous' means giving or showing great attention to detail; very careful. (बहुत सतर्क, अति सावधान)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Simple' means easy to understand; not difficult or complicated. (समझने में आसान; सरल)
  • 'Careful' means giving a lot of attention to details to be sure something is right. (ध्यानपूर्ण, सावधानी से किया गया)
  • 'Fair' means appropriate and acceptable in a particular situation. (उचित, सही)
  • 'Reasonable' means fair, practical, and sensible. (उचित व्‍यवहार और विवेकपूर्ण)

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Meticulous' are "careful, cautious, attentive".
  • The antonyms of the word 'Meticulous' are "careless, inattentive, incautious".
  • Example of 'Careful' in a sentence:
  • Health problems can be significantly reduced by careful diet.

Question 6

Directions**: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four options. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.**

The experts' minute examination brought to light some important clues.

  1. AOption (a)

    quick

  2. BOption (b)

    infinitesimal

  3. COption (c)

    superficial

  4. DOption (d)

    prolonged

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

infinitesimal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'infinitesimal'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Minute' means very small. (अति सूक्ष्‍म, अत्यंत छोटा)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Quick' means doing something at speed or in a short time. (तेज़ी से या तुरंत कुछ करते हुए)
  • 'Infinitesimal' means extremely small. (अत्यंत छोटा)
  • 'Superficial' means not caring about serious or important things. (गंभीर या महत्वपूर्ण बातों की परवाह न करना)
  • 'Prolonged' means continuing for a long time. (लंबी अवधि तक रहने वाला)

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Minute' are "brief, compact, short".
  • The antonyms of the word 'Minute' are "large​, huge, enormous".
  • Example of 'Infinitesimal' in a sentence:
  • Even an infinitesimal change in temperature will be recorded by the equipment.

Question 7

Directions**: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four options. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.**

The decision of the Union Government to repeal the Urban Land Ceiling Act has been welcomed by all.

  1. AOption (a)

    suppress

  2. BOption (b)

    amend

  3. COption (c)

    cancel

  4. DOption (d)

    withhold

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

cancel

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'cancel'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Repeal' means to officially make law no longer valid. (किसी क़ानून को औपचारिक रूप से रद्द करना)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Suppress' means to stop something by using force. (बल के प्रयोग से किसी को शांत कर देना)
  • 'Amend' means to change something slightly in order to make it better. (बेहतर बनाने के लिए ज़रा-सा सुधारना)
  • 'Cancel' means to stop something that you asked for or agreed to. (पूर्व कृत आरक्षण, आदेश आदि को रद्द करना)
  • 'Withhold' means to refuse to give something to somebody. (देने से इनकार कर देना)

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Repeal' are "cancel, abandon, abort".
  • The antonyms of the word 'Repeal' are "continue, keep, start".
  • Example of 'Cancel' in a sentence:
  • His secretary was instructed to cancel all his engagements.

Question 8

Directions**: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four options. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.**

This is his maiden appearance on the screen.

  1. AOption (a)

    first

  2. BOption (b)

    last

  3. COption (c)

    girlish

  4. DOption (d)

    shy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

first

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'first'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Maiden' means being or involving the first attempt or act of its kind. (अपनी तरह का पहला प्रयास या कार्य होना या शामिल होना)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'First' means for the first time. (पहली बार)
  • 'Last' means at the end; after all the others. (अंतिम; सबके बाद, अंत में)
  • 'Girlish' means looking, sounding, or behaving like a girl. (लड़की जैसा दीखने, लगने या आचरणवाला)
  • 'Shy' means nervous and uncomfortable about meeting and speaking to people. (संकोची, शरमीला)

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Maiden' are "first, inaugural, earliest".
  • The antonyms of the word 'Maiden' are "final, last, late".
  • Example of 'First' in a sentence:
  • He played his first match at Chelsea in front of the TV cameras.

Question 9

Directions**: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four options. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.**

At the end of the marathon, everybody was exhausted.

  1. AOption (a)

    weakened

  2. BOption (b)

    honoured

  3. COption (c)

    satisfied

  4. DOption (d)

    tired

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

tired

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'tired'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Exhausted' means very tired. (बहुत थका हुआ; चकनाचूर)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Weakened' means to become weaker in power or physical strength. (कमज़ोर हो जाना)
  • 'Honoured' means regarded with great respect. (किसी व्‍यक्ति या वस्‍तु के प्रति विशेष सम्‍मान प्रदर्शित करना)
  • 'Satisfied' means pleased because you have had or done what you wanted. (अभीष्‍ट काम को संपन्‍न करने या वस्‍तु को प्राप्‍त करने पर प्रसन्‍न; संतुष्‍ट)
  • 'Tired' means feeling that you need to rest or sleep. (थका हुआ)

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Exhausted' are "tired, drained, fatigued".
  • The antonyms of the word 'Exhausted' are "relaxed, active, energetic".
  • Example of 'Tired' in a sentence:
  • My legs were tired after so much walking.

Question 10

Directions**: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four options. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.**

He gave me a counterfeit coin.

  1. AOption (a)

    rare

  2. BOption (b)

    fake

  3. COption (c)

    unmatured

  4. DOption (d)

    inferior

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

fake

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'fake'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Counterfeit' means not genuine, but copied so that it looks like the real thing. (जाली, नक़ली, प्रतिलिपि के रूप में)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Rare' means not done, seen, happening, etc. very often. (बहुत कम किया जाने, दिखने या होने वाला)
  • 'Fake' means a thing that is not genuine. (जाली, नक़ली)
  • 'Unmatured' means not yet fully grown or developed. (अभी तक पूरी तरह विकसित या परिपक्व नहीं होना)
  • 'Inferior' means low or lower in social position, importance, quality, etc. (घटिया, निकृष्‍ट)

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Counterfeit' are "fake, false, inauthentic".
  • The antonyms of the word 'Counterfeit' are "authentic, genuine, real".
  • Example of 'Fake' in a sentence:
  • He was charged with possessing a fake passport.

Question 11

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.**

My mother has been working hard for the last two weeks and she feels run-down.

  1. AOption (a)

    morbid

  2. BOption (b)

    energetic

  3. COption (c)

    exhausted

  4. DOption (d)

    emotional

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

energetic

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'energetic'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Run-down' means very tired and not healthy. (बहुत थका हुआ और बीमार-सा)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Morbid' means showing interest in unpleasant things. (अप्रिय वस्‍तुओं में रुचि रखने वाला)
  • 'Energetic' means full of or needing energy and enthusiasm. (शक्ति व उमंग संपन्‍न, ऊर्जायुक्त, कर्मठ)
  • 'Exhausted' means very tired. (बहुत थका हुआ; चकनाचूर)
  • 'Emotional' means causing strong feelings. (भावुक)

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the word 'Run-down' are "energetic, healthy, strong".
  • The synonyms of the word 'Run-down' are "exhausted, weak, sick".
  • Example of 'Energetic' in a sentence:
  • He is an energetic boy; he enjoys sports.

Question 12

Directions**: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.**

The President condemned the act of violence during the celebration of the festival.

  1. AOption (a)

    reason

  2. BOption (b)

    instigation

  3. COption (c)

    restraint

  4. DOption (d)

    sobriety

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

sobriety

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'sobriety'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Violence' means behavior involving physical force intended to hurt, damage, or kill someone or something. (किसी को या किसी चीज़ को चोट पहुँचाने, क्षति पहुँचाने या मारने के इरादे से शारीरिक बल से जुड़ा व्यवहार)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Reason' means a cause, explanation, or justification for an action or event. (किसी क्रिया या घटना का कारण, स्पष्टीकरण या औचित्य)
  • 'Instigation' means the action or process of instigating an action or event. (किसी घटना को भड़काने की क्रिया या प्रक्रिया)
  • 'Restraint' means a limit or control on something. (किसी पर प्रतिबंध या नियंत्रण)
  • 'Sobriety' means the quality of being serious and sensible. (गंभीर एवं समझदार)

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the word 'Violence' are "sobriety, nonviolence, pacificism".
  • The synonyms of the word 'Violence' are "rage, riot, rampage".
  • Example of 'Sobriety' in a sentence:
  • She was a model of sobriety and honesty.

Question 13

Directions**: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.**

The student made a generous contribution to the flood relief fund.

  1. AOption (a)

    niggardly

  2. BOption (b)

    selfish

  3. COption (c)

    spendthrift

  4. DOption (d)

    indecent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

niggardly

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'niggardly.'

Key Points

  • The given word 'generous' means happy to give more money, help, etc. than is usual or expected. (असामान्‍य या अप्रत्‍याशित रूप से धन, सहायता आदि देने में प्रसन्‍नता अनुभव करने वाला)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Niggardly' means ungenerous with money, time, etc.; mean. (पैसे, समय, आदि के साथ अनैतिक; लालची)
  • 'Selfish' means thinking only about your own needs or wishes and not about other people’s. (स्‍वार्थी, ख़ुदग़रज़)
  • 'Spendthrift' means a person who spends a lot of money carelessly or wastes money. (लापरवाही से पैसे ख़र्च करनेवाला; फ़िज़ूलख़र्च)
  • 'Indecent' means not appropriate or fitting. (अशोभनीय, अश्‍लील)

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the word 'generous' are "niggardly, selfish, cheap".
  • The synonyms of the word 'generous' are "extravagant, lavish, kind".
  • Example of 'generous​' in a sentence:
  • They made a generous donation to charity.

Question 14

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

He was just idle by temperament.

  1. AOption (a)

    Employed

  2. BOption (b)

    Indolent

  3. COption (c)

    Industrious

  4. DOption (d)

    Happy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Industrious

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Industrious

Let's look at the meaning of the given options-

Idle: Refers to someone who is inactive or has nothing to do

Industrious: Refers to someone who is very hard working

Thus, it is clear that 'Idle' and 'Industrious' express the opposite meaning

Let's look at the meaning of other words:

  • Employed: Refers to someone who has a job
  • Indolent: wanting to avoid activity or exertion; lazy
  • Happy: Refers to someone who feels joy

 

Thus, the correct answer is option 3

Question 15

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Most of the decisions taken by the officer were unjust.

  1. AOption (a)

    serious

  2. BOption (b)

    lenient

  3. COption (c)

    correct

  4. DOption (d)

    imbecile

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

correct

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. correct.

Unjust: Refers to something that is unfair or biased

Correct: Refers to something that is fair and impartial

For e.g. The decision to punish the culprits with jail time was correct.

Thus, it is clear that 'unjust' and 'correct' are opposite words.

Let's look at the meaning of other words:

  • Serious: Refers to something that is characterized by careful consideration
  • Lenient: Refers to someone who is more merciful than expected
  • Imbecile: Refers to someone who is stupid

 

Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

Question 16

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

He is a loving father and takes great delight in his children.

  1. AOption (a)

    revolt

  2. BOption (b)

    dissatisfaction

  3. COption (c)

    enjoyment

  4. DOption (d)

    disgust

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

disgust

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is ''disgust"

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given word:
  • Delight**:** refers to something that greatly pleases someone or causes great pleasure
  • Let's look at the meaning of the selected word:
  • Disgust: refers to something that causes strong disapproval or revulsion in someone
  • Look at the example:
  • The condition of the poor in India disgusts most tourists.
  • Thus, it is clear that 'delight' and 'disgust' are opposite words.
  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Revolt: Refers to taking violent action against something
  • Dissatisfaction: Refers to a lack of satisfaction
  • Enjoyment: Refers to the act of taking pleasure in something

Hence, the correct answer is disgust

Question 17

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

He was quite concerned about his son's career.

  1. AOption (a)

    unrelated

  2. BOption (b)

    indifferent

  3. COption (c)

    dispassionate

  4. DOption (d)

    carefree

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

indifferent

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. indifferent.

Concerned: Refers to someone who cares and is worried about something

Indifferent: Refers to someone who does not care and is not affected by something

For e.g. The children were quite indifferent to the bugs in the tent.

Thus, it is clear that 'concerned' and 'indifferent' are opposite words.

Let's look at the meaning of other words:

  • Unrelated: Refers to things that are not linked to each other
  • Dispassionate: Refers to someone who is not influenced by strong emotion
  • Carefree: Refers to someone who is free from responsibility

 

Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

Question 18

Directions**: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.**

They are confident of success.

  1. AOption (a)

    imprudent

  2. BOption (b)

    impatient

  3. COption (c)

    diffident

  4. DOption (d)

    reluctant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

diffident

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'diffident'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Confident' means feeling or showing certainty about something. (आत्‍मविश्‍वासी; स्‍वयं की योग्‍यताओं, विचारों पर विश्‍वस्‍त)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Imprudent' means not showing care for the consequences of an action. (किसी कार्रवाई के परिणामों की परवाह नहीं करना)
  • 'Impatient' means having or showing a tendency to be quickly irritated or provoked. (जल्दी चिढ़ने या उत्तेजित होने की प्रवृत्ति होना या दिखाना)
  • 'Diffident' means not having confidence in your own strengths or abilities. (अपनी शक्ति या योग्‍यता में विश्‍वास न रखने वाला; आत्‍मविश्‍वासहीन)
  • 'Reluctant' means unwilling and hesitant. (अनिच्छुक और हिचकिचाहट)

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the word 'Confident' are "diffident, insecure, self-doubting".
  • The synonyms of the word 'Confident' are "assured, secure, hopeful".
  • Example of 'Diffident' in a sentence:
  • He is diffident about expressing his opinions in the public.

Question 19

Directions**: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.**

We carried on the search for the missing person.

  1. AOption (a)

    delayed

  2. BOption (b)

    reconsidered

  3. COption (c)

    broke up

  4. DOption (d)

    called off

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

called off

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'called off'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Carried on' means continued activity or task. (निरंतर गतिविधि या कार्य)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Delayed' means to make somebody or something slow or late. (किसी को देर करवा देना)
  • 'Reconsidered' means to think again about something. (पुनःविचार करना)
  • 'Broke up' means to end or finish. (समाप्‍त होना)
  • 'Called off' means to cancel an event or agreement. (किसी घटना या समझौते को रद्द करना)

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the word 'Carried on' are "called off, gave up, quit".
  • The synonyms of the word 'Carried on' are "persevered, persisted, kept up".
  • Example of 'Called off' in a sentence:
  • The search was called off for the sailors who disappeared in the storm.

Question 20

Directions**: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word/words followed by four options. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word/words and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.**

This T.V. has many indigenous components.

  1. AOption (a)

    Indian

  2. BOption (b)

    foreign

  3. COption (c)

    unnatural

  4. DOption (d)

    genuine

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

foreign

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'foreign'.

Key Points

  • The word 'Indigenous' means belonging to a particular place by birth or origin; native. (स्‍वदेशी, स्‍थानीय)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Indian' means a person from the Republic of India. (भारत का व्‍यक्ति; भारतीय)
  • 'Foreign' means belonging to or connected with a country that is not your own. (स्‍वदेश से भिन्‍न देश का या उससे संबंधित; विदेशी)
  • 'Unnatural' means different from what is normal or expected. (अस्‍वाभाविक या अप्रत्‍याशित)
  • 'Genuine' means real; true. (वास्‍तविक; असली)

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the word 'Indigenous' are "foreign, immigrant, alien".
  • The synonyms of the word 'Indigenous' are "local, regional, native".
  • Example of 'Foreign' in a sentence:
  • Spain was the first foreign country she had visited.

Directions: In the following passage, at certain points, you are given a choice of four words marked (a), (b), (c) and (d), one of which fits the meaning of the passage. Choose the best word out of the four. Mark the letter, viz., (a), (b), (c) or (d), relating to this word on your Answer Sheet. Examples K and L have been solved for you. 

The 

K - (a) boy was in the school in Shimla. (b) horse (c) dog (d) cow

L - (a) She was homesick (b) It (c) He (d) Her

Explanation: Out of the list given in item K, only, 'boy' is the correct answer because usually, a boy, and not a horse, a dog or a cow, attends school. So '(a)' is to be marked on the Answer Sheet for item K. A boy is usually referred to as 'he', so for item L, `(c)' is the correct answer. Notice that to solve the first item K you have to read the rest of the sentence and then see what fits best.

Passage:

After this incident I went to Nainital, and returned after nearly a month. I had (1)._________ taken (2)._____ my clothes when I saw Gangu standing (3)._________ a new baby. He was (4)._________ with joy. Even Nanda (5).__________ not have (6).__________ such joy (7).__________ getting Krishna. His face had the same (8).___________ that (9).________ on the face of a (10)._________ man after a full meal.

Question 21

After this incident I went to Nainital, and returned after nearly a month. I had (1)________

  1. AOption (a)

    hardly

  2. BOption (b)

    barely

  3. COption (c)

    merely

  4. DOption (d)

    rarely

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

barely

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "barely".

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given words.
  • Hardly: scarcely or almost not.
  • Barely: by the smallest amount or just.
  • Merely: used to emphasize that you mean exactly what you are saying and nothing more.
  • Rarely: on very few occasions; almost never.
  • As per the meaning of the given words, "barely" is the appropriate word choice for the blank.
  • The meaning of the given sentence is that the speaker had just taken off his clothes.
  • So the adverb "barely" fits the given blank.
  • As per the meaning of the given adverbs hardly, merely, and rarely don't go with the sentence.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

The complete passage is: After this incident I went to Nainital, and returned after nearly a month. I had (1)barely taken (2)off my clothes when I saw Gangu standing (3).near a new baby. He was (4). jumping with joy. Even Nanda (5). could not have (6).felt such joy (7).on getting Krishna. His face had the same (8)glow that (9).appears on the face of a (10)starving man after a full meal.

 Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

Question 22

taken (2)__________

  1. AOption (a)

    out

  2. BOption (b)

    away

  3. COption (c)

    off

  4. DOption (d)

    on

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

off

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "off".

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given phrasal verbs.
  • Take off: remove clothing from one's or another's body.
  • Take away: a key fact, point, or idea to be remembered, typically one emerging from a discussion or meeting.
  • Take out: relieve frustration or anger by attacking or mistreating a person or thing not responsible for such feelings.
  • Take on: be willing or ready to meet an adversary or opponent.
  • ​As per the meaning of the given words, the phrasal verb "take off" is the appropriate word choice for the blank.
  • The meaning of the given sentence is that the speaker had just removed his clothes. So we need to use the preposition "off" in the blank with the verb "take" to make the phrasal verb "take off".

Hence, the correct answer is option 3.

The complete passage is: After this incident I went to Nainital, and returned after nearly a month. I had (1)barely taken (2)off my clothes when I saw Gangu standing (3).near a new baby. He was (4). jumping with joy. Even Nanda (5). could not have (6).felt such joy (7).on getting Krishna. His face had the same (8)glow that (9).appears on the face of a (10)starving man after a full meal.

Question 23

my clothes when I saw Ganga standing (3)__________

  1. AOption (a)

    by

  2. BOption (b)

    near

  3. COption (c)

    with

  4. DOption (d)

    at

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

near

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. near.

Key Points

  • The statement mentions the verb 'standing' and one cannot be standing 'by'.
  • According to the next sentence - a newborn baby, one cannot stand 'with' a newborn baby.
  • As a newborn baby can not stand by itself - and one cannot stand 'at' a newborn baby - one can stand at a location, not a person.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

The complete passage is: After this incident I went to Nainital, and returned after nearly a month. I had (1)barely taken (2)off my clothes when I saw Gangu standing (3).near a new baby. He was (4). jumping with joy. Even Nanda (5). could not have (6).felt such joy (7).on getting Krishna. His face had the same (8)glow that (9).appears on the face of a (10)starving man after a full meal.

Question 24

a new baby. He was (4)___________

  1. AOption (a)

    jumping

  2. BOption (b)

    bursting

  3. COption (c)

    dancing

  4. DOption (d)

    singing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

jumping

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. jumping.

Key Points

  • The idiom goes 'to jump with joy', which means to have so much happiness that it is uncontrollable.
  • One cannot 'burst' - this is usually associated with a negative feeling.
  • Or 'sing' - one sings for joy, not with joy.
  • Or 'dance'  - one dances for joy, not with joy.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

The complete passage is: After this incident I went to Nainital, and returned after nearly a month. I had (1)barely taken (2)off my clothes when I saw Gangu standing (3).near a new baby. He was (4). jumping with joy. Even Nanda (5). could not have (6).felt such joy (7).on getting Krishna. His face had the same (8)glow that (9).appears on the face of a (10)starving man after a full meal.

Question 25

with joy. Even Nanda (5)__________

  1. AOption (a)

    could not have

  2. BOption (b)

    would not have

  3. COption (c)

    should not have

  4. DOption (d)

    ought not have

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

could not have

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. could not have.

