Previous Year Paper

NDA General Ability Test 16 Dec 2015 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2015

150 questions150 minutes
With answers
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General Ability Test (150 questions)

Directions: In this section, look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence is given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them (1), (2) or (3) is better than the underlined part, indicate your response against the corresponding number (1), (2), or (3). If none of the substitutions improves the sentence, indicate (4) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus, a "No improvement" response will be signified by the letter (4).

Question 1

Had she been hungry, she would have devoured the whole lot of it.

  1. AOption (a)

    Unless she had been hungry

  2. BOption (b)

    However she had been hungry

  3. COption (c)

    As if she had been hungry

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

No improvement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e No Improvement

 

  Explanation

In the above sentence Had she been hungry is correct because it correctly and grammatically conveys the meaning of the sentence. 

  • The sentence is a conditional sentence stating that if she was hungry she would have finished the whole lot of it.
  • Had here acts as a conditional therefore no other option can be substituted instead.
  • Example: Had you got better grades, you would be making more money now.

 

One might think that Unless is a suitable option for the above sentence. 

  • It should be noted that unless always conveys an exception, therefore, cannot be used in place of Had.
  • Example: Unless you have a photographic memory, repetition is vital.

​Therefore the correct answer is Option 4 No improvement.

Question 2

Until you don't finish the work, you won't be given leave.

  1. AOption (a)

    Until you must finish

  2. BOption (b)

    Until finishing

  3. COption (c)

    Until you finish

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Until you finish

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e Until you finish.

 

Explanation

The above sentence is a conditional sentence with 'Until'

  • 'Not' is not used with Until in a conditional sentence.
  • If two actions take place and if the second action depends on the first action, then the first action is in simple present tense and the second action in the simple future tense.

From the above rule, we find that the only correct option is "Until you finish." Therefore the correct answer will be Until you finish the work, you won't be given leave. Thus making Option 3 Until you finish the correct answer.

Question 3

The names of the defaulters have been cut off the register.

  1. AOption (a)

    Cut out

  2. BOption (b)

    Struck out

  3. COption (c)

    Struck off

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Struck off

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e. Struck off

  Explanation

In the given sentence the verb cut off is wrong because:

  • Cut off means a point or level which is a designated limit of something.

Option 3 is the correct answer because:

  • Struck off means removed from a list or a register

Therefore stuck off correctly conveys the meaning of the sentence that i.e 

  • The names of the defaulters have been removed from the register.

Let's look at the meanings of the other phrases.

  • Cut out: suddenly stop operating.
  • Struck out: to be unsuccessful.

Therefore Option 3 Struck off is the correct answer.

Question 4

This is a matter I'd rather not talk about.

  1. AOption (a)

    Of which I'd rather not talk about

  2. BOption (b)

    I rather not talk about

  3. COption (c)

    Than I'd rather not talk about

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

No improvement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e No Improvement

Key Points

  • I'd rather not means 'I don't want to'
  • Therefore the sentence means This is a matter I don't want to talk about.
  • Thus we find that the sentence needs no improvement and therefore Option 4 is the correct answer.

Question 5

Only when you left I did sleep

  1. AOption (a)

    I slept

  2. BOption (b)

    Did I sleep

  3. COption (c)

    Had I slept

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Did I sleep

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2 Did I sleep

Explanation  

Only when is an adverbial phrase in the given sentence, therefore we use 'Inversion form of Verb

  • Inversion - Adverbial phrase + helping verb + subject + main verb.

Therefore we get the sentence 'Only when you left did I sleep'

Therefore Option 2 Did I sleep is the correct answer.

Question 6

I will be happy if you will buy me apples.

  1. AOption (a)

    Buy

  2. BOption (b)

    Bought

  3. COption (c)

    Will be buying

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Buy

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option A i.e. Buy

Explanation

In the given sentence the correct answer is Buy for the following reasons.

  • The given sentence is a conditional sentence where the first action (I will be happy) depends on the second action (if you will buy me apples).
  • In such a case the second action should be in the simple present tense.
  • Therefore the correct sentence will be I will be happy if you buy me apples.

Therefore the correct answer is Option A Buy.

Additional Information

As per the rule of conditional sentences:

  • If two actions take place one after the other in the future and if the second action is dependant on the first action then the first action is in simple present tense and the second action is in simple future tense and vice versa.

Question 7

After I saved some money, I shall go abroad.

  1. AOption (a)

    shall save

  2. BOption (b)

    should have saved

  3. COption (c)

    have saved

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

have saved

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. have saved

Let's see the following points-

  • There are two clauses given in sentence one is in past Tense i.e. "After I saved some money" and the other is in 'Future Tense' i.e."I shall go abroad" which is grammatically incorrect
  • Present Perfect tense is used to talk about actions that one expects in the future; as mentioned in the sentence the speaker wants to save money which is being imagined by himthis is a future event

Explanation

  • option 1 i.e. 'shall have' denotes that the action will definitely happen in the future which is incorrect according to the given context
  • option 3 i.e. 'Should have' is used to express past feeling about a past action or decision
  • Hence, Present perfect Tense - **sub+ has/have + v3 **should be used in the the first clause
  • 'I saved' is to be replaced by 'I have saved' to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence

 

Correct Sentence-After I have saved some money, I shall go abroad.

Question 8

Can you arrange the car to be ready this evening?

  1. AOption (a)

    arrange with the car

  2. BOption (b)

    arrange for the car

  3. COption (c)

    arrange that the car

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

arrange for the car

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. ​arrange for the car

 

Explanation 

  • Option 1 i.e. 'Arrange with' denotes 'to organize or plan something with another person' ; hence, this option is not correct according to the given context
  • Option 3 i.e. 'Arrange that the car to be ready' is grammatically incorrect
  • Option 2 i.e. 'arrange for' denotes 'to prepare or plan for something' e.g. arrange for the car to be ready i.e. 'to prepare to keep the car ready'
  • Hence, arrange the car will be replaced by arrange for the car to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence

Correct sentence-Can you arrange for the car to be ready this evening?

Question 9

Hardly had he reached home when the telephone rang.

  1. AOption (a)

    he had reached

  2. BOption (b)

    did he reached

  3. COption (c)

    he reached

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

No improvement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e No improvement

Explanation     

When hardly is used in a sentence:

  • It means that one event quickly followed another.
  • In such a case the verb describing the earlier event is in the past perfect tense.
  • In the given sentence the event of reaching home
  • If hardly is used in the initial position the subject and auxiliary verbs get inverted.
  • He had reached changes to had he reached

Thus we get the sentence 'Hardly had he reached' home when the telephone rang. Thus no improvement in the given sentence.

Question 10

He is likely to win the elections by the sweeping majority.

  1. AOption (a)

    With the sweeping majority

  2. BOption (b)

    In sweeping majority

  3. COption (c)

    By a sweeping majority

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

By a sweeping majority

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3 By a sweeping majority

 

Explanation

In the above sentence, the correct article to be used in front of 'Sweeping Majority' is 'a'

  • 'the' is used before a singular or plural noun when it is specific or particular.
  • using 'the' makes the noun definite, referring to something particular and specific. 

In the above sentence 'Sweeping Majority' is not definite or particular. It is just used to convey the vast majority that he got Therefore the correct article to be used is 'a'. And the sentence becomes 'He is likely to win the elections by a sweeping majority'

Thus Option 3 By a sweeping majority is the right answer.

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labeled P, Q, R, and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (1), (2), (3), and (4). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and select the correct sequence.

Question 11

His uncle for success in life-(P) , always advised his son-(Q), who was a self-made man-(R), to depend on his own efforts-(S)

The proper sequences should be:

  1. AOption (a)

    SQPR

  2. BOption (b)

    RQSP

  3. COption (c)

    PRSQ

  4. DOption (d)

    QPSR

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

RQSP

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2: RQSP

Explanation

In the given sentence the only sequence that makes sense is RQSP for the following reasons:

  • Starts by stating that his uncle was a self-made man. (R)
  • This is soon followed by a meaningful action i.e he always advised his son. (Q)
  • The statement states the advice he gave i.e to depend on his own efforts (S)
  • And finally, the first statement states the purpose of the given advice i.e for success in life (P).

Finally, we get the sentence His uncle who was a self-made man (R) always advised his son (Q) to depend on his own efforts (S) for success in life. (P)

This is the only sequence that gives proper meaning to the sentence and hence the correct answer.

Question 12

The doctor did not like the behavior of the patients-(P), who was very competent in his profession-(Q), when they talked at length-(R), about their problems-(S)

The proper sequence should be:

  1. AOption (a)

    RPSQ

  2. BOption (b)

    SRPQ

  3. COption (c)

    QPRS

  4. DOption (d)

    PRQS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

QPRS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3: QPRS

Explanation     

In the given sentence the only sequence that makes sense is QPRS for the following reasons:

  • Starts by stating the quality of the doctor ie. he was very competent in his profession (Q).
  • This is soon followed by something he did not like i.e  did not like the behavior of his patients (P)
  • The next statement elaborates the behavior i.e they talked at length (R)
  • And finally, the last statement gives an insight into what they talked i.e about their problems. (S)

​

​Finally, we get The doctor who was very competent in his profession (Q) did no like the behavior of his patients (P) when they talked at length (R) about their problems. (S)

​Therefore the correct sequence is QPRS and the only sequence that gives proper meaning to the sentence and hence the correct answer.

Question 13

from leadership in culture-(P), in military situations and in face-to-face small groups-(Q), leadership has wide range of expressions-(R), to leadership in polities-(S)

The proper sequence should be:

  1. AOption (a)

    RSQP

  2. BOption (b)

    PQRS

  3. COption (c)

    RPSQ

  4. DOption (d)

    SQRP

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

RPSQ

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e RPSQ

Explanation     

In the given sentence the only sequence that makes sense is RPSQ for the following reasons:

  • Starts by stating that leadership has wide range of expressions. (R)
  • This is soon followed by the first expression i.e form leadership in culture. (P)
  • The next statement puts forth the next expression i.e to leadership in polities. (S)
  • And finally, the last expression i.e in military situation and in face to face small groups. (Q)

​

Finally, we get the sentence Leadership has wide range of expressions (R) from leadership in culture (P) to leadership in polities (S) in military situation sand in face-to-face small groups. (Q)

This is the only sequence that gives proper meaning to the sentence and hence the correct answer is RPSQ.

Question 14

He sat glancing occasionally-(P), peering through the window-(Q), at the figure of the old woman-(R), until he was chilled with the cold -(S)

The proper sequence should be:

  1. AOption (a)

    PSRQ

  2. BOption (b)

    QRPS

  3. COption (c)

    SPRQ

  4. DOption (d)

    PRSQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

SPRQ

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3 i.e SPRQ

Explanation     

In the given sentence the only sequence that makes sense is SPRQ for the following reasons:

  • Starts by stating how he sat i.e until he was chilled with the cold. (S)
  • This is soon followed by the action he did while he was sitting i.e glancing occasionally. (P)
  • The next statement tells us what he was glancing at i.e the figure of the old woman. (R)
  • And finally, the last statement tells us what the figure of the old woman was doing i.e peering through the window. (Q)

​

Finally, we get the sentence He sat until he was chilled with cold (S) glancing occasionally (P) at the figure of the old woman (R) peering through the window. (Q)

Therefore the correct sequence is SPRQ as it givens meaning to the sentence and is also the correct answer.

