Previous Year Paper

NDA General Ability Test 18 Sept 2016 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2016

150 questions150 minutes
With answers
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General Ability Test (150 questions)

Question 1

Direction: In the following question, a part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part among the sentences has an error and click the option corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click option 4 i.e. 'No error'.

(a) My friend was / (b) habitual to drive a car / (c) at very high speeds. / (d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(b)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, i.e., part (b).

Explanation:

  • Part (b) uses the incorrect simple present tense form of the verb 'drive'.
  • Being Habitual to- something done constantly or as a habit.
  • Note here that the preposition 'to' is used with 'habitual' and not as a to-infinitive with the verb 'drive'.

Key Points

  • One is habitual to 'doing' something. i.e., 'Habitual to' requires the present participle form of the verb (verb+ -ing).
  • e.g. I am habitual to running in the morning.
  • Note: Although 'habitual to' is used in common speech, the most accurate form of 'habitual' is the adjective form. e.g. He was a habitual smoker.
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Thus, the rectified sentence is: My friend was habitual to driving a car at very high speeds.

Question 2

Direction: In the following question, a part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part among the sentences has an error and click the option corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click option 4 i.e. 'No error'.

(a) Being a day of national mourning / (b) the offices were closed / (c) and the national flag flew half mast. / (d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(a)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1, i.e., part (a).

Key Points

  • Part (a) uses the present participle 'being', which is incorrect.
  • Usually, 'being' is used to join two sentences, where the qualities of the subject are discussed; because of which the second sentence exists.
  • e.g. Harry being a great wizard; the crisis was avoided.
  • Here, the sentence uses the present participle 'being'; but there is no subject. e.g. (What) being a day of national mourning?
  • So, in order to be correct; there needs to be a subject, such as Tuesday, Labour day etc.
<br>

Thus, the rectified sentence is: Tuesday being a day of national mourning the offices were closed and the national flag flew half mast.

Question 3

Direction: In the following question, a part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part among the sentences has an error and click the option corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click option 4 i.e. 'No error'.

If you are wanting to watch (a) / the birds nesting (b) / you must not let them see you. (c) / No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(a)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1, i.e., part (a).

Explanation

  • Part (a) uses the incorrect present continuous verb 'are wanting'.
  • The sentence already uses the present participle (verb+ ing) form 'nesting' after the verb; while the second verb is the modal verb 'must not'.

Key Points

  • Modal verbs usually denote a condition, which is dependent on the fact expressed by the other verb.
  • So, here, the first verb must express a general fact, in which case, the appropriate tense to be used is simple present tense.
  • The correct verb form here would be the simple present tense form 'want'.

Thus, the rectified sentence is: If you want to watch the birds nesting you must not let them see you.

Question 4

Direction: In the following question, a part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part among the sentences has an error and click the option corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click option 4 i.e. 'No error'.

He does not listen to (a) / what I say, (b) / even though I am advising him for a long time. (c) / No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(c)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3, i.e., part (c).

Explanation

  • Part C uses the incorrect present progressive verb form 'am advising'.
  • The sentence uses the phrase 'for a long time', which means that the action of giving advice has begun in the past and is still continuing.
  • In case of actions that begin in the recent past and are still continuing; the correct tense to be used is present perfect continuous tense.
  • So, the correct verb form here would be the present perfect continuous 'have been advising'.

Note: 

  • Present perfect 'have advised' can also work here, but given that the main verb is in the simple present tense (used for general facts); present perfect continuous tense is most appropriate.
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Thus, the rectified sentence is: He does not listen to what I say, even though I have been advising him for a long time.

Question 5

Direction: In the following question, a part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part among the sentences has an error and click the option corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click option 4 i.e. 'No error'.

It is most essential for us (a) / to reach the station before noon (b) / lest we should miss the train. (c) / No error (d)

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(d)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4, i.e., No Error.

Explanation

  • The sentence is free from any grammatical errors.
  • Lest is a conjunction which means with the intention of preventing (something undesirable); to avoid the risk of.
  • Example: We must obey the rules; lest we be punished.
  • Lest is used where the first sentence expresses a condition/fact to be done + lest  (to avoid) + the second sentence expressing a fear/ condition.
  • Here, the first part expresses the fact of reaching the station before non, to avoid missing the train. So, 'Lest' is used appropriately here.

Question 6

Direction: In the following question, a part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part among the sentences has an error and click the option corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click option 4 i.e. 'No error'. 

(a)/I asked him (b)/what had brought (c)/him there. (d)/No error

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(d)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "(d)"

Key Points

  • The sentence is grammatically and contextually correct. The tense used here is 'Past perfect tense'.
  • The past perfect is formed using "had + past participle". Questions are indicated by inverting the subject and had.
  • Negatives are made with not.
  • Look at the following example:
  • Statement: You had studied English before you moved to New York.
  • Question: Had you studied English before you moved to New York?
  • Negative: You had not studied English before you moved to New York.

Hence, the correct sentence: I asked him what had brought him there

Question 7

Direction: In the following question, a part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part among the sentences has an error and click the option corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click option 4 i.e. 'No error'.

(a)/The guards (b)/dare not (c)/to harm him. (d)/No error

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

(c)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3) i.e. ​to harm him.

To make the sentence grammatically correct we must omit 'to' in this sentence because dare is a modal and it will be followed by 'base form of the verb' not infinitive.

Dare is both a main verb and a semi-modal verb. Dare can mean ‘challenge somebody’. With this meaning, it is a main verb and requires an object. Any verb that follows it is in the to-infinitive:

  • Go on, I dare you.
  • Some snakes can bite but I dare (challenge) you to hold this big snake.

Dare also means ‘to be brave enough or rude enough to do something’.

Question 8

Direction: In the following question, a part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part among the sentences has an error and click the option corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click option 4 i.e. 'No error'.

(a)/The Principal looks very worried (b)/because students have been on strike for the last fifteen days as a protest against (c)/his disciplinary action against some miscreants. (d)/No error

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

(d)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e. No error.

Key Points

  • The above sentence is grammatically correct.
  • Since 'principal' is a singular noun, a singular verb must continue it. Here, 'looks' continue it, which makes part (a) error free.
  • Part (b) shows us that the sentence is in present perfect tense with 'have been'. Also, the usage of proposition 'on' before 'strike' is also correct.
  • In part (c), 'action' is the correct usage and 'actions' would be wrong to use.
  • Thus. all the parts are error free. It contains no error.
  • Thus the correct answer is option 4.

The correct sentence is: The Principal looks very worried because students have been on strike for the last fifteen days as a protest against his disciplinary action against some miscreants.

Question 9

Direction: In the following question, a part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part among the sentences has an error and click the option corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click option 4 i.e. 'No error'.

(a)/The king was embarrassed (b)/to find evidences (c)/against his own queen (d)/No error

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

(b)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e. ​to find evidences.

Key Points

  • 'Evidence' is an uncountable noun so we cannot make it as plural by attaching 's' to it.
  • So we must replace 'evidences' in the above sentence to make it grammatically correct.
  • Thus the correct answer is option 2.

The correct sentence is: The king was embarrassed to find evidence against his own queen.

Additional Information

  • Let's understand what an uncountable noun is
  • ​They are substances, concepts etc that we cannot divide into separate elements.
  • ​Example: Furniture, children, air etc.

Question 10

Direction: In the following question, a part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part among the sentences has an error and click the option corresponding to it. If the sentence is free from error, click option 4 i.e. 'No error'.

(a)/As I prefer coffee than tea (b)/my friends always take the trouble (c)/to get me a cup of coffee whenever I visit them. (d)/No error

  1. AOption (a)

    (a)

  2. BOption (b)

    (b)

  3. COption (c)

    (c)

  4. DOption (d)

    (d)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

(a)

Why this answer is correct

The erroneous segment is "a) As I prefer coffee than tea".

Key Points

  • In the given sentence, the usage of the preposition "than" for showing a preference is incorrect.
  • We use the preposition "to"  to introduce the second part of the comparison to show a preference for a thing
  • Example: I prefer yoga to gymming.
  • In the given sentence, we need to use the preposition "to" in place of "than" to make the sentence grammatically correct.

The correct sentence is: As I prefer coffee to tea my friends always take the trouble to get me a cup of coffee whenever I visit them. 

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

Question 11

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or groups of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.**

Hospitality is a virtue for which the natives of the East in general are highly admired.

  1. AOption (a)

    Duty of a doctor

  2. BOption (b)

    Generosity shown to guests

  3. COption (c)

    Cleanliness in hospitals

  4. DOption (d)

    Kindness

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Generosity shown to guests

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Generosity shown to guests'.

Key Points

  • The given word 'Hospitality' means looking after guests and being friendly and welcoming towards them. (आतिथ्‍य-सत्‍कार, मेहमाननवाज़ी)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Duty of a doctor' means a task or action that a doctor is required to perform as part of the job. (एक कार्य या क्रिया जिसे डॉक्टर को नौकरी के हिस्से के रूप में करने की आवश्यकता होती है)
  • 'Generosity shown to guests' means the quality of being kind or generous to guests. (मेहमानों के प्रति दयालु या उदार होने का गुण)
  • 'Cleanliness in hospitals' means the state or quality of hospitals being clean or being kept clean. (अस्पतालों के साफ-सुथरे रहने या साफ रखे जाने की स्थिति या गुणवत्ता)
  • 'Kindness' means the quality of being friendly, generous, and considerate. (दयालुता; दयामय कार्य)
  • ​From the context of the sentence, the second option is the most similar word in meaning to the underlined word.

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

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Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Hospitality' are "generosity, kindness, politeness".
  • The antonyms of the word 'Hospitality' are "arrogance, unfriendliness, impoliteness".
  • Example of 'Hospitality' in a sentence:
  • The local people showed me great hospitality.

Question 12

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or groups of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.

House rent in cities like Mumbai or Delhi has risen to astronomical figures beyond the reach of even high-salaried people.

  1. AOption (a)

    Exorbitant

  2. BOption (b)

    Commercial

  3. COption (c)

    Planetary

  4. DOption (d)

    Illogical

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Exorbitant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1, i.e., Exorbitant. 

Explanation 

Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word:

  • Astronomical means (of an amount) extremely large.

Let's look at the meanings of the given words:

  • Exorbitant- (of a price or amount charged) unreasonably high.
  • Commercial- making or intended to make a profit.
  • Planetary- relating or belonging to a planet or planets.
  • Illogical- lacking sense or clear, sound reasoning.

Out of these, only Exorbitant shows a meaning that is similar to Astronomical. Therefore Option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 13

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or groups of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.

Appropriate technology holds the key to a nation's development.

  1. AOption (a)

    Modern

  2. BOption (b)

    Suitable

  3. COption (c)

    Effective

  4. DOption (d)

    Growing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Suitable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Suitable.'

Key Points

  • The given word 'Appropriate' means suitable or right for a particular situation, person, use, etc. (किसी परिस्थिति, व्‍यक्ति या उपयोग आदि के लिए उपयुक्त या उचित)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Modern' means with all the newest methods, equipment, designs, etc.; up to date. (जिसमें नवीनतम विधियाँ, उपकरण, आकृतियाँ आदि हों; नवीन)
  • 'Suitable' means right or appropriate for somebody or something. (किसी के लिए सही या उचित या उपयुक्त)
  • 'Effective' means successfully producing the result that you want. (अभीष्‍ट प्रभाव उत्‍पन्‍न करने वाला; प्रभावोत्‍पादक)
  • 'Growing' means becoming greater over a period of time; increasing. (समय के साथ बड़ा होना; बढ़ रहा)

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'Appropriate' are "suitable, proper, right".
  • The antonyms of the word 'Appropriate' are "unsuitable, wrong, improper".
  • Example of 'Appropriate' in a sentence:
  • She gave a speech appropriate to the occasion.

Question 14

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or groups of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.

He was enamoured with his own golden voice.

  1. AOption (a)

    Fond 

  2. BOption (b)

    Concerned 

  3. COption (c)

    Obsessed 

  4. DOption (d)

    Imbued 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Fond 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1, i.e., very Fond. 

Explanation 

  • Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word:
  • Enamoured means be filled with love for; have a strong liking or admiration for something.
  • Let's look at the meanings of the given words:
  • Fond- having affection or liking for.
  • Concerned- worried, troubled, or anxious.
  • Obsessed- be constantly talking or worrying about something.
  • Imbued- inspire or permeate with (a feeling or quality).

Out of these, only Fond shows a meaning that is similar to Enamoured. Thus Option 1 is the correct answer.

Question 15

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or groups of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.

Some journalists are guilty of indulging in yellow journalism.

  1. AOption (a)

    Misrepresentation

  2. BOption (b)

    Vulgarization

  3. COption (c)

    Sensational reporting

  4. DOption (d)

    Loud gestures

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sensational reporting

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3, i.e., Sensational reporting. 

 

Explanation  

Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word:

  • Yellow Journalism means newspapers that present little or no legitimate well-researched news while instead using eye-catching headlines for increased sales.

The term is derived from the recycled yellowish paper that was used for cheaper publications; which was also associated with a lower quality of content. 

Let's look at the meanings of the given words:

  • Misrepresentation- the action or offence of giving a false or misleading account of the nature of something.
  • Vulgarization- to make vulgar or coarse; lower; debase.
  • Sensational reporting- news selected and worded to excite sentiments of readers rather than informing them of facts.
  • Loud gestures- using a variety of unnecessary hand movements to present one's point.

Out of these, only Sensational reporting shows a meaning that is similar to Yellow Journalism. Thus the correct answer is Option 3 i.e Sensational reporting.

Question 16

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

The culprit was sentenced by the Court.

  1. AOption (a)

    Acquitted

  2. BOption (b)

    Punished

  3. COption (c)

    Relieved

  4. DOption (d)

    Pardoned

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Pardoned

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4, i.e., Pardoned.

 

Explanation  

Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word:

  • Sentenced: means declare the punishment decided for (an offender).

So, its opposite meaning must be to legally forgive someone for one's offence.

Let's look at the meanings of the given words:

  • Acquitted- free (someone) from a criminal charge by a verdict of not guilty.
  • Punished- inflict a penalty or sanction on someone for an offence.
  • Relieved- no longer feeling distressed or anxious; reassured.
  • Pardoned- forgive or excuse (a person, error, or offence).

Out of these, only Pardoned shows the opposite meaning to Sentenced. Thus the correct answer is Option 4 i.e Pardoned

 

Acquitted may seem like a correct answer; but it is not. To sentence suggests issuing a legal punishment for a blame; while To pardon is to forgive someone's punishment or to free them from blame.

To acquit is to be legally free from a punishment (regardless of whether one is actually free of blame).

Question 17

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Thrifty as he is, he can well afford to live within his mean.

  1. AOption (a)

    Careless

  2. BOption (b)

    Instinctive

  3. COption (c)

    Sentimental

  4. DOption (d)

    Extravagant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Extravagant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Extravagant.'

Key Points

  • The given word 'Thrifty' means using money and other resources carefully and not wastefully. (कमख़र्च, किफ़ायती)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Careless' means not giving sufficient attention or thought to avoid harm or errors. (असावधान, लापरवाह)
  • 'Instinctive' means (of behavior or actions) not thought about, planned, or learned. ((व्यवहार या कार्यों के बारे में) सोचा, नियोजित या सीखा नहीं)
  • 'Sentimental' means of or prompted by feelings of tenderness, sadness, or nostalgia. (भावुकतापूर्ण, जो अतिसशक्त या अनुपयुक्त हो सकता है)
  • 'Extravagant' means spending or costing too much money. (फ़िजूलख़र्च या बेहद महँगा)

Hence, the correct answer is option 4.

Mistake Points  

  • Careless may seem like the correct answer, but it is not as **'**Thrifty' talks specifically about 'money and resources', the correct antonym must be 'Extravagant'.
<br>

Additional Information

  • The antonyms of the word 'Thrifty' are "extravagant, unthrifty, lavish".
  • The synonyms of the word 'Thrifty' are "economical, saving, preserving".
  • Example of 'Thrifty' in a sentence:
  • He was brought up to be thrifty and never to get into debt.

Question 18

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Do not give him a responsible job, he is immature.

  1. AOption (a)

    Thoughtful

  2. BOption (b)

    Cautious

  3. COption (c)

    Calculating

  4. DOption (d)

    Seasoned

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Seasoned

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4, i.e., Seasoned.

Explanation

Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word:

  • Immature means not fully developed or mature.

So, its opposite meaning must be mature; developed. 

Let's look at the meanings of the given words:

  • Thoughtful- showing consideration for the needs of other people.
  • Cautious- careful to avoid potential problems or dangers.
  • Calculating- acting in a scheming and ruthlessly determined way.
  • Seasoned- accustomed to particular conditions; experienced; expert.

Out of these, only Seasoned shows the opposite meaning to Immature. Thus the correct answer is Option 4 i.e Seasoned.

Question 19

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

I was prepared to show my hand provided he agreed to do the same.

  1. AOption (a)

    To yield

  2. BOption (b)

    To shake hands

  3. COption (c)

    To conceal my plan

  4. DOption (d)

    To lose my ground

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

To conceal my plan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3, i.e., To conceal my plan.

Explanation  

Let's look at the meaning of the underlined phrase:

  • To show one's hand means to reveal or disclose one's plan.

So, its opposite must mean to hide or not reveal one's plan.

Let's look at the meanings of the given phrases:

  • To yield- produce or provide; to let go of something.
  • To shake hands- (regarding something) confirm a promise or bargain; to agree.
  • To conceal- not allow to be seen; hide.
  • To lose ground- Fail to hold one's position; fall behind, deteriorate.

Out of these, only the phrase 'To conceal my plan' shows the opposite meaning to 'show my hand'. Thus the correct answer is Option 3.

Question 20

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word or words followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Akbar the great was a sagacious ruler.

  1. AOption (a)

    Haughty

  2. BOption (b)

    Cunning

  3. COption (c)

    Rude

  4. DOption (d)

    Unwise

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Unwise

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4, i.e., Unwise.

Explanation    

Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word:

  • Sagacious means wise or shrewd.

So, its opposite meaning must be unwise or foolish.

Let's look at the meanings of the given words:

  • Haughty- arrogantly superior and disdainful.
  • Cunning- skill in achieving one's ends by deceit.
  • Rude- offensively impolite or bad-mannered.
  • Unwise- not wise or sensible; foolish.

Out of these, only Unwise shows the opposite meaning to Sagacious. Thus the correct answer is Option 4 i.e Unwise.

Question 21

Direction: The following sentence has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response accordingly.

She has been lying in bed for the last fortnight. I hope she will ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    Come out

  2. BOption (b)

    Pull out

  3. COption (c)

    Pull through

  4. DOption (d)

    Go out

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Pull through

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3, i.e., Pull through.

Explanation

The sentence uses the blank after the verb 'will', suggesting that the blank must contain the main verb.

The sentence talks about her being in bed for a long time. So, the verb in the blank must mean survive.

Let's look at the meanings of the given options:

  • Come out- emerge; become known.
  • Pull out- withdraw from an undertaking.
  • Pull through- get through an illness or other dangerous or difficult situation.
  • Go out- to go outside from a place.

Out of these, only Pull through is appropriate here, given the context.

Thus, the complete sentence is: She has been lying in bed for the last fortnight. I hope she will pull through. Hence Option 3 i.e Pull through is the correct answer.

Question 22

Direction: Each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.

The path of progress is beset ______ difficulties.

  1. AOption (a)

    With

  2. BOption (b)

    By

  3. COption (c)

    Through

  4. DOption (d)

    Along

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

With

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'With'.

Key Points

  • The sentence uses the blank after the verb 'beset' and before the noun 'difficulties'; so it must contain a preposition that makes the verb meaningful.
  • 'Beset' means having a lot of trouble with something, or having to deal with a lot of something that causes problems.
  • Example: With the amount of traffic nowadays, even a trip across town is beset with dangers.
  • Only the preposition 'with' makes the correct phrase 'beset with'.
  • Beset with means to pester, bother, or harass, often excessively.
  • In this usage, a person or group can also be indicated between "beset" and "with."
  • Example: The students beset the teacher with a lot of complaints.
  • None of the other prepositions can make the sentence meaningful.
  • Therefore, the most appropriate option to fill in the given blank is 'with' because it indicates that the path of progress has many difficulties.
  • Hence, option 1 is the correct answer.