Key Points

  • The sentence is in the present tense as the entire passage is in the present tense.
  • Thus, 'would not have' is not an option since it is in the past tense.
  • 'Should not have' represents a condition that is not applicable to the sentence.
  • 'Ought not have' is not grammatically correct and thus cannot be the answer.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 1.

The complete passage is: After this incident I went to Nainital, and returned after nearly a month. I had (1)barely taken (2)off my clothes when I saw Gangu standing (3).near a new baby. He was (4). jumping with joy. Even Nanda (5). could not have (6).felt such joy (7).on getting Krishna. His face had the same (8)glow that (9).appears on the face of a (10)starving man after a full meal.

Question 26

such joy (6)_________

  1. AOption (a)

    experimented

  2. BOption (b)

    shown

  3. COption (c)

    felt

  4. DOption (d)

    heard

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

felt

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. felt.

Key Points

  • The sentence refers to 'joy', joy is a feeling that cannot be 'experimented', it cannot be 'heard'.
  • Thus, these two options are not applicable.
  • While 'joy' can be 'shown', the sentence refers to the 'feeling' of joy.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

The complete passage is: After this incident I went to Nainital, and returned after nearly a month. I had (1)barely taken (2)off my clothes when I saw Gangu standing (3).near a new baby. He was (4). jumping with joy. Even Nanda (5). could not have (6).felt such joy (7).on getting Krishna. His face had the same (8)glow that (9).appears on the face of a (10)starving man after a full meal.

Question 27

(7)______ getting Krishna.

  1. AOption (a)

    at

  2. BOption (b)

    in

  3. COption (c)

    on

  4. DOption (d)

    into

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

on

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. on.

Key Points

  • One cannot get joy 'at' something.
  • One cannot get 'in' joy and one cannot get 'into' joy.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

The complete passage is: After this incident I went to Nainital, and returned after nearly a month. I had (1)barely taken (2)off my clothes when I saw Gangu standing (3).near a new baby. He was (4). jumping with joy. Even Nanda (5). could not have (6).felt such joy (7).on getting Krishna. His face had the same (8)glow that (9).appears on the face of a (10)starving man after a full meal.

Question 28

His face had the same (8)___________

  1. AOption (a)

    light

  2. BOption (b)

    glow

  3. COption (c)

    sense

  4. DOption (d)

    hope

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

glow

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "glow".

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given words.
  • ​light: the natural agent that stimulates sight and makes things visible.
  • glow: (of a person's face) appear pink or red as a result of warmth, health, embarrassment, etc.
  • sense: a keen intuitive awareness of or sensitivity to the presence or importance of something.
  • hope: a feeling of expectation and desire for a particular thing to happen.
  • As per the meaning of the given words, "glow" is the appropriate word choice for the blank.
  • The meaning of the given sentence is that the person's face had a warm and healthy look as that of a starving man who had a full meal.
  • The noun "glow" is suitable to describe the warm and healthy look on the person's face.

Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

The complete passage is: After this incident I went to Nainital, and returned after nearly a month. I had (1)barely taken (2)off my clothes when I saw Gangu standing (3).near a new baby. He was (4). jumping with joy. Even Nanda (5). could not have (6).felt such joy (7).on getting Krishna. His face had the same (8)glow that (9).appears on the face of a (10)starving man after a full meal.

Question 29

that (9)__________

  1. AOption (a)

    comes

  2. BOption (b)

    appears

  3. COption (c)

    rises

  4. DOption (d)

    shows

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

appears

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. appears.

Key Points

  • The 'glow' on a person's face cannot 'come' - it is not in a separate location where it can come from.
  • It cannot 'rise' - a glow is not at a prefixed position where it can rise from - and it cannot 'show' - it 'appears' and thus the correct answer is 'appears'.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

The complete passage is: After this incident I went to Nainital, and returned after nearly a month. I had (1)barely taken (2)off my clothes when I saw Gangu standing (3).near a new baby. He was (4). jumping with joy. Even Nanda (5). could not have (6).felt such joy (7).on getting Krishna. His face had the same (8)glow that (9).appears on the face of a (10)starving man after a full meal.

Question 30

on the face of a (10)_______ man after a full meal

  1. AOption (a)

    starve

  2. BOption (b)

    starving

  3. COption (c)

    hunger

  4. DOption (d)

    satisfaction

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

starving

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "starving".

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given words:
  • starve: suffer or die or cause to suffer or die from hunger.
  • starving: suffering or dying from hunger.
  • hunger: a feeling of discomfort or weakness caused by a lack of food, coupled with the desire to eat.
  • satisfaction: fulfillment of one's wishes, expectations, needs, or the pleasure derived from this.
  • ​As per the meaning of the given words, "starving" is the appropriate word choice for the blank.
  • The meaning of the sentence is that the person's face had a glow which resembles someone who has experienced hunger for some time and then eats a full meal.
  • The adjective "starving" is appropriate to describe the face of a person who has experienced hunger.

Thus, the correct answer is option 2. 

The complete passage is: After this incident I went to Nainital, and returned after nearly a month. I had (1)barely taken (2)off my clothes when I saw Gangu standing (3).near a new baby. He was (4). jumping with joy. Even Nanda (5). could not have (6).felt such joy (7).on getting Krishna. His face had the same (8)glow that (9).appears on the face of a (10)starving man after a full meal.

Question 31

Directions

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the pans of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

The spirit of man

P. has slowly and painfully surmounted

Q. and his growing intelligence

R. all the obstacles that have come in his way

S. has faced all kinds of dangers

  1. AOption (a)

    Q P S R

  2. BOption (b)

    S Q P R

  3. COption (c)

    R P Q S

  4. DOption (d)

    P R Q S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

P R Q S

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "PRQS".

Key Points

  • Let's look at the correct sequence of the sentence.
  • The passage begins with an introduction to the topic at hand - the human spirit.
  • Statement P is the first part of the sentence after the opening sentence which talks about how the human spirit has slowly and painfully surmounted.
  • Statement R is the second part of the sentence which continues the previous statement and states "all the obstacles that have come his way".
  • Statement Q is the third part of the sentence which talks about how the growing intelligence of man has faced all kinds of dangers.
  • Statement S is the last part of the sentence that talks about the result of all that happened in the passage above - man's intelligence has now faced all kinds of danger.

The complete sentence is: The spirit of man has slowly and painfully surmounted all the obstacles that have come in his way and his growing intelligence has faced all kinds of dangers

Thus, the correct answer is option 4.

Question 32

Directions

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the pans of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

After our school boys had won a well-contested hockey match

P. so that they might communicate the news of their victory to the headmaster

Q. who is a keen sportsman

R. they came to school in high spirits

S. and takes a very lively interest in school games

  1. AOption (a)

    Q P S R

  2. BOption (b)

    S Q P R

  3. COption (c)

    R P Q S

  4. DOption (d)

    P R Q S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

R P Q S

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. RPQS.

Key Points

  • The passage begins with an introduction to the topic - the boys of a school winning a well-contested hockey match.
  • This is followed by what comes after the win in statement R - the schoolboys came to school in very high spirits, in order to - according to statement P - communicate the news of their win to their headmaster, who according to statement Q, is a keen sportsman.
  • Then comes the final statement - S - which talks about how the headmaster takes a keen interest in school games.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct sentence is: They came to school in high spirits so that they might communicate the news of their victory to the headmaster who is a keen sportsman and takes a very lively interest in school games.

Question 33

Directions

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the pans of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

Even a leisurely game like cricket.

P. demanding grace rather than strength

Q. and over the rough tactics of the Australian team that visited England in 1921

R. as we saw in the controversy over body-line bowling

S. can cause much ill-will

  1. AOption (a)

    P S R Q

  2. BOption (b)

    R S P Q

  3. COption (c)

    S R Q P

  4. DOption (d)

    Q P R S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

S R Q P

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "SRPQ".

Key Points

  • Let's look at the correct sequence of the sentence:
  • The passage begins with a statement that introduces the topic at hand - the game of cricket.
  • Sentence S is the first part of the sentence after the opening sentence which talks about how a leisurely game like cricket can cause much ill will. The given sentence is a general opinion about the game. Opening sentences begin with a general opinion about a topic.
  • Sentence R is the second part of the sentence which talks about a specific example - the controversy over body-line bowling.
  • Sentence Q  is the third part of the sentence which talks about the specific incident of the rough tactics of the Australian team that visited England in 1921
  • Sentence P is the final part of the sentence as it draws the conclusion from the two previous instances that the game of cricket demands grace rather than strength. We can also see a progression of thought from general to specific to a conclusion.

The correct sentence is: Even a leisurely game like cricket can cause much ill will as we saw in the controversy over body-line bowling and over the rough tactics of the Australian team that visited England in 1921 demanding grace rather than strength.

Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

Question 34

Directions

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

Scientists point out

P. of sunspot activity

Q. that it is an aftermath that

R. has now reached its peak

S. of the eleven-year cycle

  1. AOption (a)

    R S P Q

  2. BOption (b)

    P Q S R

  3. COption (c)

    Q R P S

  4. DOption (d)

    Q S P R

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Q R P S

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "QRPS".

Key Points

  • Let's look at the correct sequence of the sentence.
  • The passage begins with an introduction to the passage - something that scientists found out.
  • Sentence Q is the first part of the sentence after the opening sentence which talks about what has been found - the aftermath.
  • Sentence R is the second part of the sentence as it talks about the aftermath has reached its peak.
  • Sentence P is the third part of the sentence where it is made clear that we are discussing the sunspot activity.
  • Statement S  is the final statement that refers to the sunspot activity having reached its eleven-year cycle.

The correct sentence is: Scientists point out that it is an aftermath that has now reached its peak of sunspot activity of the eleven-year cycle.

Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

Question 35

Directions

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

As the ship streams from San Diego

P. as walls of gray water from a distant storm in the North Pacific

Q. making the greener among us miserable with seasickness

R. rock and toss the ship

S. those of us aboard have a personal demonstration of powerful ocean movement

  1. AOption (a)

    P Q R S

  2. BOption (b)

    S R P Q

  3. COption (c)

    S P R Q

  4. DOption (d)

    Q S R P

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

S P R Q

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "S P R Q"

Key Points

  • Let's look at the correct sequence of the sentence.
  • The passage begins with an introduction to the topic at hand, a ship that is streaming from San Diego.
  • Sentence S is the first part of the sentence after the opening sentence which talks about those who are on board the ship and have had a powerful demonstration of the power of the ocean movements.
  • Sentence P is the second part of the sentence after the opening sentence describes the ocean movements in detail - walls of gray water from a storm in the North Pacific. This sentence is a cause of the ocean movement..
  • Sentence R is the third part of the sentence which talks about how the ocean movements of walls of gray water from a storm in the North Pacific rocked and tossed the ship The given sentence shows the effect of the previous sentence. As walls of gray water from a distant storm in the North Pacific rock and toss the ship.
  • Sentence Q  is the final sentence that talks about the consequences of the rocking of the ship that made the people aboard become seasick.

The complete sentence is: As the ship streams from San Diego S. those of us aboard have a personal demonstration of powerful ocean movement P. as walls of gray water from a distant storm in the North Pacific R. rock and toss the ship Q. making the greener among us miserable with seasickness.

Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

Question 36

Directions

Each item in this section has a sentence with four options labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error  and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) An electrical circuit

(b) is the complete path

(c) traversed by electric current.

(d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(c)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. c.

Key Points

  • The sentence refers to an 'electric circuit' which is traversed by an 'electric current'.
  • A noun needs to have an article before it.
  • Thus, the article 'an' needs to be added before 'electric current' in the sentence as 'electric' starts with a vowel sound.

Thus, the correct answer is option 3. 

The correct sentence is: An electrical circuit is the complete path traversed by an electric current.

Additional Information

  • A or an is called the Indefinite article.
  • Before a word beginning with a vowel sound, an is used.
  • Before a word beginning with a consonant sound, a is used.
  • The is called the Definite article.

Question 37

Directions

Each item in this section has a sentence with three options labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) He waved us a bye-bye

(b) as he boarded the train

(c) which disappeared into the tunnel

(d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(d)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. d.

Key Points

  • There are no errors in the sentence.
  • 'Waved' verb in part (a) shows that the sentence is in past tense. i.e. the action has already occurred.
  • Part (b) and (c) also has the verb in V3 format. i.e. 'boarded' and 'disappeared' respectively.
  • The usage of article 'a' in part (a) and proposition 'into' in part (c) is also correct.
  • The sentence is grammatically correct.
  • Thus correct answer is option 4.

The correct sentence is: He waved us a bye-bye as he boarded the train which disappeared into the tunnel

Question 38

Directions

Each item in this section has a sentence with four options labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) There was great deal that had to be scrapped, that must be scrapped

(b) but surely India could not have been what she undoubtedly was

(c) and could not have continued a cultured existence for thousands of years

(d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(a)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. a.

Key Points

  • The sentence refers to a 'great deal'.
  • Since the great deal is a noun, there needs to be an article before it.
  • Also, as there is no vowel sound, the article cannot be 'an'.
  • Since this 'great deal' is not the only 'great deal' in the world, the article can't be 'the'.
  • Thus, the correct answer is that an article 'a' needs to be added before 'great deal'.

Thus, the correct answer is option 1. 

The correct sentence becomes: There was a great deal that had to be scrapped, that must be scrapped but surely India could not have been what she undoubtedly was and could not have continued a cultured existence for thousands of years.

Additional Information

  • A or an is called the Indefinite article.
  • Before a word beginning with a vowel sound, an is used.
  • Before a word beginning with a consonant sound, a is used.
  • The is called the Definite article.

Question 39

Directions

Each item in this section has a sentence with four options labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) With regard to interior decoration, it is the attention given to the less overt aspect of using space

(b) that give it life, an identity, a quality

(c) that makes it exciting and unusual

(d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(b)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. b.

Key Points

  • The sentence refers to a singular entity, the attention that is given to the over aspect of using space and thus, the verbs in the sentence need to follow this pattern.
  • Hence, the verb 'give' needs to be replaced with 'gives'.

Thus, the correct sentence is: With regard to interior decoration, it is the attention given to the less overt aspect of using space that gives it life, an identity, a quality that makes it exciting and unusual.

Additional Information

  • In subject-verb agreement, singular nouns follow singular verb.
  • Plural noun takes plural verb.

Question 40

Directions

Each item in this section has a sentence with four options labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error and indicate your response in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

(a) A small parcel

(b) of novels is

(c) better than none

(d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(d)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. d.

Key Points

  • There is no error in the given sentence.
  • The subject here is 'a small parcel of something' which is singular in nature. So, the use of 'is' is correct.
  • Thus since the given sentence is grammatically correct and error free, option 4 is correct

The correct answer is 'No error'.

The correct sentence is:  A small parcel of novels is better than none.

Question 41

Direction: Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer sheet accordingly.

He looks as if he ______ weary.

  1. AOption (a)

    is

  2. BOption (b)

    was

  3. COption (c)

    would be

  4. DOption (d)

    were

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

were

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'were'

Key Points

  • The phrase "as if" is used to introduce a comparison or a hypothetical situation. It suggests that something is not actually true or real but is being portrayed or imagined in a certain way.
  • In the given sentence, "He looks as if he ______ weary," the phrase "as if" indicates that the speaker is describing a hypothetical or imagined state of being weary. The verb that follows "as if" should be in the subjunctive mood, which is typically formed using the base form of the verb.
  • In English, the subjunctive mood is often indicated by using the past tense form of the verb, even when referring to the present or future. This usage is especially common after certain conjunctions like "as if," "as though," "if," and "wish."
  • For example:
  • "He looks as if he were weary."
  • "It seems as though she were upset."
  • "If I were you, I would apologize."
  • "I wish I were taller."
  • In these sentences, the verb "were" is used instead of "was" because the subjunctive mood is employed. The subjunctive mood expresses something contrary to fact, hypothetical, or unreal.
  • Therefore, in the sentence "He looks as if he ______ weary," the correct choice for the blank space would be "were."

Question 42

Directions

Each of the following sentence in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer sheet accordingly.

My house is insured ______ theft and fire.

  1. AOption (a)

    for

  2. BOption (b)

    against

  3. COption (c)

    in

  4. DOption (d)

    towards

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

against

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'against'.

Key Points

  • To be insured against something means one has got security against something - an event or a calamity.
  • It means to do something in order to prevent something unpleasant from happening or from affecting you.
  • Example: The house is insured for two million dollars.
  • Thus, one cannot be insured 'in' something, one cannot be insured 'towards something' or one cannot be insured 'for' something.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate option to be filled in the given blank is 'against', because it indicates that the house has got security and is protected from theft and fire.
  • Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

 

Complete sentence: My house is insured against theft and fire.

Additional Information

  • Let's explore the other given options: 
  • 'For' means intended to be given to.
  • 'In' means inside a container, place, or area, or surrounded or closed off by something.
  • 'Towards' means in the direction of, or closer to someone or something.

Hinglish

  • किसी चीज के against insure होने का मतलब है कि किसी चीज के खिलाफ सुरक्षा मिल गई है - एक घटना या आपदा।
  • इसका अर्थ है कुछ ऐसा करना जिससे किसी अप्रिय घटना को होने या आपको प्रभावित करने से रोका जा सके।
  • उदाहरण: The house is insured for two million dollars.
  • इसलिए, दिए गए रिक्त स्थान में भरने के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त विकल्प 'against' है, क्योंकि यह इंगित करता है कि घर को सुरक्षा मिल गई है और यह चोरी और आग से सुरक्षित है।
  • अतः विकल्प 2 सही उत्तर है।
  • आइए अन्य दिए गए विकल्पों का पता लगाएं:
  • 'For' का अर्थ है देने का इरादा।
  • 'In' का अर्थ है किसी कंटेनर, स्थान या क्षेत्र के अंदर, या किसी चीज से घिरा या बंद।
  • 'Towards' का अर्थ है किसी या किसी चीज़ की दिशा में, या उसके करीब।

 

पुरा वाक्य: My house is insured against theft and fire.

Question 43

Directions

Each of the following sentence in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer sheet accordingly.

The result of the prolonged discussion was _______

  1. AOption (a)

    disappointment

  2. BOption (b)

    disappointing

  3. COption (c)

    disappointed

  4. DOption (d)

    to dissappoint

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

disappointing

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'disappointing'.

Key Points

  • The sentence describes the result of something. So, the blank needs an adjective.
  • We use the -ing and -ed forms of regular and irregular verbs as adjectives.
  • Example: My brother is five and he’s so annoying.
  • Example: Not everyone likes smoked salmon.
  • Adjectives with -ing and -ed endings have different meanings.
  • -ing adjectives describe the effect.
  • Example: The meeting was very boring.
  • -ed adjectives describe how a person feels.
  • Example: I felt bored at the meeting.
  • Therefore, from the above explanation, it is clear that 'disappointing is the most appropriate option to be filled in the given blank.
  • Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

 

Complete sentence: The result of the prolonged discussion was disappointing.

Additional Information

  • Some adjectives are made from nouns and verbs by adding suffixes.
  • Example: noun-adjective: hero-heroic, wind-windy, child-childish.
  • Example: verb-adjective: read-readable, talk-talkative, use-useful.

Hinglish

  • वाक्य किसी चीज के परिणाम का वर्णन करता है। तो, रिक्त स्थान को adjective की आवश्यकता होती है।
  • हम adjective के रूप में regular और irregular verbs के -ing और -ed रूपों का उपयोग करते हैं।
  • उदाहरण: My brother is five and he’s so annoying.
  • उदाहरण: Not everyone likes smoked salmon.
  • -ing और -ed अंत वाले adjectives के अलग-अलग अर्थ होते हैं।
  • -ing adjectives प्रभाव का वर्णन करते हैं।
  • उदाहरण: The meeting was very boring.
  • -ed विशेषण बताते हैं कि कोई व्यक्ति कैसा महसूस करता है।
  • उदाहरण:  I felt bored at the meeting.
  • अतः उपरोक्त व्याख्या से यह स्पष्ट होता है कि 'disappointing' ही रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति के लिए सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त विकल्प है।
  • अतः विकल्प 2 सही उत्तर है।
  • कुछ विशेषण noun और verb से suffix जोड़कर बनते हैं।
  • उदाहरण: noun-adjective: hero-heroic, wind-windy, child-childish.
  • उदाहरण: verb-adjective: read-readable, talk-talkative, use-useful.

 

पुरा वाक्य: The result of the prolonged discussion was disappointing.

Question 44

Directions

Each of the following sentence in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer sheet accordingly.

You are lucky ______ in the 20th century.

  1. AOption (a)

    by being born

  2. BOption (b)

    to have been born

  3. COption (c)

    for being born

  4. DOption (d)

    to have born

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

to have been born

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'to have been born'.