Question 15

After the earthquake tremors, the TV showed a haggard man shaking his fist at the sky -(P), clambering over the ruins-(Q), and collapsing with a howl of revolt-(R), of his house and factory-(S)

The proper sequence should be:

  1. AOption (a)

    SRQP

  2. BOption (b)

    QSPR

  3. COption (c)

    PQRS

  4. DOption (d)

    RPSQ

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

QSPR

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2 i. QSPR

Explanation     

In the given sentence the only sequence that makes sense is QSPR for the following reasons:

  • Starts by stating that the haggard man after the earthquake clambering over the ruins. (Q)
  • This is soon followed by the next statement that the ruins were of his house and factory. (S)
  • The next statement states the act he did after clambering over the ruins i.e shaking his fist at the sky. (P)
  • And finally, the last statement tells us the aftermath of the action i.e he collapsed with a howl of revolt. (R)

​

​Finally, we get the sentence After the earthquake tremors, the TV showed a haggard man clambering over the ruins (Q) of his house and factory (S) shaking his fist at the sky (P) and collapsing with a howl of revolt. (R)

Therefore Option 2 QSPR is the only sequence that gives proper sense and meaning to the sentence and therefore the correct answer.

Question 16

Everyone acknowledges-(P), when he considers the case calmly-(Q), who knows you-(R), that you have been wronged-(S)

The proper sequence should be:

  1. AOption (a)

    RSQP

  2. BOption (b)

    RPQS

  3. COption (c)

    PQRS

  4. DOption (d)

    QRPS

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

RPQS

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e RPQS

Explanation     

In the given sentence the only sequence that makes sense is RPQS for the following reasons:

  • Starts by stating that everyone who knows the person i.e who knows you. (R)
  • This is soon followed by acknowledges (P) which indicates that he who knows the person will agree to something.
  • The next statement tells us about the circumstances under which he will acknowledge and agree i.e when he considers the case calmly (Q)
  • And finally, the cause for acknowledging it i.e that you have been wronged. (S)

​

​Thus the correct sentence is "Everyone who knows you (R) acknowledges (P) when he considers the case calmly (Q) that you have been wronged. (S)"

This is the only sequence that gives proper meaning to the sentence and hence the correct answer is RPQS

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Question 17

Many of his acquaintances avoid him because he is so garrulous.

  1. AOption (a)

    Unreasonable

  2. BOption (b)

    Talkative

  3. COption (c)

    Quarrelsome

  4. DOption (d)

    Proud

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Talkative

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e Talkative

 

  Explanation

The above sentence means that many of his acquaintances avoid him because he is talkative.

Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word and the option:

  • Garrulous: Excessively talkative.
  • Talkative: Fond of or given to talking

​Here we find that both garrulous and talkative synonyms

Therefore both the words are synonyms, and thus Option 2 is the correct answer.

Let's look at the meaning of other words:

  • Unreasonable: Not guided by or based on good sense
  • Quarrelsome: Given to or characterized by quarelling.
  • Proud: Feeling deep pleasure or satisfaction as a result of one's own achievements, qualities, or possessions.

Question 18

He bore the pain with great fortitude.

  1. AOption (a)

    Resignation

  2. BOption (b)

    Defiance

  3. COption (c)

    Indifference

  4. DOption (d)

    Forbearance

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Forbearance

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e Forbearance

 

  Explanation

The above sentence means that he bore the pain with great courage and tolerance.

Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word and the option:

  • Fortitude: The courage in pain or adversity.
  • Forbearance: Patient self-control; tolerance.

​Here we find that both Fortitude and forbearance express the same meaning.

Therefore both the words are synonyms, and thus Option 4 Forbearance is the correct answer.

Let's look at the meaning of other words:

  • Resignation: An act of resigning from a job or office.
  • Defiance: Open resistance; bold disobedience.
  • Indifference: Lack of interest, concern, or sympathy

Question 19

He gave his tacit approval to the proposition.

  1. AOption (a)

    Full

  2. BOption (b)

    Loud

  3. COption (c)

    Clean

  4. DOption (d)

    Implied

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Implied

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e Implied

 

  Explanation

The above sentence means that he gave his already understood or implied approval to the proposition.

Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word and the option:

  • Tacit: Understood or implied without being stated.
  • Implied: Suggested but not directly expressed; implicit.

​Here we find that both Tacit and Implied express the same meaning.

Therefore both the words are synonyms, and thus Option 4 Implied is the correct answer.

Let's look at the meaning of other words:

  • Full: Containing or holding as much as possible.
  • Loud: Producing or capable of producing much noise.
  • Clean: Free from dirt, marks, or stains.

Directions: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Question 20

In spite of hard work. the farmers could only get a meager yield.

  1. AOption (a)

    Satisfactory

  2. BOption (b)

    Scanty

  3. COption (c)

    Plenty

  4. DOption (d)

    Normal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Scanty

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'Scanty'.

Key Points

  • The given word 'meager' means too small in amount. (बहुत कम, स्‍वल्‍प)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Satisfactory' means good enough for a particular purpose; acceptable. (संतोषजनक, उद्देश्‍य विशेष के लिए पर्याप्त; स्‍वीकार्य)
  • 'Scanty' means too small in size or amount. (संख्‍या या मात्रा में बहुत कम; अत्‍यल्‍प)
  • 'Plenty' means as much or as many of something as you need. (भरपूर, जितना चाहिए उतना भर)
  • 'Normal' means usual or ordinary; what you expect. (सामान्‍य या साधारण, औसत; जिसकी आशा हो)

Hence, the correct answer is option 2.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'meager' are "scanty, scarce, minimal".
  • The antonyms of the word 'meager' are "adequate, enough, satisfactory".
  • Example of 'meager' in a sentence:
  • She supplements her meager income by working on Saturdays.

Question 21

He was exhilarated at the outcome of the election results.

  1. AOption (a)

    Satisfied

  2. BOption (b)

    Surprised

  3. COption (c)

    Disappointed 

  4. DOption (d)

    Overjoyed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Overjoyed

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e Overjoyed

 

  Explanation

The above sentence means that he was elated or overjoyed at the outcome of the election results.

Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word and the option:

  • Exhilarated: A feeling of excitement, happiness, or elation.
  • Overjoyed: Extremely happy.

​Here we find that both Exhilarated and Overjoyed express the same meaning.

Therefore both the words are synonyms, and thus Option 4 Overjoyed is the correct answer.

Let's look at the meaning of other words:

  • Satisfied: Contended; pleased.
  • Surprised: Feeling or showing surprise.
  • Disappointed: Sad or displeased because someone or something has failed to fulfill one's hopes or expectations.

ANTONYMS

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is opposite in meaning the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

Question 22

He concealed his thoughts very cleverly.

  1. AOption (a)

    Emphasized

  2. BOption (b)

    Expressed

  3. COption (c)

    Affirmed

  4. DOption (d)

    Revealed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Revealed

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e Revealed

Key Points:- 

  • The above sentence means that he hid his thoughts very cleverly. (उपरोक्त वाक्य का अर्थ है कि उसने अपने विचारों को बड़ी चतुराई से छुपाया)
  • Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word and the option:
  • Concealed: Kept secret; hidden. (गुप्त रखा; छिपा हुआ)
  • Revealed: Make known. (ज्ञात करना)
  • ​Here we find that both Concealed and Revealed express the opposite meaning.
  • Therefore both the words are Antonyms, and thus Option 4 Revealed is the correct answer.
  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Emphasized: Give special importance or value. (विशेष महत्व या मूल्य देना)
  • Expressed: Convey in words or by gestures and conduct. (शब्दों में या इशारों और आचरण से व्यक्त करें)
  • Affirmed: State emphatically or publically. (पुष्टि)

Question 23

The proposal was denounced by one and all.

  1. AOption (a)

    Renounced

  2. BOption (b)

    Recommended

  3. COption (c)

    Announced

  4. DOption (d)

    Commended

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Commended

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e Commended

Key Points:- 

  • The above sentence means that the proposal was declared to be wrong or evil by one and all. (उपरोक्त वाक्य का अर्थ है कि प्रस्ताव को एक और सभी द्वारा गलत या बुरा घोषित किया गया था)
  • Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word and the option:
  • Denounced: Publicly declare to be wrong or evil. (सार्वजनिक रूप से गलत या बुरा घोषित करना)
  • Commended: Praise formally or officially. (औपचारिक रूप से या आधिकारिक रूप से प्रशंसा करें)
  • ​Here we find that both Denounced and Commended express the opposite meaning.
  • Therefore both the words are Antonyms, and thus Option 4 Commended is the correct answer.
  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Renounced: Formally declare one's abandonment of (a claim, right, or possession.) (औपचारिक रूप से किसी के परित्याग की घोषणा करें (दावा, अधिकार या अधिकार))
  • Recommended: Advised or suggested as good or suitable. (सलाह दी गई या अच्छी या उपयुक्त के रूप में सुझाई गई)
  • Announced: Make a format l public statement about a fact, occurrence, or intention. (किसी तथ्य, घटना, या इरादे के बारे ��ें एक प्रारूप/सार्वजनिक बयान देना)

Question 24

She was skeptical about the safety of the new drug.

  1. AOption (a)

    Doubtful

  2. BOption (b)

    Certain

  3. COption (c)

    Hopeful

  4. DOption (d)

    Sanguine

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Certain

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e Certain

Key Points:- 

  • The above sentence means that she was doubtful about the safety of the new drug. (उपरोक्त वाक्य का अर्थ है कि वह नई दवा की सुरक्षा के बारे में संदिग्ध थी)
  • Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word and the option:
  • Skeptical: Not easily convinced; having doubts or reservations. (आसानी से आश्वस्त नहीं; संदेह या आरक्षण होना)
  • Certain: Used to emphasize the speaker's belief that what is said is true. (वक्ता के इस विश्वास पर जोर देते थे कि जो कहा गया है वह सत्य है)
  • ​Here we find that both Skeptical and Certain express the opposite meaning.
  • Therefore both the words are Antonyms, and thus Option 2 Certain is the correct answer.
  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Doubtful: Feeling uncertain about something. (किसी बात को लेकर अनिश्चित महसूस करना)
  • Hopeful: In a hopeful manner. (एक उम्मीद तरीके में)
  • Sanguine: Optimistic or positive, especially in an apparently bad or difficult situation. (आशावादी या सकारात्मक, विशेष रूप से स्पष्ट रूप से बुरी या कठिन स्थिति में)

Question 25

The answers to the question were coherent

  1. AOption (a)

    Relaxed

  2. BOption (b)

    Loose

  3. COption (c)

    Consistent

  4. DOption (d)

    Disconnected

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Disconnected

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4 i.e Disconnected 

Key Points:- 

  • The above sentence means that the answers to the question were logical and consistent. (उपरोक्त वाक्य का अर्थ है कि प्रश्न के उत्तर तार्किक और सुसंगत थे)
  • Let's look at the meaning of the underlined word and the option:
  • Coherent: Logical and consistent. (तार्किक और सुसंगत)
  • Disconnected: lacking contact with reality. (वास्तविकता के साथ संपर्क की कमी)
  • ​Here we find that both Coherent and Disconnected express the opposite meaning.
  • Therefore both the words are Antonyms, and thus Option 4 Disconnected is the correct answer.
  • Let's look at the meaning of other words:
  • Relaxed: Free from tension and anxiety. (तनाव और चिंता से मुक्त)
  • Loose: Not firmly or tightly fixed in place. (जगह में मजबूती से या कसकर नहीं लगाया गया)
  • Consistent: Acting or done in the same way over time. (समय के साथ एक ही तरह से अभिनय या किया हुआ)

Question 26

It was no altruistic motive that prompted him to help her.