 

Complete sentence: The path of progress is beset with difficulties.

Additional Information

  • Let's explore the other given options: 
  • 'Through' means from one end or side of something to the other.
  • 'Along' means in addition to someone or something else.

Mistake Points ​

  • 'Beset by' is sometimes used in common speech, but it is grammatically incorrect.

Hinglish

  • वाक्य 'beset' क्रिया के बाद और संज्ञा 'कठिनाईयों' से पहले रिक्त स्थान का उपयोग करता है; इसलिए इसमें एक preposition होना चाहिए जो क्रिया को सार्थक बनाता है।
  • 'Beset' का अर्थ है किसी चीज़ से बहुत अधिक परेशानी होना, या बहुत सी ऐसी चीज़ से निपटना जो समस्याएँ पैदा करती है।
  • उदाहरण: With the amount of traffic nowadays, even a trip across town is beset with dangers.
  • केवल preposition 'with' सही वाक्यांश 'beset with' बनाता ह���।
  • 'Beset with' अक्सर जरूरत से ज्यादा परेशान करने के साधनों से घिरे।
  • इस प्रयोग में, एक व्यक्ति या समूह को 'beset' और 'with' के बीच भी दर्शाया जा सकता है।
  • उदाहरण: The students beset the teacher with a lot of complaints.
  • अन्य कोई भी preposition वाक्य को अर्थपूर्ण नहीं बना सकता।
  • अतः दिए गए रिक्त स्थान को भरने के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त विकल्प 'beset with' है क्योंकि यह इंगित करता है कि प्रगति के मार्ग में अनेक कठिनाइयाँ हैं।
  • अतः विकल्प 1 सही उत्तर है।
  • आइए अन्य दिए गए विकल्पों का पता लगाएं:
  • 'Through' का अर्थ है किसी चीज के एक छोर या किनारे से दूसरे छोर तक।
  • 'Along' का अर्थ है किसी के अतिरिक्त या कुछ और।
  • कभी-कभी आम बोलचाल में 'beset by' का प्रयोग होता है, लेकिन यह व्याकरण की दृष्टि से गलत है।

 

पूर्ण वाक्य: The path of progress is beset with difficulties.

Question 23

Direction: Each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.

I feel ______ for those who are cruel to their children.

  1. AOption (a)

    Sympathy

  2. BOption (b)

    Contempt

  3. COption (c)

    Admiration

  4. DOption (d)

    Craving

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Contempt

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e., Contempt.

Explanation

The sentence uses the blank after the verb 'feel' and before the preposition 'for', suggesting that it must contain a noun.

The sentence talks about feeling something for people who are cruel to their children. So, the noun in the blank must mean negative feelings like anger, dislike etc.

Let's look at the meanings of the given options:

  • Sympathy- feelings of pity and sorrow for someone else's misfortune.
  • Contempt- the act of despising; lack of respect or reverence for.
  • Admiration- respect and warm approval.
  • Craving- a powerful desire for something.

Out of these, only Contempt shows the intended meaning and fits perfectly with the meaning of the sentence. 

Thus, the complete sentence is: I feel contempt for those who are cruel to their children. Thus Option 2 i.e Contempt is the correct answer.

Question 24

Direction: Each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.

Both the parties were keen to have an ______ settlement of the dispute.

  1. AOption (a)

    Enviable

  2. BOption (b)

    Inimical

  3. COption (c)

    Worthy

  4. DOption (d)

    Amicable

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Amicable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4, i.e., Amicable.

Explanation 

The sentence uses the blank after the article 'an' and before the noun 'settlement', suggesting that it must contain an adjective that begins with a vowel. 

The sentence talks about settlement of a dispute, so the adjective in the blank must mean cordial, friendly, etc.

Let's look at the meanings of the given options:

  • Enviable- arousing or likely to arouse a feeling of discontented or resentful longing aroused by someone else's possessions.
  • Inimical- unfriendly; hostile.
  • Worthy- having or showing the qualities that deserve the specified action or regard.
  • Amicable- characterized by friendliness and absence of discord.

Out of these, only Amicable shows the intended meaning for the given sentence. 

Thus, the complete sentence is: Both the parties were keen to have an amicable settlement of the dispute. Hence Option 4 Amicable is the correct answer.

Question 25

Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank.

I have come to know that the two brothers have _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    fallen through

  2. BOption (b)

    fallen out

  3. COption (c)

    fallen for

  4. DOption (d)

    fallen short

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

fallen out

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'fallen out'.

Key Points

  • The sentence uses the blank after the auxiliary verb 'have', suggesting that the blank must contain the main verb.
  • The sentence talks about two brothers, so the verb in the blank must refer to something about the nature of their relationship.
  • Fall out: a disagreement or something that causes two people to no longer be friends with one another.
  • Example: He left home after falling out with his parents.
  • Therefore from the explanation, it is clear that the most appropriate option to fill in the blank is 'fallen out'.
  • Hence, option 2 is the correct answer.

 

Complete sentence: I have come to know that the two brothers have fallen out. 

Additional Information

  • Fall through- to not be completed or come to fruition; to fail due to some outside circumstances.
  • Fall for- be attracted or infatuated with someone.
  • Fall short- to fail to attain a specified amount, level, or degree; to be inadequate.

​

Hinglish

  • वाक्य auxiliary verb 'have' के बाद रिक्त स्थान का उपयोग करता है, यह सुझाव देता है कि रिक्त स्थान में main verb होनी चाहिए।
  • वाक्य दो भाइयों के बारे में बात करता है, इसलिए रिक्त में क्रिया को उनके रिश्ते की प्रकृति के बारे में कुछ बताना चाहिए।
  • Fall out- एक असहमति या ऐसा कुछ जिसके कारण दो लोग एक-दूसरे के दोस्त नहीं रह जाते।
  • उदाहरण : He left home after falling out with his parents.
  • अतः स्पष्टीकरण से यह स्पष्ट है कि रिक्त स्थान को भरने के लिए सबसे उपयुक्त विकल्प 'fallen out' है।
  • अतः विकल्प 2 सही उत्तर है।
  • Fall through- पूरा न होना या फलित न होना; कुछ बाहरी परिस्थितियों के कारण असफल होना।
  • Fall for- किसी के प्रति आकर्षित या मुग्ध होना।
  • Fall short- एक निर्दिष्ट राशि, स्तर या डिग्री प्राप्त करने में विफल होने के लिए; अपर्याप्त होना।

 

पुरा वाक्य: I have come to know that the two brothers have fallen out.

Question 26

Direction: Each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.

Everybody finds his own work ______ whereas he feels that others have delightful jobs.

  1. AOption (a)

    Tedious

  2. BOption (b)

    Fabulous

  3. COption (c)

    Unprofitable

  4. DOption (d)

    Indecent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Tedious

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1, i.e., Tedious.

Explanation 

The sentence uses the blank to refer to the noun 'work'; so the blank must contain an adjective.

The sentence uses the conjunction 'whereas', showing a contrast. As one feels that others have 'delightful jobs'; it means one must find one's own job as contrasting to it, as being tiresome, dull etc. 

Let's look at the meanings of the given options:

  • Tedious- too long, slow, or dull; tiresome or monotonous.
  • Fabulous- extraordinary, especially extraordinarily large.
  • Unprofitable- not yielding profit or financial gain.
  • Indecent- not appropriate or fitting.

Out of these, only Tedious shows the intended meaning.

Thus, the complete sentence is: Everybody finds his own work tedious whereas he feels that others have delightful jobs. Thus the correct answer is Option 1 i.e Tedious.

Question 27

Direction: Each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.

The accident took place because of the criminal ______ of the driver.

  1. AOption (a)

    Performance

  2. BOption (b)

    Disregard

  3. COption (c)

    Negligence

  4. DOption (d)

    Slackness

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Negligence

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3, i.e., Negligence.

Explanation 

The sentence uses the blank after the adjective 'criminal'; so the blank must contain a noun.

The sentence also talks about accidents happening due to some error or lack of attention by the driver. So, the noun must show this meaning.

Let's look at the meanings of the given options:

  • Performance- the action or process of performing a task or function.
  • Disregard- the action or state of paying no attention to something.
  • Negligence- breach of a duty of care which results in damage.
  • Slackness- weakness characterized by a lack of vitality or energy.

Out of these, only Negligence is appropriate here, given that it resulted in damage or an accident.

Thus, the complete sentence is: The accident took place because of the criminal negligence of the driver. Thus the correct answer is Option 3 i.e Negligence.

Question 28

Direction: Each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.

The belief in the ______ of vaccination is gaining ground.

  1. AOption (a)

    Immunity

  2. BOption (b)

    Prevalence

  3. COption (c)

    Efficacy

  4. DOption (d)

    Workability

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Efficacy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3, i.e., Efficacy.

Explanation

The sentence uses the blank after the article 'the' and before the preposition 'of', suggesting that it should contain a noun.

The sentence also talks about belief in vaccination; so the noun in the blank should mean power, performance etc.

Let's look at the meanings of the given options:

  • Immunity- the capability of multicellular organisms to resist harmful microorganisms from entering their cells.
  • Prevalence- the fact or condition of being prevalent; commonness.
  • Efficacy- the ability to produce a desired or intended result.
  • Workability- capable of or suitable for being worked.

Here, Efficacy and Workability both seem probable.

But; as vaccination is more related to 'ability to produce results' than 'being worked'; Efficacy is more appropriate here.

Thus, the complete sentence is: The belief in the efficacy of vaccination is gaining ground. Thus the correct answer is Option 3 i.e Efficacy.

Question 29

Direction: Each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence. Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.

Our new leader is a _______ young man and will take us forward.

  1. AOption (a)

    Haughty

  2. BOption (b)

    Intoxicated

  3. COption (c)

    Fanciful

  4. DOption (d)

    Dynamic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Dynamic

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4, i.e., Dynamic.

Explanation  

The sentence uses the blank after the article 'a' and before the adjective 'young', suggesting that it should contain an adjective, beginning with a consonant. 

The sentence says 'our new leader' 'will take us forward'; which means that the adjective in the blank must have a positive meaning.

Let's look at the meanings of the given options:

  • Haughty- arrogantly superior and disdainful.
  • Intoxicated- cause (someone) to lose control of their faculties or behaviour.
  • Fanciful- over-imaginative and unrealistic.
  • Dynamic- (of a person) positive in attitude and full of energy and new ideas.

Out of these, only Dynamic shows a positive meaning, which goes with the context.

Thus, the complete sentence is: Our new leader is a dynamic young man and will take us forward.

Question 30

Direction: Each of the following sentences has a blank space and four words given after the sentence.Select whichever word you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.

They found a world of ______ between what he said and what he did.

  1. AOption (a)

    Chaos

  2. BOption (b)

    Bitterness

  3. COption (c)

    Difference

  4. DOption (d)

    Hope

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Difference

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3, i.e., Difference.

Explanation

The sentence uses the blank after the preposition 'of', suggesting that the blank must contain a noun.

The sentence uses the phrase 'between what he said and what he did'. So, the noun in the blank must refer to this contrast.

Let's look at the meanings of the given options:

  • Chaos- complete disorder and confusion.
  • Bitterness- anger and disappointment at being treated unfairly; resentment.
  • Difference- a point or way in which people or things are dissimilar.
  • Hope- a feeling of expectation and desire for a particular thing to happen.

Out of these, only Difference shows the intended meaning.

Thus, the complete sentence is: They found a world of difference between what he said and what he did.

Question 31

Direction: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (1), (2), (3) and (4). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. 

The statement 

P. therefore you must listen carefully

Q. what the speaker has said

R. in order to understand

S. will be made just once

The proper sequence should be

  1. AOption (a)

    S P R Q

  2. BOption (b)

    S R Q P

  3. COption (c)

    R S P Q

  4. DOption (d)

    S P Q R

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

S P R Q

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1, i.e., SPRQ.

  • Explanation:
  • The first part 'the statement' gives the noun clause, which means, the next part must be either an adjective clause (which, that), giving more information about it or the main verb.
  • Out of the given parts, only S begins with the verb 'will be made' and fits after the noun clause.
  • So, S must be the first part of the correct sequence. S gives a complete sentence 'the statement will be made just once'.
  • This means the next part must begin with a conjunction. This is only shown by P, beginning with 'therefore'.
  • So, SP is the correct sequence.
  • Options 1 and 4 both show this sequence; giving us R or Q as the next probable part.
  • R begins with 'in order to understand', which gives an adverb clause, and fits after 'you must listen carefully' (as it gives the reason 'why' one must listen carefully).
  • This makes SPR the correct sequence, with remaining Q being the last part.
<br>

Thus, the correct sequence is: SPRQ.

The statement 

S. will be made just once

P. therefore you must listen carefully

R. in order to understand

Q. what the speaker has said

Question 32

Direction: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (1), (2), (3) and (4). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. 

The small boy who 

P. broke his leg

Q. fell down

R. and

S. had climbed the wall

The proper sequence should be

  1. AOption (a)

    P S R Q

  2. BOption (b)

    S Q R P

  3. COption (c)

    Q S R P

  4. DOption (d)

    S P R Q

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

S Q R P

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, i.e., SQRP.

  • Explanation:
  • While rearranging parts of a sentence, it is easier to find interconnections between them and then eliminate the options.
  • Here, 'fell down' and 'broke his leg' are parts with similar meaning and an obvious sequence; whereas 'had climbed the wall' is opposite and should come before.
  • So, 'fell down and broke his leg' make a meaningful sentence, giving us the sequence QRP.
  • This sequence is only shown by option 2, which gives the full sequence as: SQRP.
<br>

Thus, the correct sequence is: SQRP.

The small boy who 

S. had climbed the wall

Q. fell down

R. and

P. broke his leg

Question 33

Direction: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (1), (2), (3) and (4). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. 

According to an engineer

P. might hit the market next year

Q. a newly developed air-cooler system

R. that employed in conventional room coolers

S. which is based on a principle radically difference from

The proper sequence should be

  1. AOption (a)

    S Q R P

  2. BOption (b)

    R S Q P

  3. COption (c)

    Q S R P

  4. DOption (d)

    P Q R S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Q S R P

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3, i.e., QSRP.

  • Explanation:
  • The given part shows the phrase 'according to an engineer', which is an adverb phrase for something that will follow.
  • This means that the next part must give a noun clause; or talk about something that is the main point of the sentence.
  • This is only shown by Q, which gives the noun clause 'a newly developed air-cooler system'.
  • So, Q must be the first part of the correct sequence.
  • Only option 3 begins with Q, making it the correct option.
<br>

Thus, the complete sequence is: QSRP.

According to an engineer

Q. a newly developed air-cooler system

S. which is based on a principle radically difference from

R. that employed in conventional room coolers

P. might hit the market next year

Question 34

Direction: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (1), (2), (3) and (4). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. 

The clerk

P. on the desk

Q. left the money

R. in the safe

S. which he should have locked up 

The proper sequence should be

  1. AOption (a)

    S R Q P

  2. BOption (b)

    Q P S R

  3. COption (c)

    P Q R S

  4. DOption (d)

    P S R Q

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Q P S R

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, i.e QPSR.

Key Points

  • The given part shows the noun clause, 'the clerk', which means the next part must be either the verb or an adjective clause, giving more information about the noun.
  • P and R give adjective clauses 'on the desk' and 'in the safe'; neither of which is appropriate to describe 'the clerk'.
  • Q shows the verb, 'left the money'; which is the only appropriate part after the noun 'the clerk'.
  • So, Q must be the first in the correct sequence.
  • Only option 2 shows a sequence that begins with Q.
  • Confusion Point:
  • Part P, showing the adjective clause 'on the desk' may seem correct for 'the clerk'; but it is not. 'A clerk' could be 'behind' the desk but not 'on' it.
<br>

Thus, the correct sequence is: QPSR.

The clerk

Q. left the money

P. on the desk

S. which he should have locked up 

R. in the safe

Question 35

Direction: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (1), (2), (3) and (4). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. 

Hardly had my brother descended from the plane

P. when the people

Q. waved and cheered

R. who had come to receive him

S. from the airport lounge

The proper sequence should be

  1. AOption (a)

    P R Q S

  2. BOption (b)

    R S P Q

  3. COption (c)

    R P Q S

  4. DOption (d)

    P Q R S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

P R Q S

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1, i.e., PRQS.

  • Explanation:
  • The sentence begins with the conjunction phrase 'Hardly had...when'. So, the first part in the correct sequence must begin with 'when'.
  • So, P must be the first part in the correct sequence.
  • This is shown by options 1 and 4 both; giving R or Q as the probable next part.
  • Q gives the main verb 'waved and cheered' while R gives the adjective clause 'who had come to receive him'.
  • Both are grammatically appropriate after P; but since P ends with the noun 'people', it makes more sense for the adjective clause to follow it.
  • i.e., people who had come to receive him. So, PR is the correct sequence, given by option 1.
<br>

Thus, the complete sequence is: PRQS.

Hardly had my brother descended from the plane

P. when the people

R. who had come to receive him

Q. waved and cheered

S. from the airport lounge

Question 36

Direction: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (1), (2), (3) and (4). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. 

The essay

P. like that of the human face

Q. because its variety is infinite

R. is a literary form

S. which is not easy to define

The proper sequence should be

  1. AOption (a)

    P Q R S

  2. BOption (b)

    P Q S R

  3. COption (c)

    R S Q P

  4. DOption (d)

    R S P Q

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

R S Q P

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3, i.e., RSQP.

  • Explanation:
  • While rearranging parts of a sentence; it is easier to find interconnections between two parts and then eliminate the options accordingly.
  • Here, Q talks about the infinite variety of something; while P talks about 'human face'.
  • None of the other options can fit after Q logically, except for P.
  • Together, they talk about the infinite variety of human face.
  • So, QP must be the correct sequence.
  • The only option that shows this sequence is Option 3.
<br>

Thus, the correct sequence is: RSQP.

The essay

R. is a literary form

S. which is not easy to define

Q. because its variety is infinite

P. like that of the human face

Question 37

Direction: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (1), (2), (3) and (4). You are required to rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly. 

The exhibition committee

P. attractive and useful

Q. to make the exhibition

R. making efforts

S. has been

The proper sequence should be

  1. AOption (a)

    Q S R P

  2. BOption (b)

    S R Q P

  3. COption (c)

    Q P S R

  4. DOption (d)

    S P Q R

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

S R Q P

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, i.e., SRQP.

  • Explanation:
  • The first part of the sentence gives the noun clause, viz, 'the exhibition committee'.
  • This means the next part must either be the main verb; or an adjective clause (starting with when or that) giving more information about the noun.
  • In the given parts, only S shows a verb, viz, 'has been'.
  • Main Point:
  • So, S must be the first part in the correct sequence.
  • Options 2 and 4 both begin with S. So, we must eliminate one of them, by comparing R and P as the possible next part.
  • P gives 'attractive and useful'; while R gives 'making efforts', which adds to the auxiliary verb 'has been', given by S.
  • So, SR must be the correct sequence, which is only shown by option 2.
  • Confusion Point:
  • SP may also seem meaningful. But, we have two more parts, viz, R and Q; which, then, do not make the sentence meaningful.
<br>

Thus, the correct sequence is: SRQP.

The exhibition committee

S. has been

R. making efforts

Q. to make the exhibition

P. attractive and useful.

Question 38

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “No improvement”

My old teacher gave many poor students money in spite of he was poor.

  1. AOption (a)

    Even though

  2. BOption (b)

    As if

  3. COption (c)

    However

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Even though

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1, i.e., Even though.

Key Points

The sentence uses the incorrect phrase 'in spite of'.

Since the underlined part joins the two sentences, it should contain conjunction.

Let's look at how the given options are used in a sentence:

  • Even though- despite the fact that. e.g. He never beat anybody; even though he was the strongest.
  • As if- as would be the case if. e.g. She acted as if he wasn't present in the room.
  • However- to introduce a statement that contrasts with. e.g. However fast we go, we still won't reach in time.

Main Point:

The sentence uses 'in spite of', which is the same as 'despite the fact that'.