Key Points

  • The person being referred to in the sentence is still alive.
  • You need to use the passive with born (to be born).
  • Example: He had already been born when I reached the Hospital.
  • The past participle born is one of the two different past participles from the word 'to bear'.
  • However, when referring to birth, born is used and can only be used in the passive form. Therefore you can only find it in combination with the verb 'have' as an auxiliary verb in perfect tenses.
  • Example: He has been born. ​
  • One is not lucky 'for' or 'by' something.
  • Thus, option 1 and option 3 are incorrect.
  • Option 4 cannot be the answer as, 'to have born' is not a grammatically correct phrase.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 2.

 

Complete sentence: You are lucky to have been born in the 20th century.

Additional Information

TenseSimple tenseContinuous tensePerfect tensePerfect continuous
Presentv1+s/esis/am/are+v1+inghas/have+v3has/have been+v1+ing
Pastv2was/were+v1+inghad+v3had been+v1+ing
Futurewill/shall+v1will be+v1+ingwill have+v3will+have been+v1+ing

Hinglish

  • जिस व्यक्ति को वाक्य में संदर्भित किया जा रहा है वह अभी भी जीवित है।
  • आपको born के साथ passive (to be born) का उपयोग करने की आवश्यकता है।
  • उदाहरण: He had already been born when I reached the Hospital.
  • Past participle का born 'to bear' शब्द से दो अलग-अलग past participle में से एक है।
  • हालांकि, जन्म का जिक्र करते समय, born का उपयोग किया जाता है और इसका उपयोग केवल passive form में किया जा सकता है। इसलिए आप इसे केवल पूर्ण काल में auxiliary verb के रूप में 'have' verb के संयोजन में पा सकते हैं।
  • उदाहरण: He has been born.
  • कोई किसी चीज़ के लिए 'for' या 'by' भाग्यशाली नहीं है।
  • इस प्रकार, विकल्प 1 और विकल्प 3 गलत हैं।
  • विकल्प 4 इसका उत्तर नहीं हो सकता क्योंकि 'to have born' व्याकरण की दृष्टि से सही वाक्यांश नहीं है।
  • अत: सही उत्तर विकल्प 2 है।
  • | Tense | Simple tense | Continuous tense | Perfect tense | Perfect continuous | | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | | Present | v1+s/es | is/am/are+v1+ing | has/have+v3 | has/have been+v1+ing | | Past | v2 | was/were+v1+ing | had+v3 | had been+v1+ing | | Future | will/shall+v1 | will be+v1+ing | will have+v3 | will+have been+v1+ing |

 

पुरा वाक्य: You are lucky to have been born in the 20th century.

Question 45

Directions

Each of the following sentence in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer sheet accordingly.

Sita is true to _____

  1. AOption (a)

    word

  2. BOption (b)

    her words

  3. COption (c)

    the words

  4. DOption (d)

    words

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

her words

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'her words'.

Key Points

  • The sentence refers to 'Sita', who is a female.
  • Thus, the answer should refer to this.
  • There needs to be a possessive pronoun to show what Sita is true to 'something'.
  • Sita cannot just be true to any 'words', they have to mean something to her, something she has said.
  • Option1 is incorrect because the possessive pronoun 'her' is missing.
  • Option 3 is incorrect as there is no possessive pronoun.
  • Option 4 is incorrect because the possessive pronoun 'her' is missing.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate option to be filled in the given blank is 'her words'.
  • Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

 

Complete sentence: Sita is true to her words.

Additional Information

  • Possessive pronouns show that something belongs to someone.
  • The possessive pronouns are my, our, your, his, her, its, and their.

Hinglish​

  • वाक्य 'Sita' को संदर्भित करता है, जो एक महिला है।
  • इस प्रकार, उत्तर को इसका उल्लेख करना चाहिए।
  • एक अधिकारवाचक सर्वनाम (possessive pronoun) 'her' का उपयोग यह दिखाने के लिए किया जाना चाहिए कि सीता किसके शब्दों के साथ सच्ची है।
  • Sita किसी भी 'word' के प्रति सच्ची नहीं हो सकतीं, उन्हें उनके लिए कुछ मतलब होना चाहिए, जो उन्होंने कहा है।
  • विकल्प 1 गलत है क्योंकि अधिकारवाचक सर्वनाम (possessive pronoun) 'her' गायब है।
  • विकल्प 3 गलत है क्योंकि अधिकारवाचक सर्वनाम (possessive pronoun) 'her' गायब है।
  • विकल्प 4 गलत है क्योंकि अधिकारवाचक सर्वनाम (possessive pronoun) 'her' गायब है।
  • अतः दिए गए रिक्त स्थान की पूर्ति के लिए सर्वाधिक उपयुक्त विकल्प 'her words' हैं।
  • अतः विकल्प 2 सही उत्तर है।
  • Possessive pronoun बताते हैं कि कुछ किसी का है।
  • Possessive pronoun my, our, yours, his, her, और their हैं।

 

पूर्ण वाक्य: Sita is true to her words.

Question 46

Directions

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or groups of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer sheet accordingly.

Years ______ since I saw her last.

  1. AOption (a)

    have passed

  2. BOption (b)

    had passed

  3. COption (c)

    had been passing

  4. DOption (d)

    have been passing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

have passed

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Have passed.

Key Points:- 

  • The sentence is in the present perfect tense.
  • The present perfect tense is used to express those actions which have finished recently.
  • Structure - Subject + has/have + V3 + Object.
  • Thus, the phrase in the blank also has to follow the same pattern.
  • Hence, option 2 'had passed' and option 3 'had been passing' cannot be the answers because they exhibit past perfect and past perfect continuous tense respectively.
  • The verb 'saw' means that the act is complete.
  • Thus, the verb 'been' cannot be used in the continuous tense.
  • Therefore, option 1 is the correct answer.
<br>

Complete sentence: Years have passed since I saw her last.

Additional Information

TenseSimple tenseContinuous tensePerfect tensePerfect continuous
Presentv1+s/esis/am/are+v1+inghas/have+v3has/have been+v1+ing
Pastv2was/were+v1+inghad+v3had been+v1+ing
Futurewill/shall+v1will be+v1+ingwill have+v3will+have been+v1+ing

Hinglish

  • वाक्य Present perfect tense में है।
  • Presnt perfect tense का उपयोग उन क्रियाओं को व्यक्त करने के लिए किया जाता है जो हाल ही में समाप्त हुई हैं।
  • संर​चना - Subject + has/have + V3 + Object.
  • इस प्रकार, रिक्त स्थान के वाक्यांश को भी उसी पैटर्न का पालन करना है।
  • इसलिए, विकल्प 2 'had passed' और विकल्प 3 'had been passing' उत्तर नहीं हो सकते क्योंकि वे क्रमशः past perfect और past perfect continuous tense को प्रदर्शित करते हैं।
  • क्रिया 'saw' का अर्थ है कि कार्य पूरा हो गया है।
  • इस प्रकार, क्रिया 'been' का प्रयोग सतत काल में नहीं किया जा सकता है।​
  • | Tense | Simple tense | Continuous tense | Perfect tense | Perfect continuous | | --- | --- | --- | --- | --- | | Present | v1+s/es | is/am/are+v1+ing | has/have+v3 | has/have been+v1+ing | | Past | v2 | was/were+v1+ing | had+v3 | had been+v1+ing | | Future | will/shall+v1 | will be+v1+ing | will have+v3 | will+have been+v1+ing |

अतः सही वाक्य है - Years have passed since I saw her last.

Question 47

Directions

Each of the following sentence in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer sheet accordingly.

When he heard the terrible noise he asked me what was ______on.

  1. AOption (a)

    happening

  2. BOption (b)

    being

  3. COption (c)

    getting

  4. DOption (d)

    going

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

going

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'going'.

Key Points

  • The sentence refers to something that is happening.
  • 'Going on' means to proceed or persist.
  • Example: Well, the party must go on, whether we have caterers or not!
  • The use of the preposition 'on' cannot be used with the verbs 'happening' and 'being' as it will be grammatically incorrect.
  • Therefore option 1 and 2 is incorrect.
  • One can 'get' on, but it refers to the act of 'performing'.
  • Thus, it does not fit with the context of the sentence.
  • Hence, option 3 is incorrect.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 4.

 

Complete sentence: When he heard the terrible noise he asked me what was going on.

Additional Information

  • 'Get off' means to leave a place, usually in order to start a journey.
  • Example: If we can get off by seven o'clock, the roads will be clearer.
  • 'Get over' means to accept an unpleasant fact or situation after dealing with it for a while.
  • Example: They’re upset that you didn’t call, but they’ll get over it.

Hinglish

  • वाक्य किसी ऐसी चीज को संदर्भित करता है जो हो रही है।
  • 'Going on' का अर्थ है आगे बढ़ना या बने रहना।
  • उदाहरण: Well, the party must go on, whether we have caterers or not!
  • Preposition 'on' का प्रयोग 'happening' और 'being' verbs के साथ नहीं किया जा सकता क्योंकि यह व्याकरणिक रूप से गलत होगा।
  • इसलिए विकल्प 1 और 2 गलत है।
  • कोई 'get on' कर सकता है, लेकिन यह 'performing' के कार्य को संदर्भित करता है।
  • इस प्रकार, यह वाक्य के संदर्भ के साथ फिट नहीं है।
  • अत: विकल्प 3 गलत है।
  • अत: सही उत्तर विकल्प 4 है।
  • 'Get off' का अर्थ है एक जगह छोड़ना, आमतौर पर यात्रा शुरू करने के लिए।
  • उदाहरण: If we can get off by seven o'clock, the roads will be clearer.
  • 'Get over' का अर्थ है किसी अप्रिय तथ्य या स्थिति से कुछ समय तक निपटने के बाद उसे स्वीकार करना।
  • उदाहरण: They're upset that you didn't call, but they'll get over it.

 

पुरा वाक्य: When he heard the terrible noise he asked me what was going on.

Question 48

Directions

Each of the following sentence in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer sheet accordingly.

Could you lend me some money? I am very ______ of cash at the moment.

  1. AOption (a)

    down

  2. BOption (b)

    low

  3. COption (c)

    short

  4. DOption (d)

    scarce

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

short

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. short.

Key Points

  • The sentence refers to someone having something to do with money. When it comes to money, one cannot be 'down' of money.
  • As for 'low', one can be 'low' on money. But the use of the preposition 'of' after the blank indicates that 'low' is not an option.
  • One cannot be 'scarce' of money. Thus, option 4 cannot be the answer.
  • Thus, the correct answer is option 3.

The correct sentence is: Could you lend me some money? I am very short of cash at the moment.

Additional Information

  • Let's understand what a preposition is
  • ​A preposition is a word placed before a noun or a pronoun to show in what relation a person or thing stands in regard to something else.
  • ​Example: of, in, over etc.

Question 49

Directions

Each of the following sentence in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer sheet accordingly.

I saw her when she was standing _______ the side of the old statue.

  1. AOption (a)

    by

  2. BOption (b)

    at

  3. COption (c)

    in

  4. DOption (d)

    beyond

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

by

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'by'.

Key Points

  • 'By' means near.
  • Example: A small child stood sullenly by her side.
  • One can stand by something which means that the person is standing near to that thing.
  • 'At' is used to show an exact position or particular place.
  • Example: We'll meet you at the entrance.
  • One cannot stand 'at' something - one can stand at a location, not something.
  • 'In' means experiencing a situation or condition, or feeling an emotion.
  • Example: We watched in horror as they pulled the bodies from the wreckage.
  • Therefore, one cannot stand 'in' something - unless it is meant to stand in like an amusement ride.
  • 'Beyond' means further away in the distance (than something).
  • Example: In the distance, beyond the river, was a small town.
  • One cannot stand 'beyond' something.
  • One can stand after something, not beyond.
  • Therefore the most appropriate option is 'by'.
  • Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

 

Complete sentence: I saw her when she was standing by the side of the old statue.

Hinglish

  • 'By' का अर्थ है निकट।
  • उदाहरण: A small child stood sullenly by her side.
  • जब कोई खड़ा होता है, तो वह किसी चीज के बगल में खड़ा होता है।
  • 'At' का प्रयोग सटीक स्थिति या विशेष स्थान दिखाने के लिए किया जाता है।
  • उदाहरण: We'll meet you at the entrance.
  • कोई किसी चीज़ पर खड़े नहीं हो सकता - कोई एक स्थान पर खड़ा हो सकता है।
  • 'In' का अर्थ है किसी स्थिति या स्थिति का अनुभव करना, या किसी भावना को महसूस करना।
  • उदाहरण: We watched in horror as they pulled the bodies from the wreckage.
  • 'Beyond' का अर्थ है दूरी में और दूर (किसी चीज से)।
  • उदाहरण: In the distance, beyond the river, was a small town.
  • कोई किसी चीज के 'beyond' खड़ा नहीं हो सकता।
  • इसलिए सबसे उपयुक्त विकल्प 'by' है।
  • अतः विकल्प 1 सही उत्तर है।

 

पुरा वाक्य: I saw her when she was standing by the side of the old statue.

Question 50

Directions

Each of the following sentence in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer sheet accordingly.

True friends never ______ their loved ones in adversity.

  1. AOption (a)

    abuse

  2. BOption (b)

    criticize

  3. COption (c)

    befool

  4. DOption (d)

    desert

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

desert

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "desert".

Key Points

  • Let's look at the meaning of the given words.
  • Abuse: treat with cruelty or violence, especially regularly or repeatedly.
  • Criticize: indicate the faults of (someone or something) in a disapproving way.
  • Befool: refers to the act of making a fool out of someone.
  • Desert: abandon (a person, cause, or organization) in a way considered disloyal or treacherous.
  • As per the meaning of the given words, "desert" is the appropriate word choice for the blank.
  • Example: The community leader said, "Only cowards desert the battlefield in the face of atrocity but we shall fight till the last breath".
  • The meaning of the given sentence is that true friends never abandon their loved ones in adversity.
  • So as per the implied meaning of the sentence and the example sentence, "desert" is the appropriate word for the blank.

The correct sentence is: True friends never desert their loved ones in adversity.

Thus, the correct answer is option 4.

Question 51

Which one of the following was set as a target of average growth of GDP of India over the plan period 2012-2017 by the Approach Paper to the Twelfth Five year Plan?

  1. AOption (a)

    7 percent

  2. BOption (b)

    8 percent

  3. COption (c)

    9 percent

  4. DOption (d)

    10 percent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

8 percent

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3, i.e 8 per cent.

  • Planning Commission placed the Approach Paper to the Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012-17) before the National Development Council (NDC).
  • The theme of the Approach Paper to the Twelfth Five Year Plan was “faster, sustainable and more inclusive growth”.
  • The Approach Paper has proposed a target of 8 per cent growth for the Twelfth Plan.
  • Health, education and skill development, environment and natural resources, and infrastructure development were the focus areas of the Twelfth Plan.
  • Note - Currently, the Planning Commission doesn’t exist. Instead, Niti Aayog works on target based growth and planning for development.

Mistake Points

Question 52

Which one of the following is NOT a subject that has been devolved to the Panchyati Raj Institutions by the 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Non-conventional energy resources

  2. BOption (b)

    Roads

  3. COption (c)

    Higher education

  4. DOption (d)

    Libraries

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Higher education

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is i.e Higher Education.

  • Higher education is not a subject that has been devolved to the Panchyati Raj Institutions by the 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India.

Key Points

The 11th Schedule contains the following 29 functional items placed within the purview of panchayats:

  1. Agriculture, including agricultural extension
  2. Land improvement, implementation of land reforms, land consolidation and soil conservation
  3. Minor irrigation, water management, and watershed development
  4. Animal husbandry, dairying, and poultry
  5. Fisheries
  6. Social forestry and farm forestry
  7. Minor forest produce
  8. Small-scale industries, including food processing industries
  9. Khadi, village and cottage industries
  10. Rural housing
  11. Drinking water
  12. Fuel and fodder
  13. Roads, culverts, bridges, ferries, waterways and other means of communication
  14. Rural electrification, including distribution of electricity
  15. Non-conventional energy sources
  16. Poverty alleviation program
  17. Education, including primary and secondary schools
  18. Technical training and vocational education
  19. Adult and non-formal education
  20. Libraries
  21. Cultural activities
  22. Markets and fairs
  23. Health and sanitation including hospitals, primary health centres, and dispensaries
  24. Family welfare
  25. Women and child development
  26. Social welfare, including the welfare of the handicapped and mentally
  27. The welfare of the weaker sections, and in particular, of the scheduled castes and the scheduled tribes
  28. Public distribution system
  29. Maintenance of community assets.

Additional Information

  • Panchayati Raj:
  • Article 40 of DPSP notifies about the Organisation of village panchayats.
  • 73rd Amendment Act of 1992:
  • The Act gives constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj institutions.
  • The Act has added new parts IX and 11th schedules to the constitution.
  • 11th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the Power, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats, 29 subjects over which the Panchayats have jurisdiction.
  • It is entitled “The Panchayats” and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 (O).
  • It contains 29 functional items of the Panchayats and deals with Article 243 (G).
  • The main objective behind the establishment of Panchayati Raj Institutions is Social Justice, Economic Empowerment.

Question 53

Who among the following used the term Industrial revolution for the first time in English to describe the changes that occurred in the British industrial development between 1760 and 1820?

  1. AOption (a)

    Friedrich Engels

  2. BOption (b)

    Eric Hobsbawm

  3. COption (c)

    Arnold Toynbee

  4. DOption (d)

    Georges Michelet

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Arnold Toynbee

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is i.e Arnold Toynbee.

  • The term Industrial Revolution was first popularized by the English economic historian Arnold Toynbee (1852–83).

Key Points

  • Arnold Toynbee:

  • He was an English historian.

  • He used the term Industrial revolution for the first time in English to describe the changes that occurred in the British industrial development between 1760 and 1820.

  • Industrial Revolution

  • The Industrial Revolution began in Great Britain, and many of the technological innovations were of British origin.

  • ​​Industrial Revolution, in modern history, the process of change from an agrarian and handicraft economy to one dominated by industry and machine manufacturing.

  • In the period 1760 to 1830, the Industrial Revolution was largely confined to Britain.

  • The main features involved in the Industrial Revolution were technological, socioeconomic, and cultural.

  • The Industrial Revolution led to an improvement in Britain’s road network, which was sub-standard before the advent of industrialisation.

Additional Information 

  • Karl Marx is famous for his Communist Manifesto where he discussed the Labour Theory of Value along with Friedrich Engels.
  • Eric Hobsbawm was a life-long Marxist whose ideology influenced his works on socio-political development.
  • Jules Michelet was a French nationalist historian best known for his monumental Histoire de France (1833–67).

Question 54

Who among the following is the author of the book ‘The Indian struggle 1920-1934’?

  1. AOption (a)

    Maulana Abul Kalam

  2. BOption (b)

    Jayprakah Narayan

  3. COption (c)

    Subhash Chandra Bose

  4. DOption (d)

    Manabendra Nath Roy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Subhash Chandra Bose

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is i.e Subhas Chandra Bose.

  • Subhash Chandra Bose is the author of the book ‘The Indian struggle 1920-1934’.

Key Points

  • The Indian Struggle, 1920–1934 is authored by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose.
  • He joined the Indian National Congress in 1921 and started the newspaper Swaraj.
  • He formed the All India Forward Bloc within Congress in 1939, amidst the differences in ideology with a faction in Congress.

Additional Information

  • Jayaprakash Narayan was a Socialist Political Leader who joined the Congress in 1929 and played a pivotal role in his “Total Revolution” in 1974.
  • Maulana Abul Kalam Azad was the first education minister of Independent India.
  • Manabendra Nath Roy was the first person to pitch the idea of a Constituent Assembly in 1934.

Question 55

Which one of the following about the Swadeshi Campaign in 1896 is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Its centre was Maharashtra

  2. BOption (b)

    Its main participants were students

  3. COption (c)

    It opposed the levy of tariff on imports

  4. DOption (d)

    It publicly burnt foreign clothes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It opposed the levy of tariff on imports

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It opposed the levy of tariffs on imports.

Key Points

  • In fact, what happened was the exact opposite.
  • The Swadeshi Campaigners wanted to put high tariffs on imports in order to protect the indigenous industries.
  • Indian leaders used the boycott activities which was previously adopted by the Chinese against American goods.
  • The centre of this struggle was in Maharashtra.
  • Students participated in good numbers, boycotting colleges, and vouching to attend Nationalistic educational institutions.
  • The burning of foreign clothes was an effective method used by the Indian nationalists.