  1. AOption (a)

    selfish

  2. BOption (b)

    inhuman

  3. COption (c)

    brutal

  4. DOption (d)

    wicked

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

selfish

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. selfish

Key Points:- 

  • Altruistic-  Showing unselfishly concerned for or devoted to the welfare of others; Selfless, Unselfish, Kind. decent, etc. (दूसरों के कल्याण के लिए निःस्वार्थ रूप से चिंतित या समर्पित दिखाना)
  • For e.g.- Their intentions were partly altruistic and partly economic.
  • Hence, Selfish will be the correct option

Let's see the meaning of the other options-

WORDSMEANING
InhumanLacking human qualities of compassion and mercy. (करुणा और दया के मानवीय गुणों का अभाव) For e.g.-I heard a strange inhuman sound.
BrutalCruel, violent, and completely without feelings. (क्रूर, हिंसक, और पूरी तरह से भावनाओं के बिना) For e.g.-Murder is a brutal crime.
WickedEvil or morally wrong. (बुराई या नैतिक रूप से गलत) For e.g.-It is wicked to make other people suffer.

SELECTING WORDS

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select whichever word or group of words you consider most appropriate for the blank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

Question 27

Man has won his dominant position on this planet by his _____of technology.

  1. AOption (a)

    command

  2. BOption (b)

    emphasis

  3. COption (c)

    belief

  4. DOption (d)

    stress

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

command

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. command

Explanation

  • As the preposition 'of' is used before the blank, hence, we have to choose the most suitable word which goes with this preposition
  • Command denotes the ability to use or control something (command of something) which fits in the blank grammatically and contextually correct

 

 Meaning of other words-

WORDSMEANING
EmphasisSpecial attention put on something to give it importance
BeliefAn acceptance that something exists or is true
StressGreat worry caused by a difficult situation
  • Emphasis is used with the preposition 'on'(emphasis on something)
  • Belief is used with the preposition 'in' (Belief in something)
  • Stress is used with the preposition 'over & on' (stress on/over something)

***Correct sentence-*Man has won his dominant position on this planet by his command of technology.

Question 28

The day was extremely hot and, in no time, my back was drenched with _______.

  1. AOption (a)

    prickly heat

  2. BOption (b)

    perspiration

  3. COption (c)

    sores

  4. DOption (d)

    fatigue

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

perspiration

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e.Perspiration

  Explanation 

  • Perspiration here refers to the process of sweating therefore, according to the given context it is the most appropriate word out of the given options

Meaning of other options are-

WORDSMEANING
Prickly heatAn itchy inflammation of the skin, typically with a rash of small vesicles
SoresPhysically painful as a wound, hurt or diseased part
FatigueExtreme tiredness resulting from mental or physical exertion

***Correct sentence-*The day was extremely hot and, in no time, my back was drenched with Perspiration.

Question 29

The Government is encouraging village upliftment ____ in the country.

  1. AOption (a)

    programmes

  2. BOption (b)

    designs

  3. COption (c)

    talks

  4. DOption (d)

    propaganda

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

programmes

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. programmes

Explanation

Lets see the meaning of all options-

WORDSMEANING
Programmesa set of related measures or activities with a particular long term aim
Designsa plan or drawing produced to show the look and function or workings of a building or other object before it is made
Propagandainformation, especially of a biased or misleading nature, used to promote a political cause or point of view
Talkscommunication by spoken words; conversation or discussion
<br>

 As**,** programmes refers to a set of related measures or activities with a particular long term aim or an officially organized system of services, activities, or opportunities that help to achieve something hence, it is the most appropriate word out of the given options to fill the blank

Correct sentence- The Government is encouraging village upliftment programmes in the country.

Question 30

Satish was endowed ______ a natural talent for music.

  1. AOption (a)

    in

  2. BOption (b)

    by

  3. COption (c)

    for

  4. DOption (d)

    with

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

with

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. 'with'

 

  Explanation

  • Only Preposition 'with' among the given options go with 'endowed' to make a grammatical and contextual correct sentence
  • Endowed with denotes to make someone or something have a particular quality, or to believe that they have
  • For e.g.- My friend is endowed in/by/for both intelligence and strong sense of humour.  

                         My friend is endowed with intelligence and strong sense of humour. 

***Correct sentence-*Satish was endowed with a natural talent for music.

Question 31

Mr. Ghosh is very happy _______ his son's excellent result.

  1. AOption (a)

    for seeing

  2. BOption (b)

    to see

  3. COption (c)

    by seeing

  4. DOption (d)

    see

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

to see

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. to see

 

Explanation 

  • There are certain Adjectives which describes a person's emotions or mental state i.e. happy, glad, delighted, pleased, content , relieved, fortunate, sorry, sad, disappointed, proud, anxious, etc follow infinitive form of Verb i.e. to + v1
  • Here, Adjective 'happy' will be followed by infinitive, thus 'to see' will be the correct form of verb among the given options
  • For e.g.- I am always pleased for seeing you. 

                         I am always pleased to see you  

Correct sentence- Mr. Ghosh is very happy to see his son's excellent result.

Question 32

Sunlight filtering _____ the stained glass window created a mosaic of colours on the floor.

  1. AOption (a)

    in

  2. BOption (b)

    through

  3. COption (c)

    at

  4. DOption (d)

    into

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

through

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. through

 

Explanation  

  • The given blank is followed by verb 'filtering' which refers to  pass through something, usually in order to remove unwanted material
  • Verb 'filtering' is mostly used with preposition 'through' and sometimes with 'into' as well

​

  • The phrase 'filtering into the stained glass' is incorrect as the stained glass window is not the end of the context but the medium
  • As the sunlight passes through the medium i.e. stained glass window hence, the correct preposition to be used here is 'through'
  • The usage of preposition 'in' is incorrect according to the given context
  • 'filtering at' is grammatically incorrect usage
  • For e.g.- Everything we download from the internet is automatically filtered into/at/in the antivirus software. 

                      Everything we download from the internet is automatically filtered through the antivirus software.

Correct sentence- Sunlight filtering through the stained glass window created a mosaic of colours on the floor.

Question 33

Are you feeling doubtful ____ your decision?

  1. AOption (a)

    about

  2. BOption (b)

    upon

  3. COption (c)

    at

  4. DOption (d)

    for

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

about

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. about 

 

Explanation

  • The correct preposition to be used here is 'about'; about as a preposition denotes on the subject for or connected with
  • For e.g.- I am worried about my friend, he is not well.

           Let's see the usage of other given options-

PrepositionUsage
UponIt denotes- on the surface or on it For e.g.-She carefully placed the laptop on the table.
AtUsed to denote-specific time, place or an activity For e.g.- I will meet you at 4 p.m. She laughed at my singing. I have seen hundreds of people at the stadium.
ForUsed to indicate the reason or because of, time and duration For e.g.- I baked a delicious cake for your birthday. I worked here for one year only.
  • According to the usage of given prepositions, only 'about' go with the sentence correctly and make a contextually and grammatically meaningful sentence

Correct sentence-Are you feeling doubtful about your decision?

Question 34

I want to study Geology now for I _____ Zoology for the last three years.

  1. AOption (a)

    am studying

  2. BOption (b)

    have been studying

  3. COption (c)

    had studied

  4. DOption (d)

    had been studying

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

have been studying

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. ​have been studying

 

Explanation

  • As the phrase given before the blank denotes the sentence is in 'Present Tense' and the phrase after the blank denotes that the action started in the past and has continued up to the present moment
  • Thus,according to the given context 'Present perfect Tense'  which is used 'to show an action started in the past and has continued up to the present moment' will be used in the given blank

Let's see the usage of other options-

TenseUsage
am studying (present continuous tense)used to show an ongoing action For e.g.- I am planning to spend the summer in Goa.
had studied (Past Perfect)used to show an action took place before another point in the past For e.g.-I had met her before the event.
had been studying (past perfect continuous tense)used to show that something started in the past and continued up until another time in the past For e.g.- I had been teaching for ten years when I got the promotion.

​

 

According to the usage of other given forms of Tense only 'have been studying' i.e. the usage of Present Perfect Continuous Tense gives a contextually and grammatically correct sentence

Correct Sentence-I want to study Geology now for I have been studying Zoology for the last three years.

Question 35

Increase in storage facilities has made it possible to store goods at places _____ to people all over the country.

  1. AOption (a)

    safe

  2. BOption (b)

    easy

  3. COption (c)

    proper

  4. DOption (d)

    conveninet

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

conveninet

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. convenient

 Explanation

  • Convenient refers to a location situated so as to allow easy access to everyone; favorable, easy, or comfortable for use
  • As per the given context Convenient is the most appropriate option; which denotes that increasing in storage facilities has made it feasible to stock goods at places which is easy access to everyone (convenient) all over the country

Let's see the meaning of other given options-

WORDMEANING
SafeProtected from or not exposed to danger or risk
EasyTo achieve something without great effort
ProperOf the required or correct type of form i.e. suitable or appropriate
  • Hence as per the meaning and usage of all other options only 'Convenient' goes with the sentence correctly

Correct Sentence-Increase in storage facilities has made it possible to store goods at places convenient to people all over the country.

Question 36

To say that we were surprised at the cleverness of the child is an understatement; we were really ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    annoyed

  2. BOption (b)

    astounded

  3. COption (c)

    flattered

  4. DOption (d)

    confused

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

astounded

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. astounded

 

Explanation

  • In the given sentence word 'surprised' stated as 'understatement' which means to present something as being less good or important than it really is
  • It concludes that the given blank requires that word which can emphasize word 'surprised' more effectively

Let's see the meaning of all given options-

WORDSMEANING
AnnoyedTo be irritated
astoundedShock or greatly surprise
flatteredlavish praise and compliments on (someone), often insincerely
confusedUnable to think clearly or bewildered
  • Thus, as per the meaning of each option only 'astounded' go with the given context correctly;they were really astounded with the cleverness of the child
  • Hence, the correct word used to be here is 'astounded'

​Correct Sentence-To say that we were surprised at the cleverness of the child is an understatement; we were really astounded.

Question 37

In spite of the old woman's repeated entreaties, he remained ______.

  1. AOption (a)

    ashamed

  2. BOption (b)

    docile

  3. COption (c)

    indifferent

  4. DOption (d)

    lethargic

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

indifferent

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. indifferent

Explanation

  • 'In spite of' is used to show contrast; generally it is used in front of a negative instances
  • As the first phrase of the context states that the **'**old woman repeated repeatedly entreats' (request, urge, plead); hence, the second phrase has to contrast
  • So, the blank should be filled by a word that denotes unconcerned or unmoved; thus, indifferent means having no sympathy or unconcerned is the only correct option

Let's see the meaning of other words-

WORDSMEANING
DocileReady to accept control or instruction; submissive
AshamedEmbarrassed or guilty because of one's action or characteristics
LethargicSluggish or lacking energy

 

Correct Sentence-In spite of the old woman's repeated entreaties, he remained indifferent.