So, the only correct conjunction phrase here is 'even though'.

Thus, the rectified sentence is: My old teacher gave many poor students money even though he was poor.

Question 39

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “No improvement”.

You should to read the newspaper regularly if you want to be well-informed.

  1. AOption (a)

    Ought to 

  2. BOption (b)

    Have to

  3. COption (c)

    Should be

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Ought to 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1, i.e., Ought to.

Key Points

 The sentence uses the incorrect modal verb form 'should to'.

  • The verb after the underlined part is the simple present tense verb 'read', suggesting that it is part of a to-infinitive. So, 'to' is necessary.
  • The context of the sentence suggests that it is a moral advice or the correct way to do something.

Important Points

  • Whenever the sentence suggests an advice, an expected or desired state; the modal verb 'ought' is used. e.g. You ought to respect the elders.
  • So, here, the correct modal verb becomes 'ought to'.

Confusion Points

  • 'Have to' also makes the sentence meaningful. But; 'have to' indicates a compulsion and not an advice; so it is not appropriate here.
  • Note: 'Ought to' and 'should' can be generally used synonymously.
<br>

Thus, the rectified sentence is: You ought to read the newspaper regularly if you want to be well-informed.

Question 40

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “No improvement”.

If he had listening to me he would not have got lost.

  1. AOption (a)

    Listened me

  2. BOption (b)

    Listened to me

  3. COption (c)

    Listen me

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Listened to me

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, i.e., Listened to me.

Key Points

  • The sentence uses the incorrect progressive form of the verb, viz, 'listening'.
  • The sentence uses the auxiliary verb 'had before the underlined verb.
  • This suggests that the verb is in the past perfect tense.

Important Points

  • Correct Past perfect tense verb is had+ past participle form of the verb. e.g. had gone, had waited etc.
  • The correct form of the verb here, then, must be the past participle form, viz, had listened.
<br>

Thus, the rectified sentence is: If he had listened to me he would not have got lost.

Question 41

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “No improvement”

He asked for a bank loan also he didn't have sufficient resources.

  1. AOption (a)

    Because

  2. BOption (b)

    Even if

  3. COption (c)

    Requiring

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Because

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1, i.e., Because.

Key Points

  • The sentence uses the incorrect adverb 'also'.
  • Also- in addition; too.
  • As the underlined word is joining two sentences, we need to use a conjunction here.

 Main Point:

  • Here,  He asked for a bank loan 'due to the reason that 'he didn't have enough resources'.
  • When first sentence is happening 'due to' or 'for the reason that' the second sentence; we use the conjunction 'because'. e.g. I was late because there was traffic.
  • Because- for the reason that; since.
  • So, the correct conjunction here must be 'because'.
<br>

Thus, the rectified sentence is: He asked for a bank loan because he didn't have sufficient resources.

Question 42

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “No improvement”.

I went to the shop to buy some stationeries.

  1. AOption (a)

    Stationery

  2. BOption (b)

    Stationary

  3. COption (c)

    Stationaries

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Stationery

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1, i.e., Stationery.

 Explanation:

  • The sentence uses the incorrect plural 'stationeries'.
  • Stationery-  commercially manufactured writing materials, including paper, envelopes, writing implements, and other office supplies.

 Main Point:

  • Stationery is a collective noun, including a group of different things.
  • So, the correct plural noun here is 'Stationery' and not 'stationeries'.
<br>

Thus, the rectified sentence is: I went to the shop to buy some stationery.

Question 43

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “No improvement".

I have been waiting here for the last two hours.

  1. AOption (a)

    From

  2. BOption (b)

    Since

  3. COption (c)

    By

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

No improvement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4, i.e., No improvement.

Key Points

  • The sentence uses the correct preposition 'for'.
  • For- used to show the entire duration of. 
  • Example. The show went on for two hours.
  • The sentence talks about waiting continuously 'for the duration of' two hours.
  • So, 'for' is the correct preposition here.

Hence Option 4 i.e No improvement is the correct answer.

Question 44

Direction: Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (1). (2) or (3) is better than the underlined part. indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (1), (2) or (3). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (4) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (4). 

The table needs to be painted.

  1. AOption (a)

    Paint

  2. BOption (b)

    Painting

  3. COption (c)

    Having paint

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

No improvement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4, i.e., No improvement.

 Explanation:

  • The sentence uses the correct past participle form of the verb 'painted'.
  • The structure 'Needs to be+ verb' shows a passive condition that must be fulfilled (by someone). In this case, the past participle form of the verb is used after 'be'.
  • Example: The bowl needs to be washed. OR The job needs to be done.
  • None of the given options improve the sentence.

Hence Option 4 i.e No improvement is the correct answer.

Question 45

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “No improvement”.

It began to rain heavily just when I prepare to go out.

  1. AOption (a)

    Prepared

  2. BOption (b)

    Was preparing

  3. COption (c)

    Have prepared

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Was preparing

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Was preparing.

Key Points

  • The sentence uses the incorrect simple present tense verb 'prepare'.
  • The first verb is the simple past tense 'began'.
  • This means the second action must be happening either at the same time as the first verb (past progressive) or even before that (past perfect tense).

 

  • The sentence talks about how it began to rain 'just when' the second action was happening.
  • This means the correct tense here is the past progressive 'was preparing'.
<br>

Thus, the rectified sentence is: It began to rain heavily just when I was preparing to go out. Hence the correct answer is Option 2 i.e Was preparing.

Question 46

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “No improvement”.

The couple seemed to love one another very much.

  1. AOption (a)

    Every other

  2. BOption (b)

    Each

  3. COption (c)

    Each other

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Each other

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3, i.e., Each other.

Key Points

  • The sentence uses the incorrect phrase 'one another'.

 Main Point: 

  • 'Each other' is used for interactions between two people; while 'One another' is used for interaction among a group of more than two people.
  • Example: Reena and Rakesh loved each other. vs Let us all get to know one another.
  • Here, as the sentence mentions 'a couple' or two people; the correct phrase here would be 'each other'.
<br>

Thus, the rectified sentence is: The couple seemed to love each other very much. Hence the correct answer is Option 3 i.e Each other.

Question 47

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “No improvement”

It is high time that we did something.

  1. AOption (a)

    Had done

  2. BOption (b)

    Would do

  3. COption (c)

    Have done

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

No improvement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4, i.e., No improvement.

Key Points

  • The sentence uses the correct simple past tense verb 'did'.
  • The phrase 'High Time' suggests an external, ideal time frame for something, according to which that action should be already done.

 

  • Past Subjunctive: With phrases such as 'It's time' or 'It's high time'; we always use the simple past tense of the verb.
  • Example: It's time we went to school.OR It's high time we started making dinner.
  • None of the given options improve the sentence.

Question 48

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “No improvement”.

If I were a millionaire, I would have helped the poor.

  1. AOption (a)

    Am capable of helping

  2. BOption (b)

    Could help

  3. COption (c)

    Would help

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Would help

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'would help'.

Key Points

  • 'If I were' introduces sentences that display a Type 2 conditional sentence. That is a current fictitious situation. When you want to pretend that the moment right now is different from how it actually is, you use it.
  • The conjunction that connects the two clauses is "If." The tense structure for a conditional sentence of type 2 is as follows:
  • If + verb of the simple past (If + were... would + V1). Similarly, in this context, 'If + were' should be followed by 'would help'.
  • As a result, the verb phrase "would have helped" that is underlined has to be modified.
  • Examples-
  • If I were taller, I would buy this dress.
  • If I were 20, I would travel the world.
  • If I were you, I would give up smoking.
  • If I were a plant, I would love the rain.
  • The needed form must be in the present tense, while "would have helped" is in the past perfect tense (help). D is hence untrue.
  • Option C: "Would help" is the proper form, as required by the structure.

Therefore, the correct answer is: If I were a millionaire, I would help the poor.

Question 49

Direction: Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence are given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (1). (2) or (3) is better than the underlined part. indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter (1), (2) or (3). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (4) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (4). 

The training program was extended for a month.

  1. AOption (a)

    From

  2. BOption (b)

    Until

  3. COption (c)

    Since

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

No improvement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is "No improvement"

Key Points

  • There is a problem related to prepositions
  • The preposition 'For' is used correctly in the sentence.
  • For-  used to show the duration of something.
  • Look at the following example:
  • The show went on for two hours.
  • The sentence conveys "a duration", "For" is the correct preposition.
  • None of the given options can improve the sentence.

Hence, the correct sentence: The training program was extended for a month.

Question 50

In the question below, a part of the sentence has been underlined. Below are given the alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. If the sentence needs no improvement, choose ‘No Improvement’ as your answer. 

The painting which they were looking at was done by my sister.

  1. AOption (a)

    What

  2. BOption (b)

    That

  3. COption (c)

    Whom

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

That

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is that.

Key Points 

  • The sentence uses the pronoun/determiner 'which', which is incorrect here.
  • 'Which' is used with non-defining or non essential clauses and 'that' is used for defining or essential clauses.
  • e.g. My shirt, which has a red button, is lost. vs My shirt that has a red button, is lost.
  • In first case, saying My shirt is lost is the main information, so 'which' clause is removable. But; in the second case, 'that' clause identifies the specific shirt which is lost.

 

  • Here, saying the painting 'which they were looking at' cannot be removed as not essential to the sentence.
  • In fact, it distinguishes the painting as different from all other paintings. e.g. the one specific painting 'that they were looking at' vs other paintings.
  • So, 'that' must be the correct determiner here.

Hint

  • How to choose between 'Which' vs. 'That':
  • If the clause can be removed without changing the meaning; use 'which'. If the clause cannot be removed, use 'that'.
<br>

Thus, the rectified sentence is: The painting that they were looking at was done by my sister.

Question 51

The following 6 (Six) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Statement I: Variability of annual rainfall is very high in the western part of Rajasthan.

Statement II: Average annual rainfall is extremely low in western Rajasthan.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I 

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Spatial distribution of rainfall (Rajasthan)

  • The climate of Rajasthan state has varied contrasts and the presence of Aravallis is the greatest influencing factor.
  • The state can broadly be divided into Arid, Semi-Arid and Sub-Humid Regions, on the basis of rainfall intensities.
  • The Western Rajasthan i.e. in the arid region consists of the districts of Hanumangarh, Jaisalmer, Barmer, Ganganagar, Churu, Jhunjhunu, Sikar, Nagaur, Jodhpur, Pali and Jalore.
  • The Western Rajasthan is characterized by low and highly variable rainfall throughout the years creating an inhospitable living condition to both human and livestock population. Hence the Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

Question 52

The following 6 (Six) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below. 

Statement I: Ozone is a triatomic molecule of oxygen.

Statement II: Ozone is concentrated mainly in the stratosphere.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. ​Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

Ozone.

  • Ozone is a triatomic molecule of oxygen (composed of three atoms of oxygen) and denoted by O3. Hence statement 1 is true.
  • It occurs mainly in the Earth's upper atmosphere (stratosphere) where it forms a protective layer that shields us from the sun's harmful ultraviolet rays is called good Ozone. Hence statement II is true but not the correct explanation of statement I.
  • In the Earth's lower atmosphere (troposphere) near ground level, ozone is formed when pollutants emitted by cars, power plants, industrial boilers, refineries, chemical plants, and other sources react chemically in the presence of sunlight.
  • These are called bad Ozone.
  • The surface-level ozone is a harmful air pollutant.
  • Ozone-depleting gases like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), HCFCs, halons, destroy this protective shield and causes the hole in the ozone layer.
  • India had adopted the Kigali Agreement which aims to phase-down chlorofluorocarbons (HFCs).

Question 53

The following 6(Six) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Statement I: The Laterite soils develop in areas with high temperature and high rainfall.

Statement II: Laterite soils are the result of an intense leaching process.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

Laterite soil

  • Laterite soils are mostly the result of weathering.
  • They are formed under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall with alternate wet and dry periods. Hence statement I is true.
  • Heavy rainfall promotes leaching of soil whereby lime and silica are leached away and a soil rich in oxides of iron and aluminium compounds is left behind.  Hence statement II is true and correct explanation of statement I.
  • In leaching the nutrients gets washed away by water.
  • Laterite means brick in Latin. They harden greatly on losing moisture.
  • Laterite soils are red in colour due to small amount of clay and more gravel of red sand-stones.
  • The extents within which it is found are the hills of the Western Ghats, Raj Mahal hills, Eastern Ghats, Satpura, Vindhya, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, North Cachar Hills, and the Garo hills.
  • Laterite soil is poor in organic matter, nitrogen, potassium, lime and potash.
  • These iron and aluminium rich laterite soils are suitable for the cultivation of rice, ragi, sugarcane and cashew nuts.

Question 54

The following 6(Six) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Statement I: Too much salt content in diet could be one of the reasons for kidney failure.

Statement II: High salt may cause high blood pressure.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I 

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. 

Kidney disease

  • Although sodium ( in common salt) is essential for the body functioning.
  • But too much salt can raises the amount of sodium in your bloodstream and wrecks the delicate balance of sodium in the body which is harmful for people with kidney disease and lead to kidney failure. Hence statement I is true.
  • The kidneys cannot eliminate excess sodium and fluid from your body.
  • This causing the kidneys to have reduced function and remove less water resulting in higher blood pressure. Hence statement II is true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
  • This puts strain on the kidneys and can lead to kidney disease.

Question 55

The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Statement I: The city of Rome revived in a spectacular way in the 15th century.

Statement II: From the 15th century onwards, artists were known individually by name, not as a member of a group or a guild, in Roman society.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I 

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

Renaissance in Rome

  • The term Renaissance means “revival” or “rebirth”.
  • The birthplace of the Renaissance is in Italy.
  • Pope Nicholas V founded the Vatican Library and the city of Rome (Vatican) revived in a spectacular way in the 15th century. Hence statement I is true
  • It also denotes to the noteworthy modifications that happened in Europe during the transition period between the medieval and modern.
  • Growth of science, art, architecture, sculpture, painting, literature, geography and religion were seen during this period.
  • Paintings and art within the Middle Ages were dominated by Christianity but in the Renaissance period, love of nature and therefore the human body provided muses to this domain.
  • Leonardo da Vinci was referred to as the “Renaissance Man”.
  • From the 15th century onwards, artists were known individually by name, not as a member of a group or a guild, in Roman society. Hence the statement II is true but not the correct explanation of statement I.
  • Spirit of humanism and individualism has developed.
  • The religious makeover was signified by the Reformation.
  • These changes that happened in Europe were collectively called “Renaissance.”

Question 56

The following 6(Six) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Statement I: Chartism was the political reform campaign for democratic rights which swept over Britain between 1838 and 1848.

Statement II: The trade union movement declined by the 1830s as it failed to fulfil the aspirations of the working class.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I 

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

Chartism

  • In the later 1830s and 1840s, trade unionism was overshadowed by political activity
  • Hence the importance of Chartism popularised in Britain because it is a working-class movement for political reform in Britain.
  • It was named after the people's charter, a bill drafted by the London radical William Lovett in May 1838.
  • It contained six demands: universal manhood suffrage, equal electoral districts, vote by ballot, annually elected Parliaments, payment of members of parliament, and the abolition of the property qualifications for membership.
  • Chartism was the first movement both working class in character and national in scope that grew out of the protest against the injustices of the new industrial and political order in Britain.
  • While composed of working people, Chartism was also mobilized around populism as well as clan identity.

Question 57

‘Sahel’ region of Sahara desert is associated with

  1. AOption (a)

    core area of Sahara desert 

  2. BOption (b)

    southern moving edge of Sahara desert 

  3. COption (c)

    northern fringe of Sahara desert bordering Mediterranean sea 

  4. DOption (d)

    another name of Sahara desert

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

southern moving edge of Sahara desert 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. southern moving edge of Sahara desert.

Sahel region

  • The Sahel region is largely semi-arid belt of barren, sandy and rock-strewn land in Africa.
  • It marks the physical and cultural transition between the continent's more fertile tropical regions (Savannah) to the south and Sahara desert in the north.
  • It is extended from Senegal eastward to Sudan, which is the southern moving edge of Sahara desert. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • The Sahel region experiences a tropical semi-arid climate mainly hot and dry conditions throughout the year.
  • The Sahelian climate is influenced by the dry Harmattan winds as well as wind movements within the inter-tropical convergence zone.
  • The Sahel region is roofed by savannah and grassland with some areas with woodland and shrubland.

Question 58

Which one of the following pairs of a river and its tributary is NOT correctly matched?

  1. AOption (a)

    Godavari : Wainganga 

  2. BOption (b)

    Cauvery : Bhavani 

  3. COption (c)

    Narmada : Amaravati

  4. DOption (d)

    Krishna : Bhima 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Narmada : Amaravati

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Narmada: Amaravati

Godavari river system

  • The Godavari is the largest river system of Peninsular India.
  • It is revered as Dakshina Ganga.
  • The Godavari basin extends over states of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Odisha in additionally to smaller parts in Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and Union Territory of Puducherry (Yanam).
  • The Godavari River rises from Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra and flows into the Bay of Bengal.
  • Left Bank Tributaries: Dharna, Penganga, Wainganga, Wardha, Pranahita, Pench, Kanhan, Sabari, Indravati etc. Hence option 1 is correctly matched.
  • Right Bank Tributaries: Pravara, Mula, Manjra, Peddavagu, Maner etc.
  • The Manjra is the only important right-bank tributary. It joins the Godavari after passing through the Nizam Sagar.

Cauvery river system

  • It rises in Talakaveri located in the Western Ghats.
  • The river drains into the Bay of Bengal.
  • The river has many tributaries called Arkavathy, Shimsha, Hemavati, Kapila, Shimsha, Honnuhole, Amaravati, Lakshmana Kabini, Lokapavani, Bhavani, Noyyal, and Tirtha. Hence option 2 is correctly matched.

Narmada river system

  • The Narmada river located in central India.
  • It rises in the Amarkantak Hill in Madhya Pradesh state.
  • It acts as the traditional frontier between North India and South India.
  • Narmada flows westwards through a rift valley between the Vindhyan Range on the north and therefore the Satpura Range on the south.
  • It is one among the major rivers of peninsular India. Only the Narmada, the Tapti, and the Mahi rivers run from east to west.
  • It flows through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Maharashtra.
  • It drains into the Arabian Sea within the Bharuch district of Gujarat.
  • Left bank tributaries: Banjar, Kaveri, Tawa, Burner, Sher and Shankar.
  • Right bank tributaries: Uri, Hiran, Orsang and Kolar. Hence option 3 is incorrectly matched.

Krishna river system

  • ​The Krishna is the second-largest east-flowing river of the Peninsula.
  • The Krishna Basin extends over Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Karnataka.
  • It is bounded by Balaghat range on the north, by the Eastern Ghats on the south and the east and by the Western Ghats on the west.
  • The Krishna river rises from the Western Ghats near Jor village of Satara district of Maharashtra just north of Mahabaleshwar and drains into the Bay of Bengal.
  • The Krishna forms a large delta with a shoreline of about 120 km.
  • Right bank tributaries: the Ghatprabha, the Malprabha and the Tungabhadra.
  • Left bank tributaries: the Bhima, the Musi and the Munneru. Hence option 4 is correctly matched.

Question 59

In which one of the following countries, the Mediterranean type of Biome is found?

  1. AOption (a)

    Chile 

  2. BOption (b)

    Kenya 

  3. COption (c)

    Argentina 

  4. DOption (d)

    Bolivia 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Chile 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Chile.

Confusion Points

  • The Biomass of Argentina Is very varied.
  • The geographical limits of the country and the vastness of its territory make it have a large number of biomes.
  • However, the Mediterranean type of Biome is not found in Argentina
  • In Buenos Aires, the capital of Argentina, the temperatures are reminiscent of the Mediterranean climate, the daily average ranging from 11 °C in July, with highs around 15 °C, to 25 °C in January, with highs around 30 °C.
  • But in contrast with the Mediterranean climate, here it rains even in summer, although in the form of afternoon showers and thunderstorms, which do not decrease too much the sunshine duration.