Additional Information

  • Swadeshi Movement (1905-1911):
  • This was a comprehensive movement that lasted 6 years.
  • The Swadeshi movement was the result of the partition of Bengal.
  • After the partition of the Bengal Swadeshi and Boycott Movement was adopted as a means of integration.
  • It was aimed at self Reliance, self-determination, and self-help.
  • Tilak called it Bahiskar Yoga.

Question 56

Which one of the following associations was founded in London by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Bengal British India Society

  2. BOption (b)

    The East India Association

  3. COption (c)

    The British Indian Association

  4. DOption (d)

    The Madras Native association

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The East India Association

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The East India Association.

  • Dadabhai Naroji was also known as the “Grand Old Man of India.”
  • He established the East India Association in London in 1866.
  • It was a successor to the London Indian Society established in 1865 by 4 Indian students in London - Pherozeshah Mehta, W. C. Banerjee, Badruddin Tyabji, and Manmohan Ghose.
  • The Association was one of the predecessor organizations to the later Indian National Congress.
  • The major objective of the association was to voice the grievances of the Indian public among the British.
  • Bengal British India Society was founded in 1843 in Kolkata.
  • British Indian Association was an amalgamation of the “Landholders Society” and “British India Society” established in 1851. It was the first political organization that brought the Indians together.
  • Madras Native Association (MNA) was founded with the initiative of Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty and others on 26 February 1852.

Question 57

Mariana Trench is located in the ocean floor of

  1. AOption (a)

    Southern Atlantic Ocean

  2. BOption (b)

    Western Pacific Ocean

  3. COption (c)

    Eastern Pacific Ocean

  4. DOption (d)

    Northern Atlantic Ocean

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Western Pacific Ocean

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Western Pacific Ocean.

  • Mariana Trench is located on the ocean floor of the Western Pacific Ocean.

Key Points

  • Mariana Trench, also called Marianas Trench is a deep-sea trench on the floor of the western North Pacific Ocean.
  • It is the deepest such trench known on Earth.
  • It is located mostly in the east as well as south of the Mariana Islands.
  • The first attempt at finding the depth was made in 1875 during the Challenger Expedition (1872–76).
  • It was formed due to the convergence of Oceanic-Oceanic plates.

Additional Information

  • The South Sandwich Trench is located in the South Atlantic ocean.
  • The Kermadec Trench is located in the South Pacific ocean.
  • The Atacama Trench and submarine trench in the Eastern Pacific Ocean.

Question 58

Taklamakan Desert is situated in

  1. AOption (a)

    Western Asia

  2. BOption (b)

    Southern fringe of Sahara in Africa

  3. COption (c)

    South America

  4. DOption (d)

    Central Asia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Central Asia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Central Asia.

  • Taklamakan Desert is situated in Central Asia.
<br>

Key Points

  • The Taklamakan is one of the sandiest deserts located in Central Asia.
  • It occupies the central part of the Tarim Basin in the Uygur Autonomous Region of Xinjiang, western China.
  • The Taklamakan is flanked by the Tien Shan to the north, the Kunlun Mountains to the south, and the Pamirs to the west.

Additional Information 

  • The Zagros Mountains in Iran and the borders of Iraq can be said to be a part of Western Asia.
  • Andes mountain range is found in South America.
  • The Ennedi Massif is a vast sandstone massif on the southern fringes of the Sahara Desert in eastern Chad. It is one of six major mountain blocks in the Sahara

Question 59

Rudraprayag is situated at the confluence of rivers Alaknanda and ________.

  1. AOption (a)

    Bhagirathi

  2. BOption (b)

    Mandakini

  3. COption (c)

    Nandakini

  4. DOption (d)

    Dhauliganga

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mandakini

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 2, i.e Mandakini.

Key Points

  • Rudraprayag is situated at the confluence of rivers Alaknanda and Mandakini.
  • Mandakini is also known as the Kali Ganga.
  • The Sarda/Saryu/Mandakini/Kali Ganga river rises in the Milam glacier in the Nepal Himalayas where it is known as the Goriganga.
  • Along the Indo-Nepal border, it is called Kali or Chauk, where it joins the Ghaghara.
  • The Ghaghara after collecting the waters of its tributaries cuts a deep gorge at Shishapani, where river Sarda (Kali or Kali Ganga) joins it in the plain.

Ganga System

  • The Alaknanda has its source in the Satopanth glacier above Badrinath.
  • The Alaknanda meets Dhauliganga and the Vishnu Ganga which meet at Joshimath or Vishnu Prayag.
  • Alaknanda’s tributary Pindar joins it at KarnaPrayag.
  • Alaknanda river meets Nandakini river at Nandprayag.
  • At Devprayag, the Bhagirathi meets the Alaknanda; hereafter, it is known as the Ganga.

Question 60

Arrange the following Indian cities according to their locations from west to east:

  1. Bilaspur

  2. Jodhpur

  3. Bhopal

  4. Ranchi

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    3-2-1-4

  2. BOption (b)

    2-3-1-4

  3. COption (c)

    4-1-2-3

  4. DOption (d)

    2-1-3-4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2-3-1-4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is i.e 2-3-1-4

Key Points

  • Jodhpur is in Rajasthan so it is clearly the westernmost among the given options.
  • Bhopal is located in the heart of India, which is Madhya Pradesh. If you remember the political map correctly, then Madhya Pradesh comes before Chhattisgarh (Bilaspur is in Chattisgarh) when we move from west to east.
  • So, we can easily say that Bhopal comes before Bilaspur and hence the answer can be easily done by eliminating the options.
  • After Chattisgarh would come to Jharkhand, and Ranchi is the capital of Jharkhand.
  • So the correct pattern is Jodhpur-Bhopal-Bilaspur-Ranchi.

Question 61

The Kashmir region receives additional amount of precipitation during the winter brought by

  1. AOption (a)

    South-west Monsoon

  2. BOption (b)

    Western Disturbances

  3. COption (c)

    Retreating Monsoon

  4. DOption (d)

    Temperate cyclone

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Western Disturbances

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, ie Western Disturbances.

  • The western cyclonic disturbances are weather phenomena of the winter months brought in by the westerly flow from the Mediterranean region.
  • They usually influence the weather of the north and north-western regions of India.
  • The disturbances are responsible for the rains in the winter months.
  • The additional amount of rainfall during the winters in the Kashmir Region is as a result of these Western Disturbances.
  • Air moves from the high-pressure area over the southern Indian Ocean, in a south-easterly direction, crosses the equator, and turns right towards the low-pressure areas over the Indian subcontinent. These are known as the Southwest Monsoon winds responsible for widespread rainfall in mainland India.
  • The season of retreating monsoon (October and November) is a period of transition between the warm rainy monsoon and the dry cool winter.
  • Temperate Cyclones are associated with Western Disturbances in the winter months. The rainfall is slow and continues for many days, sometimes even weeks in such cyclonic conditions.

Question 62

Which part of India has the Kalatkot tertiary coal field?

  1. AOption (a)

    Brahmaputra river basin of Assam

  2. BOption (b)

    Damodar river basin of Jharkhand and West Bengal

  3. COption (c)

    Himalayan mountain region

  4. DOption (d)

    Cardamom hills in Kerala

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Himalayan mountain region

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Himalayan Mountain Region.

  • Himalayan mountain region has the Kalatkot tertiary coalfield.

Key Points

  • India has only a 2% share of Tertiary/Anthracite coal in all of its coal resources.
  • They occur in Makum, Nazira, Lakhuni (Assam), Namchick-Namrup (Arunachal Pradesh), Darrangiri field (Meghalaya), Nagaland, and Kalakot (Jammu and Kashmir) - South of Pir Panjal.
  • Brown Coal/Lignite can be found in the Tamil Nadu region, and they are of the lowest quality.
  • Bituminous coal can be found in the Gondwana Coalfield - present in Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and Maharashtra.

Question 63

Tendons through which muscles are connected to bones are tightly compacted bundles of which one of the following long fibrous proteins?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fibrin

  2. BOption (b)

    Collagen

  3. COption (c)

    Elastin

  4. DOption (d)

    Cellulose

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Collagen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Collagen.

  • **Tendons through which muscles are connected to bones are tightly compacted bundles of Collagen.**​

Key Points

  • Collagen is the most abundant protein found in Bones and tendons, which helps in providing strength and structure to it.
  • Tendons connect muscles to bones.
  • Cartilage connects bones with bones.
  • Collagen is present in the extra cellular matrix, in cartilage and in tendons.
  • Because it undergoing polymerization along with platelets, it forms a hemostatic plug/clog over the site that is wounded.
  • Tendons are tightly compacted bundles of collagen.

Additional Information 

  • Fibrin is a non-globular, long fibrous protein involved in the clotting of blood.
  • Elastin is a key protein that helps in resuming the shape of the skin after stretching.
  • Cellulose is the main component of the plant cell wall, helping it remain stiff and upright.

Question 64

Which one of the following is the scientific name of the causal organism of elephantiasis?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ascaris lumbricoides

  2. BOption (b)

    Culex pipiens

  3. COption (c)

    Wucchereria bancrofti

  4. DOption (d)

    Fasciola hepatica

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Wucchereria bancrofti

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Wucchereria Bancrofti.

  • The scientific name of the causal organism of elephantiasis is Wucchereria Bancrofti.

Key Points

  • Elephantiasis is also known as Lymphatic filariasis.
  • It is a very rare condition that spreads through mosquitoes which are the carriers of the Wuchereria bancrofti.
  • The larvae of the worm keep on accumulating in the organ of the body upon entering the body and multiply.
  • This results in the chronic inflammation of that organ.
  • Symptoms include swelling of the legs, arms, genitals, breasts.

Additional Information

  • Ascaris lumbricoides are large roundworms that cause Ascaris.
  • Culex pipiens are the common house mosquito.
  • Fasciola hepatica, which is also known as “the common liver fluke” or “the sheep liver fluke”, causes Fascioliasis.

Question 65

Melanin is the natural pigment that gives colour to human skin, hair and the iris. It provides protection against the

  1. AOption (a)

    Ultraviolet radiation

  2. BOption (b)

    Infrared radiation

  3. COption (c)

    X-ray radiation

  4. DOption (d)

    Short wave radio radiation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ultraviolet radiation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ultraviolet radiation.

Key Points

  • Melanin helps in protecting the skin cell DNA from Ultraviolet radiation.
  • UV Rays can damage the melanocytes, skin cells that are responsible for the skin pigment called melanin.
  • Melanin thus acts as a protective skin pigment, which blocks the UV Radiation from inflicting damage on the DNA and thus causing skin cancer.
  • In humans, melanin production is initiated by exposure to UV radiation.

Question 66

Intake of which one of the following food components should be minimized by patients having Gouty arthritis due to elevated serum uric acid level?

  1. AOption (a)

    Food fibres

  2. BOption (b)

    Nucleic acids

  3. COption (c)

    Lipids

  4. DOption (d)

    Carbohydrates

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Nucleic acids

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Nucleic Acids.

Key Points

  • Gout is a type of arthritis that causes inflammation in one joint.
  • It is caused due to the elevated serum uric acid level in the joint.
  • Meat which is generally consumed by humans, including seafood and organ meats, has high levels of nucleic acids.
  • The liver has the highest amount of nucleic acid.
  • So, a patient with Gouty arthritis shouldn’t consume beef, pork, and lamb.

Additional Information

  • Fiber:
  • 'Fiber' is a type of 'Carbohydrate' that keeps our body's digestive system strong.
  • This is especially important for 'Obesity and Diabetes' patients who should consume a diet of fibre every day.
  • 'Fibre' is mainly found in sufficient quantities in foods including Bran, Wheat Flour, Green leafy vegetables, Seasonal Fruits.
  • Fibre is responsible for the "Digestion of the Body".
  • We do not get nutrition from it, but it is an essential carbohydrate for the body.
  • Lipids:
  • ​These organic compounds are nonpolar molecules, which are soluble only in nonpolar solvents and insoluble in water because water is a polar molecule.
  • In the human body, these molecules can be synthesized in the liver and are found in oil, butter, whole milk, cheese, fried foods, and also in some red meats.
  • Carbohydrates:
  • They are the main source of energy and are also called saccharides.
  • On the basis of the numbers of saccharides in hydrolysis, Carbohydrates are classified as Monosaccharides, Oligosaccharides, and Polysaccharides.
  • Monosaccharides:
  • The monosaccharides are the simplest carbohydrates.
  • Made up of one saccharide.
  • Oligosaccharides:
  • These saccharides are hydrolysis yields of 2 to 10 monosaccharide units.
  • Polysaccharides:
  • Polysaccharides are polymers of monosaccharides.

Question 67

Which one of the following statements about microbes is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    They are used in sewage treatment plants.

  2. BOption (b)

    They are used in industrial fermenters for the production of beverages.

  3. COption (c)

    No antibiotic has been obtained from any microbe.

  4. DOption (d)

    They are used to get many bioactive molecules for the treatment of diseases.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

No antibiotic has been obtained from any microbe.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is No antibiotic has been obtained from any microbe.

Key Points

  • Streptomycin, tetracycline, and erythromycin are some of the commonly known antibiotics which are made from fungi and bacteria.
  • There are three types of bacteria used to treat wastewater entering the treatment plant:
  • Aerobic
  • Anaerobic
  • Facultative.
  • Yeast is a microbe used for the fermentation process.

Question 68

Golden rice is a genetically-modified crop plant where the incorporate gene is meant for biosynthesis of

  1. AOption (a)

    Omega-3 fatty acids

  2. BOption (b)

    Vitamin A

  3. COption (c)

    Vitamin B

  4. DOption (d)

    Vitamin C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Vitamin A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, i.e Vitamin A.

  • Golden rice is a rice variety that is produced using genetic engineering.
  • This involves biosynthesis of beta-carotene in edible rice parts.
  • Beta-carotene is a precursor of Vitamin A.
  • This results in a food fortification, a process which involves increasing the micronutrient content of vitamins.
  • Currently, there is a shortage of Vitamin A - a dietary fibre, which has resulted in the death of half a million children in the past 5 years.

Question 69

An object moves in a circular path with a constant speed. Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The centripetal acceleration of the object is smaller for a gentle curve (i.e., curve of larger radius) than that for a sharp curve (i.e., curve of smaller radius).

  2. BOption (b)

    The centripetal acceleration is greater for a gentle curve than that for sharp curve.

  3. COption (c)

    The centripetal acceleration is the same for both, the gentle and sharp curves

  4. DOption (d)

    The centripetal acceleration causes the object to slow down.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The centripetal acceleration of the object is smaller for a gentle curve (i.e., curve of larger radius) than that for a sharp curve (i.e., curve of smaller radius).

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Circular motion:

  • The type of motion in which particle moves on a circle is called as circular motion.

Centripetal acceleration:

  • The acceleration due to which the particle changes its direction on the circular path and moves on it is called as centripetal acceleration.
  • It is denoted as ac.

ac=v2Ra_c= \frac{{{v^2}}}{R}

Where v is speed of the particle and R is the radius of the circular path

EXPLANATION:

  • Since speed v is constant for the particle. So centripetal acceleration will change by changing the radius of the curve.

  • As the centripetal acceleration is given by: aC=v2R{a_C} = \frac{{{v^2}}}{R} , so centripetal acceleration will decrease by increasing the radius of the circle.

  • On a gentle path which is having large radius will have smaller centripetal acceleration than the sharp curve having smaller radius. So option 1 is correct and options 2 and 3 are wrong.

  • Centripetal acceleration doesn’t change the speed of the particle so object will not slow down. It just changes the direction of the particle on the curve. So option 4 is wrong.

  • The acceleration of the particle along in the direction of tangent to the curve is called as tangential acceleration of the particle.

  • The tangential acceleration of the particle changes the speed of the particle moving on a circular path.

Question 70

The force acting on a particle of mass m moving along the X-axis is given by F(x) = AX2- Bx. Which one of the following is the potential energy of the particle?

  1. AOption (a)

    2Ax – B

  2. BOption (b)

    −x26(2Ax−3B)- \frac{{{x^2}}}{6}\left( {2Ax - 3B} \right)

  3. COption (c)

    Ax3- Bx2

  4. DOption (d)

    Zero

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

−x26(2Ax−3B)- \frac{{{x^2}}}{6}\left( {2Ax - 3B} \right)

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Force: The interaction which changes or tries to change the position of anybody is called force.
  • SI unit of force is Newton (N).
  • Mathematically force can be written as
  • F = ma

Where m = mass and a = acceleration of the object**.**

  • Potential energy :The energy due to the position of the particle is called the potential energy of the particle**.**
  • The SI unit of potential energy is Joule (J).
  • The relation between force and potential energy is given by:
  • Force;(F)=−dUdx{\rm{Force;}}\left( {\rm{F}} \right) = - \frac{{dU}}{{dx}}

Where U is potential energy and x is the position.

EXPLANATION:

Given- Force = F(x) = AX2- Bx

F=−dUdx=AX2−Bx{\rm{F}} = - \frac{{{\rm{dU}}}}{{{\rm{dx}}}} = {\rm{A}}{{\rm{X}}^2} - {\rm{Bx}}

dU = - (AX2- Bx) dx

Integrate on both sides of the above equation

∫dU=−∫(AX2−;Bx)dx\smallint dU = - \smallint ({\rm{A}}{{\rm{X}}^2} - {\rm{;Bx}}){\rm{dx}}

Potential;energy;(U);=;−Ax33+Bx22=−x26(2Ax−3B){\rm{Potential;energy;}}\left( {\rm{U}} \right){\rm{;}} = {\rm{;}} - \frac{{A{x^3}}}{3} + \frac{{B{x^2}}}{2} = - \frac{{{x^2}}}{6}\left( {2Ax - 3B} \right)

Question 71

The symbol of SI unit of inductance is H. It stands for

  1. AOption (a)

    Holm

  2. BOption (b)

    Halogen

  3. COption (c)

    Henry

  4. DOption (d)

    Hertz

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Henry

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Inductance:

  • The tendency of any conductor which opposes the change in the electric current flowing through it is called as inductance of that conductor.
  • The SI unit of inductance is Henry.

EXPLANATION:

  • As the SI unit of inductance is henry which is denoted by H. So option 3 is correct.
  • Hertz is the SI unit of frequency. So option 4 is wrong.
  • Holm and Halogen are not any name of the units for anything. So options 1 and 2 are wrong**.**

Question 72

In a vacuum, a five-rupee coin, a feather of a sparrow bird and a mango are dropped simultaneously from the same height. The time taken by them to reach the bottom is t1, t2 and t3 respectively. In this situation, we will observe that

  1. AOption (a)

    t1> t2 >t3

  2. BOption (b)

    t1> t3 >t2

  3. COption (c)

    t3> t1 >t2

  4. DOption (d)

    t1= t2 =t3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

t1= t2 =t3

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Acceleration due to gravity (g):

  • The acceleration achieved by any object due to the gravitational force of attraction by the earth is called acceleration due to gravity of earth.
  • It always acts in a downward direction.
  • It is same for all the particles or objects.

The equation of motion is given by:

S=ut+;12at2S = ut + ;\frac{1}{2}a{t^2}

Where S =the distance travelled, a is acceleration, u is initial velocity and t is the time taken.

EXPLANATION:

  • As all three particles are in the vacuum so there is no air resistance or air friction experienced by the objects.
  • All are dropped simultaneously so all will have the same initial velocity (u).
  • Since for all three objects, the acceleration due to gravity is the same so the acceleration of each particle will be the same.

a1 = a2 = a3 = g = acceleration due gravity

S=ut1+;12gt12;S = u{t_1} + ;\frac{1}{2}g{t_1}^2;= distance travelled by five-rupee coin

S=ut2+;12gt22;S = u{t_2} + ;\frac{1}{2}g{t_2}^2; = distance travelled by feather of sparrow bird

S=ut3+;12gt32S = u{t_3} + ;\frac{1}{2}g{t_3}^2 = distance travelled by mango

So t1= t2 =t3

  • As all three are dropped from same height so distance for all is same. Hence time taken by each object will be same. So option 4 is correct.

  • Acceleration due to gravity is independent of mass of the object. All the object will have same acceleration due to gravity.

Question 73

Electron emission from a metallic surface by application of light is known as

  1. AOption (a)

    Thermionic emission

  2. BOption (b)

    Photoelectric emission

  3. COption (c)

    High field emission

  4. DOption (d)

    Auto electronic emission

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Photoelectric emission

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The bundle of light ray is called as photon.
  • When photons fall on a metal surface then free electrons get ejected from the metal surface. This phenomenon is called as photoelectric emission.
  • When a high field is applied across a metal surface then ejection of electron is called as High field emission.
  • When ejection of electrons takes place due to heat is called as thermionic emission.
  • When ejection of electrons takes place due to its own energy is called as auto electronic emission.