Question 38

There was _____ competition for electoral seats.

  1. AOption (a)

    diligent

  2. BOption (b)

    rapid

  3. COption (c)

    cut-throat

  4. DOption (d)

    sparse

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

cut-throat

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. cut-throat 

 Let's See the meaning of the given options-

  • Diligent (adjective) means having or showing great care in one's work or duties; hardworking, assiduous, industrious, etc
  • Rapid (adjective) means happening at a great rate or expeditious, fast , quick, etc
  • sparse (Adjective) means in short supply; infrequent, limited,etc
  • Cut-throat means (of a competitive situation or activity) fierce and intense​

​ 

Explanation 

  • ​ As per the meaning and usage of all given options; cut-throat is the most appropriate adjective which is used with 'competition' when candidates are competing for victory at any cost.
  • It does not give a meaningful sense using Adjectives Diligent, rapid, sparse with 'competition for electoral seats'

***Correct Sentence-*There was cut-throat competition for electoral seats.

Question 39

The cricket team _____ mainly of State players.

  1. AOption (a)

    composed

  2. BOption (b)

    consist

  3. COption (c)

    made with

  4. DOption (d)

    comprises

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

comprises

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. comprises

Explanation

Let's see the meaning of all given options-

  • Comprises denotes consist of ; be made up of
  • Consist denotes to be made of or formed from something
  • Made with is used to denote that something has been produced using a substance or object
  • Composed denotes to form or make up something

Thus, as per the meaning and usage of all given options 'Comprises' is the most appropriate option which gives a contextually and grammatically meaningful sentence 

  • Consist, comprise, composed take prepositions 'of' in the passive voice-

For e.g.- 1) Their flat consist of two bed rooms, two bath rooms and a kitchen.

2) This course is comprised of 20 lectures.

3) The human heart is composed of four different chambers.

  • Do not use Consist, comprise, composed in a continuous form

***Correct Sentence-*The cricket team comprises mainly of State players.

Question 40

His love for money is the only _____ that drives him to work so hard.

  1. AOption (a)

    programme

  2. BOption (b)

    plan

  3. COption (c)

    reason

  4. DOption (d)

    greed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

reason

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. reason

 

Explanation  

  • As reason denotes a cause , explanation or justification for an action; therefore according to the context it is the most appropriate option to be used in the given blank

Let's see the meaning of the other given options-

WORDSMEANING
ProgrammeA plan of activities to be done or things to be achieved
PlanA detailed proposal for doing something
GreedIntense and selfish desire for something
  • Hence, as per the meaning and usage of all given options only 'reason' is the most appropriate option which gives a contextually and grammatically meaningful sentence

Correct Sentence-His love for money is the only reason that drives him to work so hard.

Question 41

According to _____ sources, the Chief Minister did not consult his Cabinet Members on this issue.

  1. AOption (a)

    intelligent

  2. BOption (b)

    simple

  3. COption (c)

    reliable

  4. DOption (d)

    fundamental

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

reliable

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. reliable

Let's see the meaning of the given words-

  • Intelligent-  (adjective) 'having or showing intelligence'
  • **Reliable- (**adjective) means 'able to be trusted or trustworthy'
  • Simple-( adjective) means 'easily done or understood'
  • Fundamental-  (adjective) means basic or primary

 

Explanation

  • The source of a news which is to be reported has to be reliable or authentic; thus, as per the meaning and usage of all given options only 'reliable' is the most appropriate option which gives a contextually and grammatically correct sentence

Correct Sentence-According to reliable sources, the Chief Minister did not consult his Cabinet Members on this issue.

SPOTTING ERRORS

Each item in this section has a sentence with three underlined parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your answer in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c). If You find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

Question 42

I am told-(a), John is ill-(b), since Monday-(c), No error-(d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. John is ill

 

Explanation

  • As there a time reference is given in the sentence; to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct 'John has been ill' will replace 'John is ill'
  • For e.g.- I have been sick since last monday.

Correct Sentence- I am told John has been ill since Monday.

Question 43

I shall leave school-(a), as soon as-(b), I shall find a job-(c), No error-(d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. I shall find a job

Explanation:

  • In the given sentence "if clause" has been used which is a type of conditional clause. Generally, when two actions are given in the Future tense, for the action representing a condition, we use the present indefinite tense, and for the other action, we use future indefinite tense.  ";Conditional clause in Present Indefinite tense + Principle clause is in Future indefinite tense (will/shall)"

​Extra Bites-

  • In the given sentence, "I shall leave school" is the principal clause (the action taking place later) which is dependent on the conditional clause.
  • A conditional clause has "as soon as" as to show the condition and should be in the present indefinite tense.
  • Hence,I find a job will replace I shall find a job to make a correct sentence

Correct Sentence-I shall leave school as soon as I find a job.

Question 44

He is a rich man(a), he is owning(b), a number of buildings in Bombay(c), No error(d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. he is owing

Key Points

  • Verb 'own' is not used with is progressive or continuous form
  • In the given sentence The clause 'He is a rich man' is followed by another clause 'he is owning' without a connecting word in between, which is grammatically incorrect; hence as the subject is 'person' we can connect the clause with adjective phrase 'who owns'
  • ​Let's see the following sentences-
  • For e.g.,- Dhirubhai Ambani is owning Reliance Industry. (Incorrect)

  Dhirubhai Ambani owns Reliance Industry. (Correct)

  • Hence, "he is owning" will be replaced by "he owns"

**Correct Sentence-**He is a rich man, he owns a number of buildings in Bombay.

Question 45

We were able to make it-(a), in spite of-(b), a bad weather-(c), No error-(d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

d

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. No Error 

 

Explanation  

  • In spite of is used with a negative instances when contradicting a positive instance; ''in spite of", means regardless of something or not being affected by something.
  • For e.g.- She got the job in spite of her prison record.
  • Thus, in the given sentence 'in spite of' is connecting two contrast ideas; hence, the given sentence is grammatically and contextually correct

Extra bite-

  • 'in spite of', 'despite' and 'although' are all used to show contrast
  • They can all be used at the beginning or in the middle of the sentence

Correct Sentence- We were able to make it in spite of a bad weather.

Question 46

Neither of the two letters of credit-(a), were useful-(b), when he needed it-(c), No error-(d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. ​were useful

Explanation

  • Use 'was' in place of 'were'
  • The noun/pronoun after ';Neither of' either of/ each of etc takes the Plural Subject but the verb should be singular form
  • For e.g.- Neither of the two applicants are ready for the test.  

                          Neither of the two applicants is ready for the test. 

  • Neither means not the one nor the other of two people or things.
  • **For e.g.-**They have two bikes but neither one works.

Correct Sentence-Neither of the two letters of credit was useful when he needed it.

Question 47

Little he realized-(a), that he wouldn't live-(b), to see his grandson married.-(c), No error-(d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Little he realized

Explanation

  • Here in the sentence starts with adverb 'little' which is used in a negative sense ; in such case 'Inversion' will be followed in the sentence
  • Generally, we follow the structure- Subject +verb +object in a sentence, but  Law of inversion – Helping verb (according to the subject) + subject + verb +object
  • For e.g.- Seldom I go to Delhi. 

                        Seldom Do I go to Delhi. 

​Extra Bite-

  • i.e. place helping verb before the subject of the sentence followed by main verb; and if the helping verb is absent in the sentence put the helping verb according to the tense of the given sentence
  • Hence,Little he realized is to be replaced by 'little did he realise' to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence

Correct Sentence-Little did he realise that he wouldn't live to see his grandson married.

Question 48

A difficult syllabus-(a), is supposed to hurt-(b), juvenile mind-(c), No error-(d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. ​juvenile mind

 

Explanation  

  • Here an indefinite article 'a' should be place before ' ​juvenile mind'
  • Hence, it should be a ​juvenile mind

*Correct Sentence-A difficult syllabus is supposed to hurt a juvenile mind.*​

Question 49

The voice of sanity and patriotism-(a), are important to dispel-(b), the prevailing confusion-(c), No error-(d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. are important to dispel

Explanation

  • Here the subject is 'Singular Noun' i.e. 'the voice' ; hence, the Verb should agree with the singular Noun and must be singular form
  • Thus, 'are' is to be replaced by 'is' to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence

Note- Generally if the given subject is singular then the verb must be followed in singular form and vice-versa.

Correct Sentence- The voice of sanity and patriotism is important to dispel the prevailing confusion.

Question 50

You were going to explain-(a), your late arrival-(b), isn't it?-(c), No error-(d)

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. isn't it?

Let's see the following points-

 

  • The structure of the sentence is in the form of a Affirmative sentence with a question tag at the end.
  • Question tags are used to ensure that the information we need is correct. Colloquially, we sometimes use ‘no’ at the end of the sentence to work as a question tag
  • When the given sentence is a Positive statement it will have a negative question tag and negative sentences will have a positive question tag.
  • The tags are formed in the following way;Auxiliary (Positive/negative) + Pronoun that always refers to the subject

 

Explanation

  • In the given sentence subject is pronoun 'you'; the subject of a question tag is always a pronoun
  • As the given sentence is a Affirmative sentence; thus it will take a Negative question Tag
  • Hence,  isn't it will be replaced by weren't you to make a grammatically and contextually correct sentence

***Correct Sentence-*You were going to explain, your late arrival, weren't you ?

Question 51

A brass ball is tied to a thin wire and swung so as to move uniformly in a horizontal circle. Which of the following statements in this regard is/are true?

  1. The ball moves with constant velocity

  2. The ball moves with constant speed

  3. The ball moves with constant acceleration

  4. The magnitude of acceleration of the ball is constant

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 4 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2 and 4 only

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The rate of change of displacement of a body is called as velocity of that body.
  • Velocity is a vector quantity that has both magnitude as well as direction.
  • The rate of change of velocity is called as acceleration of the body.
  • Acceleration is a vector quantity.
  • The type of motion in which particle moves on a circle is called as circular motion.

Centripetal acceleration:

  • The acceleration due to which the particle changes its direction on the circular path and moves on it is called as centripetal acceleration.
  • It is denoted as ac i.e.

ac=v2Ra_c = \frac{{{v^2}}}{R}

Where v is speed of the particle and R is the radius of the circular path

EXPLANATION:

  • When the ball moves on a circular path then the direction of velocity of the ball changes at each instant of time as shown in the above figure. So velocity changes. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • It is given that the ball is uniformly moving in a horizontal circle, so the magnitude of velocity or the speed of the ball is constant (v). So statement 2 is correct.
  • As the ball has centripetal acceleration which is always along in the direction of radius of the circle and towards the center. After any instant of time the position of the ball changes so direction of centripetal acceleration changes. So acceleration of the ball changes. Hence statement 3 is wrong.

ac=V2Ra_c = \frac{{{V^2}}}{R}

  • As speed (v) of the particle is constant, so magnitude of centripetal acceleration will be constant. Hence magnitude of acceleration of the ball is constant. Statement 4 is correct.