Key Points

Mediterranean type of Biome

  • The Mediterranean type of biome is entirely confined to the western portion of continental masses.
  • It lies between 30° and 45° north and south of the equator.
  • The basic reason for this type of climate is the shifting of the wind belts.
  • The Mediterranean Sea has the greatest extent of this type of winter rain climate and gives rise to the name Mediterranean Climate.
  • The best-developed Mediterranean type climate is found in central Chile. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • Other Mediterranean regions include California (around San Francisco), the south-western tip of Africa (around Cape Town), southern Australia, and southwest Australia (Swanland).
  • Clear skies and high temperatures, hot-dry summers and cool-wet winters are the climatic conditions of this region.
  • Climate is not extreme due to the cooling from water bodies.
  • Many local winds, some hot, others cold are common around the Mediterranean Sea.
  • Sirocco is a hot, dry dusty wind that originates within the Sahara Desert. It is called Blood Rain because of the red sand of the Sahara desert.
  • Mistral is a cold wind from the north, rushing down the Rhone valley in violent gusts between 40 and 80 miles per hour, the velocity of the Mistral is intensified by the funnelling effect in the valley between the Alps and the Central Massif.
  • The Mediterranean lands are also referred to as the world’s orchard lands.

Question 60

Arrange the following states in order of their decreasing population size as per the census 2011:

  1. West Bengal
  2. Bihar
  3. Maharashtra
  4. Andhra Pradesh
  1. AOption (a)

    2 – 3 – 1 - 4

  2. BOption (b)

    3 – 2 – 1 - 4

  3. COption (c)

    1 – 4 – 3 - 2

  4. DOption (d)

    3 – 1 – 4 - 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3 – 2 – 1 - 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, i.e 3 – 2 – 1 - 4.

Key Points

Population size as per the census 2011

  • Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in the country.
  • Sikkim is the least populous state in the country.
  • Delhi is the most populous Union Territory in the country.
  • Lakshadeep is the least populous Union Territory in the country.
  • The list of top 10 populous states as per the census 2011 are as follow.
RankStatePopulation (2011 Census)
1Uttar Pradesh19,95,81,477
2Maharashtra11,23,72,972
3Bihar10,38,04,637
4West Bengal9,13,47,736
5Andhra Pradesh8,46,65,533
6Madhya Pradesh7,25,97,565
7Tamil Nadu7,21,38,958
8Rajasthan6,86,21,012
9Karnataka6,11,30,704
10Gujarat6,03,83,628

Question 61

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (River)List II (Mouth of the river)
A. Danube1. North sea
B. Rhine2. Black sea
C. Rhone3. Bay of Biscay
D. Loire4. Mediterranean sea
  1. AOption (a)

    A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D - 3

  2. BOption (b)

    A – 3, B – 4, C – 1, D – 2

  3. COption (c)

    A – 2, B – 4, C – 1, D - 3

  4. DOption (d)

    A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D - 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D - 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1, i.e A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D - 3.

Key Points

Danube river

  • The Danube is Europe’s second-longest river after the Volga.
  • It is located in Central and Eastern Europe.
  • It rises in the Black Forest mountain of western Germany and flows for some 2,850 km to its mouth on the Black Sea.
  • Along its course, it passes through 10 countries: Germany, Austria, Slovakia, Hungary, Croatia, Serbia, Bulgaria, Romania, Moldova, and Ukraine.
  • Since ancient times, the Danube has become a standard traditional trade route in Europe.
  • For centuries Europe’s rulers have dreamed of construction of an enormous Y-shaped canal connecting the Elbe, Oder and Danube rivers, most of which would get on Czech territory.
  • The Canal intends to attach the Danube, Oder and Elbe rivers and thus provide another navigable link from the Black Sea to the North and Baltic Seas.

Rhine river

  • The Rhine is one among the longest and most vital rivers in Europe.
  • It runs for over 1,232 km from its source in the Swiss Alps (in Switzerland).
  • The Rhine flows through six countries -Switzerland, Principality of Liechtenstein, Austria, Germany, France and therefore the Netherlands before flowing into the North Sea at Rotterdam.
  • It is the second-longest river in Central and Western Europe after the Danube.
  • The River Rhine has named the different names depending on the country it flows through. It is called Rhein in Germany, the Rhine in France and Rijn in the Netherlands.
  • A part of the Rhine River flowing through Germany has been experiencing its lowest water levels in two decades.

​Rhone river

  • Rhone River is a historic river of Switzerland and France and one of the most significant waterways of Europe.
  • It is the only major river which is flowing directly to the Mediterranean sea.
  • It is rising in the Rhone Glacier in the Swiss Alps.
  • It is passing through Lake Geneva and running through southeastern France.

Loire river

  • Loire river is the longest river in France.
  • It is rising in the southern mass of central and flowing north and west in the Bay of Biscay, a gulf of the northeast to the Atlantic ocean. Hence option 1 is correct.

Question 62

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Process)List II (Type of change)
A. Heating of camphor1. Chemical
B. Cooling of water vapor up to room temperature2. Evaporation
C. Cooking an egg3. Condensation
D. Formation of water vapor at room temperature.4. Sublimation
  1. AOption (a)

    A – 4, B – 3, C – 1, D – 2

  2. BOption (b)

    A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D - 1

  3. COption (c)

    A – 2, B – 1, C – 3, D - 4

  4. DOption (d)

    A – 2, B – 3, C – 1, D - 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A – 4, B – 3, C – 1, D – 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1, i.e A – 4, B – 3, C – 1, D – 2.

Key Points

Evaporation

  • Evaporation is a process by which water is converted from liquid to a gaseous state.
  • The temperature at which the water starts evaporating is known as the latent heat of vaporisation.
  • The formation of water vapour at room temperature is an example of Evaporation.

​Condensation

  • Condensation is a process by which water vapour is converted into water.
  • Condensation is caused by the loss of heat.
  • Condensation depends upon the amount of cooling and the relative humidity of the air.
  • Cooling of water vapour up to room temperature is an example of condensation.

Sublimation

  • Sublimation is the process through which a substance changes its state from the solid phase to the gaseous phase without changing into the liquid phase.
  • When camphor is heated, it will sublime and changes into a gaseous state.

Chemical change

  • All cooking is a chemical change.
  • Any time raw food is treated to heat the resulting 'cooking' is a chemical reaction.
  • When an egg is cooked, its physical and chemical properties change. Hence option 1 is correct.

Question 63

Identify the element having zero valency 

  1. AOption (a)

    Sulphur

  2. BOption (b)

    Phosphorous

  3. COption (c)

    Lead

  4. DOption (d)

    Radon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Radon

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Radon.

Valency of an atom

  • The combining capacity of an atom is known as its valency.
  • The number of bonds that an atom can form as part of a compound is expressed by the valency of the element.
  • Valence electrons are those electrons that are present in the outermost orbit of the atom.
  • The noble gas family has zero valencies.
  • Helium, Neon, Radon, and Argon have zero valencies because they have their outer shell completely filled and are chemically inert gas. Hence option 4 is correct.

Question 64

There are six electrons, six protons and six neutrons in an atom of an element. What is the atomic mass number of the element?

  1. AOption (a)

    6

  2. BOption (b)

    12

  3. COption (c)

    18

  4. DOption (d)

    24

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

12

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. 12.

Atomic structure

  • The number of protons in the nucleus of the atom is equal to the atomic number (Z).
  • The number of electrons in a neutral atom is equal to the number of protons.
  • The mass number of the atom (M) is equal to the sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.
  • The number of neutrons is equal to the difference between the mass number of the atom (M) and the atomic number (Z).
  • 12C: 6 electrons, 6 protons, and 6 neutrons. Hence option 2 is correct.

Question 65

Which one of the following has different number of molecules? (All kept at normal temperature and pressure)

  1. AOption (a)

    3 gram of Hydrogen 

  2. BOption (b)

    48 gram of Oxygen

  3. COption (c)

    42 gram of Nitrogen 

  4. DOption (d)

    2 gram of carbon 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2 gram of carbon 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. 2 grams of carbon.

Number of moles

  • The number of moles can be calculated by Mass (g) divided by Molecular mass.
  • Number of moles=Mass(g)Molecular mass (M)Number\space of\space moles = {Mass(g) \over Molecular\space mass\space (M)}
  • We know the same number of moles have the same number of molecules or atoms.
  • 3 grams of Hydrogen = 1.5 moles, because the molecular mass of Hydrogen is 2.
  • 48 grams of Oxygen= 1.5 moles, because the molecular  mass of Oxygen is 32.
  • 42 grams of Nitrogen = 1.5 moles, because the molecular mass of Nitrogen is 28.
  • 2 grams of carbon = 0.167 moles, because the molecular mass of carbon is 14.
  • Hence option 4 is correct.

Question 66

Combination of one volume of nitrogen with three volumes of hydrogen produces

  1. AOption (a)

    one volume of ammonia

  2. BOption (b)

    two volumes of ammonia 

  3. COption (c)

    three volumes of ammonia 

  4. DOption (d)

    one and a half volumes of ammonia 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

two volumes of ammonia 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Two volumes of ammonia.

Haber Process

  • The Haber process is basically an industrial process to be used for the production of ammonia.
  • In the Haber process, atmospheric nitrogen (N2) is reacting with hydrogen (H2) to produce ammonia (NH3).
  • Haber process, we take nitrogen gas and hydrogen atom obtained from natural gas in the ratio of 1:3 by volume.
  • In this process, the reaction is an exothermic reaction where energy is liberated from the reaction.
  • N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) i.e one volume of N2 and three-volume of H2 produces two-volume of NH3. Hence option 2 is correct.

Question 67

Consider the following statements about cactus:

  1. The leaves are reduced to spines.
  2. The stem does photosynthesis.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only 

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only 

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

Key Points

Xerophytic Adaptation:

  • Structural adaptations are important to plant’s survival in the desert.
  • Xerophytes are the plant that survives in extreme conditions like dry habitat (salt marsh, saline soil, or acid bog).
  • In the case of cactus or xerophytic plants, leaves are reduced to spines to prevent loss of water through transpiration.
  • The stem of the xerophyte performs the process of photosynthesis because it brings water from roots to leaves during photosynthesis.
  • Wax coatings on leaves prevent water loss through evaporation, which in the hot desert can cause loss of water from both the surface and the inside of leaves.

Question 68

In which one of the following, methanogens, i.e methane producing bacteria are NOT present?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rumen of cattle 

  2. BOption (b)

    Aerobic environment 

  3. COption (c)

    Anaerobic sludge 

  4. DOption (d)

    Excreta of cattle

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Aerobic environment 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Aerobic environment.

Methanogenesis

  • Methanogenesis or Biomethanation is a process by which organic material is microbiologically converted under anaerobic conditions to biogas. Hence option 2 is incorrect.
  • Methanogens are microorganisms that produce methane as a by-product of their metabolism.
  • Most methanogens are found in the gut of ruminants of cattle as well as humans.
  • Biomethanation has strong potential for the production of energy from organic residues, excreta of cattle and wastes.
  • It will help to reduce the use of fossil fuels and thus reduce CO2 emission.

Question 69

Malarial parasite is a

  1. AOption (a)

    Bacteria

  2. BOption (b)

    Protozoa

  3. COption (c)

    Virus

  4. DOption (d)

    Fungus 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Protozoa

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Protozoa.

Malaria

  • Malarial parasite is a plasmodium which is a protozoan.
  • It is transmitted through the bite of an infected Anopheles mosquito.
  • Protozoa are single-celled eukaryotic organisms, either free-living or parasitic.
  • A malaria vaccine is known by its lab initials as RTS, S but branded as Mosquirix.
  • It was developed by GlaxoSmithKline (GSK) company and approved by the European Medicines Agency in 2015.

Question 70

With reference to biodiversity, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Species richness and high degree of endemism are important criteria for identifying biodiversity hot spots.

  2. Species diversity is highest in the tropic and decreases down the poles.

  3. Biodiversity conservation may be in-situ as well as ex-situ.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only 

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only 

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 3 only 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3, i.e 1, 2 and 3.

Biodiversity hot spots

  • Biodiversity is the variety of plant and animal life in the world or in a particular habitat.
  • Biodiversity is measured by two major components i.e. species richness and species endemism. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The region must fulfill the following two criteria to qualify as a hotspot:
  1. The region should have at least 1500 species of vascular plants i.e., it should have a high degree of endemism.
  2. It should contain 70% of its original habitat.
  • Species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Biodiversity conservation may be in-situ (conservation within the natural habitat) as well as ex-situ (conservation outside the natural habitat). Hence statement 3 is correct.​

Question 71

It is difficult to kill viruses because they

  1. AOption (a)

    consist of tough protein coat 

  2. BOption (b)

    are very small in size 

  3. COption (c)

    lack cellular structure 

  4. DOption (d)

    spend a lot of time inside the hosts cells 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

spend a lot of time inside the hosts cells 

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  1. Tough Protein Coat: Many viruses have a tough protein coat (capsid) that protects their genetic material. This coat can make it difficult for antiviral agents to penetrate and disrupt the virus.
  2. Very Small in Size: Viruses are extremely small, much smaller than bacteria, which makes them hard to detect and filter out. Their small size also enables them to easily enter host cells.
  3. Lack Cellular Structure: Viruses do not have a cellular structure; they are essentially just genetic material (DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protein coat. Because they lack many structures and functions of living cells, there are fewer targets for drugs to attack.
  4. Spend a Lot of Time Inside Host Cells: This is the most significant challenge. Once inside a host cell, viruses use the cell’s machinery to replicate and produce new viruses. Targeting the virus without damaging the host cell becomes very challenging because the treatment must differentiate between the virus and the cell's normal functions.

Therefore, while all the listed factors contribute to the difficulty in killing viruses, the fact that they spend a lot of time inside host cells is particularly problematic, making it the primary reason they are difficult to target with treatments.

Hence, the correct answer ios "option(4)".

Question 72

When a ray of light enters a glass slab, then

  1. AOption (a)

    Only the frequency changes 

  2. BOption (b)

    Frequency and velocity changes

  3. COption (c)

    Frequency does not change

  4. DOption (d)

    Frequency and wavelength changes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Frequency does not change

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

As light moves from rarer medium to denser medium or vice versa, because of change in density of mediums, the speed of light decreases but the frequency of light remains the same.

And the relation of frequency, wavelength, and velocity can be given as

v = n × λ

velocity of light = v

frequency of light =n

the wavelength of light = λ

 

Explanation:

In our case,

  • Option a is incorrect since frequency will remain constant
  • Option b is incorrect since frequency remains constant but velocity changes
  • Option c is correct since Frequency does not change
  • Option d is incorrect since frequency remains constant but wavelength changes

Question 73

A ball is thrown vertically upward from the ground with a speed of 25.2 m/s. The ball will reach the highest point of its journey in

  1. AOption (a)

    5.14 s

  2. BOption (b)

    3.57 s

  3. COption (c)

    2.57 s

  4. DOption (d)

    1.29 s

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2.57 s

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • In classical mechanics when an object is projected upward with some initial velocity, and as it moves upward its initial velocity keeps on decreasing because of gravitational acceleration, since it acted downward.
  • At the highest point, the final velocity will become zero and the time taken to reach that point can be calculated using kinematic equation

v = u + gt

where v = final velocity, u = initial velocity, g = acceleration due to gravity and t = time 

CALCULATION:

Given -  u = 25.2 m/s, v = 0 m/s

By using kinematic equation, 

v = u + gt

Since g is acted downward it is taken as negative -g

∴ v = u – gt

⇒ 0 = 25.2 – 9.8t

⇒ 25.2 = 9.8t

t=25.29.8=2.57;sect = \frac{{25.2}}{{9.8}} = 2.57;sec

Question 74

One-kilowatt hour is equal to 

  1. AOption (a)

    36× 103 joules

  2. BOption (b)

    36× 105 joules

  3. COption (c)

    103 joules

  4. DOption (d)

    105 joules

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

36× 105 joules

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Electric power (P) is the rate at which work is done by the e.m.f. a source in maintaining current in the circuit. That is,

P= V. I = V2. R = I2. R 

  • Electric Energy is the total work done by an e.m.f. a source in maintaining current in the circuit for a given time. Its SI unit is the joule (J) or (kWh).
  • That is given by,

Electrical energy = Electrical power × time

1 unit = 1 kWh = Power (in kW) × time (hours).

 

Calculation:

Given that, electrical energy = 1 kWh

Where as 1 Joule = 1 Watt-sec

And

1 kW = 1000 W

1 h = 60 × 60 sec

So, in terms of joule 1 kWh can be calculated as

1 kWh = 1 × 103× 60 × 60 = 3600 ×103 = 36 × 105 joule

Question 75

When sound waves are propagated through a medium, the physical quantity/ quantities transmitted is/are

  1. AOption (a)

    Matter only

  2. BOption (b)

    Energy only

  3. COption (c)

    Energy and matter only

  4. DOption (d)

    Energy, momentum, and matter

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Energy only

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Wave motion: Wave motion is a kind of disturbance which travels through a medium due to repeated vibrations of the particles of the medium about their mean positions.
  • The disturbance being handed over from one particle to the next.
  • In a wave, both information and energy propagate (in the form of signals) from one point to another but there is no motion of matter as a whole through a medium.

Characteristics of wave motion:

  1. In wave motion, the disturbance travels through the medium due to repeated periodic oscillations of the particles of the medium about their mean positions.
  2. The energy is transferred from one place to another without any actual transfer of the particles of the medium.
  3. Each particle receives disturbance a little later than its preceding particle i.e., there is a regular phase difference between one particle and the next.
  4. The velocity with which a wave travels is different from the velocity of the particles with which they vibrate about their mean positions.
  5. The wave velocity remains constant in a given medium while the particle velocity changes continuously during its vibration about the mean position. It is maximum at the mean position and zeroes at the extreme position.
  6. For the propagation of a mechanical wave, the medium must possess the properties of inertia, elasticity, and minimum friction amongst its particles.

EXPLANATION:

  • From above it clear that when a sound wave is propagated through a medium (it can be solid, liquid, or gaseous), then there is no net displacement of matter through which it is propagated.
  • In the propagation of longitudinal waves only momentum and energy are transmitted

Question 76

Pressure is a scalar quantity because

  1. AOption (a)

    It is the ratio of magnitude of force to area and both force and area are vectors

  2. BOption (b)

    It is the ratio of magnitude of force to area

  3. COption (c)

    It is the ratio of component of force (normal to area) to area

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

It is the ratio of component of force (normal to area) to area

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Pressure: The pressure at a point on a surface is the thrust acting normally per unit area around that point.
  • If a total force F acts normally over a flat area A, then the pressure is

P=FAP = \frac{F}{A}

  • If the force is not distributed uniformly over the given surface, then the pressure will be different at different points.
  • If a force ΔF acts normally on a small area ΔA surrounding a given point, then the pressure at that point will be

P=lim⁡ΔA→0ΔFA=dFdA;P = \mathop {\lim }\limits_{{\rm{\Delta }}A \to 0} \frac{{{\rm{\Delta }}F}}{A} = \frac{{dF}}{{dA}};

EXPLANATION:

  • The pressure is a scalar quantity because fluid pressure at a particular point in the fluid has the same magnitude in all directions.
  • This shows that a definite direction is not associated with fluid pressure.
  • Though force is a vector quantity, only the magnitude of the normal component of the force appears in the above equations for pressure.

Question 77

A person is unable to read a newspaper without his glasses. He is most probably suffering from

  1. AOption (a)

    Myopia

  2. BOption (b)

    Presbyopia

  3. COption (c)

    Astigmatism

  4. DOption (d)

    Hypermetropia

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Hypermetropia

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Visual defect: When the vision of any human being defected due to some defect in the eye is called a visual defect.

There are three main types of defects.

  • Myopia or near-sightedness: In this defect of vision, the man can see the nearby object but can’t see the distant object clearly. It occurs when the eyeball is too long.
  • A concave lens is used to cure myopia.
  • Hypermetropia or farsightedness: In this defect of vision, the man can see the distant object but can’t see the nearby object clearly.
  • A convex lens is used to cure it.
  • Presbyopia: When the eye lens becomes less elastic then it happens.
  • When the Objects which nearby appear to be blurred to a person then it is called Presbyopia.

EXPLANATION:

  • If a person is unable to read a newspaper without his glasses, which means a person can’t see a nearby object
  • Hence, we can say that he is suffering from far-sightedness and medically termed hypermetropia can be treated using a pair of concave lenses which is used in his glasses. So option 4 is correct.