EXPLANATION:

  • Here the emission of electrons takes place due to photons or light so the emission is called as photoelectric emission. Hence option 2 is correct.

  • There is a certain minimum energy required to remove an electron from a metal surface. This energy is called as work function of that metal.

Question 74

How long does light take to reach the earth from the Sun?

  1. AOption (a)

    About 4 minutes

  2. BOption (b)

    About 8 minutes

  3. COption (c)

    About 24 minutes

  4. DOption (d)

    About 8 hours

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

About 8 minutes

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The rate of change of distance is called as speed i.e
  • Speed=DistanceTime;taken{\rm{Speed}} = \frac{{{\rm{Distance}}}}{{{\rm{Time;taken}}}}
  • Distance = speed × time taken
  • Speed of light is 3 × 108 m/s.
  • The distance between earth and the sun is about 15 × 107 km.
<br>

EXPLANATION:

Speed of light (V) = 3 × 108 m/s

Distance between earth and sun (S) = 15 × 107 km =15 × 1010 m

Time taken by the light to reach the earth (t) is equal to

Time;taken;(t)=DistanceSpeed{\rm{Time;taken;}}\left( {\rm{t}} \right) = \frac{{{\rm{Distance}}}}{{{\rm{Speed}}}}

⇒Time;taken;(t)=15;×;1010;m3;×;108;m/s=;500;sec;\Rightarrow {\rm{Time;taken;}}\left( {\rm{t}} \right) = \frac{{15{\rm{;}} \times {\rm{;}}{{10}^{10}}{\rm{;m}}}}{{3{\rm{;}} \times {\rm{;}}{{10}^8}{\rm{;m}}/{\rm{s}}}} = {\rm{;}}500{\rm{;sec;}}

⇒Time;taken;(t)=50060=8.2;min≈8;min \Rightarrow {\rm{Time;taken;}}\left( {\rm{t}} \right) = \frac{{500}}{{60}} = 8.2;{\rm{min}} \approx 8{\rm{;min}}

Question 75

Radioactivity is measured by

  1. AOption (a)

    GM Counter

  2. BOption (b)

    Polarimeter

  3. COption (c)

    Calorimeter

  4. DOption (d)

    Colorimeter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

GM Counter

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The instrument which is used to measure the radioactivity is called as GM Counter.
  • The instrument which is used to measure angle of rotation caused by passing polarized light is called as Polarimeter.
  • The instrument which is used to measure the absorbance of particular wavelengths of light is called as Colorimeter.
  • The instrument which is used to measure the heat of chemical reactions is called as Calorimeter.

EXPLANATION:

  • As the radioactivity is measured by GM Counter. So option 1 is correct.

Question 76

The mirror used as rear-view mirrors in vehicle are

  1. AOption (a)

    Concave

  2. BOption (b)

    Convex

  3. COption (c)

    Cylindrical

  4. DOption (d)

    Plane

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Convex

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The optical instrument which reflects the light falling on it and makes images of anybody is called a mirror.
  • The mirror which has a spherical reflecting surface is called a spherical mirror.
  • A mirror whose reflecting surface is flat is called a plane mirror
  • The mirror whose reflecting surface is a part of a cylindrical surface is called a cylindrical mirror.

There are two types of spherical mirror:

Convex mirror:

  • The spherical mirror whose reflecting surface is in upside is called a convex mirror.
  • It always from a virtual image of any object.

Concave mirror:

  • The mirror whose reflecting surface is inward is called a concave mirror.
  • It can form both real as well as virtual images of any object.

EXPLANATION:

  • The convex mirror forms a virtual image of any object which is erect.
  • It also from a full size diminished image of the objects placed at far away distance with a wide range of field of view.
  • Due to a wide range of fields of view we can see the image of the maximum object behind the vehicles.
  • Hence we use a convex mirror in the rearview. So option 2 is correct.

Question 77

Which of the following waves is used for detecting forgery in currency notes?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ultraviolet waves

  2. BOption (b)

    Infrared waves

  3. COption (c)

    Radio waves

  4. DOption (d)

    Microwaves

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ultraviolet waves

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The wave which is generated due to vibration between electric field and magnetic field and it does not need any medium to travel is called an electromagnetic wave.
  • It can travel through a vacuum.
  • The wave having shorter wavelengths than visible light is called Ultraviolet waves.
  • The wave has a wavelength greater than visible light is called Infrared waves.
  • The wave has a wavelength greater than infrared is called a Radio wave.
  • The wave having a shorter wavelength than that of radio waves but longer than that of infrared are called microwaves.

EXPLANATION:

  • The original currency notes have some strip embedded into it.
  • The forged currency doesn’t have these strips.
  • The Ultraviolet waves detect these strips and we can catch the forged currency. Hence option 1 is correct.

Question 78

The majority charge carriers in a p-type semiconductor are

  1. AOption (a)

    Free electrons

  2. BOption (b)

    Conduction electron

  3. COption (c)

    Ions

  4. DOption (d)

    Holes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Holes

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The material which is not a good conductor or a good insulator is called as semiconductor.
  • For example: Silicon
  • The charge carriers which are present in more quantity in a semiconductor compared to other particles are called majority charge carrier.

There are two types of semiconductors:

P-type semiconductor:

  • The semiconductor having holes as majority charge carriers is called as P-type semiconductor.

N-type semiconductor:

  • The semiconductor having free electrons as majority charge carriers is called as N-type semiconductor.

EXPLANATION:

  • As the majority charge carrier in p-type is holes. So option 4 is correct**.**

Question 79

The ionization energy of hydrogen atom in the ground state is

  1. AOption (a)

    13.6 MeV

  2. BOption (b)

    13.6 eV

  3. COption (c)

    13.6 Joules

  4. DOption (d)

    Zero

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

13.6 eV

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The minimum energy required to remove an electron from the ground state to outside the atom is called ionization energy.
  • The energy of electrons in any orbit is given by:

Energy;in;nth;orbit;(En;)=;−13.6;Z2n2;eV{\bf{Energy}};{\bf{in}};{\bf{nth}};{\bf{orbit}}{\rm{;}}\left( {{E_{n;}}} \right) = ; - 13.6;\frac{{{Z^2}}}{{{n^2}}};eV

Where n = principal quantum number and Z = the atomic number

CALCULATION:

For hydrogen atom:

Atomic number (Z) = 1

We have to remove the electrons from the ground state to the outside.

At ground level, n = 1

Energy;in;ground;state;(E1;)=;−13.6;112=−13.6;eV{\bf{Energy}};{\bf{in}};{\bf{ground}};{\bf{state}}{\rm{;}}\left( {{E_{1;}}} \right) = ; - 13.6;\frac{1}{{{1^2}}} = -13.6;eV

Energy outside the atom (EO) = 0

  • So energy required to remove electrons is equal to Ionization energy (E)

⇒ E = Eo – E1 = 0 – (-13.6) = 13.6 eV

Question 80

When pure water boils vigorously, the bubbles that rise to the surface are composed primarily of

  1. AOption (a)

    air

  2. BOption (b)

    hydrogen

  3. COption (c)

    hydrogen and oxygen

  4. DOption (d)

    water vapour

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

water vapour

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e water vapour.

  • Boiling is the process in which a liquid turns into a vapor when it is heated to its boiling point.
  • Boiling is a physical change and NOT a chemical change.
  • When pure water is boiled, the bubbles in the boiling liquid are made up of molecules of the liquid which have gained enough energy to change to the gaseous phase.
  • This bubble is primarily composed of water vapours.

Question 81

Which compound, when dissolved in water, conducts electricity and forms a basic solution?

  1. AOption (a)

    HCI

  2. BOption (b)

    CH3COOH

  3. COption (c)

    CH3OH

  4. DOption (d)

    NaOH

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

NaOH

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e NaOH.

  • NaOH or Sodium Hydroxide, when dissolved in Water conducts electricity and forms a basic solution.
  • NaOH is a strong electrolyte.
  • A strong electrolyte is an ionic compound that dissociates completely in water & conducts electricity.
  • Only HCl and NaOH are strong electrolytes from the given options.
  • NaOH is an alkali, a water-soluble base and hence would form a basic solution when dissolved in water.

Question 82

Which of the following is the principal use of hydrofluoric acid?

  1. AOption (a)

    Etching glass

  2. BOption (b)

    Bleaching agent

  3. COption (c)

    Extremely strong oxidizing agent

  4. DOption (d)

    Preparation of storing organic fluorine compounds.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Etching glass

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1, i.e Etching glass.

  • Hydrofluoric acid is a colourless solution of hydrogen fluoride in water.
  • It is highly corrosive and can dissolve many materials.
  • It is used in the etching of glass as it is highly reactive to glass.
  • Hydrofluoric acid is a non-oxidizing acid.
  • Hydrofluoric acid is highly used in organofluorine chemistry, though not for storage purposes.
  • The acid acts as a fluorine source in the production of organofluorine compounds such as teflon, fluorocarbons, fluoropolymers, and refrigerants like freon.

Question 83

The species that has the same number of electrons as 1735Cl{}_{17}^{35}Cl is

  1. AOption (a)

    1632S{}_{16}^{32}S

  2. BOption (b)

    1634S+{}_{16}^{34}S^+

  3. COption (c)

    1840Ar+{}_{18}^{40}Ar^+

  4. DOption (d)

    1635S{}_{16}^{35}S2-

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1840Ar+{}_{18}^{40}Ar^+

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1840Ar{}_{18}^{40}Ar+

⋆ The number of electrons = Number of protons = Atomic number.

⋆ ZAX{}_Z^AX, where X is the symbol, A is the Mass Number, and Z is the Atomic Number.

⋆ In 1735Cl{}_{17}^{35}Cl, the number of electrons = 17.

⋆ In 1632S{}_{16}^{32}S, the number of electrons = 16.

⋆ In 1634S{}_{16}^{34}S+, the number of electrons = 16 - 1 = 15

⋆ In 1840Ar{}_{18}^{40}Ar+, the number of electrons = 18 - 1 = 17

⋆ In 1635S{}_{16}^{35}S2-, the number of electrons = 16 + 2 = 18

Question 84

The compound C6H12­O4 contains________.

  1. AOption (a)

    22 atoms per mole

  2. BOption (b)

    twice the mass percent of H as compared to the mass percent of C

  3. COption (c)

    six times the mass percent of C as compared to the mass percent of H

  4. DOption (d)

    thrice the mass percent of H as compared to the mass percent of O

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

six times the mass percent of C as compared to the mass percent of H

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is six times the mass percent of C as compared to the mass percent of H.

Key Points

  • Carbon has a molar mass of 12u.
  • Hydrogen has a molar mass of 1u.
  • Oxygen has a molar mass of 16u.
  • The molar mass of C in C6H12O4 = 6 × 12 = 72u.
  • The molar mass of H in C6H12O4 = 1 × 12 = 12u.

Hence, the Mass percent of C is six times as compared to the mass percent of H.

Question 85

The proposition ‘equal volumes of different gases contain equal numbers of molecules at the same temperature and pressure ' is known as

  1. AOption (a)

    Avogadro’s hypothesis

  2. BOption (b)

    Gay-Lussac’s hypothesis

  3. COption (c)

    Planck’s hypothesis

  4. DOption (d)

    Kirchhoff’s theory

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Avogadro’s hypothesis

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Avagadro’s Hypothesis.

Key Points

  • Avogadro's law:
  • Avogadro law states that equal volumes of all gases under the same conditions of temperature and pressure contain an equal number of molecules.

V∝ n, where n is the number of moles of the gas

V=k4nV=k_{4}n

The number of molecules in one mole of a gas is 6.022×1023, which is known as the Avogadro constant.

 Additional Information

  • Gay-Lussac’s Hypothesis states that at constant volume, the pressure of a fixed amount of a gas varies directly with the temperature.
  • Planck’s Hypothesis states that the energy emitted or absorbed is not continuous, but is in the form of packets called quanta. In terms of light, it is called a photon.
  • Kirchhoff's First Law states that at the junction, the sum of current entering the junction is equal to the sum of current leaving the junction.

Question 86

Which one of the following statements about the IIbert Bill is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    It proposed that the Indian magistrates would try Europeans in criminal cases.

  2. BOption (b)

    It allowed Indians to file criminal cases against Europeans.

  3. COption (c)

    It authorized Indian ICS officers to try Europeans in courts.

  4. DOption (d)

    It was an agitation led by Ilbert in support of the nationalists.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

It proposed that the Indian magistrates would try Europeans in criminal cases.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1, i.e It proposed that the Indian magistrates would try Europeans in criminal cases.

Key Points

  • Lord Rippon introduced this bill to remove racial prejudice from the Indian Penal Code.
  • According to the then prevailing law, a European could be tried only by a European Judge/Magistrate.
  • Europeans strongly opposed the Ilbert bill, a bill introduced by C.P Ilbert, who sought to end such a discriminatory practice.
  • Rippon was forced to amend the bill to satisfy the English men in India, that they wouldn’t be tried by the Indian Magistrates.
  • Ultimately, the bill was withdrawn only to be reintroduced and enacted in 1884.
  • The amended bill, however, had very diluted provisions.
  • It stated that the Europeans would be conferred on European and India District Magistrates alike, however, a defendant would have the right to claim it from a jury.
  • Such a jury was to comprise at least half of members who were Britishers.
  • The Ilbert Bill controversy helped with the Indian nationalism cause and proved to be a high watermark in the history of the Indian National Movement.

Question 87

Who among the following can attend the meetings of both houses of Parliament while not being a member of either House?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Solicitor General of India

  2. BOption (b)

    The Vice-president of India

  3. COption (c)

    The Comptroller and auditor General of India

  4. DOption (d)

    The Attorney General of India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The Attorney General of India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e The Attorney General of India.

  • The Constitution (Article 76) has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India.
  • He is the highest law officer in the country.
  • The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the President.
  • He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court.
  • In other words, he must be a citizen of India and he must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the president.
  • The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution.
  • Further, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal.
  • He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
  • He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without a right to vote.
  • He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to members of Parliament.

Question 88

Who among the following was believed to be a leader of the Sanyasis and Fakirs conspiring against the British in 1857?

  1. AOption (a)

    Mangal Pandey

  2. BOption (b)

    Bahadur Shah II

  3. COption (c)

    Queen Zeenat Mahal

  4. DOption (d)

    Nana Sahib

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Nana Sahib

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Nana Sahib.

  • Nana Sahib was believed to be the leader of the Sanyasis and Fakirs conspiring against the British in 1857.

Key Points

  • Nana Sahib was believed to be the leader of the Sanyasis and Fakirs in the 1857 Revolt.
  • Sanyasi Revolt or uprising engulfed the area of Bengal {including modern Bangladesh}, Bihar, and Uttar Pradesh.
  • Anandamath, written by India’s first modern novelist Bankim Chandra Chatterjee is the best reminder of the Sanyasi/Fakir Rebellion.
  • Vande Mataram, India’s National Song has been taken from this novel.
  • The sanyasis, with a tradition of fighting against oppression, espoused the popular causes and organized raids on the company’s factories, state treasuries, and valiantly fought against the Company’s armed forces.

Additional Information

  • Mangal Pandey belonged to the 34 Native Infantry.
  • Bahadur Shah II was the last Mughal Emperor.
  • Queen Zeenat Mahal was the wife of Bahadur Shah Zafar.

Question 89

Who among the following was the founder of the Avadh Kingdom in the 18th century?

  1. AOption (a)

    Murshid Quli Khan

  2. BOption (b)

    Saadat Khan

  3. COption (c)

    Alivardi Khan

  4. DOption (d)

    Sarfaraz Khan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Saadat Khan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, i.e Saadat Khan.

  • With the decline in the authority of the Mughal emperors, the governors of large provinces, subadars, and the great zamindars consolidated their authority in different parts of the subcontinent.
  • Through the eighteenth century, the Mughal Empire gradually fragmented into a number of independent, regional states.
  • With this evolved the new states of Awadh, Bengal, and Hyderabad.
  • Burhan-ul-Mulk Sa‘adat Khan was appointed subadar of Awadh in 1722 and he founded the state.
  • Murshid Quli Khan was the founder of the Bengal province.
  • The close connection between the state and bankers – noticeable in Hyderabad and Awadh as well – was evident in Bengal under the rule of Alivardi Khan (1740-1756).
  • During his reign the banking house of Jagat Seth became extremely prosperous.

Question 90

Who among the following was the founder of the Young Bengal Movement?

  1. AOption (a)

    Henry Vivian Derozio

  2. BOption (b)

    David Hare

  3. COption (c)

    Dwarkanath Tagore

  4. DOption (d)

    Presanna Kumar Tagore

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Henry Vivian Derozio

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1, i.e Henry Vivian Derozio.

Key Points

  • During the late 1820s and early 1830s, there emerged a radical, intellectual trend among the youth in Bengal, which came to be known as the ‘Young Bengal Movement’.
  • A young Anglo-Indian, Henry Vivian Derozio (1809-31), who taught at the Hindu College from 1826 to 1831, was the leader and inspirer of this progressive trend.
  • Drawing inspiration from the great French Revolution, Derozio inspired his pupils to think freely and rationally, question all authority, love liberty, equality, and freedom, and oppose decadent customs and traditions. Derozians also supported women’s rights and education.
  • The Derozians, however, failed to have a long-term impact.
  • Derozio was removed from the Hindu College in 1831 because of his radicalism.
  • The main reason for their limited success was the prevailing social conditions at that time, which were not ripe for the adoption of radical ideas.
  • Further, there was no support from any other social group or class.

Question 91

Which one of the following statements about the Quit India Movement is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    It broke out in August 1942.

  2. BOption (b)

    Ahmedabad Textile Mills went on strike for more than three months.

  3. COption (c)

    Muslim League and Hindu Mahasabha actively participated in the movement.

  4. DOption (d)

    Communist Party did not support the movement.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Muslim League and Hindu Mahasabha actively participated in the movement.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • After Cripps’ departure, Gandhi framed a resolution calling for British withdrawal and a non-violent non-cooperation movement against any Japanese invasion.
  • The CWC(Congress Working Committee) meeting at Wardha (July 14, 1942) accepted the idea of a struggle.
  • The Quit India Resolution was ratified at the Congress meeting at Gowalia Tank, Bombay, on August 8, 1942.
  • The Muslim League opposed the movement, fearing that if the British left India at that time, the minorities would be oppressed by the Hindus.
  • The Hindu Mahasabha boycotted the movement.
  • The Communists did not join the movement; in the wake of Russia (where the communists were in power) being attacked by Nazi Germany, the communists began to support the British war against Germany and the ‘Imperialist War’ became the ‘People’s War’.
  • Workers went on strike in Ahmedabad, Bombay, Jamshedpur, Ahmednagar, and Poona.

Question 92

Who among the following is the winner of the Singapore Open Superseries Badminton Men’s Singles title 2017?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kidambi Srikanth

  2. BOption (b)

    Lin Dan

  3. COption (c)

    B. Sai Praneeth

  4. DOption (d)

    Kento Momota

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

B. Sai Praneeth

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is B. Sai Praneeth.

  • B. Sai Praneeth is the winner of the Singapore Open Superseries Badminton Men’s Singles title 2017.

 Key Points

  • Praneeth prevailed 17-21, 21-17, 21-12 in a 54-minute contest.

  • It was the first all-Indian Super Series final in the history of the game.

  • He clenched his maiden Super Series title at the Singapore Open after defeating compatriot K Srikanth in a historic all-Indian final.

  • Chou Tien-Chen was the winner of the Singapore Open Superseries Badminton Men’s Singles title 2018.

  • Kento Momota was the winner of the Singapore Open Superseries Badminton Men’s Singles title 2019.

Question 93

Koradi Thermal power Station is located in

  1. AOption (a)

    Nagpur

  2. BOption (b)

    Raipur

  3. COption (c)

    Mumbai

  4. DOption (d)

    Secunderabad

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Nagpur

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1, i.e Nagpur.

  • Koradi Thermal Power Station (KTPS) is located at Koradi near Nagpur, Maharashtra.
  • The Maharashtra cabinet in March 2019 granted in-principle approval for setting up two more 660 MW coal-based supercritical units at the Koradi Thermal Power Station.

Other Thermal Power Plants in Maharashtra are:-

  1. Chandrapur Super Thermal Power Station
  2. Koradi Thermal Power Station
  3. Khaparkheda Thermal Power Station
  4. Bhusawal Thermal Power Station
  5. Nashik Thermal Power Station
  6. Parli Thermal Power Station
  7. Paras Thermal Power Station, Akola
  8. RattanIndia Amravati Thermal Power Project, Amravati

Question 94

Which one of the following is the theme of the international day for monuments and sites (World Heritage Day) 2017?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Heritage of Sport

  2. BOption (b)

    Cultural Heritage and Sustainable Tourism

  3. COption (c)

    Past and Present Heritage

  4. DOption (d)

    Heritage and Science

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Cultural Heritage and Sustainable Tourism

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Cultural Heritage and Sustainable Tourism.