Question 52

Two long wires each carrying a d.c current in the same direction are placed close to each other. Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The wires will attract each other

  2. BOption (b)

    The wires will repel each other

  3. COption (c)

    There will be no force between the wires

  4. DOption (d)

    There will be a force between the wires only at the moment when the current is switched on or off.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The wires will attract each other

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Magnetic field:

  • The space or region around the current-carrying wire/moving electric charge or around a magnet in which force of magnetism can be experienced by other magnetic material is called as magnetic field/magnetic induction by that material/current.
  • It is denoted by B.

The magnetic force per unit length between two parallel wires is given by**;**

F=μ0;I1;I22π;dF = \frac{{{\mu _{0;}}{I_1};{I_2}}}{{2\pi ;d}}

Where μ0 is the permittivity of free space, I1 is d.c current in first wire and I2 is d.c current in second wire and d is the distance between two wires.

EXPLANATION:

  • When two wires carrying a d.c current are placed parallel to each other then there always will be a magnetic force acting between two wires. So options 3 and 4 are wrong.
  • When the current flowing in the wires are in the same direction then the force between two wires is attractive. So option 1 is correct and option 2 is wrong.
  • When current is in opposite direction then force is repulsive.

Question 53

The first Indian Satellite, Aryabhatt, was launched in the year:

  1. AOption (a)

    1972

  2. BOption (b)

    1975

  3. COption (c)

    1976

  4. DOption (d)

    1979

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1975

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e 1975.

Aryabhatt Sattelite

  • Aryabhata was the first unmanned artificial Earth satellite indigenously built by India.
  • It was launched by India from Kapustin Yar, a Russian rocket launch on 19 April 1975**.** Hence option 2 is correct.
  • The Aryabhatta was made by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
  • It was named after the 5th-century Indian mathematician and astronomer "Aryabhatta".
  • It weighed 794 pounds (360 kg) and was its objective was to explore conditions in Earth’s ionosphere, measure neutrons and gamma rays from the Sun, and perform investigations in X-ray astronomy.

Question 54

Which one of the following sea routes is the shortest from point to point?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kolkata to Yangoon

  2. BOption (b)

    Kolkata to chennai

  3. COption (c)

    Chennai to Port Blair

  4. DOption (d)

    Mumbai to Colombo

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Chennai to Port Blair

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Chennai to Port Blair.

Kolkata to Yangoon sea route

  • The total sea route distance from the seaport of Kolkata, India to Yangoon Port, Myanmar is 975 nautical miles.

Kolkata to Chennai sea route

  • The total sea route distance from the seaport of Kolkata to  Chennai is 890 nautical miles.

Chennai to Port Blair sea route

  • The total sea route distance from the seaport of Chennai to Port Blair is 794 nautical miles. Hence option 3 is correct.

Mumbai to Colombo sea route

  • The total sea route distance from the seaport of Mumbai to Port of Colombo, Srilanka is 794 nautical miles.

Question 55

Which one of the following is not a Green House Gas?

  1. AOption (a)

    Water vapours

  2. BOption (b)

    Methane

  3. COption (c)

    Ozone

  4. DOption (d)

    Carbon Monoxide

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Carbon Monoxide

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Carbon Monoxide.

Green House Gas

  • Greenhouse gases are a group of compounds that are capable of trapping the out-going infrared radiation from the earth’s surface thereby causing greenhouse effect.
  • In a greenhouse, the incident solar radiation (the visible and adjacent portions of the spectrum of the infrared and ultraviolet range) passes through the glass roof and walls and is absorbed by the floor, earth, and contents, which become warmer and re-emit the energy as longer-wavelength infrared radiation (heat radiation).
  • It will be keeping the Earth's surface warmer than it would be if they were not present.
  • Common examples of greenhouse gases include Water vapour, Carbon dioxide, Methane, Nitrous oxide, Ozone, and any Fluorocarbons. Hence option 4 is incorrect.

Question 56

Muscle fatigue is due to the accumulation of:

  1. AOption (a)

    Cholesterol

  2. BOption (b)

    Lactic acid

  3. COption (c)

    Lipoic acid

  4. DOption (d)

    Triglycerides

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Lactic acid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Lactic acid.

Key Points

Lactic acid

  • Lactic acid is a byproduct of anaerobic metabolism in which our body produces energy without using oxygen.
  • Lactic acid is a strong acid.
  • Lactic acid dissociates into lactate and H+.
  • Lactate ions would have little effect on muscle contraction.
  • However, the rise in H+ (i.e., reduced pH or acidosis) is the classic cause of striated muscle fatigue. Hence option 2 is correct.

Question 57

The absolute zero temperature is 0 Kelvin. In °C unit, which one of the following is the absolute zero temperature?

  1. AOption (a)

    0°C

  2. BOption (b)

    -100°C

  3. COption (c)

     -273.15°C

  4. DOption (d)

    -173.15°C

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

 -273.15°C

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Absolute zero temperature:

  • The lowest temperature at which there is no heat energy remained in the body is called an absolute zero temperature of that body.
  • Degree Celsius and Kelvin are the standard units of the temperature.

The relation between Degree Celsius (C) and kelvin (K) is given by:

K = C + 273.15°C 

EXPLANATION:

Absolute temperature, K = 0 kelvin

K = C + 273.15°C

C = 0 – 273.15 = - 273.15°C

C =  - 273.15°C

Question 58

Lightening conductors are used to protect building from lightning strikes. Which of the following statements is/are true about lightening conductors?

  1. Lightening conductors create an electric field at its top that lightning strikes it preferentially

  2. Lightning conductors reduce the effect of the strike by uniformly distributing the charge (current) over the surface of the building

  3. Lightning conductors take all the charge (current) to deep down in the earth

  4. Lightning conductors must be installed at a place taller than the building

Select the correct answer using the code given below

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    3 and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 3 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    4 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

3 and 4 only

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Lightening conductor: A metal rod mounted on the top of any building which is electrically connected to the ground with the help of a thick wire to protect the building during the phenomenon of lightening is called as Lightening conductor

EXPLANATION:

  • As there is no source to create the electric field connected to the lightning conductor, that’s why it can’t create any electric field at the top. So statement 1 is wrong.
  • There is a sudden flow (no uniform flow of charge) of charge through the conductor due to lightning. So statement 2 is wrong.
  • The conductors take all the charges coming on it and take it to deep down in the earth. So statement 3 is correct.
  • The conductors must be installed at a place taller than the building to ensure that there is no direct connection of lightning with the roof of the building and hence building will be safe. So statement 4 is correct.

Question 59

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Manufacturing site)List II (Industry)
A. Ludhiana1. Auto parts
B. Kanpur2. Woolen garments
C. Varanasi3. Leather
D. Vijayawada4. Handloom
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 1, B - 4, C - 3, D - 2

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1

  3. COption (c)

    A - 2, B - 4, C - 3, D - 1

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 1, B - 3, C - 4, D - 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, i.e A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1.

Ludhiana

  • It is a famous industrial city in Punjab. It is also mentioned as Manchester of India.
  • It is famous Manufacturing sites for Apparel industry manufacturing, Woollen garments and hosiery apparel, hand tools and industrial equipment, bicycle manufacturing, bicycle parts and metals fabrication.

Kanpur

  • Kanpur is a metropolis city in the state of Uttar Pradesh in India.
  • The greater metropolis is split into two districts: the urban district of Kanpur Nagar and the rural district of Kanpur Dehat.
  • The city is famous for its leather and textile industries.

​Varanasi

  • Varanasi also referred to as Benaras.
  • Banaras or Kashi is a city on the banks of the river Ganges in Uttar Pradesh.
  • Varanasi grew as a crucial industrial centre famous for handlooms like muslin and silk fabrics, perfumes, ivory works, and sculpture.

Vijayawada

  • Vijayawada is a city within the southeast Indian state of Andhra Pradesh.
  • Kanka Durga Temple of Hindu Goddess Durga, considered to be a sacred place for residing one of the most visited and famous temples of Andhra Pradesh.
  • Vijayawada is also famous for processing of agricultural products, auto parts, hardware, textile, consumer goods and small scale industries.

Question 60

Which one of the following is not a sea port?

  1. AOption (a)

    Paradip

  2. BOption (b)

    Jawaharlal Nehru Port 

  3. COption (c)

    Diamond Harbour

  4. DOption (d)

    Dhamra

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Diamond Harbour

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  Diamond Harbour.

Important Sea ports of India

  • Chennai seaport: It is an artificial port and also the second busiest port in India.
  • Kochi seaport:  It is located in the Vembanad lake, Kerala, and is important for exports of spices and salts.
  • Ennor seaport: It is located in Tamil Nadu. It is India’s first corporate port.
  • Haldia seaport: It is a riverine port Situated on the Hugli river in West Bengal. It is known as Diamond Harbour.
  • Paradip seaport: It is a Natural port located in Odisha. It deals with the export of iron and aluminium.

Diamond Harbour is a city and a municipality of the 24th South Pargana district in West Bengal. It is situated on the eastern banks of the Hoogly river.  Hence option 3 is correct.

Question 61

Consider the following reaction:

CH4(g)+H2O(g)→1270KCO(g)+3H2(g)CH_4(g) + H_2O(g) \xrightarrow{1270 K} CO(g) + 3H_2(g)

In the reaction given above, the mixture of CO ad H2 is:

  1. AOption (a)

    natural gas

  2. BOption (b)

    water gas

  3. COption (c)

    producer gas

  4. DOption (d)

    industrial gas

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

water gas

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Water gas.

Water-gas

  • CO + H2 (Carbon Monoxide + Hydrogen) is known as water gas. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • It is a poisonous, colorless gas and burns with an almost colorless flame (light blue).
  • It gets the name because water in the form of steam is passed through coke to manufacture the gas and contains traces of carbon dioxide.
  • The formula of water gas is still H2O.
  • It has less fuel value than natural gas and is toxic in nature.

Question 62

Living things are grouped into subgroups like plant kingdom/ animal kingdom. Which one of the following is NOT correct for animal kingdom?

  1. AOption (a)

    Cannot make their own food

  2. BOption (b)

    Body contains cellulose

  3. COption (c)

    Do not have chlorophyll

  4. DOption (d)

    Migrate from one place to another

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Body contains cellulose

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Body contains cellulose.

Animal Kingdom (Kingdom Animalia)

  • Kingdom Animalia is composed of all animals.
  • The animal kingdom is the largest kingdom among the five kingdoms.
  • Animals are  eumulticellular karyotes. However, they do not have a cell wall or chlorophyll like plants.
  • It may contain cell wall of protein plus polysaccharide compound, but not cellulose. Hence option 2 is incorrect.
  • They can't make their own food. because they do not possess chlorophyll.
  • They migrate from one place to another.

Question 63

The silvering in thermos flasks is done to avoid heat transfer by:

  1. AOption (a)

    Convection

  2. BOption (b)

    Conduction 

  3. COption (c)

    Radiation

  4. DOption (d)

    Both convection and conduction

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Radiation

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • A type of insulating storage vessel which keep hotter or cooler items at their respective temperature for a long time is called as a thermos flask.

EXPLANATION:

  • In a thermos flask, we have two walls and the space between them is made a vacuum. Due to this vacuum, there is less chance of heat transfer of heat.