​EXTRA POINTS:

Defects of VisionDetailsCorrections
Myopia or Near-sightednessThe eye can see nearby objects clearly but the distant objects appear indistinct.Concave Lens
Hypermetropia or FarsightednessThe human eye can see Distant objects clearly but cannot see nearby objects distinctly.Convex Lens
AstigmatismIt’s a type of distorted or blurred vision at any distance.As per need
PresbyopiaPeople suffer from near-sightedness as well as farsightedness.bifocal lenses

Question 78

The free-fall acceleration g increases as one proceeds, at sea level, from the equator toward either pole. The reason is 

  1. AOption (a)

    Earth is a sphere with same density everywhere

  2. BOption (b)

    Earth is a sphere with different density at the polar regions than in the equatorial regions

  3. COption (c)

    Earth is approximately an ellipsoid having its equatorial radius greater than its polar radius by 21

  4. DOption (d)

    Earth is approximately an ellipsoid having its equatorial radius smaller than its polar radius by 21

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Earth is approximately an ellipsoid having its equatorial radius greater than its polar radius by 21

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Acceleration due to gravity (g): The force of attraction exerted by the earth on a body is called gravitational pull or gravity. We know that when a force acts on a body, it produces acceleration. Therefore, a body under the effect of gravitational pull must accelerate.
  • Acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth is –

g=GMR2g = \frac{{GM}}{{{R^2}}}

Where G = Universal gravitational constant, M = mass of the earth, and R = radius of the earth.

EXPLANATION:

  • We consider earth as a perfect sphere but it's not the actual shape of the earth. It is somewhat ellipsoid.
  • It is flattened at the pole and bulged at the equator.
  • Hence if we compare equatorial radius with radius at poles its approximately 21 km more.
  • But as compared to earth radius (6400 km) it’s very less and hence we consider the earth to be a sphere but due to this difference in radius gravitational acceleration is affected slightly.
  • From this we can say that, Earth is approximately an ellipsoid having its equatorial radius greater than its polar radius by 21 km.

Question 79

Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The measurement of mass taken by spring weighing balance is correct at the place where the spring balance is calibrated for

  2. BOption (b)

    The measurement of mass taken by a spring weighing balance is correct at all places

  3. COption (c)

    The measurement of mass taken by a spring weighing balance is corrected at the place where the acceleration due to gravity is the same with the place where the spring balance is calibrated for

  4. DOption (d)

    A spring balance cannot be used to measure mass at any place

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The measurement of mass taken by a spring weighing balance is corrected at the place where the acceleration due to gravity is the same with the place where the spring balance is calibrated for

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Spring balance: When its upper end is fixed with rigid support and body of mass m hung from its lower end.
  • Spring is stretched and the weight of the body can be measured by the reading of spring balance i.e.,

R = W = mg

  • The mechanism of the weighing machine is the same as that of the spring balance.
  • It works by Hooke's Law, which states that the force needed to extend a spring is proportional to the distance that spring is extended from its rest position.
  • It is expressed as force exerted due to loaded mass = mg = -k.x
  • Hence mass suspended (m) and gravitational acceleration (g) is directly proportional to springs extension(x) and can be given as

 mg∝ x

EXPLANATION:

By using Hooke’s law, we can say that

  • Reading taken by the spring balance will be correct unless gravitational acceleration is the same or constant. Hence option 3 is only correct.

NOTE:

Effect of frame of reference:

  • In an inertial frame of reference, the reading of spring balance shows the actual weight of the body but in a noninertial frame of reference reading of spring balance increases or decreases in accordance with the direction of acceleration.

Question 80

Which one of the following is not a contact force?

  1. AOption (a)

    Push force

  2. BOption (b)

    Gravitational force

  3. COption (c)

    Frictional force

  4. DOption (d)

    Strain force

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Gravitational force

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Force: Force is an external effect in the form of a push or pulls which
  1. Produces or tries to produce motion in a body at rest.
  2. Stops or tries to stop a moving body.
  3. Changes or tries to change the direction of motion of the body.
  • Contact forces are those types of forces that result when the two interacting objects are in contact with each other physically.

EXPLANATION:

According to the given option

  • Option 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect since all three forces are needed to be in contact with the surface.
  • This gravitational force does not influence these masses physically but will be experienced by both the masses. Thus option 2 is correct.
  • Whereas push force is defined as the force applied to move a mass with some constant acceleration.
  • Strain force can be defined as the force causing the change in length, area, or volume when subjected to stress.
  • The frictional force is a contact force because it acts between two surfaces that are trying to move relative to each other (static friction) or is moving relative to each other (kinetic friction).

Question 81

When a force of 1 newton act on a mass of 1 kg which is able to move freely, the object moves in the direction of fore with a/an

  1. AOption (a)

    Speed of 1 km/s

  2. BOption (b)

    Acceleration of 1 m/s2

  3. COption (c)

    Speed of 1 m/s

  4. DOption (d)

    Acceleration of 1 km/s2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Acceleration of 1 m/s2

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Newton’s Second Law of Motion:

  • The rate of change of linear momentum of a body is directly proportional to the external force applied on the body and this change takes place always in the direction of the applied force.
  • According to the second law of motion, force
  • Force∝change;in;momentumtimeForce \propto \frac{{change;in;momentum}}{{time}}
  • F=Kp2−p1t=Km(v−u)t=KmaF = K\frac{{{p_2} - {p_1}}}{t} = K\frac{{m\left( {v - u} \right)}}{t} = Kma     [∴v−ut=a]\left[ {∴ \frac{{v - u}}{t} = a} \right]

Where, K = constant of proportionality, p = momentum of the body, m = mass of the body, u = initial velocity of the body, v = final velocity of the body and a = acceleration of the body.

EXPLANATION: 

Given - Force = 1 N, m = 1 kg

Mathematically force can be written as

F = m × a

Above expression can be written as

∴a=Fm∴ a = \frac{F}{m}

a=1;N1;kg=1;m/s2a = \frac{{1;N}}{{1;kg}} = 1;m/{s^2}

∴ The object moves in the direction of fore with an acceleration 1 m/s2

Question 82

Which of the following item is used in the household wirings to prevent accidental fire in case of short circuit?

  1. AOption (a)

    Insulated wire

  2. BOption (b)

    Plastic switches

  3. COption (c)

    Non-metallic coatings on conducting wire

  4. DOption (d)

    Electric fuse

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Electric fuse

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • An electric fuse is a protective device that protects electrical equipment in the circuit by breaking the circuit when there is a short circuit.

EXPLANATION:

  • It contains a fuse wire which has a low melting point, it allows normal current pass through it safely but if there is any short circuit then fuse wire can’t withstand the heat produced by that current (infinite current) so it melts and breaks the circuit.
  • Non-metallic coatings on conducting wire and Insulated wire are used to prevent from getting shocked in live wire and the same goes with plastic switch switches.

Question 83

Which of the following are the features of the ideology of Utilitarianism?

  1. Utilitarian’s believed that all value derives from the land

  2. The most celebrated spokesmen of utilitarianism were Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill.

  3. Utilitarians were advocates of the idea that India could be ruled through indigenous laws and customs.

  4. Utilitarians were advocates of the ‘greatest good for the greatest number of people’.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 4 only 

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 4 only 

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 and 4 only 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, i.e 2 and 4.

Utilitarianism

  • Utilitarianism holds that proper course of action is the one that maximizes utility such as maximizing happiness and reducing suffering.
  • This theory was first put forward by Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Jeremy Bentham argued that people should judge ideas, institutions, and actions on the basis of their utility, or usefulness.
  • Jeremy Bentham also argued that the government should try to promote the greatest good for the greatest number of people. Hence statement 4 is correct.
  • Utilitarianism relies upon some theory of Intrinsic value i.e.something is held to be good in itself, apart from further consequences, and all other values are believed to derive their worth from their relation to this intrinsic good as a means to an end. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The Indian Penal Code which was first drafted by Lord Thomas Macaulay was inspired by the utilitarian beliefs of both Macaulay as well as the Governor-General, Lord Bentinck. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Question 84

Who among the following invented the powerloom that revolutionized the cotton textile industry?

  1. AOption (a)

    Edmund Cartwright

  2. BOption (b)

    Samuel Crompton 

  3. COption (c)

    Richard Arkwright 

  4. DOption (d)

    Janes Hargreaves 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Edmund Cartwright

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Edmund Cartwright.

Key Points

Edmund Cartwright

  • Edmund Cartwright was an English inventor who invents the first wool-combing machine and of the predecessor of the modern power loom.
  • Hence Edmund Cartwright was known as the inventor of the power loom. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • The power loom is an invention that combined threads to make cloth.
  • It was one of the key developments in the industrialization of weaving during the early Industrial Revolution.
  • The first power loom was designed in 1784 by Edmund Cartwright and first built-in 1785.

Question 85

Subsidiary Alliance system was devised by

  1. AOption (a)

    Lord Wellesley 

  2. BOption (b)

    Lord Dalhousie

  3. COption (c)

    Lord Canning 

  4. DOption (d)

    Lord Ripon

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Lord Wellesley 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Lord Wellesley.

Subsidiary Alliance

  • The Subsidiary Alliance System was “Non-Intervention Policy”.
  • It was introduced by Lord Wellesley who was the Governor-General from 1798 to 1805. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • It was a treaty between the British East India Company and therefor the Indian princely states, by virtue of which the Indian kingdoms lost their sovereignty to the English.
  • It was Marquis Dupleix, the French Governor-General who actually used it for the first time.
  • The Nawab of Awadh was the primary ruler to enter into the subsidiary alliance with the British after the Battle of Buxar.
  • The Nizam of Hyderabad was the first who simply to accept a well-framed subsidiary alliance.
  • An Indian ruler who was getting into Subsidiary Alliance with the British had to dissolve his own army and accept British forces in his territory.
  • Indian ruler also had to pay for the British army’s maintenance. If he did not make the payment, a portion of his territory would be taken away and ceded to the British.
  • In return, the British would protect the Indian state against any foreign attack or internal revolt.
  • The Indian ruler, thus, lost all powers in respect of foreign affairs and therefor the military.
  • India state virtually lost all his independence and became a British ‘protectorate.

Question 86

Consider the following statement:

  1. Periplus is a Greek word meaning sailing around.
  2. Erythraean was the Greek name for the Mediterranean Sea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only 

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only 

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 only 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1, i.e 1 only.

Periplus

  • Periplus is the Latinization of an ancient Greek word and its literal meaning is "a sailing-around." Hence the statement 1 is correct.
  • Both the part peri- and -plus, were independently productive and hence the ancient Greek speaker understood the word in its literal sense.
  • However, it developed a few specialized meanings, one of which became a standard term in the ancient navigation of Phoenicians, Greeks, and Romans.
  • A periplus was a manuscript document that listed, in order, the ports and coastal landmarks, with approximate intervening distances, that the captain of a vessel could expect to find along with a shore. In that sense, the periplus was a type of log.

Erythraean

  • Erythraean is a sea that comprised of the Arabian sea, the Red sea, and the Persian Gulf. Hence the statement 2 is incorrect.

Question 87

Who among the following was defeated by Saina Nehwal to win the women’s title of the Australian Open Super Series Badminton Tournament, 2016?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sun Yu

  2. BOption (b)

    Carolina Marin 

  3. COption (c)

    Wang Yihan 

  4. DOption (d)

    Sung Ji Hyun

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Sun Yu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Sun Yu.

Australian Open Super Series Badminton Tournament, 2016

  • The 2016 Australian Super Series was the fifth Super Series tournament of the 2016 BWF Super Series in badminton.
  • The winner of Men's Single was Hans-Kristian Vittinghus.
  • The winner of Women's Single was Saina Nehwal and she defeated Sun Yu.  Hence option 1 is correct.
  • The winner of Men's Double was Markus Fernaldi Gideon and Kevin Sanjaya Sukamuljo.
  • The winner of Women's Double was Bao Yixin and Chen Qingchen.
  • Naomi Osaka defeated Petra Kvitová in the final to win the Women's Singles tennis title at the 2019 Australian Open Super Series.

Question 88

Consider the following statements:

He was an Indian Journalist, editor and author. He was associated with the Statesman, the guardian, the Times of India etc. He received the Ramnath Goenka Lifetime Achievement Award in 2013. He died in June 2016

The person referred to above is

  1. AOption (a)

    B. K Kaanjia

  2. BOption (b)

    K M Mathew 

  3. COption (c)

    Inder Malhotra

  4. DOption (d)

    Nanasaheb Parulekar 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Inder Malhotra

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Inder Malhotra.

Inder Malhotra

  • Inder Malhotra received the Ramnath Goenka Lifetime Achievement Award in 2013.
  • He was an Indian journalist, editor, and author.
  • He has worked for the Statesman, the Guardian and the Times of India.
  • He authored a political and personal biography of Indira Gandhi in 1990.

Question 89

Achyut Lahkar, who died recently, was a

  1. AOption (a)

    sports administrator 

  2. BOption (b)

    wildlife photographer 

  3. COption (c)

    mobile theatre personality

  4. DOption (d)

    bureaucrat 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

mobile theatre personality

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. mobile theatre personality.

Achyut Lahkar

  • Noted playwright and actor Achyut Lahkar, the doyen of Assam’s mobile theatre movement.
  • He was passed away at the age of 85, on 12 June 2016 following a protracted illness.
  • Lahkar was the pioneering dramatist, veteran actor-director and producer who staged numerous memorable plays in the mobile theatre.
  • He was a pioneer of Bhramyaman (travelling) theatre.

Question 90

Recently Microsoft announced its 26.2 billion dollar acquisition of which one of the following professional networking sites?

  1. AOption (a)

    PartnerUp

  2. BOption (b)

    PerfectBusiness 

  3. COption (c)

    StartupNation 

  4. DOption (d)

    Linkedln 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Linkedln 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. LinkedIn.

Microsoft - LinkedIn deal

  • Microsoft had announced it will acquire LinkedIn in an all-cash transaction worth $26.2 billion.
  • LinkedIn is the world’s largest and most valuable professional networking site and continues to build a strong and growing business.
  • LinkedIn is an American business and employment-oriented online service that operates via websites and mobile apps.
  • LinkedIn is specifically designed for career and business professionals to connect.

Question 91

Which of the following statements concerning the Mediterranean climatic region are correct?

  1. It is found in the latitude range 30° to 45° northern and southern hemisphere.

  2. Mediterranean climate experiences extreme temperature conditions

  3. In the Mediterranean climate, rainfall occurs mainly during the summer season

  4. In the Mediterranean climate, rainfall is mainly due to Westerlies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 4

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 4 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, i.e 1 and 4 only. 

The Mediterranean climatic region

  • The regions are between roughly 30 and 45 degrees north and south of the equator. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The basic cause of this type of climate is the shifting of the wind belts.
  • The Mediterranean Sea has the greatest extent of this type of ‘winter rain climate’, and gives rise to the name Mediterranean Climate.
  • The Mediterranean climate is usually characterized by rainy winters and dry, warm to hot summers. Hence the statement 3 is incorrect.
  • The best-developed form of this climatic type is found in central Chile.
  • The weather in the region is very dry, stable, and pleasant. Hence the statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The main controlling factor over the characteristics of the dry summer subtropical climate is the alternating influence of the subtropical high in summer and Westerlies during the winter.
  • The Mediterranean lands receive most of their precipitation in winter when the Westerlies shift equator wards. Hence statement 4 is correct.
  • The local winds of the Mediterranean climates are Sirocco and Mistral.
  • Agriculture in the Mediterranean climates is Orchard farming, Wine production, crop cultivation and Sheep rearing.

Question 92

Arrange the following states in decreasing order of their Forest cover as a percentage of total geographical area:

  1. Jharkhand
  2. Chhattisgarh
  3. Arunachal Pradesh
  4. Madhya Pradesh

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    3 – 2 – 1 – 4

  2. BOption (b)

    4 – 2 – 3 – 1 

  3. COption (c)

    3 – 4 – 1 – 2 

  4. DOption (d)

    2 – 1 – 3 – 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

3 – 2 – 1 – 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  3 – 2 – 1 – 4.

India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2019

  • ISFR is a biennial publication of Forest Survey of India (FSI), an organization under the Ministry of Environment Forest & Climate Change.
  • The ISFR assesses the forest and tree cover, bamboo resources, carbon stock and forest fires.
  • The 2019 report for the first time has assessed the qualitative nature of the forest cover, including listing its biodiversity and the type of plants and trees found.
  • It also created a national forest inventory for the first time on produce from forests.
  • The Total Forest and Tree cover is 24.56% of the geographical area of the country.
  • The Total Forest cover is 7,12,249 sq km which is 21.67% of the geographical area of the country.
  • Largest forest cover in India: Madhya Pradesh > Arunachal Pradesh > Chhattisgarh > Odisha > Maharashtra
  • Forest cover as percentage of total geographical area: Mizoram (85.41%) > Arunachal Pradesh (79.63%) > Meghalaya (76.33%) > Manipur (75.46%) > Nagaland (75.31%).
  • In the above question the correct sequence are :Arunachal Pradesh - 79.63% ; Chhattisgarh -41.13% ; Jharkhand - 29.62% ; Madhya Pradesh - 25.14%.

Question 93

Which of the following statements concerning Scheduled Castes (SC) population in India are correct?

  1. The highest percentage of SC population out the total population of the state is found in Punjab

  2. Bihar is the second largest state in respect of the total SC population in India

  3. Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of SC population in India

  4. Among the Indian states, the lowest percentage of SC population out of the total population of the state is found in Goa

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 4 only 

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, i.e 1 and 3 only.

Census 2011 (for Schedule caste)

  • Census is nothing but a process of collecting, compiling, analyzing, evaluating, publishing and disseminating statistical data regarding the population.
  • The first time the word schedule caste was used in the Government of India Act 1935.
  • Schedule caste is mentioned in Indian constitution under article 341.
  • The population of Schedule caste as the percentage of the total population of India is 16.6%.
  • The decadal growth rate of Schedule caste is 20.8%.
  • Uttar Pradesh (35,148,377) has the largest number of Scheduled Caste population. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • West Bengal (18,452,555) is second and Bihar (13,048,608) is the third-largest state. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Mizoram has the lowest number of Scheduled Caste population.
  • Punjab (31.9%) has the highest proportion of Scheduled Castes in term of percentage of the total population. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Mizoram has the lowest proportion of Scheduled Castes in term of percentage of the total population. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.

Question 94

March List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Element)List II (Highest Valency)
A. Sulfur1. Five
B. Phosphorous2. Six
C. Lead3. Two
D. Silver4. Four
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 2, B – 4, C – 1, D – 3

  2. BOption (b)

    A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3 

  3. COption (c)

    A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D – 2 

  4. DOption (d)

    A – 3, B – 4, C – 1, D - 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, i.e A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3.

Key Points

Valency

  • The combining capacity of an atom is known as its valency.
  • The number of bonds that an atom can form as part of a compound is expressed by the valency of the element.
  • Valence electrons are those electrons that are present in the outermost orbit of the atom.
  • The electronic configuration of Sulfur will be 1s22s22p63s23p4 and the outermost orbit contains 6 electrons which means Sulfur has six valence electrons.
  • The electronic configuration of Phosphorous will be 1s22s22p63s23p3 and the outermost orbit contains 5 electrons which means Phosphorous has five valence electrons.
  • The electronic configuration of Lead will be [Xe] 4f¹⁴5d¹⁰6s²6p² and the outermost orbit contain 4 electrons which means Lead has four valence electrons.
  • The electronic configuration of Silver will be [Kr] 4d95s2 and the outermost orbit contain 2 electrons which means Silver has two valence electrons. Hence option 2 is correct.

Question 95

Which one of the following species is NOT capable of showing disproportionation reaction?