Key Points

  • The 2017 World Heritage Day was observed across the world on 18 April 2017.
  • The theme for the year is Cultural Heritage & Sustainable Tourism.
  • The theme for the 2017 World Heritage Day is in line with the United Nations International year of Sustainable Tourism for Development.
  • The context is Sustainable Development Goals 2030 Agenda.
  • International Day for Monuments and Sites traditionally called World Heritage Day was observed across the world on 18 April 2016 with the theme ‘The Heritage of Sport’.

Question 95

In April 2017, US dropped MOAB (Massive Ordnance Air Blast is popularly known as the Mother of all Bombs.) in the suspected hideouts of militants in one of the following countries?

  1. AOption (a)

    Iran

  2. BOption (b)

    Syria

  3. COption (c)

    Afghanistan

  4. DOption (d)

    Somalia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Afghanistan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3, i.e Afghanistan.

  • While waging war against militants in Afghanistan, the US military dropped a GBU-43/B Massive Ordnance Air Blast (MOAB) weapon, more commonly known as the “Mother of All Bombs,” on the ISIS caves in Afganistan.
  • The Moab or GBU-43/B is the world’s largest non-nuclear weapon.
  • It can destroy heavily reinforced targets.
  • Its blast is equivalent to 11 tons of TNT. By comparison, the nuclear weapon dropped on Hiroshima had a blast yield of 15 tons of TNT.
  • While it has a blast radius that stretches a mile in each direction the bomb leaves no lasting radiation effect because it is non-nuclear.
  • China has developed a massive bomb, said to be the country’s answer to the US-built ‘Mother of All Bombs’, the most powerful non-nuclear weapon.
  • It is dubbed as the Chinese version of the “Mother of All Bombs” due to its huge destruction potential that is claimed to be only second to nuclear weapons.

Question 96

Who among the following is the Chairman of the Interdisciplinary Committee constituted recently by the Government of India to examine framework for virtual currencies?

  1. AOption (a)

    Secretary, Department of Financial Services

  2. BOption (b)

    Special Secretary, Department of Revenue

  3. COption (c)

    Special Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs

  4. DOption (d)

    deputy Governor, Reserve Bank of India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Special Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3, i.e Special Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs.

  • The circulation of Virtual Currencies which are also known as Digital/Crypto Currencies has been a cause of concern.
  • Reserve Bank of India had also cautioned the users, holders and traders of Virtual currencies (VCs), including Bitcoins.
  • In order to examine the existing framework, Department of Economic Affairs, Ministry of Finance has constituted an Inter- Disciplinary Committee chaired by Special Secretary (Economic Affairs) and representatives from Department of Economic Affairs, Department of Financial Services, Department of Revenue (CBDT), Ministry of Home Affairs, Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology , Reserve Bank of India ,NITI Aayog and State Bank of India.
  • The Committee will
  • Take stock of the present status of Virtual Currencies both in India and globally;
  • Examine the existing global regulatory and legal structures governing Virtual Currencies;
  • Suggest measures for dealing with such Virtual Currencies including issues relating to consumer protection, money laundering , etc; and
  • Examine any other matter related to Virtual Currencies which may be relevant.

Question 97

SAMPADA scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of

  1. AOption (a)

    Finance

  2. BOption (b)

    Housing and Urban Affairs

  3. COption (c)

    Food Processing Industries

  4. DOption (d)

    Earth Sciences

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Food Processing Industries

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is Option 3, i.e Ministry of Food Processing Industries.

Key Points

  • The scheme is a comprehensive package that aims at creating a modern infrastructure with an efficient supply chain management directly from farm gate to the retail outlet.
  • It is an umbrella scheme with a number of schemes under its gamut.
  • These include 
  • Mega Food Parks
  • Integrated Cold Chain, Value Addition and Preservation Infrastructure
  • Creation/Expansion of Food Processing/Preservation Capacities
  • Infrastructure for Agro Processing Clusters
  • Scheme for Creation of Backward and Forward Linkages
  • Food Safety & Quality Assurance Infrastructure
  • Human Resources and Institutions
  • It will help in reducing the agriculture wastage, and increase the level of processing.
  • Processing of food would help in making the food affordable to the consumers and increasing exports of the processed foods.

Question 98

The shortest day length that occurs in the Northern hemisphere is on

  1. AOption (a)

    21st March

  2. BOption (b)

    23rd September

  3. COption (c)

    22nd November

  4. DOption (d)

    22nd December

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

22nd December

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 22nd December.

Key Points

  • The shortest day and the longest night of the year in the northern hemisphere occur during the winter solstice.
  • Winter Solstice usually comes on 22nd December or 21st December.
  • This is also the day of the longest day and the shortest night in the Southern hemisphere.
  • Summer Solstice is usually observed on 21st June on which the Northern Hemisphere observes the longest day and shortest night.
  • At this time in the Southern Hemisphere, all these conditions are reversed. It is winter season there.

Question 99

The Indian Railways have gone in for qualitative improvements since independence. Which of the following have taken place in recent years?

  1. Gauge conversion

  2. Track electrification

  3. Automatic signals

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2, and 3.

Key Points

  • Some of the most recent initiatives undertaken by the Indian Railways for enhanced safety and qualitative improvements include-
  • Induction of technology for safety improvements – Smart Coach
  • Gauge conversion
  • Online Monitoring of Rolling Stock (OMRS)
  • Elimination of Level Crossings
  • Track electrification
  • Mechanization of Inspection, Monitoring, and Maintenance of Track
  • Automatic signals

Additional Information

  • About Indian Railway:
  • Lord Dalhousie is known as the father of Indian Railways.
  • The first railway minister of India was John Mathai.
  • The first railway on the Indian sub-continent ran over a stretch of 21 miles from Bombay to Thane.
  • The idea of a railway to connect Bombay with Thane, Kalyan and with the Thal and Bhore Ghats inclines first occurred to Mr. George Clark, the Chief Engineer of the Bombay Government, during a visit to Bhandup in 1843.
  • The first formal inauguration ceremony was performed in 1853.

Important Points 

  • The Darjeeling Himalayan Railway was the first and is still the most outstanding, an example of a hill passenger railway in India, which opened in 1881.
  • ​It got UNESCO recognition in the year 1999.

Question 100

In India, the maximum amount of rainfall is received from

  1. AOption (a)

    Western disturbances

  2. BOption (b)

    North-east Monsoon

  3. COption (c)

    South-west Monsoon

  4. DOption (d)

    Retreating Monsoon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

South-west Monsoon

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is South-West Monsoon.

  • Air moves from the high-pressure area over the southern Indian Ocean, in a south-easterly direction, crosses the equator and turns right towards the low-pressure areas over the Indian subcontinent.
  • These are known as the Southwest Monsoon winds responsible for widespread rainfall in mainland India.
  • Due to the shift of ITCZ, the trade winds of the southern hemisphere cross the equator between 40° and 60°E longitudes and start blowing from southwest to northeast due to the Coriolis force. It becomes southwest monsoon.
  • In winter, the ITCZ moves southward, and so the reversal of winds from northeast to south and southwest takes place. They are called northeast monsoons.
  • The western cyclonic disturbances are weather phenomena of the winter months brought in by the westerly flow from the Mediterranean region.
  • They usually influence the weather of the north and north-western regions of India.
  • The season of retreating monsoon (October and November) is a period of transition between the warm rainy monsoon and the dry cool winter.

Question 101

Which set of the following biosphere reserves in India is included in the World Network of Biosphere Reserves?

  1. AOption (a)

    Gulf of Mannar, Nokrek, Pachmarhi and Simlipal

  2. BOption (b)

    Gulf of Mannar, Kanchenjunga, Nokrek and Seshachalam

  3. COption (c)

    Nilgiri, Nokrek, Pachmarhi and Manas

  4. DOption (d)

    Nilgiri, Nokrek, Pachmarhi and Seshachalam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Gulf of Mannar, Nokrek, Pachmarhi and Simlipal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1, i.e Gulf of Mannar, Nokrek, Pachmarhi, and Simlipal.

  • The Biosphere Reserve Programme is guided by UNESCO Man and Biosphere (MAB) programme as India is a signatory to the landscape approach supported by MAB programme.
  • A scheme called Biosphere Reserve has been implemented by the Government of India since 1986, in which financial assistance is given in 90:10 ratio to the North Eastern Region States and three Himalayan states and in the ratio of 60:40 to other states for maintenance, improvement and development of certain items.
  • There are a total of 11 out of the 18 Biosphere Reserves in India, which form a part of the UNESCO MAB Programme.
  • The latest entrant in the MAB Programme is Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve, located in Sikkim.
  • The list of 12 out of the 18 Biosphere Reserves which are included in the UNESCO MAB Programme include -
  • Nilgiri (First to be included)
  • Gulf of Mannar
  • Sunderban
  • Panna
  • Nanda Devi
  • Nokrek
  • Pachmarhi
  • Similipal
  • Achanakmar - Amarkantak
  • Great Nicobar
  • Agasthyamala
  • Khangchendzonga (Added under Man and Biosphere Reserve Program in 2018)

Question 102

Which of the following statements about magnetite ore of iron is/are correct?

  1. It is known as Black ore.
  2. It contains 60% to 70% of pure iron.
  3. It possesses magnetic properties.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer 1, 2, and 3.

Key Points 

  • Magnetite, also called lodestone, or magnetic iron ore, iron oxide mineral (Fe3O4) that is also known as Black Ore.
  • Magnetite is the finest iron ore with a very high content of iron up to 70 per cent.
  • It has excellent magnetic qualities, especially valuable in the electrical industry.
  • Hence, all the statements are correct.

Additional Information

  • Hematite ore is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of the quantity used, but has a slightly lower iron content than magnetite. (50-60 per cent).
  • Iron is responsible for the red color in many of our rocks and the deep red sands of the Australian deserts and is a key ingredient in steelmaking.
  • Important ores of iron are:
  • Magnetite.
  • Hematite
  • Siderite.
  • Limonite.

Question 103

Which one of the following vitamins has a role in blood clotting?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vitamin A

  2. BOption (b)

    Vitamin D

  3. COption (c)

    Vitamin E

  4. DOption (d)

    Vitamin K

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Vitamin K

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vitamin K.

  • Vitamin K has a role in blood clotting.

Key Points

  • Vitamin K is commonly used for blood clotting issues.
  • It is also used for reversing the blood thinning effects.
  • Vitamin K is synthesized in the colon by the bacteria and from there it is absorbed.

Additional Information

  • Vitamin A has a function in increasing vision and maintaining the immune system.
  • Vitamin D helps in maintaining strong bones.
  • Vitamin E is fat-soluble and an antioxidant helping in protecting the skin against free radicals.
  • Vitamins that are soluble in water: Vitamin-B and Vitamin-C.
  • Vitamins that are soluble in fat: Vitamin-A, Vitamin-D, Vitamin-E and Vitamin-K.

Question 104

The term ‘Probiotic’ is applied to

  1. AOption (a)

    Organic food

  2. BOption (b)

    Antacid

  3. COption (c)

    Antibiotic

  4. DOption (d)

    Live microbial food supplement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Live microbial food supplement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Live Microbial Food Supplement.

  • The term ‘Probiotic’ is applied to live microbial food supplements.

Key Points

  • The term ‘Probiotic’ is applied to live microbial food supplements.
  • These are the live microorganisms that are useful for health benefits and keeping the stomach free of worms.

Additional Information

  • Antacids help neutralize stomach acid.
  • Antibiotics are antimicrobial agents which fight against the bacterial infections or inhibit the growth of harmful bacterias.

Question 105

Which one of the following microbes causes acidification and curdling of milk?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lactic Acid Bacillus

  2. BOption (b)

    Clostridium botulinum

  3. COption (c)

    Vibrio cholera

  4. DOption (d)

    Saccharomyces cerevisiae

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Lactic Acid Bacillus

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Lactic Acid Bacillus.

  • Lactic Acid Bacillus causes acidification and curdling of milk.

Key Points

  • Lactic Acid Bacillus causes acidification and curdling of milk.
  • It ferments lactose to lactic acid and other end products.

Additional Information

  • Clostridium botulinum is a bacterium that produces dangerous toxins (botulinum toxins) under low-oxygen conditions and can cause Foodborne botulism.
  • Cholera is an acute diarrhoeal infection that is caused by the ingestion of food or water contaminated with the bacterium Vibrio cholerae.
  • Saccharomyces cerevisiae has a wide range of industrial and biotechnology-based applications due to its associated key roles in fermentation.

Question 106

Who among the following shared the Nobel Prize in 1962 along with Francis Crick and James Watson for their discoveries concerning the molecular structure of nucleic acids?

  1. AOption (a)

    Erwin Chargaff

  2. BOption (b)

    Maurice Hugh Frederick Wilkins

  3. COption (c)

    Rosalind Franklin

  4. DOption (d)

    Phoebus Levene

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Maurice Hugh Frederick Wilkins

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Maurice Hugh Frederick Williams.

  • Maurice Hugh Frederick Wilkins shared the Nobel Prize in 1962 along with Francis Crick and James Watson for their discoveries concerning the molecular structure of nucleic acids.

Key Points

  • Maurice Hugh Frederick Williams shared the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine 1962 with Francis Crick and James Watson.
  • This was for their discoveries concerning the molecular structure of nucleic acids, along with the significance of information transfer in living material.

Additional Information

  • The research done by Erwin Chargaff paved the way for the discoveries of DNA's structure and its method of replication.
  • Rosalind Franklin is known for the molecular structures of DNA, RNA, viruses, coal, and graphite.
  • Phoebus Levene studied the structure and function of nucleic acids.
  • Nobel Prize:
  • The Nobel Prizes are given under the will of Alfred Bernhard Nobel, who died in 1896.
  • Nobel Prizes are given each year in the six fields.
  • The Nobel Prizes for Peace, Physics, Chemistry, Medicine, and Literature were started in 1901.
  • The Nobel Prize for Economics was started in 1968.
  • The prize-awarding bodies are the
  • Swedish Academy of literature awards the Prize in Literature.
  • The Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences awards the prize in Physics and Chemistry.
  • The Nobel Assembly of Karolinska Chirurgical (Sweden) awards the prize in Medicine (Physiology).
  • The Bank of Sweden awards the Prize in Economics.
  • The Committee of the Norwegian Parliament awards the prize for Peace.

Question 107

Water boils at a lower temperature at high altitudes, because

  1. AOption (a)

    the air pressure is less

  2. BOption (b)

    outside temperature is less

  3. COption (c)

    latent heat is less

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

the air pressure is less

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the air pressure is less.

Key Points

  • The boiling point of water is lower at higher altitudes due to the decreased atmospheric pressure.
  • A liquid/water boils when its vapour pressure exceeds the total atmospheric pressure over it.
  • Unlike Pressure Cooking where the boiling point is higher due to high pressure,  at higher-altitude cooking takes place at lower atmospheric pressure.
  • This requires more cooking time.
  • Water boils at 212º F at sea level.
  • At higher altitudes, the boiling point of water decreases, which leads to longer cooking times.
  • Relation of Pressure and altitude:
  • Pressure decreases with increasing altitude.

Question 108

Concave mirrors are used in headlights of vehicles, because they

  1. AOption (a)

    Focus light from the bulb onto nearby vehicle

  2. BOption (b)

    Send parallel rays

  3. COption (c)

    Fit well into the shape of the headlight

  4. DOption (d)

    Are cheaper than other mirrors

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Send parallel rays

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Spherical mirror: The mirror which has a spherical reflecting surface is called a spherical mirror.

There are two types of spherical mirror:

  • Convex mirror: The spherical mirror whose reflecting surface is away from the center of curvature is called a convex mirror.
  • It always from a virtual image of any object.
  • Concave mirror: The mirror whose reflecting surface is inward is called a concave mirror.
  • It can form both real as well as virtual images of any object.

EXPLANATION:

  • When an object is placed at focus of the concave mirror then it forms the image of that object at infinity.
  • In case of head lights of vehicles, the bulb is placed at focus so that all the light rays after reflection go in parallel lines.
  • Due to these parallel rays, it allows the light to go at infinity and we can see the objects far away from vehicle.
  • Thus concave mirror send parallel rays. Hence option 2 is correct.

Question 109

If some object is weighed when submerged in water, what will happen to its weight compared to its weight in air?

  1. AOption (a)

    Increased

  2. BOption (b)

    Decrease

  3. COption (c)

    Remain exactly the same

  4. DOption (d)

    Increase or decrease cannot be predicted

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Decrease

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Archimedes principle:

  • Any object which is submerged in a fluid is acted upon by an upward force whose magnitude is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced.
  • The upward force applied on the object is called as buoyant force.
  • If the mass of the object is m then mg is the weight (W) of the object. Weight of any object always act in downward direction.

EXPLANATION:

  • When the object is submerged in water then the buoyancy force (Fb) act on the object in upward direction.
  • Apparent weight of the object (W’) = (W - Fb) = weight of object when it is submerged in water.
  • So W’ < W
  • Where W is the real weight of the object = weight of object in air.
  • Due to the buoyancy force the weight of the object decreases. Hence option 2 is correct.

Question 110

Light year is a measure of

  1. AOption (a)

    Time 

  2. BOption (b)

    Distance

  3. COption (c)

    Total amount of light falling on the earth in a year

  4. DOption (d)

    Average intensity of light falling on the earth in a year

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Distance

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Distance.

Concept:

Light year:

  • The distance travelled by light in one year is called as light year.
  • It is the unit of astronomical distance.
  • 1 light year = 9.461 trillion kilometers which is a very large distance.

Explanation:

  • As light year is the distance travelled by light in a year so light year is a unit of distance. Hence option 2 is correct.

Important points:

  • We can measure a very large distance with the help of light year. Thus light year is a unit for measurement of very large distance.

Question 111

Which of the following statement about a satellite orbiting around the earth is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Satellite is kept in orbit by remote control from ground station

  2. BOption (b)

    Satellite is kept in orbit by retro-rocket and solar energy keeps it moving around the earth

  3. COption (c)

    Satellite requires energy from solar panels and solid fuels for orbiting

  4. DOption (d)

    Satellite does not require any energy for orbiting.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Satellite does not require any energy for orbiting.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4.

CONCEPT:

Gravitational force:

  • Each object having mass attracts other masses with a force. This force of attraction is called a gravitational force.

Newton’s law of gravitation:

According to this law:

  • When two objects having masses are placed at a certain distance then the gravitational force is directly proportional to the product of masses and it is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

Gravitational;force;(;F);∝;m1m2r2{\bf{Gravitational}};{\bf{force}}{\rm{;}} ({\rm{;}}F); \propto ;\frac{{{m_1}{m_2}}}{{{r^2}}}

F=G;m1m2r2F = G;\frac{{{m_1}{m_2}}}{{{r^2}}}

Where G is gravitational constant, r is the distance between two masses, m1 and m2 are the masses.

  • Centrifugal force: When an object is moving on a circular path then a force acting along the radial direction and away from the centre is called a centrifugal force.
  • Mathematically centrifugal force (Fc) can be written as

Fc=;mV2rF_c = ;\frac{{m{V^2}}}{r}

Where m is mass of the revolving object, V is velocity and r is the radius of the circular path.

EXPLANATION:

  • The satellite moves on a circular path around the earth. There is a gravitational force by the earth on satellite and a centrifugal force on the satellite.

Gravitational;force;on;satellite;(F)=;G;M;mr2{\rm{Gravitational;force;on;satellite;}}\left( {\rm{F}} \right) = ;\frac{{G;M;m}}{{{r^2}}}

Centrifugal;force;on;satellite;(FC)=mV2r{\rm{Centrifugal;force;on;satellite;}}\left( {{F_C}} \right) = \frac{{m{V^2}}}{r}

F = FC

  • Since the centrifugal force is balanced by the gravitational force by the earth on the satellite, therefore, there is no need for any extra work to do to move the satellite.
  • Hence a satellite doesn’t require any energy for orbiting. So option 4 is correct.

Question 112

Which of the following statements about energy is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Energy can be created as well as destroyed

  2. BOption (b)

    Energy can be created but not destroyed

  3. COption (c)

    Energy can neither be created nor destroyed

  4. DOption (d)

    Energy can’t be created but can be destroyed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Energy can neither be created nor destroyed

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Energy**:** The capacity of anybody to do work is called as the energy of that body.

Energy conservation:

According to the energy conservation principle,

  • The energy of any object can never be created nor can it be destroyed. It can only be converted from one form to another form.
  • For example: In an electric heater, electrical energy is converted into heat energy.