  • As the glass is a bad conductor of heat that’s why silver coated glass wall is used so that the heat transfer via radiation can be reduced. Hence option 3 is correct.

  • The heat transfer through a vacuum can happen due to radiation only not by conduction and convection.

Question 64

The Manas National Park is situated in which State:

  1. AOption (a)

    Madhya Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Jharkhand

  3. COption (c)

    Assam

  4. DOption (d)

    West Bengal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Assam

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Assam.

Manas National Park 

  • Manas National Park is a national park is a UNESCO Natural World Heritage site, located in Assam.
  • Manas National Park is also part of Project Tiger reserve, an elephant reserve and a biosphere reserve.
  • It is located at the base of foothills of the Bhutan-Himalayas with unique biodiversity and landscape.
  • It is one of the first reserves included in the network of tiger reserve under Project tiger in 1973.
  • It is known for its rare and endangered endemic wildlife like the Assam Roofed turtle, Hispid hare, Golden langur and Pygmy Hog.
  • The park is contiguous with the Royal Manas National Park of Bhutan.
  • The park is famous for its wild water buffaloes.

Question 65

Addition of gypsum to cement:

  1. AOption (a)

    reduces setting time of cement

  2. BOption (b)

    produces very light colour cement

  3. COption (c)

    increases setting time of cement

  4. DOption (d)

    shining surface is formed

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

increases setting time of cement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. increases setting time of cement.

Cement

  • Cement is important for construction activity like building houses, factories, bridges, roads, airports, dams and for other commercial establishments.
  • This industry requires bulky and heavy raw materials like limestone, silica, alumina and gypsum.
  • Coal and electrical power are needed for production and rail for transportation.
  • When cement is mixed with water, it becomes hard over a period of time. This is called the setting of cement.
  • Gypsum is usually added to cement to prevent early hardening or “flash setting”, allowing extended working time.

Question 66

In case of compound microscope which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The focal length of eye piece is larger than the focal length of the objective

  2. The focal length of the eye piece is smaller than the focal length of the objective

  3. The image produced in a normal optical microscope is real

  4. The image produced in a normal optical microscope is virtual

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 4

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1 and 4

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Compound microscope: 

  • A compound microscope is an optical instrument that is used to obtain highly magnified images.
  • It uses a set of two lenses
  1. Eyepiece lens
  2. Objective lens.
  • Generally, the eyepiece used is of lower power than that of the objective lens.

  • A typical working of the compound microscope is as shown

  • Magnification of a compound microscope (m) is given by the formula

⇒ m = mo × me

Where mo is the magnifying power of the objective lens and me is the magnifying power of the eyepiece.

EXPLANATION:

  • The focal length of the eyepiece lens is larger than the focal length of the objective lens. So statement 1 is correct.
  • When an object is placed between the focus and the lens then the image formed by the convex lens is virtual and enlarged.
  • As the lens used in the microscope is a convex lens. We observe the object which is very small and near to the lens which makes a virtual and magnified image of the object because object is placed between focus and lens. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Question 67

Which of the following statements is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The radius of curvature of a concave mirror is twice its focal length

  2. BOption (b)

    Power of a convex lens is negative and that of a concave lens is positive

  3. COption (c)

    The radius of curvature of a plane mirror is infinity

  4. DOption (d)

    When the ray of light passes from an optically denser medium to an optically rarer medium, the angle of refraction is greater than the corresponding angle of incidence

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Power of a convex lens is negative and that of a concave lens is positive

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The radius of the spherical surface whose part is taken as a concave mirror is called the radius of curvature of that mirror.
  • Power is the ability to bend light and it is equal to the reciprocal of the focal length of the lens/mirror in meters.
  • The medium having a greater refractive index compared to the other medium is called the optically denser medium and the other medium is the optically rarer medium.

Power (P) = 1/f

Where f is the focal length of the lens/mirror.

EXPLANATION:

  • The radius of curvature of a concave mirror is two times the focal length of the mirror. So statement 1 is correct.

Radius of curvature (R) = 2 × Focal length (f)

Also Power (P) = 1/f

  • As the focal length of a convex lens is positive and the focal length of a concave lens is negative, the power of the convex lens will be positive and that of the concave lens will be negative. So statement 2 is not correct.
  • As the plane mirror is a flat surface so the radius of curvature of a plane mirror will be infinity. So statement 3 is correct.
  • When a light ray passes from a denser medium to a rarer medium, the light ray deviates away from the normal. So the angle of refraction is more than that of the angle on incidence. So statement 4 is correct.

Question 68

Identify the place that is NOT an oil field:

  1. AOption (a)

    Naharkatiya

  2. BOption (b)

    Kalol

  3. COption (c)

    Ledo

  4. DOption (d)

    Ankleshwar

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ledo

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Ledo.

Important Oil fields in India

  • The Naharkatiya oil field: It situated on the Left bank of Burhi Dihing river in Assam. Oil from this area is sent to oil refineries at Noonamati in Assam and Barauni in Bihar through the pipeline.
  • Ankleshwar, Khambhat or Lunej, Ahmedabad and Kalol, Nawgam, Kosamba, Kathana, Barkol, Mahesana and Sanand are important oilfields of this region.
  • Ankleshwar oil field: It is situated in the district of Bharuch and it stretches over an area of about 30 sq km. The petroleum from this region belongs to the Eocene period.
  • Oil production in this region was started in 1961.
  • Ankleshwar oil is rich in gasoline and kerosene.
  • The petroleum from this region is sent to the Koyali petroleum refinery.
  • The Ahmadabad-Kalol oil field: This crude-oil region lies to the north of Gulf of Khambat (Cambay) around the city of Ahmadabad and extends up to Mehsana. Kalol, situated about 25 km to the north of Ahmadabad is an important oilfield of the region.
  • Oil production from this region was started in 1961. Crude oil from this region is supplied mainly to the Koyali refinery.

Ledo is a small town in Tinsukia district, Assam, India. The Ledo railway station is the easternmost broad gauge railway station in India. Hence option 3 is incorrect.

Question 69

Ammonia (NH3) obtained from different sources always has same proportion of Nitrogen and Hydrogen. It proves the validity of law of:

  1. AOption (a)

    Reciprocal proportion

  2. BOption (b)

    Constant proportion

  3. COption (c)

    Multiple porportions

  4. DOption (d)

    None of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Constant proportion

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Constant proportion.

Ammonia (NH3)

  • The law of constant composition states that a given chemical compound always contains its component elements in a fixed ratio (by mass) and does not depend on its source and method of preparation.
  • Nitrogen makes up about 14/17 of the mass of any sample of pure Ammonia, while Hydrogen makes up the remaining 3/17 of the mass. (Atomic weight of nitrogen is 14 and that of hydrogen is 1)
  • That is Ammonia, Nitrogen, and Hydrogen are always present in the ratio 14:3 by mass.
  • 1 atom of Nitrogen is always combined with 3 atoms of Hydrogen.

Question 70

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    If the velocity and acceleration have opposite sign, the object is slowing down

  2. BOption (b)

    If the velocity is zero at an instant, the acceleration should be zero at that instant

  3. COption (c)

    If the velocity is zero for a time interval, the acceleration is zero at any instant within the time interval

  4. DOption (d)

    If the position and velocity have opposite sign, the object is moving towards the origin

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

If the velocity is zero at an instant, the acceleration should be zero at that instant

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Velocity: The rate of change of displacement of a body is called the velocity of that body.
  • Velocity is a vector quantity that has both magnitudes as well as direction.
  • Acceleration: The rate of change of velocity is called the acceleration of the body.
  • Acceleration is also a vector quantity.

EXPLANATION:

  • When the acceleration is in opposite direction to the velocity then the acceleration is called retardation which decreases the velocity. So the object is slowing down. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • When a body is at rest and we suddenly started applying a force on it. Then the force will give some initial acceleration to the body but the velocity at that instant is zero. Hence statement 2 is wrong.
  • As the velocity is zero for the time interval so acceleration will be zero between that time intervals. So statement 3 is correct.
  • If the position and velocity of the object have the opposite direction then the object will move towards the origin. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Question 71

The IST meridian 82.5° E passes through a number of States in India. Which one of the following sets of States is correct in this respect?

  1. AOption (a)

    Utttarakhand, Uttar pradesh, Chhatisgarh and Andhar Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, Chhatisgarh and Odisha

  3. COption (c)

    Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Chhatisgarh

  4. DOption (d)

    Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and Chhatisgarh

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and Chhatisgarh

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Uttar Pradesh, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and Chhatisgarh.

Indian Standard Time (IST)

  • Council of Scientific & Industrial Research’s National Physical Laboratory (CSIR-NPL), maintains Indian Standard Time (IST).
  • IST is based on longitude 82.5°, which passes through Mirzapur, near Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh.
  • It is 5 hours 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich Mean Time (GMT), now called the Universal Coordinated Time (UTC).
  • India standard Meridian (82 Degrees 30 Minutes E meridian) passes through Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Orissa and Andhra Pradesh. Hence option 4 is correct

Question 72

Boric acid is an acid because its molecule:

  1. AOption (a)

    accepts OH- from water releasing proton

  2. BOption (b)

    combines with proton from water molecule

  3. COption (c)

    contains replaceable H+ ion

  4. DOption (d)

    gives up a proton

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

accepts OH- from water releasing proton

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. accepts OH- from water releasing a proton.

Boric acid

  • Boric acid is additionally referred to as Acidum Boricum, Hydrogen Borate, Boracic Acid, and Orthoboric Acid.
  • It is a weak acid and has antiviral, antifungal, and antiseptic properties.
  • It is an acid-containing four atoms of Oxygen, one atom of Phosphorus, and three atoms of Hydrogen.
  • Wilhelm Homberg was the first person to prepare Boric acid from Borax.
  • Boric acid is an acid because its molecule accepts OH- from water releasing a proton.
  • B(OH)3 + H2O ⇌\rightleftharpoons [ B (OH)4]- + H+

Question 73

Who among the following discovered the antibiotic producing fungus from Penicillium genus?

  1. AOption (a)

    Louis Pasteur

  2. BOption (b)

    Sir Alexander Fleming

  3. COption (c)

    Stanley Prusiner

  4. DOption (d)

    Pobert Hooke

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sir Alexander Fleming

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Sir Alexander Fleming.

Sir Alexander Fleming

  • Sir Alexander Fleming discovered first antibiotic (Penicillin G) producing fungus from Penicillium genus in 1928.  Hence option 2 is correct.
  • Sir Alexander Fleming grew the mould in a pure culture.
  • The mould produced a substance that killed a number of disease-causing bacteria.
  • He identified that substance obtained from mould Penicillium notatum.

Question 74

Three equal resistances when combined in series are equivalent to 90 Ω. Their equivalent resistance when combined in parallel will be:

  1. AOption (a)

    10 Ω

  2. BOption (b)

    30 Ω

  3. COption (c)

    270 Ω

  4. DOption (d)

    810 Ω

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

10 Ω

Why this answer is correct

Resistance:

  • The measurement of opposition of flow of electric current through a conductor is called as resistance of that conductor. It is denoted by R.

There are mainly two ways of combination of resistances:

  • When two or more resistances are connected one after another such that the same current flows through them is called as resistances in series.