  1. AOption (a)

    CIO-

  2. BOption (b)

    CIO2−CIO_2^ -

  3. COption (c)

    CIO3−CIO_3^ -

  4. DOption (d)

    CIO4−CIO_4^ -

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

CIO4−CIO_4^ -

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. ClO4-

Disproportionation reaction

  • A disproportionation reaction is a specific type of redox reaction in which a species is simultaneously reduced and oxidized to form two different products.
  • The electronic configuration of Cl is 1s2,2s2,2p6,3s2,3p6,4s1
  • Cl can exhibit a maximum oxidation state of +7 and a minimum oxidation state of -1.
  • The species with a +7 oxidation state cannot be further oxidized as there is no scope to lose more electrons and the species with a -1 oxidation state can not be reduced as it can not gain more electrons.
  • In the given question, CIO- , CIO2−CIO_2^ - , and  CIO3−CIO_3^ -  can exhibit a Disproportionation reaction which simultaneously oxidizes as well as reduce as in these species Cl is neither in -1 oxidation state nor in +7 oxidation state.
  • ClO4-  cannot undergo oxidation as +7 is the maximum oxidation state exhibited by Chlorine. Hence option 4 is correct.

Question 96

Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Covalent bonds are directional 

  2. BOption (b)

    Ionic bonds are directional 

  3. COption (c)

    Both covalent and ionic bonds are directional 

  4. DOption (d)

    Both covalent and ionic bonds are non-directional 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Covalent bonds are directional 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Covalent bonds are directional.

Directional and Non- Directional bond

  • A covalent bond is formed by the overlap of half-filled atomic orbitals which have definite directions.
  • Hence the covalent bond is directional. Hence option 1 is correct
  • In Ionic compounds, each ion is surrounded by a number of oppositely charged ions or we can say that it is the electrostatic force between two opposite charges, Hence bonding direction does not matter and hence there is no definite direction.
  • Hence the Ionic bond is Non-Directional.

Question 97

When one strikes a safety match, the first step is 

  1. AOption (a)

    burning of sulfur

  2. BOption (b)

    decomposition of potassium chlorate into potassium chloride and oxygen 

  3. COption (c)

    conversion of a small amount of red phosphorus into white phosphorus 

  4. DOption (d)

    burning of glue and starch

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

conversion of a small amount of red phosphorus into white phosphorus 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3.

Properties of Red and White Phosphorous

  • Red phosphorus can be converted to white phosphorus by careful heating.
  • White phosphorus consists of P4 molecules, whereas the crystal structure of red phosphorus has a complicated network of bonding.
  • White phosphorus has to be stored in water to prevent natural combustion, but red phosphorus is stable in the air.
  • When one strikes a safety match, the first step is the conversion of a small amount of red phosphorus into white phosphorus takes place which caught fire in the air. Hence option 3 is correct.

Question 98

The LPG cooking gas contains Propane and Butane as the constituents. A sulfur containing compound is added to the LPG, because 

  1. AOption (a)

    it lowers the cost of production 

  2. BOption (b)

    it enhances the efficiency of LPG

  3. COption (c)

    it facilitates easy detection of leakage of the gas 

  4. DOption (d)

    it assists in liquefying hydrocarbons 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

it facilitates easy detection of leakage of the gas 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. It facilitates easy detection of leakage of the gas.

Key Points

Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG)

  • The primary component in LPG (liquefied petroleum gas) is Propane and Butane.
  • It produces Carbon dioxide as a greenhouse gas and is much cleaner compared to gasoline.
  • It is highly flammable as it is much heavier than air.
  • The main source of obtaining LPG is the process of extracting natural gas from the reservoir.
  • LPG has various uses such as heating and cooking in homes.
  • A sulfur-containing compound Ethyl Mercaptan is added to the LPG for imparting its smell so that its detection in case of leakage becomes easier as LPG is an odorless cooking gas.  Hence option 3 is correct.

Question 99

The genetic material of bacteria is found in

  1. AOption (a)

    Nucleus

  2. BOption (b)

    Cytoplasm

  3. COption (c)

    Cell membrane

  4. DOption (d)

    Ribosome

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Cytoplasm

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Cytoplasm.

Key Points

Cytoplasm

  • The cytoplasm is one of the basic components of the cell where cell organelles are embedded.
  • It is a semi-liquid jelly-like element composed of salt and water and is present within the membrane of the cells and embeds all of the parts of the cells and organelles.
  • Other cell organelles such as mitochondria, ribosomes, vacuoles, endoplasmic reticulum, etc., are all suspended in it.
  • The cytoplasm is crucial in the breakdown of the waste.
  • Cytoplasm provides shape to the cell. It fills up the cells, thus enabling the organelles to remain in their position.
  • The genetic material of bacteria is found in the cytoplasm in the form of nucleotide. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • The cytoplasm is the material within a living cell, excluding the cell nucleus.
  • All of the contents of the cells of prokaryotic organisms are contained within the cytoplasm.

Question 100

A horse and a donkey can breed to produce mule which is an infertile animal. The infertility is because horse and donkey belong to different 

  1. AOption (a)

    class 

  2. BOption (b)

    order 

  3. COption (c)

    species 

  4. DOption (d)

    genus 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

species 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Species.

  • A horse (Equus ferus caballus) and a donkey (Equus africanus asinus) can breed to produce a mule, which is an infertile animal. The infertility is because horse and donkey belong to different species. Mule is medium weight animals that are more hardworking and long-lived than horse and donkey. Hence option 3 is correct

Taxonomy Classification

  • Taxonomy is a science that deals with naming, describing and classification of all living organisms including plants.
  • Classification is based on behavioural, genetic and biochemical variations.
  • Characterization, identification, and classification are the processes of taxonomy.
  • Organisms are classified into similar categories namely Domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus and species.
  • A domain is the highest rank of organisms. The three-domain system of taxonomy was designed by Carl Woese in the year 1990. The three domains of life are Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryota.
  • The Kingdom happens to be the next highest classification after domain into which living organisms are grouped. the kingdoms are based on factors like the types of cells they are composed of, mode of their nutrition and the total number of cells they hold. At present, there are five different kingdoms are Animalia, Plantae, Fungi, Protista, and Archaebacteria.
  • The phylum is grouped next level after kingdom in the Taxonomy classification. In this level, we used to find some physical similarities among various organisms within a kingdom. The different kingdoms are phylum Arthropoda, phylum Porifera phylum Chordata, etc.
  • The phylum is further divided into various classes. The classes were the most common rank proposed by Linnaeus. The different classes are class Aves, class Mammalia, class Plants, class Reptilia and many others.​
  • The class are further divided into orders. It is much more accurate than the classes. The different orders are Order Primates, Order Chiroptera, Order Carnivora, Order Cetaceans, etc
  • The orders are further grouped into families. It is the 8th major taxonomic rank in biological classification which can be subdivided into subfamilies. The different families are family Canidae, family Ursidae, family Felidae,  family Mephitidae, etc.
  • The Genus is even more specific compared to the family. Genus is the first part of an organism’s scientific name using binomial nomenclature followed by the second part is the species name. For example –Homo sapiens. Homo – genus name and sapiens -species name.
  • Species is the last and major taxonomic rank which are subdivided into subspecies in certain cases only. As each genus name is unique, the same species names can be used for different organisms. The species name should be always italicized, but never capitalized. The species of an organism would determine the second part of its binomial nomenclature.

Question 101

A plant having yellow leaves with dead spots has the deficiency of 

  1. AOption (a)

    Potassium 

  2. BOption (b)

    Magnesium 

  3. COption (c)

    Nitrate 

  4. DOption (d)

    Phosphate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Magnesium 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Magnesium.

Chlorosis

  • Without sufficient amounts of magnesium, plants begin to degrade the chlorophyll in the old leaves(dead spot).
  • Its main symptom is chlorosis or yellowing of leaves.
  • Chlorosis is typically caused when leaves do not have enough nutrients to synthesis all the chlorophyll they need.
  • It is a plant disorder that occurs most often in strongly acidic, light, sandy soils, where magnesium can be easily leached away.

Question 102

Fluoride toothpaste is sometimes recommended because fluoride

  1. AOption (a)

    prevents plaque formation 

  2. BOption (b)

    hardens the enamel of the tooth 

  3. COption (c)

    kills pathogenic bacteria 

  4. DOption (d)

    prevents tooth ache 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

hardens the enamel of the tooth 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. harden the enamel of the tooth.

Fluoride

  • Fluoride is a mineral in your bones and teeth. It’s also found naturally in the water, soil, plants, rocks, air, etc.
  • The presence of fluoride in toothpaste helps in preventing tooth decay by strengthening the tooth enamel. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • Fluoride in various forms is the most popular active ingredient in toothpaste to prevent cavities.
  • Sodium fluoride (NaF) is the most common source of fluoride.
  • Fluoride is beneficial to teeth because it helps to rebuild (remineralize) weakened tooth enamel, slow down the loss of minerals from tooth enamel, reverse early signs of tooth decay and prevent the growth of harmful oral bacteria.

Question 103

Along a streamline flow of fluid

  1. AOption (a)

    The velocity of all fluid particle at a given instant is constant

  2. BOption (b)

    The speed of a fluid particles remains constant

  3. COption (c)

    The velocity of all fluid particles crossing a given position is constant

  4. DOption (d)

    The velocity of a fluid particle remains constant

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The velocity of all fluid particles crossing a given position is constant

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Streamline flow:

  • A streamline may be defined as the path, straight or curved, the tangent to which at any point gives the direction of the flow of liquid at that point.
  • Stream line flow of a liquid is that flow in which each element of the liquid passing through a point travels along the same path and with the same velocity as the preceding element passes through that point.
  • Two streamlines cannot cross each other and the greater is the crowding of streamlines at a place, the greater is the velocity of liquid particles at that place.

EXPLANATION:

  • Path ABC is streamlined as shown in the figure and v1, v2 and v3 are the velocities of the liquid particles at A , B and C point respectively.
  • From above it very much clear that the speed and the velocity of a particle in a streamline flow are the same as the preceding element passes through that point but it may change as it moves ahead.
  • All the particles arriving at a point in a streamline flow have the same velocity. Therefore all the particles arriving at that point will have the same kinetic energy and the same momentum.

Question 104

How is the kinetic energy of a moving object effected If the net work done on it is positive?

  1. AOption (a)

    Decreases

  2. BOption (b)

    Increases

  3. COption (c)

    Remains constant

  4. DOption (d)

    Become zero

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Increases

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Work energy theorem: Its states that work done by the net force acting on a body is equal to the change produced in the kinetic energy of the body.
  • Mathematically Work energy theorem can be written as
  • W = ΔKE

Where ΔKE = change in kinetic energy and W = work done

EXPLANATION:

  • According to work done theorem, the work done on an object by a net force equals the change in kinetic energy of the object.
  • In other words, work done on an object leads to its motion which causes a change in its kinetic energy.
  • Hence if a net work is done is positive (+) it will lead to an increase in its kinetic energy. Therefore option 2 is correct.

Question 105

A particle is executing simple harmonic motion. Which one of the following statements about the acceleration of the oscillating particle is true?

  1. AOption (a)

    It is always in the opposite direction to the velocity

  2. BOption (b)

    It is proportional to the frequency of oscillation

  3. COption (c)

    It is maximum when the speed is maximum

  4. DOption (d)

    It decreases as potential energy increases

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

It is proportional to the frequency of oscillation

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Simple harmonic motion:

  • Simple harmonic motion is a special type of periodic motion, in which a particle moves to and fro repeatedly about a mean position.
  • In linear S.H.M. a restoring force which is always directed towards the mean position and whose magnitude at any instant is directly proportional to the displacement of the particle from the mean position at that instant i.e. Restoring force ∝  Displacement of the particle from mean position.

F x F = -kx

Where k is known as force constant. Its S.I. unit is Newton/meter

  • The general expression for the wave is given by:

y = A Sin (ωt + θ)

Where A = amplitude of wave, ω = angular frequency, t is time and θ = phase angle.

EXPLANATION:

The general expression for the wave is given by:

y = A Sin (ωt + θ)

By double differentiating above equation, we get

a=d2ydx2=−ω2ya = \frac{{{d^2}y}}{{d{x^2}}} = - {\omega ^2}y

Hence, acceleration is proportional to the frequency of oscillation.

  • When the particle is at the mean position i.e. y = 0, then acceleration  is minimum.
  • When the particle is at the extreme position i.e. y = a, then acceleration is maximum.

Question 106

Which one of the following four particles, whose displacement x and acceleration ax are related as following, is executing simple harmonic motion?

  1. AOption (a)

    ax = +3x

  2. BOption (b)

    ax = +3x2

  3. COption (c)

    ax = -3x2

  4. DOption (d)

    ax = -3x

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

ax = -3x2

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • S.H.M or simple harmonic motion is a special type of oscillation or oscillation which repeats itself after some time
  • where the restoring force acts in the direction opposite to the displacement and is directly proportional to it.

For an equation of spring under a simple harmonic motion and can be expressed as,

ma = -kx ⇒ a = - ω2x

Since  ω=km\omega = \sqrt {\frac{k}{m}}  

  • Angular frequency = ω
  • Spring constant = k
  • Mass of block = m
  • Rate of acceleration = a
  • Displacement by a spring = x

 

Calculation:

According to the given data,

displacement = x

acceleration = ax

using above equation, a = - ω2x

we can say that acceleration of a particle with displacement x will be

ax = -ω2x

hence option c is correct among all others

Question 107

If we plot a graph between volume V and the inverse of pressure P (i.e., 1/P) for an ideal gas at constant temperature T, the curve so obtained is

  1. AOption (a)

    straight line

  2. BOption (b)

    circle

  3. COption (c)

    parabola

  4. DOption (d)

    hyperbola

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

straight line

Why this answer is correct

Concept

  • According to Boyle's Law, for a fixed amount of an ideal gas kept at a constant temperature, the volume (V) is inversely proportional to the pressure (P).
  • The ideal gas equation is given by PV=nRTPV = nRT.
  • When temperature (T) and the number of moles (n) are constant, the product of pressure and volume is constant.
<br>

Formula Used

Boyle's Law equation:

PV=kPV = k (where kk is a constant)

Rearranging the formula to relate V and 1/P:

V=k⋅(1P)V = k \cdot \left(\frac{1}{P}\right)

<br>

Explanation

To determine the shape of the graph between VV and 1/P1/P, we compare the derived equation with the standard equation of a straight line:

y=mx+cy = mx + c

In our case:

  • Let the y-axis represent volume, y=Vy = V.
  • Let the x-axis represent the inverse of pressure, x=1Px = \frac{1}{P}.
  • The constant kk acts as the slope mm.
  • The intercept cc is zero.

Substituting these into the straight-line equation:

V=k⋅(1P)V = k \cdot \left(\frac{1}{P}\right)

Since the equation is of the form y=mxy = mx, the graph of VV versus 1/P1/P is a straight line passing through the origin.

Note: If the graph were plotted between VV and PP, the curve would be a rectangular hyperbola. However, for VV versus 1/P1/P, it is linear.

Hence, the curve obtained is a straight line.

Question 108

Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The speed of sound waves in a medium depends upon the elastic property of the medium but not on the inertial property

  2. BOption (b)

    The speed of sound waves in a medium depends upon the inertia property of the medium but not on elastic property

  3. COption (c)

    The speed of sound waves in a medium depends neither depends on its elastic property nor its inertia property

  4. DOption (d)

    The speed of sound waves in a medium depends both on the elastic and inertia properties of the medium 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The speed of sound waves in a medium depends both on the elastic and inertia properties of the medium 

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Speed of sound can be expressed as

v=elastic;property;of;materialdensity;of;material(ρ)v = \sqrt {\frac{{elastic;property;of;material}}{{density;of;material\left( \rho \right)}}}

EXPLANATION:

  • Sound waves is one of the examples of Longitudinal wave.
  • And Longitudinal wave can be defined as the wave in which the movement of the particles are parallel to the motion of the energy and as wave progress, matter moves to and fro throughout its propagation.
  • This means more elastic the medium will be more easily matters can vibrate hence greater the speed of sound.
  • Similarly, as a density of the material can be defined as mass per unit volume and as density increases the speed of sound decreases.
  • Because denser the material particle more tightly will be packing of atoms which will restrict its vibration and hence causes decrease in velocity of sound.
  • Hence, we can say that

 v=elastic;property;of;materialdensity;of;material(ρ)v = \sqrt {\frac{{elastic;property;of;material}}{{density;of;material\left( \rho \right)}}}

Question 109

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pitch of a sound is its characteristic by which we can generally differentiate between a male voice and a female voice

  2. BOption (b)

    The loudness of sound is related to its frequency

  3. COption (c)

    A musical sound has a certain well-defined frequency which is generally harmonics of a fundamental frequency

  4. DOption (d)

    The timbre of a particular musical sound is related to the waveform of the sound wave

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The loudness of sound is related to its frequency

Why this answer is correct

Explanation: 

  • The frequency of sound is defined as the time taken for a wave to complete its one oscillation.
  • A high-frequency sound wave will produce high pitch sound and similarly low frequency of wave produces a low pitch of the sound
  • Generally, a male produce low pitch sound waves, and a female produces high pitch sound
  • Hence higher the amplitude louder the sound hence it is dependent on amplitude, not frequency
  • Therefore, option b is incorrect
  • And a musical sound indeed has a certain well-defined frequency which is generally harmonics of a fundamental frequency and timbre of a particular musical sound is related to the waveform of the sound wave

Question 110

A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 2 cm. when the particle is at 1 cm from the mean position, the magnitude of the velocity and the acceleration are equal. Then its item period (in seconds) is

  1. AOption (a)

    2π3;\frac{{2\pi }}{{\sqrt 3 }};

  2. BOption (b)

    32π\frac{{\sqrt 3 }}{{2\pi }}

  3. COption (c)

    3π\frac{{\sqrt 3 }}{\pi }

  4. DOption (d)

    12π3\frac{1}{{2\pi \sqrt 3 }}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

2π3;\frac{{2\pi }}{{\sqrt 3 }};

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Wave: It is a disturbance that transfers energy from one place to another.
  • SHM (Simple harmonic motion): The type of oscillatory motion in which the restoring force on the system is directly proportional to the displacement of the system is called SHM.
  • The general expression for the simple harmonic equation is given by:

⇒ X = A Sin (ω t)

Where A is the amplitude of SHM, ω is the angular frequency and t is time

  • Velocity (V) of a particle at any position is given by:

⇒V=ωA2−y2⇒ V = \omega \sqrt {{A^2} - {y^2}}

  • Acceleration of the particle at any position is given by:

⇒ a = ω2 y

EXPLANATION:

Given: Displacement (y) = 1 cm, Amplitude (A) = 2 cm

According to the question,

⇒ Velocity (v) = acceleration (a)

  • Now using the above relation of velocity and acceleration, we get

⇒;ω2x=ω(a2−x2)⇒ ;{\omega ^2}x = \omega \sqrt {\left( {{a^2} - {x^2}} \right)}

⇒ω=(22−12)=3⇒ \omega = \sqrt {\left( {{2^2} - {1^2}} \right)} = \sqrt 3

Where ω = 2π /T

⇒T=2π3\Rightarrow T = \frac{{2\pi }}{{\sqrt 3 }}

Question 111

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The longest wavelength of light visible to human eyes is about 700 nm

  2. BOption (b)

    The shortest wavelength of light visible to the human eye is about 400 nm

  3. COption (c)

    The wavelength of gamma rays is longer than that of X-ray

  4. DOption (d)

    The ability of a telescope to form separable images of close objects is called its resolving power

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The wavelength of gamma rays is longer than that of X-ray

Why this answer is correct

Explanation: 

  • The longest wavelength of light visible to human eyes is of red color and it’s about 700 nm
  • The shortest wavelength of light visible to the human eye is of violet color and it’s about 400 nm
  • The ability of a telescope to form separable images of close objects is called its resolving power of a telescope.
  • But the wavelength of X-ray is 10-10m whereas gamma-ray has a wavelength of 10-12 which is shorter than X-ray hence option c is not correct

Question 112

If the image of an object, formed by a concave mirror is virtual, erect and magnified, then the object is placed

  1. AOption (a)

    At the principle focus

  2. BOption (b)

    At the center of curvature

  3. COption (c)

    Beyond the center of curvature

  4. DOption (d)

    Between the pole of the mirror and the principal focus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Between the pole of the mirror and the principal focus

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • if an object is placed beyond the center of curvature then the image will be real, inverted and diminish
  • if an object is placed at the center of curvature then the image will be real, inverted and of the same size
  • if an object is placed at the principal focus no image will be formed i.e., the image will be formed at infinity and the image will be highly enlarged
  • if an object is placed between principle focus and pole of the mirror then the image will be virtual, erect and magnifie

Question 113

When three resistors, each having resistance r, are connected in parallel, their resultant resistance is x. If these three resistances are connected in series, the total resistance will be

  1. AOption (a)

    3x

  2. BOption (b)

    3rx

  3. COption (c)

    9x

  4. DOption (d)

    3/x

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

9x

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Resistance: The obstruction offered to the flow of current is known as resistance. It is denoted by R.
  • When two or more resistances are connected one after another such that the same current flows through them then it is called resistances in series.
  • The equivalent resistance in series combination is will be

⇒ Rser = R1 + R2 + R3

  • When the terminals of two or more resistances are connected at the same two points and the potential difference across them is equal then it is called resistances in parallel.