EXPLANATION:

  • According to energy conservation, the energy can never be created nor destroyed. So option 3 is correct.

Question 113

Step-up transformers are used for

  1. AOption (a)

    Increasing electrical power

  2. BOption (b)

    Decreasing electrical power

  3. COption (c)

    Decreasing voltage

  4. DOption (d)

    Increasing voltage

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Increasing voltage

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Transformer:

  • An electrical device that is used to transfer electrical energy from one electrical circuit to another is called a transformer.

There are two types of transformer:

1. Step-up transformer:

  • The transformer which increases the potential is called a step-up transformer.
  • The number of turns in the secondary coil is more than that in the primary coil.

2.Step-down transformer:

  • The transformer which decreases the potential is called a step-down transformer.
  • The number of turns in the secondary coil is less than that in the primary coil.

EXPLANATION:

  • As in the step-up transformer, the number of coils in the secondary coil is more than that in the primary coil. So the electrical potential increases.

  • Hence step-up transformer is used for increasing the voltage/potential. So option 4 is correct.

  • In step-up transformer, the current in the secondary coil is less than that in the primary coil.

Question 114

Which one among the following waves carries the maximum energy per photon?

  1. AOption (a)

    X-rays

  2. BOption (b)

    Radio waves

  3. COption (c)

    Light waves

  4. DOption (d)

    Microwaves

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

X-rays

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The bundle of light rays is called a photon.

Energy;of;a;photon;(E)=hCλ{\bf{Energy}};{\bf{of}};{\bf{a}};{\bf{photon}}{\rm{;}}\left( E \right) = \frac{{hC}}{\lambda }

Where h = Planck constant, C = speed of light, and λ = wavelength of the photon.

  • The wave which is generated due to vibration between electric field and magnetic field and it does not need any medium to travel is called an electromagnetic wave.
  • It can travel through a vacuum.
<br>
  • The wave having shorter wavelengths than Ultraviolet waves is called X-rays.
  • The wave that has a wavelength greater than infrared is called a Radio wave.
  • The wave having a shorter wavelength than that of radio wave but longer than that of infrared are called microwaves.

EXPLANATION:

According to the above spectrum,

  • (Wavelength of X-rays) < (wavelength of light waves/visible light) < (wavelength of microwaves) < (wavelength of radio waves)

Energy;of;a;photon;(E)=hCλ{\bf{Energy}};{\bf{of}};{\bf{a}};{\bf{photon}}{\rm{;}}\left( E \right) = \frac{{hC}}{\lambda }

  • As energy is inversely proportional to the wavelength of the photon.
  • Out of all the above four waves, the wavelength of X-rays is minimum.
  • Since X-rays have a minimum wavelength so the energy of X-rays will be maximum.

Hence option 1 is correct.

Question 115

How much CO2 is produced on heating of 1 kg of carbon?

  1. AOption (a)

    11/3 kg

  2. BOption (b)

    3/11 kg

  3. COption (c)

    4/3 kg

  4. DOption (d)

    3/4 kg

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

11/3 kg

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is Option 1, i.e 11/3 kg.

Key Points

  • C + O2 → CO2
  • 12 g of C on heating produces = 44 g of CO2
  • So, 1g of C produces 44/12 g of CO2
  • 1 kg of C produces = (44 × 1000)/12 g of CO2 = 11/3 kg.

Question 116

Zinc is used to protect the iron from corrosion because zinc is

  1. AOption (a)

    more electropositive than iron

  2. BOption (b)

    cheaper than iron

  3. COption (c)

    a bluish white metal

  4. DOption (d)

    a good conductor of heat and electricity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

more electropositive than iron

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1, i.e more electropositive than iron.

  • The Electropositivity of an element is the ability of the element to lose electrons.
  • Galvanization is the method employed to protect the rusting of iron surfaces through a coat of Zinc.
  • Zinc metal present on the surface of iron forms a thin protective layer of basic zinc carbonate due to the reaction between zinc, oxygen, CO2, and moisture in the air.
  • The standard reduction potential of Zinc is less than iron, or Zinc is more reactive than Iron.
  • Hence, Iron will not undergo corrosion.

Question 117

Which one of the following gases is placed second in respect of abundance in the Earth's atmosphere?

  1. AOption (a)

    Oxygen

  2. BOption (b)

    Hydrogen

  3. COption (c)

    Nitrogen

  4. DOption (d)

    Carbon dioxide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Oxygen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Oxygen.

  • Oxygen is placed second in respect of abundance in the Earth's atmosphere.

Key Points

  • Oxygen with 20.95% of the earth’s atmosphere, is placed as the second most abundant gas in the atmosphere.
  • Nitrogen is placed at the top with 78.09% of the earth’s atmosphere.
  • Third place is Argon with 0.93% of the earth’s atmosphere.
  • Then comes Carbon Dioxide with 0.04% of the earth’s atmosphere.
  • Also, a small amount of Helium, Neon, Argon, Krypton, Hydrogen and water vapour.

Question 118

Which one of the following is a chemical change?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cutting of hair

  2. BOption (b)

    Greying of hair naturally

  3. COption (c)

    Swelling of resin in water

  4. DOption (d)

    Cutting of fruit

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Greying of hair naturally

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is to Graying hair naturally.

  • Greying of hair naturally is a chemical change.

Key Points

  • Hair turns grey due to a chemical chain reaction causing the hair to bleach.
  • Hydrogen peroxide builds up in the hair, and related enzymes which would repair hydrogen peroxide’s damage are in short supply.
  • This is the reason why hair grows grey.
  • The other options are physical changes.

Question 119

Which one among the following chemicals is used as washing soda?

  1. AOption (a)

    Calcium carbonate

  2. BOption (b)

    Calcium bicarbonate

  3. COption (c)

    Sodium carbonate

  4. DOption (d)

    Sodium bicarbonate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sodium carbonate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Sodium Carbonate.

  • Sodium carbonate is used as washing soda

Key Points

  • Washing soda is a chemical compound with the formula Na2CO3, known as sodium carbonate.
  • It is a salt of carbonic acid.
  • Washing Soda is used as a homemade laundry detergent to clean in hard water or sometimes even to soften the water.

Additional Information

  • Calcium carbonate is also known as Chalk and is widely available as a natural inorganic compound.
  • Calcium bicarbonate is also known as Cleansing Lime.
  • Sodium bicarbonate is also known as Baking Soda.

Question 120

Why is potassium permanganate used for purifying drinking water?

  1. AOption (a)

    It kills germs

  2. BOption (b)

    It dissolves the impurities

  3. COption (c)

    It is a reducing agent

  4. DOption (d)

    It is an oxidizing agent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

It is an oxidizing agent

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is It is an oxidizing agent.

  • Potassium permanganate is used for purifying drinking water because it is an oxidizing agent

Key Points

  • Potassium permanganate is a treatment method at the point-of-entry treatment.
  • It oxidizes dissolved iron, manganese, and hydrogen sulfide into solid particles that are filtered out of the water.
  • This is the reason why it is used as a cleansing agent.

Additional Information

  • Oxidizing agents.
  • An oxidizing agent is one that gains electrons and is then reduced to a lower oxidation state.
  • In the process of oxidation, there is the loss of electrons by atoms or ions.
  • The lost electrons get transferred to some other substance and that substance is reduced.
  • These substances are oxidizing agents.
  • Thus, an oxidizing agent is a substance that can accept electrons.
  • Reducing agent:
  • The substance that loses electrons is called the Reducing agent.

The Reducing agent is a substance that has the ability to reduce other substances.

Question 121

Consider the following movements:

  1. Moplah Rebellion
  2. Bardoli Satyagraha
  3. Champaran Satyagraha
  4. Salt Satyagraha

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above in ascending order?

  1. AOption (a)

    1-3-4-2

  2. BOption (b)

    3-1-2-4

  3. COption (c)

    2-3-1-4

  4. DOption (d)

    4-2-1-3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3-1-2-4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e 3-1-2-4.

Key Points

  • Champaran Satyagraha took place in 1917 and was the first Satyagraha movement taken up by Mahatma Gandhi in India to fight against the injustice meted out to peasants.
  • The Moplah Rebellion took place in 1921 against the Hindu Landlords and British in Malabar.
  • Bardoli Satyagraha took place in 1928 and was led by Sardar Vallabhai Patel.
  • Salt Satyagraha took place in 1930 led by Gandhi.
  • Hence, the correct order is Champaran>Moplah>Bardoli>Salt Satyagraha.

Question 122

Which one of the following travelogues has given an insight on the reign of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ibn Battuta's Rihla

  2. BOption (b)

    Francois Bernier's Travels in the Mogul Empire

  3. COption (c)

    Niccolao Manucci Storia do Mogor

  4. DOption (d)

    Tavernier's Travels in India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ibn Battuta's Rihla

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1, i.e Ibn Battuta’s Rihla.

Key Points

  • Ibn Battuta who came from Morocco, in northwestern Africa (fourteenth century).
  • Ibn Battuta’s book of travels, called Rihla, written in Arabic, provides extremely rich and interesting details about the social and cultural life in the subcontinent in the fourteenth century.
  • He had heard about Muhammad bin Tughlaq, the Sultan of Delhi, and lured by his reputation as a generous patron of arts and letters, set off for Delhi, passing through
  • Multan and Uch.
  • The Sultan was impressed by his scholarship, and appointed him the qazi or judge of Delhi.
  • He remained in that position for several years, until he fell out of favour and was thrown into prison.
  • His Rihla provides deep insight into the regime of Muhammad Bin Tughlaq.
  • François Bernier, a Frenchman, was a doctor, political philosopher and historian was closely associated with Mughal court, as a physician to Prince Dara Shukoh, the eldest son of Emperor Shah Jahan, and later as an intellectual and scientist, with Danishmand Khan, an Armenian noble at the Mughal court.
  • Italian doctor Manucci, never returned to Europe, and settled down in India.

Jean-Baptiste Tavernier (from France) came to India between 1605-89.

Question 123

Which one of the following was not a Chishti Sufi saint?

  1. AOption (a)

    Khwaja Moinuddin

  2. BOption (b)

    Baba Fariduddin Ganj-i-Shakar

  3. COption (c)

    Nizamuddin Auliya

  4. DOption (d)

    Shaikh Bahauddin Zakariya

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Shaikh Bahauddin Zakariya

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e Shaikh Bahauddin Zakariya.

Key Points

  • Shaikh Bahauddin Zakariya, infact, established the in Baghdad, and later went on to become the most influential Suhrawardiyya order spiritual leaders.
  • A large number of Sufis from Central Asia settled in Hindustan from the eleventh century onwards.
  • This process was strengthened with the establishment of the Delhi Sultanate, when several major Sufi centres developed all over the subcontinent.
  • The Chishti silsila was among the most influential orders.
  • It had a long line of teachers like Khwaja Muinuddin Chishti of Ajmer, Qutbuddin Bakhtiar Kaki of Delhi, Baba Farid of Punjab also known as Baba Fariduddin Ganj-i-Shakar, Khwaja Nizama uddin Auliyof Delhi and Banda Nawaz Gesudaraz of Gulbarga.

Question 124

In April 2017, India celebrated 100 years of Mahatma Gandhi's

  1. AOption (a)

    Satyagraha in Kheda

  2. BOption (b)

    Dandi March

  3. COption (c)

    Satyagraha in Champaran

  4. DOption (d)

    Return from South Africa

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Satyagraha in Champaran

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3, i.e Satyagraha in Champaran.

  • Mahatma Gandhi was requested by Rajkumar Shukla.
  • He was a local man who called him to look into the problems of farmers.
  • The context was indigo cultivation in Champaran, and the system followed was the Tinkathia System.
  • The European planters had been forcing the peasants to grow indigo on 3/20 part of the total land.
  • In March 1918, Gandhi intervened in a dispute between cotton mill owners of Ahmedabad and the workers over the issue of discontinuation of the plague bonus.
  • Gandhi landed in India on January 9th, 1915, which is today celebrated as Pravasi Bhartiya Diwas.
  • Dandi March began on 12th March, 1930.

Question 125

A rainbow is produced due to which one of the following phenomenon?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dispersion of light

  2. BOption (b)

    Interference of light

  3. COption (c)

    Diffraction of light

  4. DOption (d)

    Scattering of light by atmospheric dust

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Dispersion of light

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The phenomenon in which a white light ray when falls on a prism get separated into its component colors is called as dispersion of light.
  • When two light rays meet together and make a modified light then this phenomenon is called as Interference of light.
  • When light rays pass from any corner then it gets deviated in many directions. This phenomenon is called the diffraction of light.
  • When light rays pass through a solution then it is dispersed in the whole solution after striking the molecules of the solution. This phenomenon is called as Scattering of light.
<br>

EXPLANATION:

  • When light rays fall on the raindrop then first of all it refracted at the surface of the drop.
  • Then there is a total internal reflection at the internal surface of the drop.
  • Then finally there is a dispersion of light rays by the rain-drop.
  • Thus a seven-color pattern is shown. Hence rainbow is produced due to dispersion of light. So option 1 is correct.

Question 126

Bats detect obstacles in their path by receiving the reflected

  1. AOption (a)

    Infrared waves

  2. BOption (b)

    Ultrasonic waves

  3. COption (c)

    Radio waves

  4. DOption (d)

    Microwaves

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ultrasonic waves

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Sound waves are longitudinal mechanical waves and frequency can be defined as the number of wave cycles happening in one sec.
  • The types of sound waves whose frequency is higher than the upper audible limit of human hearing are called as Ultrasound/Ultrasonic wave.
  • Ultrasonic waves or Ultrasound waves: The sound frequency above 20,000Hz is known as ultrasonic waves. Humans cannot detect it too.
  • Examples: Bat produce Ultrasonic waves.

EXPLANATION:

  • As the bats produce Ultrasonic waves. When the ultrasonic wave produced by the bats strike with the obstacle/food of the bats then it come back at-bats.
  • Then bats run along in the direction of that obstacle and catch the food. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • Bats can’t create the waves like infrared, radio waves and microwaves and they can’t detect it too. So options 1, 3 and 4 are wrong.

Question 127

The statement that heat can’t flow by itself from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher temperature, is known as

  1. AOption (a)

    Zeroth law of thermodynamics

  2. BOption (b)

    First law of thermodynamics

  3. COption (c)

    Second law of thermodynamics

  4. DOption (d)

    Third law of thermodynamics

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Second law of thermodynamics

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

There are 4 laws to thermodynamics:

  • Zeroth law of thermodynamics: If two thermodynamic systems are each in thermal equilibrium with a third, then they are in thermal equilibrium with each other.

  • First law of thermodynamics: Energy can neither be created nor destroyed. It can only change forms. In any process, the total energy of the universe remains the same.

  • For a thermodynamic cycle, the net heat supplied to the system is equals the net work done by the system.

ΔQ = ΔU + ΔW

where ΔQ = change in heat, ΔU = change in internal energy and ΔW = change in work done

  • Second Law of Thermodynamics:
  1. Clausius statement: It is impossible for a self acting machine to transfer heat from a colder body to a hotter one without the aid of an external agency
  2. Kelvin-Planck’s statement: It is impossible to design an engine that extracts heat and fully utilizes into work without producing any other effect.
  • Third law of thermodynamics: As the temperature approaches absolute zero, the entropy of a system approaches a constant minimum.
  • ΔST = 0K = 0

Where ΔS = change in entropy 

EXPLANATION:

  • As said in the second law of thermodynamics, heat can’t flow from lower temperature to higher temperature without doing any work. Hence option 3 is correct.

Question 128

Which one of the following waves does not belong to the category of other three?

  1. AOption (a)

    X-rays

  2. BOption (b)

    Microwaves

  3. COption (c)

    Radio waves

  4. DOption (d)

    Sound waves

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Sound waves

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • The oscillation of matter which is responsible for transfer of energy through a medium is called as mechanical wave.
  • Mechanical waves need medium to transfer from one place to other.
  • The wave which is generated due to vibration between electric field and magnetic field and it does not need any medium to travel is called as electromagnetic wave. It can travel through vacuum.

Explanation:

  • Sound is an example of mechanical wave which needs medium to travel.
  • The X-rays, micro waves and radio waves are the examples of electromagnetic waves which doesn’t need any medium to travel.
  • So sound doesn’t belong to the category of other three waves. Hence option 4 is correct.

Question 129

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Human eye is a refracting system containing a diverging lens.

  2. BOption (b)

    The retina of the human eye contains millions of the light sensitive cells, called rods and cones, which convert the light into electrical messages

  3. COption (c)

    Every images that is focused on the retina is upside down.

  4. DOption (d)

    We need both eyes to judge the relative positions of objects accurately

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Human eye is a refracting system containing a diverging lens.

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Human eye:

  • The organ due to which we can see the world is called a human eye.
  • It consists of a convex lens/converging lens.
  • The image by the human eye lens form at the retina.

EXPLANATION:

  • As there is a converging lens in the human eye. So statement 1 is not correct. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • The retina has many light-sensitive cells that convert light into electrical messages. These messages are sent to the brain and we can see the object. So statement 2 is correct.
  • Since image formed on the retina is a real image due to the convex lens. So it is inverted and upside down. So statement 3 is correct.
  • When we close our one eye and see the object by only one eye then the position of the objects changes. Hence we need both eyes to judge the relative positions of object accurately. So statement 4 is correct.

Question 130

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ultrasonic waves cannot get reflected, refracted or absorbed.

  2. BOption (b)

    Ultrasonic waves are used to detect the presence of defects like cracks, porosity, etc. in the internal structure of common structure materials 

  3. COption (c)

    Ultrasonic waves can be used for making holes in very hard materials like diamond

  4. DOption (d)

    Ultrasonic waves cannot travel through vacuum.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ultrasonic waves cannot get reflected, refracted or absorbed.

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The oscillation of matter which is responsible for the transfer of energy through a medium is called a mechanical wave.
  • Mechanical waves need a medium to transfer from one place to another.
  • Sound waves are longitudinal mechanical waves.

 

Ultrasonic waves or Ultrasound waves:

The sound frequency above 20,000Hz is known as ultrasonic waves. Humans cannot detect it too.

Examples: Bat produces Ultrasonic waves.

EXPLANATION:

  • The ultrasonic wave is an example of a sound wave that can get reflected, refracted, or absorbed by any object. So statement 1 is not correct.
  • Since the Ultrasonic waves have a very high frequency so it can be used to detect the cracks, porosity. So statement 2 is correct.
  • Due to its very high frequency, it can be used to make holes in very hard materials like a diamond. So statement 3 is correct.

Properties of ultrasonic waves are

  1. Ultrasonic waves have frequencies higher than 20 kHz hence they are highly energetic and their wavelengths are small.
  2. As the wavelength of the waves is very small the diffraction effects are negligible.
  3. The speed of propagation of ultrasonic waves is proportional to their frequency.
  4. As a highly directional beam, it can travel longer distances without loss of energy.
  5. Ultrasonic waves produce cavitation effects in liquids.
  6. The ultrasonic waves are reflected and refracted just like light waves and follow Snell's law. When they are passing through a medium, at discontinuities, they are partially reflected and this property is used in the Non-Destructive Technique (NDT).
  7. The ultrasonic waves cannot travel through a vacuum.
  8. These waves travel with the speed of sound in a given medium. Their velocity remains constant inhomogeneous media.
  9. These can produce vibrations in low viscosity liquids.
  10. Using ultrasonic waves, the acoustic grating can be formed in liquid.
  11. When the ultrasonic wave is absorbed by a medium, it generates heat.
  12. Ultrasonic waves are able to drill and cut thin metals at room temperature and ultrasonic welding is possible.

Question 131

According to the Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Index (TTCI) 2017, released by the World Economic Forum, among the 136 economies across the world, India ranked

  1. AOption (a)

    50th

  2. BOption (b)

    40th

  3. COption (c)

    30th

  4. DOption (d)

    20th

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

40th

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e 40th.

  • India has moved 12 places up in this ranking from 52nd to 40th position in the Travel and Tourism Competitiveness Index (TTCI) 2017, released by the World Economic Forum.
  • The tourism sector in the country has been on a growth trajectory since the present government came into power in May, 2014.
  • India’s ranking in the Travel and Tourism Competitive Index (TTCI) of World Economic Forum moved from 65rd position to 52nd position in 2015.
  • Now India has moved up by another 12 positions and ranked at 40th position.
  • In all, in the last three years India has cumulatively improved its ranking by 25 places which is a significant achievement.

Question 132

Which one of the following is the theme of the World Health Day, 2017 celebrated by the World Health Organization?