The net resistance/equivalent resistance (R) of resistances in series is given by:

Equivalent resistance, R = R1 + R2

  • When the terminals of two or more resistances are connected at same two points and the potential difference across them is equal is called as resistances in parallel.

The net resistance/equivalent resistance(R) of resistances in parallel is given by:

1R=1R1+1R2\frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{{{R_1}}} + \frac{1}{{{R_2}}}

Explanation:

Given that all three resistances are equal, let’s say R0.

Equivalent resistance in series (R) = R0 + R0 + R0 = 3R0 = 90 Ω

So R0 = 90/3 = 30 Ω

When they are connected in parallel, then equivalent resistance (R) will be;

1R=1R0+1R0+;1R+1R0=;3R0\frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{{{R_0}}} + \frac{1}{{{R_0}}} + {\rm{;}}\frac{1}{R} + \frac{1}{{{R_0}}} = {\rm{;}}\frac{3}{{{R_0}}}

Equivalent resistance (R) = R0/3 = 30/3 = 10 Ω

Question 75

The following figure represents the velocity-time graph of a moving car on a road:

Which segment of the graph represents the retardation?

  1. AOption (a)

    AB

  2. BOption (b)

    BC

  3. COption (c)

    CD

  4. DOption (d)

    None

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

BC

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The rate of change of velocity is called the acceleration of the body.
  • Acceleration is a vector quantity.
  • When the acceleration of the body is in the opposite direction of the velocity then it is called deceleration. It is a negative acceleration of the body.
  • The slope of any velocity-time graph gives acceleration or retardation of the body

Slope (m) = tan θ

Where θ is the angle made by the curve with X-axis.

EXPLANATION:

Here for graph OA,

  • The angle made by the curve with X-axis is less than 90° so tanθ will be positive.
  • Acceleration of the body for OA = Slope = tanθ > 0

Similarly for CD, part the slope is positive so there is acceleration in the body.

  • For AB the graph is parallel to X-axis so the acceleration will be zero for the AB part.

For the BC part:

  • The angle made by the graph is more than 90°
  • Slope = tan (90 + θ) = - Cot (θ) = - (acceleration)
  • Here the slope is negative, so acceleration will be negative which is equal to retardation. Hence for the BC part, there is retardation in the body.

Question 76

Which one among the following places in NOT an Iron-ore mining area?

  1. AOption (a)

    Badampahar

  2. BOption (b)

    Zawar

  3. COption (c)

    Bailadila

  4. DOption (d)

    Anantpur

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Zawar

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, i.e Zawar.

  • Zawar (Rajasthan) is famous for Zinc mines.
  • Zawar is a township created by mining company Hindustan Zinc Limited, for extraction of Zinc and Lead.
  • An 80 MW power plant provides electricity for mining zinc and lead from three major mines.
  • In Badampahar high grade hematite ores are found.
  • Bailadila Mines is famous for producing iron which is used for steel making.
  • Anantapur district is famous for Iron Ore Mines deposit, especially because of the presence of Kudremukh Iron Ore Company Limited.

Question 77

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Forest Conservation Type)List II (Place)
A. National Park1. Dudhwa
B. Sanctuary2. Bhitarkanika
C. Biosphere Reserve3. Chilka
D. Tiger Reserve4. Nokrek
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 1, B - 4, C - 3, D - 2

  3. COption (c)

    A - 2, B - 4, C - 3, D - 1

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 1, B - 3, C - 4, D - 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1, i.e A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1.

Dudhwa Tiger Reserve

  • The is a protected area in Uttar Pradesh located on the India-Nepal border.
  • It stretches mainly across the Lakhimpur Kheri and Bahraich districts.
  • It comprises of Dudhwa National Park through which Suheli and Mohana streams flow, Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary through which Sharda River flows, and Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary through which Geruwa River flows, all of these rivers are tributaries of the Ghagra River.

Bhitarkanika National Park

  • It is a national park since 1998, located in Kendrapara district of Odisha.
  • It is a Ramsar Convention site since 2002.
  • it is surrounded by the Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary.
  • Gahirmatha Beach and Marine Sanctuary lies to the east.
  • It is home to Saltwater Crocodile (Crocodylus porosus), White Crocodile, Indian python, King Cobra, black ibis, darters and lots of other species of flora and fauna.
  • It is the second-largest mangrove ecosystem in India.

Chilka Bird Sanctuary

  • Nalbana Bird Sanctuary or Nalbana Island is the core area of the Ramsar designated wetlands of Chilika Lake.
  • It was declared a bird sanctuary under the Wildlife Protection Act in 1973.
  • The island disappears during the monsoon due to heavy rain, only to emerge again post-monsoon.
  • Migratory birds usually start arriving at Chilika in November as it is a comparatively hospitable alternate habitat compared to the acute freezing conditions in their natural habitats in Siberia, China, Japan and other countries in the northern hemisphere.

Nokrek Biosphere Reserve

  • The Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is found within the northeast of India on the Tura Range, which forms part of the Meghalaya Plateau.
  • The entire area is mountainous and Nokrek is the highest peak of the Garo hills.
  • The biosphere reserve contains major rivers and streams that form a perennial catchment system which include the Ganol, Dareng and Simsang rivers, of which the latter is the longest and largest.
  • The Simsang originates in the north of the Biosphere Reserve, the Dareng from the southern peaks, and therefore the Ganol flows westward into the Brahmaputra River, which supplies water to numerous towns.

Question 78

The main constituent of Vinegar is:

  1. AOption (a)

    Acetic acid

  2. BOption (b)

    Ascorbic acid

  3. COption (c)

    Citric acid

  4. DOption (d)

    Tartaric acid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Acetic acid

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Acetic acid.

Acetic acid

  • Acetic acid is the second member of the carboxylic acid series after Formic Acid.
  • The formula of acetic acid is CH3COOH and the IUPAC name of acetic acid is Ethanoic acid.
  • A dilute solution of acetic acid in water is called vinegar. That is the main constituent of vinegar is acetic acid.
  • It consists of about 5–20% acetic acid (CH3COOH), water, and other trace chemicals.
  • Vinegar has been generally used as a preservative or as an acid for cooking.

Question 79

White Phosphorus glows in the dark due to:

  1. AOption (a)

    amorphous character

  2. BOption (b)

    slow oxidation

  3. COption (c)

    high ignition temperature

  4. DOption (d)

    good conducting property of electricity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

slow oxidation

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. slow oxidation.

White Phosphorus properties

  • Translucent in appearance like a white waxy solid.
  • Poisonous in nature.
  • Less stable and more reactive.
  • Does not dissolve in water.
  • When mixed with Carbon Disulphide, it dissolves.
  • Glows in the dark (chemiluminescence).
  • White Phosphorus emits a faint glow when exposed to Oxygen because of a chemical reaction taking place on its surface (Slow oxidation of white phosphorus), only if the darkened room has oxygen in it. Hence option 2 is correct.

Question 80

Which one of the following is not an example of eukaryotic organism?

  1. AOption (a)

    Yeast

  2. BOption (b)

    Bacteria

  3. COption (c)

    Plant

  4. DOption (d)

    Human being

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Bacteria

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Bacteria.

Eukaryotic organism

  • Eukaryotes are all organisms except Bacteria and Archaea. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • It consists of humans, fungi, animals, plants, etc.
  • Eukaryotes are any cell or organism that possesses a clearly defined nucleus.
  • In these cells, the genetic material is organized into chromosomes within the cell nucleus.
  • The nucleus features DNA that carries all the genetic information.
  • It has Mitochondria, Golgi bodies, Cell walls.

Question 81

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Kelvin scale temperature is called the Absolute scale

  2. BOption (b)

    Visible light radiation has wavelength range of 400-700 nm

  3. COption (c)

    The capacity to do work is called power

  4. DOption (d)

    The wavelength of gamma ray is less than that of X-rays

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The capacity to do work is called power

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The capacity to do work by a body is called the energy of that body.
  • The rate of work done is called power.
  • The light ray radiation which can be seen by our eye is called Visible light ray radiation.

EXPLANATION:

  • As the Kelvin scale only measures the positive value of the temperature and the zero kelvin is the absolute zero temperature. Hence Kelvin's scale temperature is called the Absolute scale. So statement 1 is correct.
  • The wavelength range of visible light is 400 nm to 700 nm. So statement 2 is correct.
  • The capacity of doing work is called energy. So statement 3 is not correct.
  • The wavelength of the gamma-ray is less than the wavelength of X-rays. So statement 4 is correct.
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Question 82

A man is sitting in a train which is moving with a velocity of 60 Km/hour. His speed with respect to the train is:

  1. AOption (a)

    10/3 m/s

  2. BOption (b)

    60 m/s

  3. COption (c)

    Infinite

  4. DOption (d)

    Zero 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Zero 

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Relative velocity**:** The velocity of any object with respect to other objects is called as the relative velocity of the first object.
  • The velocity of the second object with respect to the first object is written as (V2/1) = V2 – V1

Where V2 is the velocity of the second object and V1 is the velocity of the first object.

EXPLANATION:

Given - velocity of train (Vt) = 60 km/hr

  • Man is sitting in the train and the train is moving, so both man and train are moving in the same direction and are moving with the same velocity.

​∴ Velocity of man (Vm) = Velocity of train (Vt) = 60 km/hr

⇒ Velocity of man with respect to train (Vm/t) = Vm – Vt  = 60 – 60 = 0 km/hr

  • If two object are moving in the same direction then the relative velocity between the object is given by V1/2 = V1 – V2
  • If two object are moving in the opposite direction then the relative velocity between the object is given by V1/2 = V1 – (V2) =  V1 + V2

Question 83

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Place)List II (Normal vegetation type)
A. Western Ghats1. Tropical Moist Deciduous
B. Himachal Pradesh2. Tropical Evergreen
C. Haryana and Punjab3. Himalayan Moist
D. Chhotanagpur4. Tropical Thorny Forest
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 1, B - 4, C - 3, D - 2

  3. COption (c)

    A - 2, B - 4, C - 3, D - 1

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 1, B - 3, C - 4, D - 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1, i.e A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1.

Key Points

Tropical Moist Deciduous forest

  • Annual rainfall 100 to 200 cm.
  • Mean annual temperature of about 27°C.
  • The average annual relative humidity of 60 to 75%.
  • Spring and summer are dry.
  • The trees drop their leaves during the spring and early summer when sufficient moisture isn't available.
  • Belt running along the Western Ghats surrounding the belt of evergreen forests, a strip alongside the Shiwalik range including Terai and Bhabar, Manipur and Mizoram, Hills of eastern Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh, Chota Nagpur Plateau, most of Odisha, parts of West Bengal and Andaman and Nicobar islands.

Tropical Evergreen forest

  • Annual rainfall exceeds 250 cm.
  • The annual temperature is about 25°-27°C.
  • The average annual humidity exceeds 77% and
  • The dry season is distinctly short.
  • Due to high heat and high humidity, the trees of these forests don't shed their leaves together.
  • The western side of the Western Ghats, some regions in the Purvanchal hills and in the Andaman and Nicobar Island.

Himalayan Moist

  • Annual rainfall varies from 150 cm to 250 cm.
  • Mainly composed of coniferous species.
  • Trees are 30 to 50 m high.
  • Pines, cedars, silver firs, spruce, etc. are the most important trees.
  • Occurs within the temperate zone of the Himalayas between 1500 and 3300 meters.
  • Covers the entire length of this mountain range in Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Darjeeling, and Sikkim.