  • The net resistance/equivalent resistance(R) of resistances in parallel is given by:

⇒1R=1R1+1R2⇒ \frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{{{R_1}}} + \frac{1}{{{R_2}}}

CALCULATION:

Given: R1 = R2 = R3 = r and Total resistance Rparallel = x

Now as given

⇒1x=1R1+1R2+1R3=3r⇒r=3x⇒ \frac{1}{x} = \frac{1}{{{R_1}}} + \frac{1}{{{{\rm{R}}_2}}} + \frac{1}{{{{\rm{R}}_3}}} = \frac{3}{r} ⇒ r = 3x

  • If this three-resistance connected in series, then the equivalent resistance will be

⇒Rseries = R1 + R2 + R3 = 3r = 9x

Question 114

Which of the following was/were the feature(s) of Lenin’s New Economic Policy (NEP) for the Soviet Union?

  1. Private retail trading was strictly forbidden

  2. Private enterprise was strictly forbidden

  3. Peasants were not allowed to sell their surplus

  4. To secure liquid capital, concessions were allowed to foreign capitalists, but the State retained the option of purchasing the product of such concerns

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only 

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    4 only 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

4 only 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4, i.e 4 only.

Lenin's New Economic Policy

  • It is introduced by Vladimir Lenin in 1921.
  • The New Economic Policy (or NEP) was a radical shift in Bolshevik economic strategy.
  • The NEP ended the policy of grain requisitioning and introduced elements of capitalism and free trade into the Soviet economy.
  • Under the NEP, Russian farmers were once again permitted to buy and sell their surplus goods at markets. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
  • This led to the emergence of merchants, retailers and profiteers dubbed “Nepmen”.
  • During the Civil War, these activities would have been punishable by death.
  • These measures included the return of most agriculture, retail trade, and small-scale light industry to private ownership and management while the state retained control of heavy industry, transport, banking, and foreign trade. Hence statement 1 & 2 is incorrect.
  • To secure liquid capital, concessions were allowed to foreign capitalists, but the State retained the option of purchasing the product of such concerns. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Question 115

Which of the following was/were the reasons for the defeat of the British during the American War of Independence?

  1. The remoteness of the American Continent and the lack of good roads

  2. The British authorities failed to rally the loyalist Americans

  3. The Americans benefited from the extraordinary military leadership of George Washington

  4. The Americans had access to superior arms and ammunition

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 4

  2. BOption (b)

    3 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 3 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4, i.e 1, 2 and 3.

The reasons for the defeat of the British during the American War of Independence are as follows:

  • A lot of people said "A ragtag army made up of farmers was able to beat the greatest military in the world".
  • That the Americans were able to use superior leadership under George Washington, guerrilla tactics and strategy to beat the better supplied British troops who just walked into the open without a strategy and got mowed down by rifle fire from the trees in the distance. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • All of the major American victories were fought in the conventional style (guerrilla tactics) of battle at that time. because the Americans had no access to superior arms and ammunition. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
  • The British were more experienced and arguably more skilled in guerrilla-style warfare, as were many of their Native American allies but the British authorities failed to rally the loyalist Americans. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • The remoteness of the American Continent and the lack of good roads because the British were not the greatest military in the world but they had the greatest navy. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Fighting on so many fronts proved a challenge, which meant that since the British were defended so much against multiple enemies.

Question 116

The Industrial revolution in England had a profound impact on the lives of people. Which of the following statements are correct about that?

  1. Women were the main workers in the silk, lace-making and knitting industries.

  2. Factory managers were well aware of the health risks of industrial work on children.

  3. Children were often employed in textile factories.

  4. The novel ‘Hard Times’ by Charles Dickens was a severe critique of the horrors of industrialization.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 3 only 

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2

  3. COption (c)

    1, 3 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    3 and 4 only 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 3 and 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3

The industrial revolution in England

  • Industrial Revolution began in England and soon spread to Continental Europe and North America.
  • The first major industry to taste the Industrial revolution was the Textile Industry.
  • The nature of work changed during industrialization from a craft production model to a factory-centric model.
  • They included children and women within a common production process.
  • Women's wages undercut men's, forcing men to "sit at home" and care for children while the wife worked long hours.
  • Women were the main workers in the silk, lace-making and knitting industries. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Factory managers were not well aware of the health risks of industrial work on children. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The manager did not allow longer worked alongside the parents, Children started working in the industry as early as 6 yrs old, and the manager paid 10% of male wages to the children. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • The dangerous work of Industries that resulted in deformed bodies, lost limbs, long-term illness.
  • The novel ‘Hard Times’ was written by Charles Dickens and he was a severe critique of the evils of industrialization and his novel is based on the harsh condition of the industrial towns. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Question 117

Consider the following statements:

  1. British colonialism continued to grow steadily in the 18th and 19th centuries.

  2. Raw cotton for the textile in Britain during the industrial revolution needed to be imported

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only 

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only 

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3, i.e Both 1 and 2.

British colonialism

  • Colonialism implies domination of people’s life and culture.
  • The main goal of colonialism is the extraction of economic benefits from the colony.
  • The global expansion of the British colonialism between the 18th and the 19th centuries is different in several important ways from the expansionism and colonialism of previous centuries.
  • British colonialism continued to grow steadily in the 18th and 19th centuries. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • Along with the rise of the Industrial Revolution, there was a shift in the strategy of trade with the colonial world.
  • Instead of being primarily buyers of colonial products as in the past, the industrializing nations increasingly became sellers in search of markets for the growing volume of their machine-produced goods.
  • Spices, sugar, and slaves became relatively less important with the advancement of industrialization, and rising demand for raw materials for industry (e.g., cotton, wool, vegetable oils, jute) and food for the swelling industrial areas (wheat, tea, coffee, cocoa, meat, butter).
  • Raw cotton for the textile in Britain during the industrial revolution needed to be imported from the colony at cheap rate and sell the finished product in the colonial world at a high margin. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Question 118

Who among the following was the author of Neel Darpan, published in 1860?

  1. AOption (a)

    Reverend James long 

  2. BOption (b)

    Michale Madhusudan Dutta

  3. COption (c)

    Raja Ram Mohan Roy

  4. DOption (d)

    Dinabandhu Mitra 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Dinabandhu Mitra 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Dinabandhu Mitra*.*

Neel Darpan

  • Neel Darpan was a Bengali play written by Dinabandhu Mitra in 1858–1859. Hence option 4 is correct.
  • The play was based on Nil-bidroho or Indigo revolt of February–March 1859 in Bengal.
  • It was a revolt by the farmers against British planters who had forced them to grow indigo.
  • The farmers refused to sow indigo in their fields as a protest against exploitative farming under the British Raj.
  • The cause of this plight started when Indigo cultivation started in Bengal in 1777.
  • Indigo was in high demand worldwide.Trade in indigo was lucrative due to high demand of blue dye in Europe.
  • European planters enjoyed a monopoly over indigo and they forced Indian farmers to grow indigo by signing fraudulent deals with them.

Question 119

Which one of the following organizations was started by Jyotirao Phule in 1873?

  1. AOption (a)

    Prathana Samaj

  2. BOption (b)

    Bahujan Samaj 

  3. COption (c)

    Junstic Party 

  4. DOption (d)

    Satyashodhak Samaj

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Satyashodhak Samaj

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Satyashodhak Samaj.

Satyashodhak Samaj

  • Jyotirao Phule was a prolific social activist and thinker, who pioneered women’s education in India, especially in Maharashtra.
  • He was born on 11 April 1827 in Katgun, Satara District in Maharashtra.
  • He along with his wife started a school for girls in Pune in 1848, which was the first such school by Indians.
  • He was a strong opponent of the caste system. Phule attacked the Vedas and the role of Brahmins in society.
  • He was the first who used the word ‘Dalit’ for the depressed classes.
  • Satya Shodhak Samaj was founded by Mahatma Jyotiba Phule on 24 September 1873.
  • The objective of Satya Shodhak Samaj was to liberate the Shudras and to prevent their ‘exploitation’ by the upper caste like ruling caste Maratha.

Question 120

Although used earlier by French and German writers, the term ‘Industrial Revolution’ in English was first popularized by

  1. AOption (a)

    Adam Smith 

  2. BOption (b)

    Arnold Toynbee

  3. COption (c)

    James Mill

  4. DOption (d)

    Bertand Russell 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Arnold Toynbee

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Arnold Toynbee.

Arnold Toynbee

  • The Industrial Revolution began in Britain in the 18th century and from there spread to other parts of the world.
  • Although used earlier by French writers, the term Industrial Revolution was first popularized by the English economic historian Arnold Toynbee to describe Britain's economic development from 1760 to 1840. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • Arnold Toynbee was a British economic historian.
  • He was also noted for his social commitment and desire to improve the living conditions of the working classes.

Question 121

In the 19th century, the majority of the workers in Japan’s modern industries were mainly

  1. AOption (a)

    Japanese men and children 

  2. BOption (b)

    Japanese women and Chinese men 

  3. COption (c)

    women

  4. DOption (d)

    Japanese and Chinese men

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

women

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Women*.*

Japan's industrial revolution

  • Industrialization is the process of developing an industrial economy.
  • An industrializing nation has to build the infrastructure for factories and shipping, find a place in global economic networks.
  • In Japan, industrialization was something that the government consciously undertook but which happened in two different eras and in two different ways i.e. Meiji Restoration and Industrial Revolution.

Meiji Restoration

  • The Meiji Restoration (1868-1890) was named after the emperor, who took the name Meiji, which referred to as 'enlightened rule.'
  • The emperor and a new ruling upper class decided it was time to transform Japan on a Western model.
  • The goal was to form Japan into a European-style empire that would compete with the increasingly global world.
  • Japan drafted its first constitution in 1889, establishing a constitutional monarchy with the emperor's power checked by a parliament called the Diet.
  • The feudal class system was abolished, public education was made mandatory, and Western technologies were eagerly imported.

Industrial Revolution

  • The result of Meiji restoration was an industrial revolution that lasted from roughly 1890 to 1930.
  • Factories were built, infrastructure was developed, and therefore the Japanese economy quickly transitioned.
  • While Japan did build a different range of industries, from textiles to steel, one among their most prominent focuses was on building an industrial-military.
  • After all, the goal was to be a modern contemporary, European-style nation and to prove to the world that Japan was a conqueror, not a potential colony for someone else.
  • In the 19th century, the majority of the worker in Japan’s modern industries were mainly women. Hence option 3 is correct.

Question 122

Which of the following statements regarding the recent development in international affairs is/are correct?

  1. NATO’s defence ministers agree to boost support for Ukraine with a comprehensive package of assistance which will help it strengthen defence and to modernize its armed forces.

  2. Israel announces plans for the construction of dwelling units for Jewish settlers in a Palestinian neighbourhood of East Jerusalem.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only 

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only 

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3, i.e Both 1 and 2.

NATO

  • The North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO), also called the North Atlantic Alliance, the Atlantic Alliance or the Western Alliance.
  • It is an international organisation for collective security established on April 4, 1949, by the United States, Canada, and several Western European nations to provide collective security against the Soviet Union.
  • Its headquarters are located in Brussels, Belgium.
  • As of 2020, there are 30 member states, with North Macedonia becoming the latest member to join the alliance in 2020.
  • Relations between NATO and Ukraine date back to the early 1990s and have since developed into one of the most substantial of NATO’s partnerships.
  • Since 2014, in the wake of the Russia-Ukraine conflict, cooperation has been intensified in critical areas.
  • Ukraine joined the North Atlantic Cooperation Council in 1991 and the Partnership for Peace programme in 1994.
  • Cooperation has deepened over time and is interdependent with Ukraine actively contributing to NATO-led operations and missions.
  • Through the Comprehensive Assistance Package for Ukraine endorsed by the NATO-Ukraine Commission at the NATO Summit in Warsaw in 2016, NATO’s defence ministers agreed to boost support for Ukraine with a comprehensive package of assistance which can help it strengthen defence and to modernize its armed forces. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Israel - Palestine conflict

  • Jerusalem is a holy city for the Three Abrahamic religions viz, Judaism, Christianity and Islam representing different periods of its history.
  • By 1917, it fell to the British and then they had to guard or protect the region under League of Nations mandate.
  • UN had a partition plan for the region by 1947. It had designated Jerusalem as a special international zone.
  • But soon in the Arab-Israeli war of 1948, Israel occupied the western part and Jordan the eastern part of Jerusalem.
  • The East was to be later annexed by Israel in the Six-Day War of 1967.
  • This annexation wasn't accepted by the international community and it still considers East Jerusalem as a part of Palestine territory
  • Recently Israeli Prime Minister Benjamin Netanyahu said that he was reviving a plan for the construction of 3,000 dwelling units for Jewish settlers in a Palestinian neighbourhood of East Jerusalem. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Question 123

As per the RBI guidelines, which one of the following is the minimum tenure of Masala Bonds that an Indian company can issue offshore?

  1. AOption (a)

    Five years

  2. BOption (b)

    Four years

  3. COption (c)

    Three years

  4. DOption (d)

    Two years

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Three years

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e Three years.

Masala Bonds

  • They are rupee-denominated bonds i.e the funds would be raised from the overseas market in Indian rupees.
  • According to RBI, any corporate, body corporate and Indian bank is eligible to issue Rupee denominated bonds overseas.
  • While companies can raise funds through these bonds, there are limitations for the utilization of such proceeds.
  • RBI mandates that the cash raised through such bonds can't be used for real estate activities other than integrated township or affordable housing projects.
  • It also can’t be used for investing in capital markets, purchase of land and on-lending to other entities for such activities as stated above.
  • According to RBI, the minimum maturity period for Masala Bonds raised up to Rupee equivalent of USD 50 million during a fiscal year should be 3 years.

Question 124

Which of the following statements about Krishi Kalyan Cess (KKC) is/are correct?

  1. KKC is calculated in the same way as Service Tax is calculated.

  2. The current rate of KKC is 0.50%

  3. KKC is similar to the KKS (Krishi Kalayn Surcharge)

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only 

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only 

  4. DOption (d)

    1 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 2 only 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, i.e 1 and 2 only.

Krishi Kalyan Cess (KKC)

  • A cess could be a tax that's levied by the government to boost funds for a selected purpose.
  • The new cess is supposed to be levied at a rate of 0.5% on all goods and services where the government can levy service taxes. Hence statement 1 and 2 is correct.
  • It is alleged to promote various initiatives within the domain of agriculture and also finance them.
  • KKC would be levied, charged, collected and paid to Government independent of Service Tax.
  • The proceeds of the Krishi Kalyan Cess shall first be credited to the Consolidated Fund of India.

NOTE

  • The Ministry of Finance had gradually disposed of several cesses with the Goods and Services Tax (GST) rollout, including the KKC which was abolished on July 1, 2017.
  • KKC is different from KKS in the sense that KKS will be levied on undisclosed income at a rate of 7.5%. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Question 125

Which country won the Thomas Cup Badminton championship 2016?

  1. AOption (a)

    Indonesia

  2. BOption (b)

    Denmark 

  3. COption (c)

    China

  4. DOption (d)

    Malaysia 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Denmark 

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 2 i.e. Denmark

  • Denmark won the Thomas Cup of 2016.
  • Denmark defeated Indonesia in the final round of Thomas Cup.
  • China was the host country.
  • Denmark became the first European nation to win the Thomas Cup.
  • The Thomas Cup is also called the World Men's Team Championships.
  • The Uber Cup is called the World Team Championships for Women.

Question 126

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists

List I (Ultra mega power Project at different stages of Development)List II (State)
A. Sasan1. Gujarat
B. Mundra2. Madhya Pradesh
C. Tilaiya3. Andhra Pradesh
D. Krishnapattam4. Jharkhand
  1. AOption (a)

    A – 2, B – 4, C – 1, D – 3

  2. BOption (b)

    A – 3, B – 4, C – 1, D – 2 

  3. COption (c)

    A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3 

  4. DOption (d)

    A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D – 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3 

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 3.

  • Ultra Mega Power Projects are a series of power stations projects planned by the Government of India.
  • Sasan Ultra mega power Project is located in Madhya Pradesh.
  • ​The plant is located in Sasan village of Singrauli, Madhya Pradesh.
  • It is owned by Reliance Power.
  • Mundra Ultra mega power Project is located in Gujarat.
  • It ​is located in the Kutch District in Taluka Mundra of Gujarat.
  • Itis owned by Tata Power.
  • Tilaiya Ultra mega power Project in Jharkhand.
  • It is owned by Reliance Power.
  • Krishnapattam Ultra mega power Project in Andhra Pradesh​.
  • It is owned by Reliance Power.

Question 127

The world’s largest biomass cook stove system for cooking in community kitchen has been installed at 

  1. AOption (a)

    Tirupati 

  2. BOption (b)

    Amritsar 

  3. COption (c)

    Shirdi 

  4. DOption (d)

    Udupi 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Shirdi 

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 3 i.e. Shirdi.

  • The world’s largest biomass cookstove system for cooking in community kitchen has been installed at Shirdi, Maharashtra.
  • Shirdi is famous for the holy temple of Lord Khandoba and the Saint Shri Sai Baba.
  • The previous one was at Tirumala temple in Andhra Pradesh.
  • A biomass cook stove is powered by burning wood, charcoal, animal dung or crop residue.

Question 128

Which one of the following sectors is the largest contributor to carbon dioxide emissions from fuel consumption in India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Electricity and heat production 

  2. BOption (b)

    Transport 

  3. COption (c)

    Manufacturing industries and constructions 

  4. DOption (d)

    Others

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Electricity and heat production 

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 1 i.e. Electricity and heat production.

  • In India, 68.7% per cent of Green House Gases emissions come from the energy sector like electricity and heat production.
  • Agriculture comes next to contribute 19.6 per cent of emissions.
  • China is the highest contributor to carbon emission followed by the U.S., India, Russia, and Japan.
  • In 2018 the representatives from more than 190 countries held discussions at the UN Climate Change Conference (COP 24) in Katowice, Poland to equitably cut carbon emissions.

Question 129

As per census 2011, which one of the following states has the highest number of inhabited villages?

  1. AOption (a)

    Uttar Pradesh 

  2. BOption (b)

    Odisha

  3. COption (c)

    Rajasthan 

  4. DOption (d)

    Maharashtra 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Uttar Pradesh 

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 1 i.e. Uttar Pradesh.

  • Uttar Pradesh has nearly 1 lakh inhabited villages thus making it the state with the highest number of inhabited villages.
  • Lakshwadeep has the least number of inhabited villages i.e. 8.
  • The census is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner.
  • It comes under the aegis of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  • The first non-synchronous census was conducted between 1865 and 1872. It was not conducted in the whole country rather it was conducted in different parts of the country.
  • The first synchronous census in India was held in 1881.

Question 130

The property of electric current which is applicable in the fuse wires is

  1. AOption (a)

    chemical effect of current 

  2. BOption (b)

    magnetic effect of current

  3. COption (c)

    heating effect of current 

  4. DOption (d)

    optical property of current 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

heating effect of current 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is heating effect of current.

  • When current flows through a conductor, heat energy is generated in the conductor and this is known as the heating effect of current.
  • It depends on three factors:
  • The resistance, R of the conductor.
  • The time, t for which current flows.
  • The amount of current,
  • The heat production is given by H = I2Rt.
  • This equation is called Joule’s equation of electrical heating.
  • The material used in the fuse should have high specific resistance and a low melting point.
  • The fuse wire is made up of Sn (tin) and Pb (lead).