  1. AOption (a)

    Diabetes

  2. BOption (b)

    Food Safety

  3. COption (c)

    Depression: Let's Talk

  4. DOption (d)

    Ageing and Health

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Depression: Let's Talk

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Depression: Let’s Talk.

  • The theme of World Health Day, 2017 was Depression: Let's Talk.

Key Points

  • World Health Day is celebrated on 7th April every year to mark the anniversary of the founding of the World Health Organization, providing us with a unique opportunity to mobilize action around a specific health topic of concern to people all over the world.
  • The theme of our 2017 World Health Day campaign is Depression: Let’s Talk.
  • At worst, depression can lead to suicide, now the second leading cause of death among 15-29-year olds.

Question 133

Which one of the following Miniseries has launched a new programme on Interdisciplinary Cyber Physical Systems (ICPS) to foster and promote R&D?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ministry of Earth Sciences

  2. BOption (b)

    Ministry of Science and Technology

  3. COption (c)

    Ministry of Information and Broadcasting

  4. DOption (d)

    Ministry of New and Renewable Energy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ministry of Science and Technology

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e Ministry of Science and Technology.

  • The Department of Science and Technology, Ministry of Science and Technology has launched a new programme called “Interdisciplinary Cyber Physical Systems (ICPS)” to foster and promote R&D in this emerging field of research.
  • A Cyber Physical System (CPS) is a mechanism controlled or monitored by computer-based algorithms, tightly integrated with the internet and its users.
  • It is an engineered system that is built from and depends upon, the seamless integration of computational algorithms and physical components.
  • In general Cyber means computation, communication and control that are discrete and logical.
  • Physical means natural and human-made systems governed by the laws of physics and operating in continuous time.
  • Computing and communication systems bridges with the physical world are referred to as Cyber Physical Systems.

Question 134

Consider the following statements about the Nagara style of temple architecture:

  1. This style of temples are commonly found in the areas between Himalayas and Vindhyas.
  2. The most striking feature of this style is its pyramidal shikhara.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1, i.e 1 only.

  • Pyramidal Shikara is the most striking feature of Dravidian Style of Temple Architecture. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The style of temple architecture that became popular in northern India is known as nagara.
  • This style of temples are commonly found in the areas between Himalayas and Vindhyas.
  • In North India it is common for an entire temple to be built on a stone platform with steps leading up to it.
  • There are many subdivisions of nagara temples depending on the shape of the shikhara.
  • There are different names for the various parts of the temple in different parts of India.
  • The most common name for the simple shikhara which is square at the base and whose walls curve or slope inward to a point on top is called the 'latina' or the rekha-prasada type of shikara.
  • The second major type of architectural form in the nagara order is the phamsana. Phamsana buildings tend to be broader and shorter than latina ones.
  • Valabhi types are rectangular buildings with a roof that rises into a vaulted chamber.

Question 135

Ashoka's connection with Buddhism is evident from which one of the following edicts?

  1. AOption (a)

    Major Rock Edict 13

  2. BOption (b)

    Rock Edict 6

  3. COption (c)

    Minor Rock Edict 1

  4. DOption (d)

    Pillar Edict 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Pillar Edict 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Pillar Edict 4.

  • Ashoka's connection with Buddhism is evident from Pillar Edict 4.

Key Points

  • There are fourteen Major Rock Edicts.
  • The two Kalinga Edicts are found in the newly conquered territory.
  • The major pillar Edicts were erected in important cities.
  • There are minor Rock Edicts and minor pillar Edicts.
  • The Pillar Edict 4 of Asoka deals with Asoka’s Dhamma and also instructions were given to his officials. Thus, this gives direct relation between Ashoka and Buddhism.
  • The XIII Rock Edict gives details about his war with Kalinga.
  • The Pillar Edict VII gives a summary of his efforts to promote the Dhamma within his Kingdom.
  • Thus the Asokan inscriptions remain valuable sources for the study of Asoka and the Mauryan Empire.

Additional Information 

  • Major Rock Edict 13 gives details about his war with Kalinga.
  • Major Rock Edict 6
  • It describes King’s desire to get informed about the conditions of the people constantly. In other words, talks about welfare measures.
  • Major Rock Edict I
  • In these rock edicts, King prohibited animal slaughter, especially during festive gatherings.

Question 136

The Cabinet Mission Plan for India envisaged a

  1. AOption (a)

    Federation

  2. BOption (b)

    Confederation

  3. COption (c)

    Unitary form of Government

  4. DOption (d)

    Union of States

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Union of States

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Union of States.

  • The Cabinet Mission Plan for India envisaged a Union of States.

Key Points

  • The Cabinet Mission plan of 1946 proposed that there shall be a Union of States.
  • This Union would be empowered to deal with the defence, foreign affairs and communications.
  • Cabinet Mission was composed of three Cabinet Ministers of England
  • Sir Pethick Lawrence, Secretary of State for India.
  • Sir Stafford Cripps, President of the Board of Trade,
  • Alexander, the First Lord of the Admiralty.
  • The mission arrived on March 24, 1946.
  • The Cabinet Mission had planned for a weak centre because of which Congress never gave formal support to the Mission.
  • This ultimately led to the failure of the mission.

Question 137

The creation of the institution of Lokpal was first recommended by

  1. AOption (a)

    Law Commission

  2. BOption (b)

    Santhanam Committee

  3. COption (c)

    Shah Commission

  4. DOption (d)

    Administrative Reforms Commission

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Administrative Reforms Commission

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Administrative Reforms Commission.

  • The creation of the institution of Lokpal was first recommended by the Administrative Reforms Commission.

Key Points

  • The creation of the institution of Lokpal was first recommended by the first Administrative Reforms Commission.
  • The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013 provided for the establishment of Lokpal for the Union and Lokayukta for States.
  • These institutions are statutory bodies without any constitutional status.
  • The term Lokpal and Lokayukta was coined by Dr. L. M. Singhvi.
  • In 1966, the First Administrative Reforms Commission recommended the setting up of two independent authorities- at the central and state level, to look into complaints against public functionaries, including MPs.
  • Further, the second Administrative Reforms Commission also recommended the establishment of Lokpal in 2005.

Additional Information

  • The Central Bureau of Investigation and Central Vigilance Commission was established by the recommendation of the Santhanam Committee.
  • Shah commission divided the existing state of Punjab and determined the boundaries of the new state of Haryana on a linguistic basis.

Question 138

Which one of the following is a cause of acid rains?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ozone

  2. BOption (b)

    Ammonia

  3. COption (c)

    Sulphur dioxide

  4. DOption (d)

    Carbon monoxide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sulphur dioxide

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is Sulphur Dioxide.

  • Sulphur dioxide is a cause of acid rains

Key Points

  • Rain water has a pH of 5.6 due to the presence of H+ ions formed by the reaction of rainwater with carbon.
  • When the pH of the rainwater drops below 5.6, it is called acid rain.
  • Acid rain refers to the ways in which acid from the atmosphere is deposited on the earth’s surface.
  • Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur which are acidic in nature can be blown by the wind along with solid particles in the atmosphere and finally settle down either on the ground as dry deposition or in water, fog and snow as wet deposition.
  • Acid rain is a byproduct of a variety of human activities that emit the oxides of sulphur and nitrogen in the atmosphere.

Additional Information 

  • Carbon monoxide is a product of incomplete combustion and occurs when carbon in the fuel is partially oxidised rather than fully oxidised to carbon dioxide.
  • Carbon monoxide is a highly toxic gas as it reduces the flow of oxygen in the bloodstream.

Question 139

The desirable range of pH for drinking water is?

  1. AOption (a)

    6.5 to 8.5

  2. BOption (b)

    5.0 to 6.5

  3. COption (c)

    6.5 to 7.0

  4. DOption (d)

    7.0 to 8.5

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

6.5 to 8.5

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 6.5 to 8.5.

  • The desirable range of pH for drinking water is 6.5 to 8.5.

Key Points

  • The pH of most drinking water lies within the range of 6.5–8.5.
  • Natural waters can be of lower pH, as a result of, for example, acid rain or higher pH in limestone areas.
  • The pH of a solution is the negative common logarithm of the hydrogen ion activity:
  • pH = −log (H+)
  • In dilute solutions, the hydrogen ion activity is approximately equal to the hydrogen ion concentration.

Question 140

Consider the following reaction: CH4 +2O2 ⟶ CO2 + 2H2O

Which of the following about the reaction given above is/are correct?

  1. Carbon is oxidized.
  2. Hydrogen is oxidized.
  3. Hydrogen is reduced.
  4. Carbon reduced

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 4 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1 only.

Key Points

  • CH4 +2O2 ⟶ CO2 + 2H2O
  • In the above-given reaction, the addition of oxygen or the removal of hydrogen is called oxidation.
  • The substance in which oxygen is added is oxidised.
  • Oxygen in the reactants side is gaining Hydrogen in the reactants side and is thereby getting reduced.
  • The Oxidizing agent here is Carbon, while the reducing agent is Oxygen.

Question 141

Sunrise in eastern Arunachal Pradesh would be about how many hours before the sunrise in western Gujarat?

  1. AOption (a)

    One hour

  2. BOption (b)

    Two hours

  3. COption (c)

    Three hours

  4. DOption (d)

    Four hours

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Two hours

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e Two Hours.

  • The longitudinal extent between Gujarat and Arunachal Pradesh, the two extreme western and eastern states of the country respectively, is about 30°.
  • It is due to this factor, that the time lag between the two states is two hours.
  • Earth rotates 360 degrees in 24 hours.
  • So, it moves around 15 degrees in 1 hour.
  • Using this, we can say that it would move 30 degrees in two hours which is the answer.
  • Sun rises earlier in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat.
  • The Indian Standard Time is taken from the time of Standard Meridian of India.
  • This is the reason why despite the time lag of sunrise and sunset, both show the same timings.

Question 142

Consider the following States of India in terms of percentage of forest area in relation to the total area of the State:

  1. Karnataka
  2. Odisha
  3. Kerala
  4. Andhra Pradesh

Which one of the following is the correct descending order?

  1. AOption (a)

    1-2-4-3

  2. BOption (b)

    3-1-2-4

  3. COption (c)

    3-2-1-4

  4. DOption (d)

    2-3-1-4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

3-2-1-4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3-2-1-4.

Key Points

  • The Indian State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2015 states that the majority of the increase in forest cover has been observed in the open forest category mainly outside forest areas, followed by Very Dense Forest.
  • While the Open Forest area has increased by 4744 sq km, which is 9.14% of the geographical area, the area under Very Dense Forest has increased by 2404 sq km, which is 2.61% of the geographical area.
  • The State which has the highest forest cover is Mizoram (88.93%).
  • Andhra Pradesh covers 17.88%, Karnataka covers 20.11%, Kerala covers 54.42% and Odisha covers 33.15%.

Question 143

Which one of the following States in India has the longest coastline?

  1. AOption (a)

    Odisha

  2. BOption (b)

    Tamil Nadu

  3. COption (c)

    Karnataka

  4. DOption (d)

    West Bengal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Tamil Nadu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu.

  • Tamil Nadu has the longest coastline.

Key Points

  • The total coastline of India measures about 7,517 km.
  • This coastline is distributed among nine coastal states and four Union Territories.
  • The nine coastal states are Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and West Bengal.
  • In the given options, Tamil Nadu has the longest coastline with 864.73 km2.

Question 144

Which one of the following States in India has the largest area under forest cover?

  1. AOption (a)

    Maharashtra

  2. BOption (b)

    Chhattisgarh

  3. COption (c)

    Madhya Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Andhra Pradesh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Madhya Pradesh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh.

  • Madhya Pradesh has the largest area under forest cover.

Key Points

  • Area-wise Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country.
  • It is followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra.
  • In terms of forest cover as a percentage of total geographical area, the top five States are Mizoram (85.41%), Arunachal Pradesh (79.63%), Meghalaya (76.33%), Manipur (75.46%) and Nagaland (75.31%).
  • The data is according to the biennial “India State of Forest Report (ISFR)”.

Additional Information

  • India State of Forest Report (ISFR), 2019:
  • Ministry for Environment, Forests and Climate Change releases the ISFR.
  • It is a biennial publication of the Forest Survey of India (FSI).
  • The report assesses the forest and tree cover, bamboo resources, carbon stock, forest fires and various other parameters.
  • The Total Forest and tree cover of India was 24.56% of the geographical area of the country.
  • The Total Forest cover was 21.67% of the geographical area of the country.
  • The Tree cover is 2.89% of the geographical area of the country.
  • The largest forest cover in states, according to the area are Madhya Pradesh > Arunachal Pradesh > Chhattisgarh > Odisha > Maharashtra.
  • Forest cover as percentage of total geographical area Mizoram (85.41%) > Arunachal Pradesh (79.63%) > Meghalaya (76.33%) > Manipur (75.46%) > Nagaland (75.31%).

Question 145

Which one of the following is not an igneous red rock?

  1. AOption (a)

    Gabbro

  2. BOption (b)

    Granite

  3. COption (c)

    Dolomite

  4. DOption (d)

    Basalt

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Dolomite

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Dolomite.

  • Dolomite is not an igneous red rock.

Key Points

  • Igneous rocks are formed from the solidification of molten rock material.
  • There are two basic types of Igneous Rocks.
  • Intrusive igneous rocks crystallize below the earth’s surface and form large crystals underneath.
  • Examples include Diorite, Gabbro, Granite, Peridotite, Pegmatite.
  • Extrusive Igneous Rocks, on the other hand, are a result of an eruption to the surface where it cools down quickly forming small crystals.
  • Examples include Basalt Scoria, Tuff, Andesite, Obsidians, Pumice.
  • Dolomite is a sedimentary rock.

Additional Information

  • Sedimentary Rocks
  • Sedimentary rocks are types of rock that are formed by the accumulation or sedimentation of minerals or organic particles at the Earth's surface, followed by cementation.
  • Typical sedimentary rocks are sandstone, limestone, shale, Gypsum, dolomite etc.
  • Metamorphic Rocks:
  • Formed when rocks are subjected to high heat, high-pressure changes inside the Earth.
  • Example: Gneissoid, slate, schist, marble quartzite, etc.

Question 146

The Coriolis effect is the result of

  1. AOption (a)

    Pressure gradient

  2. BOption (b)

    Earth's axis of inclination

  3. COption (c)

    Earth's rotation

  4. DOption (d)

    Earth's revolution

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Earth's rotation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Earth’s Rotation.

  • The Coriolis effect is the result of Earth's rotation.

Key Points

  • Coriolis Force:
  • The Coriolis effect is the pattern of deflection which objects take while travelling through long distances on Earth.
  • The key to the Coriolis effect is the result of Earth’s rotation.
  • Because of the Coriolis force, all the winds are deflected to the right in the Northern Hemisphere.
  • They are deflected to the left in the Southern Hemisphere.
  • This is referred to as Farrell’s Law.
  • The Coriolis force is absent along the equator but increases progressively towards the poles.

 

Additional Information

  • The rate of change of pressure with respect to distance is the pressure gradient.
  • The pressure gradient is strong where the isobars are close to each other and are weak where the isobars are apart.

Question 147

Where is the Mekong Delta located?

  1. AOption (a)

    Thailand

  2. BOption (b)

    Cambodia

  3. COption (c)

    Myanmar

  4. DOption (d)

    Vietnam

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Vietnam

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Vietnam.

  • Mekong Delta is located in Vietnam.

Key Points

  • The Mekong is the region in South-western Vietnam where the Mekong River approaches and empties into the sea through a network of distributaries.
  • The Mekong delta region encompasses a large portion of South-western Vietnam of over 40500 sq km (15600 sq mi).
  • The size of the area covered by water depends on the season.

Additional Information

  • Vietnam:
  • Capital: Hanoi
  • Currency: Vietnamese dong
  • President: Nguyễn Xuân Phúc

Question 148

Which one of the following pairs of rivers and tributaries is not correctly matched?

  1. AOption (a)

    Godavari : Indravati

  2. BOption (b)

    Ganga : Penganga

  3. COption (c)

    Krishna : Bhima

  4. DOption (d)

    Luni : Sukri

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ganga : Penganga

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Ganga : Penganga.

Key Points

  • Penganga is a tributary of the Godavari River and not Ganga.
  • Tributaries of Ganga River - Yamuna, Gomti, Ghaghara, Gandak, Kosi, Son, Tons & Punpun.
  • Tributaries of Godavari River - Dharna, Penganga, Wainganga, Wardha, Pranahita, Pravara, Mula, Manjra, Peddavagu, Maner.
  • Tributaries of Krishna - the Ghatprabha, the Malprabha and the Tungabhadra, the Bhima, the Musi and the Munnar.
  • Tributaries of Luni River - Jojri, Lilri, the Guhiya, the Bandi (Hemawas), the Sukri, the Jawai, the Khari Bandi, the Sukri Bandi, the Sagi.

Question 149

Consider the following characteristics of a tropical cyclone:

  1. A warm sea temperature of > 260C
  2. High relative humidity of atmosphere at a height of > 700 m
  3. Atmospheric instability

The above mentioned characteristics are associated with which one of the following cycles of its development?

  1. AOption (a)

    Formulation and initial stage

  2. BOption (b)

    Modification stage

  3. COption (c)

    Full maturity

  4. DOption (d)

    Decay

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Formulation and initial stage

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Formulation and Initial Stage.

Key Points

  • The tropical cyclone is the generic term used by the World Meteorological Organisation to define weather systems in which winds exceed 34 knots or 63 km/h.
  • These are rotating intense low-pressure systems of tropical oceanic origin.
  • It is in the formation and initial stage, that the tropical cyclone has the following characteristics
  • A warm sea temperature of > 260C
  • High relative humidity of the atmosphere at a height of > 700 m
  • Atmospheric instability
  • A location of at least 4-5 latitude degrees from the equator.
  • Mature Tropical Cyclones:
  • The mean physical feature of a mature phase of a tropical cyclone is a spiral pattern of highly tumultuous giant cumulus thunder clouds.
  • These bands spiral inwards and form a dense highly active central cloud core which wraps around a relatively calm and cloud-free eye.
  • The eye has a diameter of from 20-60 km of light winds.
  • Modification or Decay:
  • A tropical cyclone begins to weaken in terms of its central low pressure, internal warm core and extremely high winds as soon as its source of warm moist air gets abruptly cut off.

Question 150

In the Mesopotamian records, which one of the following terms was used for the Indus Valley (Harappans)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Dilmun

  2. BOption (b)

    Meluha

  3. COption (c)

    Magan

  4. DOption (d)

    Failaka

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Meluha

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e Meluha.

  • Meluha is the Sumerian name which has been found in the Mesopotamia Records from 2350 BC onwards.
  • Many scholars associate the name with Indus Valley Civilization.
  • It is believed that people from the Indus Valley Civilization exported sesame oil to the Mesopotamia Civilization.
  • Dilmun is also a Sumerian name of an ancient independent kingdom that flourished c. 2000 BCE, which is believed to be centred on Bahrain Island in the Persian Gulf.
  • Magan is a civilization referred to in the Sumerian texts around 2300 BC and is believed to be the source of copper and ditorite for the Mesopotamia Civilization.
  • It is believed that the Mesopotamians settled in Failaka, at least a 100 years back from the Dilmun Civilization.

Additional Information 

  • The Indus Valley Civilization was spread from present-day North-East Afghanistan to Pakistan and North-West India. This civilization flourished in the river basins of the Ghaggar-Hakra river and the Indus. Indus valley civilization is one of the four oldest civilizations in the world. It is also known as Harappan Civilization and is well-known for its organized planning based on the grid system. Important facts to be remembered
  • John Marshall was the first researcher to use the term, ‘Indus Valley Civilization’.
  • Indus Valley Civilization spread from the year 2500 – 1750 BC according to radio-carbon dating.
  • The most distinctive feature of the Harappan Civilization was its urbanization.
  • Moreover, sheep and goats, dogs, humped cattle buffalo, and elephants were domesticated in the Indus Valley Civilization.
  • The capital cities are Mohenjodaro and Harappa.
  • The port cities are Sutkagendor, Balakot, Lothal, Allahdino, and Kuntasi.
  • The Indus valley people were well-acquainted with the use of both cotton and wool.
  • Name of the major cities are given below:
  • Mohenjodaro (Sind)-It is located on the right bank of the Indus.
  • Kalibangan (Rajasthan)-It was on the banks of the river Ghaggar river
  • Chanhudaro-It lies on the left bank of the Indus in the south of Mohenjodaro.
  • Lothal- It is located at the head of the Gulf of Cambay.
  • Surkotada (Gujarat)-It is at the head of the Rann of Kutch.
  • Banawali (Haryana)-It was situated on the banks of the now-extinct Sarasvati
  • Dholavira (Gujarat)-It excavated is in the Kutch district

150 questions in the full paper