Question 131

 Which one of the following statements is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The SI unit of charge is ampere-seconds

  2. BOption (b)

    Debye is the unit of dipole moment

  3. COption (c)

    The resistivity of a wire of length l and area of cross-section A depends upon both l and A

  4. DOption (d)

    The kinetic energy of an electron of mass m kg and charge e coulomb. When accelerated through a potential difference of V volt, is eV joule.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The resistivity of a wire of length l and area of cross-section A depends upon both l and A

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Electric charge:

  • It is an intrinsic property of the elementary particles of matter which gives rise to electric force between various objects.
  • It is a scalar quantity.
  • SI unit of electric charge is coulomb (C).

Electric dipole:

  • When two equal and opposite charges are separated by a small distance then this combination of charges is called an electric dipole.
  • The strength of an electric dipole is measured by a quantity known as a dipole moment i.e.

P⃗=q×2a→\vec P = q \times \overrightarrow {2a}

Where q = charge and 2a = distance between two charged particles

  • The electric dipole moment is denoted by P and the SI unit of dipole moment is coulombmeter (Cm).

Resistivity (ρ):

  • Resistivity is numerically equal to the resistance of a substance having a unit area of cross-section and unit length.
  • The formula of resistivity is ρ=mne2τ\rho = \frac{m}{{n{e^2}\tau }}

Where, m = mass of an electron, n = Number of electron per unit volume of the conductor, τ = relaxation time.

EXPLANATION:

  • S.I unit of charge is coulomb whereas charge is also given using I =q/t
  • Thus, it can be expressed in terms of ampere-seconds. Therefore option 1 is correct.
  • Debye is a C.G.S unit of the electrical dipole moment. Therefore option 2 is correct.
  • From the above formula, it is clear that the resistivity of a wire does not depend on length l and area of cross-section A of a conductor. Therefore option 3 is incorrect.
  • Energy can also be expressed as eV which is known as electron volts, it is normally used in nuclear physics since we are dealing with a large amount of energy and it will be much easy to calculate in terms of eV. Therefore option 4 is correct.

Question 132

Two balls, A and B, are thrown simultaneously, a vertically upward with a speed of 20 m/s from the ground and B vertically downward from a height of 40 m with the same speed and along the same line of motion. At what points do the two balls collide by taking acceleration due to gravity as 9.8 m/s2?

  1. AOption (a)

    The balls will collide after 3s at a height of 30.2 m from the ground

  2. BOption (b)

    The balls will collide after 2s at a height of 20.1 m from the ground 

  3. COption (c)

    The balls will collide after 1s at a height of 15.1 m from the ground 

  4. DOption (d)

    The balls will collide after 5s at a height of 20 m from the ground 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The balls will collide after 1s at a height of 15.1 m from the ground 

Why this answer is correct

The corrct option is 3 i.e. The balls will collide after 1s at a height of 15.1 m from the ground

  • Let the accelerations of both ball be aA=-g, aB=-g
  • This is negative because the ball is thrown against the gravity,
  • Let the velocities be VA=20m/s,VB​ =−20m/s
  • Relative acceleration = aA - aB = 0 {both are moving in same direction}
  • Relative velocity, VA-VB=20-(-20)=40m/s
  • As we know, S=ut + 0.5at2
  • S = 40m, u = 40m/s and a=0
  • Therefore, t = s/u = 40/40 = 1 s
  • So, t =1s

For distance from ground lets observe particle A

S = ut + 0.5at2

u = 20 m/s, t = 1 s, a = - g = -9.8 m/s

= 20 - 0.5 × 12 × 9.8 

= 15.1m

Question 133

The setting time of cement is lowered by adding 

  1. AOption (a)

    oxides of aluminium 

  2. BOption (b)

    gypsum 

  3. COption (c)

    oxides of magnesium 

  4. DOption (d)

    silica 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

gypsum 

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 2 i.e Gypsum

  • Gypsum is hydrated calcium sulfate.
  • Its chemical formula is CaSO4·2H2O.
  • The setting time of cement is the time required for the stiffening of cement paste to a desired and defined consistency.
  • The setting time of cement decreases by adding Calcium Chloride.

Question 134

Emulsion is known as a 

  1. AOption (a)

    colloidal solution of substances having different physical states 

  2. BOption (b)

    true solution 

  3. COption (c)

    distillation mixture for making alcohols  

  4. DOption (d)

    colloidal solution of two liquids

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

colloidal solution of two liquids

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 4 i.e. colloidal solution of two liquids

  • An emulsion is a mixture made by combining two liquids that normally don't mix.
  • The process of turning a liquid mixture into an emulsion is called emulsification.
  • Examples of emulsions include mayonnaise, paints, milk, and lotions.
  • In a true solution, a solute completely gets dissolved in the solvent.

Question 135

If one mixes up ashes with animal fat, the substance received in the crude form is called?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pheromone 

  2. BOption (b)

    Soap

  3. COption (c)

    Cement

  4. DOption (d)

    Concrete 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Soap

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 2 i.e. Soap.

  • Some soaps are made of mixing wood ashes with animal fats with added perfumes and essential oils.
  • Soaps are a long chain of sodium salt or potassium salt of fatty acids.
  • Examples of soaps are Sodium stearate, sodium oleate and sodium palmitate.
  • Pheromones are endogenous chemical secreted in minute amounts by animals, insects and humans.
  • Cement consists of lime Alumina. gypsum, iron oxide magnesium, Sulphur and alkalis.
  • Concrete is a mixture of Cement, sand and aggregate.

Question 136

Which of the following statements with regard to the coverage rate of Aadhar cards during 2015 is/are correct?

  1. The coverage rate of Aadhar cards in western India is quite high and it is above 90 per cent in Gujarat

  2. The coverage rate of Aadhar cards is the highest in southern India and it is almost 100 per cent in the states of Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.

  3. The penetration of Aadhar cards has been very low in the northeastern part of India and it is the lowest in Assam and Meghalaya.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    2 only 

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 3 only 

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only 

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 3 only 

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 2 i.e statement 1 and 3 are correct.

  • The coverage rate of Aadhar cards in western India is quite high and it is above 90 per cent in Gujarat. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • The penetration of Aadhar cards has been very low in the northeastern part of India and it is the lowest in Assam and Meghalaya.
  • Assam has the lowest Aadhaar penetration only nine per cent of its population has enrolled in Aadhar.
  • The current national average of 89 per cent.
  • Aadhar card is a 12-digit numeric number.
  • The Unique Identification Authority of India comes under the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology.
  • The coverage rate of Aadhar cards is the highest in Telangana amongst the southern states but not in all states. Example, in Andhra Pradesh, the rate is approx 90%. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • For more details, visit - https://uidai.gov.in/images/state-wise-aadhaar-saturation.pdf

Question 137

Which one of the following is the correct descending order of countries in terms of per capita availability of arable land?

  1. AOption (a)

    India – China – Brazil 

  2. BOption (b)

    China – Brazil – India 

  3. COption (c)

    Brazil – China – India 

  4. DOption (d)

    Brazil – India – China 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Brazil – India – China 

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 4 i.e. Brazil – India – China.

  • Any land which is capable of being ploughed and used to grow crops is known as Arable land.
  • Brazil has a total of 0.39 Hectares per capita of arable land.
  • India has a total of 0.12​ Hectares per capita of arable land.
  • China has a total of 0.09 Hectares per capita of arable land.
  • For more details, visit - https://data.worldbank.org/indicator/AG.LND.ARBL.HA.PC?locations=BR

Question 138

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Geomorphic Agent)List II (Feature)
A. Groundwater1. Plunge pool
B. Running water2. Horns
C. Glacier3. Playas
D. Wind4. Lapies
  1. AOption (a)

    A – 4, B – 1, C – 2, D – 3 

  2. BOption (b)

    A – 3, B – 2, C – 1, D – 4 

  3. COption (c)

    A – 3, B – 1, C – 2, D – 4 

  4. DOption (d)

    A – 4, B – 2, C – 1, D – 3 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A – 4, B – 1, C – 2, D – 3 

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 1.

Key Points

  • Plunge pools are formed due to the action of running water.
<br>

the deep pool below it.

  • Horns are formed due to the action of glaciers.
  • Horn results when glaciers erode three or more arêtes
  • Playas are depression formed due to the deflating action of winds.
  • They are found mainly in the desert.
  • Whent the water combined with CO2 moves down through the force of limestone a number of long furrows with walls are formed such limestone features are called as lapies.
  • It is a part of karst topography.

Question 139

Which of the following statements concerning temperature is/are correct?

  1. In winter season isotherms in Northern Hemisphere are more or less circular on continents

  2. Isotherms are parallel to latitude in Southern Hemisphere in oceans

  3. Minimum temperature during winter is recorded in North Canada

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only 

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 3 only 

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    2 only 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

All the statements are correct.

Key Points

  • An isotherm is a line on a map connecting points having the same temperature at a given time or on average over a given period.
  • In the winter season, isotherms in Northern Hemisphere are more or less circular on continents because large landmasses in the Northern hemisphere cause isotherms to bend toward the equator in winter. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • Isotherms are parallel to latitude in Southern Hemisphere in oceans because in Southern Hemisphere there is a higher percentage of oceans as compared to land hence, there is less obstruction for winds and isotherms are parallel. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  • Minimum temperature during winter is recorded in North Canada because it is near to north pole and cold winds coming from poles has a great effect on it. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Question 140

Which of the following statements(s) concerning natural regions of the world is/are correct?

  1. Equatorial climatic regions have less urbanization

  2. Mediterranean climatic regions have a high level of urbanization

  3. Equatorial climatic regions have a high concentration of human population

  4. Mediterranean climatic regions practice plantation farming

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only 

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    1 only 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2 and 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, ​2 and 4 are correct.

Key Points

  • Equatorial climatic regions have less urbanization because of the lack of favorable weather conditions for growing crops or industrial development. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Mediterranean climatic regions have a high level of urbanization because the climate is more favorable for growing crops and plantations.
  • The Mediterranean lands are also known as the world's orchard lands because a wide range of citrus fruits and grapefruits are grown here. The Olive tree is most probably typical of the Mediterranean cultivated vegetation. Hence, statements 2 and 4 are correct.
  • Mediterranean climate is confined to the Western portions of Continental masses between 30 degrees and 45 degrees north and south of the equator.
  • The basic cause of the Mediterranean climate is the shifting of wind belts.
  • Equatorial climatic regions are mostly comprised of developing nations like the countries in Amazon Basin (South America), the Congo Basin (Africa), Malaysia, Indonesia, etc.
  • The concentration of the human population in these regions is low because of the unpleasant weather conditions. Hence, Statement 3 is NOT correct.

Question 141

Which one of the following gases gives acidic solution on dissolving in water?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hydrogen 

  2. BOption (b)

    Carbon dioxide

  3. COption (c)

    Nitrogen 

  4. DOption (d)

    Oxygen 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Carbon dioxide

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 2 i.e. ​Carbon dioxide

  • Carbon dioxide gas, when dissolved in water, makes the water acidic. As it forms carbonic acid on dissolving in water.
  • Most non-metal oxides dissolve in water and form acidic solutions.
  • Carbon dioxide is used for refrigeration and cooling in both solid and liquid forms.
  • Hydrogen is used for the commercial fixation of nitrogen from the air in the Haber ammonia process, hydrogenation of fats and oils, methanol production, and as rocket fuel.
  • Nitrogen is used to make fertilizers, nitric acid, dyes**, nylon, and explosives**.

Question 142

How many moles of hydrogen atoms are present in one mole of Aluminium hydroxide?

  1. AOption (a)

    One mole 

  2. BOption (b)

    Two moles 

  3. COption (c)

    Three moles

  4. DOption (d)

    Four moles

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Three moles

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 3 i.e. 3 moles.

Key Points

  • The formula of aluminum hydroxide is Al(OH)3.
  • It is clear that 1 mole of Al(OH)3 has 3 moles of H and O and 1 mole of Al in it.
  • Aluminum hydroxide is used for the relief of sour stomach, heartburn, and peptic ulcer pain.
  • The mole is the SI unit for the amount of a substance in chemistry.
  • 1 mol of carbon-12 has a mass of 12 grams and contains 6.022140857 × 1023.

Question 143

The United Nations proclaimed 21st June as

  1. AOption (a)

    International Mother Language Day

  2. BOption (b)

    International Widow’s Day 

  3. COption (c)

    International Day of Yoga 

  4. DOption (d)

    International Day against drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

International Day of Yoga 

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 1 i.e. International Day of Yoga.

  • 21st June is celebrated as The International Day of Yoga since 2015.
  • The theme of 2020 International Yoga Day is Yoga for Health- Yoga at Home.**
  • June 21 is the day of Summer Solstice and according to Yoga, it is the best time for meditation.
  • The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting instituted an award called Antarashtriya Yoga Diwas Media Samman in the year 2019.
  • The awards are to be given in the categories of Best Media Coverage of Yoga in Television, Best Media Coverage of yoga in Radio and Best Media Coverage of Yoga in Newspapers.
  • The theme of the 2019 International Yoga Day was Climate Action.

Question 144

Who are Bhawana Kanth, Avani Chatrurvedi and Mohana Singh?

  1. AOption (a)

    Sprinters

  2. BOption (b)

    Rock climbers

  3. COption (c)

    Fighter pilots

  4. DOption (d)

    Mountaineers 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Fighter pilots

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Fighter pilots.

  • Bhawana Kanth, Avani Chaturvedi and Mohana Singh are fighter pilots.

Key Points

  • Bhawana Kanth, Avani Chaturvedi and Mohana Singh are the first women fighter pilots of the Indian Air Force.
  • Till 2016, women pilots were included in IAF for choppers and transport aircraft only in 1991.
  • In May 2019, Bhawana Kanth became the first woman pilot of the Indian Air Force to qualify to undertake combat missions on a fighter jet.

 

Additional Information

  • Indian Air Force:
  • It was founded on 8 October 1932.
  • It was instituted as Royal Indian Air Force in the year 1932.
  • Headquarters are located at Integrated Defence Headquarters, Ministry of Defence, New Delhi.
  • Motto: नभः स्पृशं दीप्तम्
  • Chief of the Air Staff is Air Chief Marshal Vivek Ram Chaudhari.
  • Air Force Day is celebrated on 8th October.
  • Sub-Lieutenant Shivangi became the first woman pilot for the Indian Navy.

Question 145

Consider the following statements about the Constitution of India:

  1. A Member of Parliament enjoys the freedom of speech in the Parliament as a Parliamentary Privilege protected by the Constitution of India.

  2. The Constitution has vested the power to amend the constitution in Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 only 

  3. COption (c)

    Both 1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 1 nor 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both 1 and 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 3, i.e Both 1 and 2.

  • Under Article 105 of the Indian constitution, a Member of Parliament enjoys the freedom of speech in the Parliament as a Parliamentary Privilege protected by the Constitution of India.
  • It also grants the right of publication of its proceedings to a Member of Parliament.
  • The Concept of parliamentary privilege in the Constitution of India has been borrowed from the British Constitution.
  • Under Article 368, the Constitution has vested the power to amend the constitution in Parliament.
  • Judiciary both Supreme Court and High Court can not bring any changes in the constitution nor can they amend it. This is because the judiciary does not have officials directly elected by the people of India.

Question 146

Which one of the following statements about the Union Executive in India is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    According to the Constitution of India, the total number of members of the Council of Ministers cannot exceed 20% of the total number of Members of the House of the people

  2. BOption (b)

    The rank of the different Ministers is determined by the President 

  3. COption (c)

    The Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. 

  4. DOption (d)

    Only a member of either House of Parliament can be appointed as a Minister 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. 

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 3 i.e The Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.

  • The Prime Minister is appointed by the President.
  • The Council of Ministers is headed by the Prime Minister which gives aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions.
  • These ministers are appointed by the president on the advice of the Prime Minister.
  • According to the 91st Constitution Amendment act of the Constitution of India, the total number of members of the Council of Ministers cannot exceed 15% of the total number of Members of the House of the people. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The rank of the different Ministers is determined in the constitution. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  • Any person can become a Prime Minister then he must become a member of the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha within six months. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Question 147

Which one of the following statements about Money Bill is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    A Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill only if it provides for imposition of fines or penalties. 

  2. BOption (b)

    A Money Bill shall be introduced in the Rajya Sabha

  3. COption (c)

    The Rajya Sabha can reject the Money Bill

  4. DOption (d)

    The Speaker of the Lok Sabha finally decides if it is a Money Bill, should any dispute about it arise.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha finally decides if it is a Money Bill, should any dispute about it arise.

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 4 i.e. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha finally decides if it is a Money Bill, should any dispute about it arise.

  • Article 110 of the constitution deals with the definition of the money bills.
  • The money bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha with the prior permission of President and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is finally decides whether the bill is a money bill or not. Hence, Option 4 is correct.
  • A Bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill only if it provides for the imposition of fines or penalties or for the demand or payment of fees for licenses or fees for services rendered, or by reason that it provides for the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax by any local authority or body for local purposes. Hence, Option 1 is NOT correct.
  • A Money Bill shall be introduced in the Lok Sabha. Hence, Option 2 is NOT correct.
  • The Rajya Sabha cannot reject the Money Bill. Hence, Option 3 is NOT correct.

Question 148

Which one of the following powers of the Prime Minister of India is codified in the Constitution of India itself?

  1. AOption (a)

    The power of advising the President as regards to the appointment of other Ministers

  2. BOption (b)

    The power to allocate business amongst the Ministers. 

  3. COption (c)

    The power to summon the meeting of the Cabinet 

  4. DOption (d)

    The power to transfer a Minister from one Department to another 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The power of advising the President as regards to the appointment of other Ministers

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 1 i.e. the power of advising the President as regards the appointment of other Ministers.

  • The Prime Minister is appointed by the President.
  • The Council of Ministers is headed by the Prime Minister which gives aid and advise the President in the exercise of his functions.
  • These ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister as prescribed by Article 75.
  • The Prime Minister is the leader of the Lower House.
  • In this capacity, he enjoys the following powers:
  • He advises the President with regard to summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the Parliament.
  • He can recommend dissolution of the Lok Sabha to President at any time.
  • He announces government policies on the floor of the House.

Question 149

The cylindrical stone seals were used in which civilization?

  1. AOption (a)

    Harappan

  2. BOption (b)

    Egyptian 

  3. COption (c)

    Roman 

  4. DOption (d)

    Mesopotamian 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mesopotamian 

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 4 i.e. Mesopotamian.

  • The seals were invented around 3500 BC in southern Mesopotamia.
  • The cylindrical seals were impression stamps, which were quite intricate in design. The images depicted on these seals were mostly theme-driven, often sociological or religious.
  • The stamps were known as kinship in Sumerian and murukku in Akkadian.
  • Mesopotamia is located in southwest Asia in the Tigris and Euphrates river system.
  • It is also known as the cradle of civilisation.
  • The major rule was of Sumerians and Akkadian.

Question 150

Which of the following statements with regards to the Civil Disobedience movement is/are correct?

  1. The movement received massive response from business groups and peasantry

  2. The movement coincided with large scale labour upsurge in Maharashtra

  3. The movement was marked by the mass participation of lawyers and students

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only 

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only 

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 3 

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 4 i.e. 1, 2 and 3.

Key Points

  • After the mandate given in the Lahore Congress session, Gandhi presented 11 demands to the government and give an ultimatum of January 31, 1930.
  • Due to no positive response from the government Gandhi launch the civil disobedience movement.
  • Dandi march was a part of the civil disobedience movement.
  • Evaluation of the Civil Disobedience Movement:
  • The stated objective was to complete independence.
  • The methods involved a violation of the law from the very beginning.
  • There was a decline in forms of protests involving the intelligentsia, and other classes participated fully, such as lawyers giving up the practice, students giving up government schools to join national schools and colleges. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
  • The movement coincided with large scale labour upsurge in Maharashtra**. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.**
  • The massive participation of peasants and business groups compensated for the decline of other features. Hence, Statement 1 is correct

150 questions in the full paper