Tropical Thorny Forest

  • Annual rainfall less than 75 cm.
  • Humidity is less than 50%.
  • The mean temperature is 25°-30°C.
  • The trees are low and widely scattered.
  • Acacias and Euphorbias are very prominent.
  • The Indian wild date is common.
  • These are found in Rajasthan, south-western Punjab, western Haryana, Kachchh, and neighboring parts of Saurashtra.

Question 84

The term 'Regur' is used to mean;

  1. AOption (a)

    Laterite soil

  2. BOption (b)

    Deltaic soil

  3. COption (c)

    Red soil

  4. DOption (d)

    Black cotton soil

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Black cotton soil

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Black cotton soil.

Black cotton soil

  • Black cotton soil is also known as regur.  Hence option 4 is correct.
  • They are generally found in lava-covered areas of Maharashtra, Saurashtra, Northern Karnataka, etc.
  • They are well known for their capacity to hold moisture and are rich in Calcium Carbonate, Magnesium, Potash and Lime.
  • The soil is suitable for growing cotton and hence referred to as black cotton soil.
  • Other major crops grown on the black soil includes Wheat, Jowar, Linseed, Virginia tobacco, Castor, Sunflower and Millets etc.

Question 85

Graphite is a much better conductor of heat and electricity than diamond. This is due to the fact that each carbon atom in graphite:

  1. AOption (a)

    undergoes sp2 hybridization and forms three sigma bonds with three neighbouring carbon atoms

  2. BOption (b)

    undergoes sp3 hybridization

  3. COption (c)

    is tetrahedrally bonded

  4. DOption (d)

    is free from van der Waals force

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

undergoes sp2 hybridization and forms three sigma bonds with three neighbouring carbon atoms

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. undergoes sp2 hybridization and forms three sigma bonds with three neighboring carbon atoms.

Graphite

  • A carbon atom can bind up to 4 other atoms around it.
  • However, in Graphite, each carbon atom only bonds to 3 others around it. This means there is an electron spare that becomes 'delocalized'.
  • Graphite exists as sheets of hexagonal arrays of carbon. Each carbon atom in graphite thus has a trigonal planar geometry, which implies sp2 hybridization and forms three sigma bonds with three neighboring carbon atoms. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • This means that it is donated to form a common pool of electrons that can flow through the molecule carrying a charge and so conduct electricity.

Question 86

Which one of the following vitamins is synthesized in our own skin?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vitamin A

  2. BOption (b)

    Vitamin B

  3. COption (c)

    Vitamin C

  4. DOption (d)

    Vitamin D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Vitamin D

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Vitamin D.

Vitamin D

  • Vitamins are substances that your body must need to grow and develop normally.
  • The human body can make its own Vitamin D in the skin when exposed to the sun. Hence option 4 is correct.
  • Vitamin D plays a great role in fighting depression, healthy skin and weight management.
  • It is responsible for strong bones and teeth.
  • Vitamin D can be obtained from red meat, egg yolks and fatty fish like tuna and mackerel.
  • Vitamin D deficiency causes a disease called Rickets, which is a bone disorder.

Question 87

Which of the following is the SI unit of the thermal conductivity of a material?

  1. AOption (a)

    Wm-1K-1

  2. BOption (b)

    Wm/K

  3. COption (c)

    Wm-1/K-1

  4. DOption (d)

    Js-1m-1K

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Wm-1K-1

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Thermal Conductivity:

  • When one end of a metal rod is heated, heat flows by conduction from the hot end to the cold end. In this process, each cross-section of the rod receives some heat from the adjacent cross-section towards the hot end.
  • It is found that the amount of heat Q that flows from hot to cold face during steady-state is

⇒Q=KA(T1−T2)tx\Rightarrow Q = \frac{{KA\left( {{T_1} - {T_2}} \right)t}}{x}

Where K = Coefficient of thermal conductivity of the material.

  • The rate of conduction of heat energy is given by:

⇒dQt=KA(T1−T2)x=KAΔTx\Rightarrow \frac{{dQ}}{t} = \frac{{KA\left( {{T_1} - {T_2}} \right)}}{x} = KA\frac{{{\bf{\Delta }}T}}{x}

EXPLANATION:

  • The rate of conduction of heat energy is given by:

⇒dQt=KA(T1−T2)x=KAΔTx\Rightarrow \frac{{dQ}}{t} = \frac{{KA\left( {{T_1} - {T_2}} \right)}}{x} = KA\frac{{{\bf{\Delta }}T}}{x}

  • The coefficient of thermal conductivity of material will be:

⇒K=dQ×xt×A×ΔT\Rightarrow K = \frac{{dQ \times x}}{{t \times A \times {\rm{\Delta }}T}}

SI unit of Q = J/s = W, A = m2, x = m and ΔT = K

⇒K=dQ×xt×A×ΔT=J⋅msec⋅m2⋅K=Wm−1K−1\Rightarrow K = \frac{{dQ \times x}}{{t \times A \times {\rm{\Delta }}T}} = \frac{{J \cdot m}}{{sec \cdot {m^2} \cdot K}} = W{m^{ - 1}}{K^{ - 1}}

  • Therefore, the SI unit of the thermal conductivity is Wm-1K-1.

Question 88

Which of the following statements is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Conduction can easily occur in solids, less easily in liquids but hardly at all in gases

  2. BOption (b)

    Heat energy is carried by moving particles in a convection current

  3. COption (c)

    Heat energy is carried by electromagnetic waves

  4. DOption (d)

    The temperature at which a solid changes into a liquid is called the boiling point

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The temperature at which a solid changes into a liquid is called the boiling point

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The movement of energy from one place to another is called energy transfer.
  • Heat transfer mainly takes place due to temperature differences.
Three modes of Transmission of heat/heat flow
Sl. NoConductionConvectionRadiation
1Heat dissipates from one place to another by molecular vibrationHeat is transfer from one place to another by transfer of moleculesIt transfers heat in the form of electromagnetic wave
2Conduction is relevant to solid only.Convection happens in liquid or gasesIt can heat any form of material.
3Need medium to transfer heatNeed medium to transfer heatNo need of medium
4Good Conductor- The objects which transfer heat easily. Ex- metals, human body etc Bad Conductor- The objects which do not transfer heat easily. Ex- Wood, Air, etc. Thermal Insulator- No heat is transferred by any means. Ex- Abonite, asbestos etc.When molecules are heated they headed upward and upper molecules go downward and this cyclic process continues. Boiling of fluidHeat travels in terms of energy packets or waves The heat absorbed by the body gain energy Radiations of Sun
  • The melting point of any substance is the temperature at which the substance changes its phase from solid to liquid state.
  • For example: At 0℃ the ice melts and converted into water. So 0℃ is the melting point of water.
  • The boiling point of any substance is the temperature at which the substance changes its phase from liquid to gas state.
  • For example: At 100 °C the water converted into vapor. So 100 °C is the boiling point of the water.

EXPLANATION:

  • As there is no movement of particles in conduction, so it is most possessed by solid then by liquid and least by the gases. So statement 1 is correct.
  • In convection, there is a movement of particles to transfer heat. So statement 2 is correct.
  • In radiation, heat energy is generally carried by the electromagnetic wave. So statement 3 is correct.
  • The melting point of any substance is the temperature at which the substance changes its phase from solid to liquid state. So statement 4 is not correct.

Question 89

Which one of the following combinations of stalactites and stalagmites occurrences is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Stalactites hang as icicles of different diameters and stalagmites hang form the floor of the caves

  2. BOption (b)

    Stalactites hang as icicles of different diameters and stalagmites rise up from the floor of the caves 

  3. COption (c)

    Stalactites rise up from the floor of the caves and stalagmites hang as icicles of different diameters

  4. DOption (d)

    Stalactites hang as icicles of different diameters and stalagmites also hang as icicles of different diameter.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Stalactites hang as icicles of different diameters and stalagmites rise up from the floor of the caves 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2

Stalactite

  • A stalactite is an icicle-shaped formation that hangs from the roof of a cave and is produced by the water containing limestone in solution, seeps through the roof of the cave. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • Most stalactites have pointed tips.

Stalagmite

  • A stalagmite is an upward-growing mound of mineral deposits that have precipitated from water dripping onto the ground of a cave. If stalactites grow long enough to attach with stalagmites on the floor, they form a column. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • A stalagmite is thicker and flatter, rising upwards from the floor.
  • Most stalagmites have rounded or flattened tips.
  • The dominant mineral in such deposits is Calcite (calcium carbonate), and thus the most important displays are formed in caves of limestone and dolomite.

Question 90

Which one of the following is the correct sequence about various levels of organization of Biosphere?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ecosystem - Biosphere - Community - Population

  2. BOption (b)

    Population - Organism - Ecosystem - Biosphere

  3. COption (c)

    Organism - Community - Population - Biosphere

  4. DOption (d)

    Organism - Population - Ecosystem - Biosphere

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Organism - Population - Ecosystem - Biosphere

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Organism - Population - Ecosystem - Biosphere.

Level of organisation of the biosphere

  • Multiple organisms of the same group or species living in a given area together form a population.
  • An ecosystem includes all of the living things such as plants, animals and organisms in a given area, interacting with each other, and also with their non-living environments.
  • The biosphere is one of the four layers that surround the Earth along with the lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere and it is the sum of all the ecosystems.
  • Hence the correct sequence is Organism - Population - Ecosystem -Biosphere. Hence option 4 is correct

Question 91

Which of the following are the properties of an electron?

  1. Electron is a constituent of cathode ray

  2. Electron is a negatively charged particle

  3. The mass of the electron is equal to the mass of the proton

  4. Electron is deflected by the electric field but not by magnetic field

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only 

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    3 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 and 2 only 

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The electrons, protons and neutrons are three fundamental particles of an atom.
  • The electrons are negatively charged and protons are positively charged.
  • Neutrons are neutral.

EXPLANATION:

  • As the cathode rays are the stream of electrons. So an electron is a constituent of the cathode ray. Statement 1 is correct.
  • Since the electron is a negatively charged particle. So statement 2 is correct.

Mass of an electron = 9.1 × 10-31 kg

Mass of a proton = 1.67 × 10-27 kg

  • Since the mass of the electron is not equal to the mass of the proton. So statement 3 is wrong.
  • As electrons have a charge which can deflect in both electric as well as the magnetic field. So statement 4 is not correct.

Question 92

Carbon and energy requirements of autotrophic organisms are fulfilled by:

  1. AOption (a)

    Photosynthesis

  2. BOption (b)

    Gluconeogenesis

  3. COption (c)

    Glycogenesis

  4. DOption (d)

    External sources

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Photosynthesis

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Photosynthesis.

Autotroph

  • Autotrophic organisms are that prepare their own food.
  • The chloroplast helps in preparing food.
  • They obtain energy from inorganic sources by converting light energy into chemical energy.
  • Carbon and energy requirements of autotrophic organisms are fulfilled by photosynthesis.
  • It is a process in which autotrophic organisms utilize carbon dioxide and water in the presence of sunlight and chlorophyll to form carbohydrates, the energy source.
  • They are placed at the primary level in the food chain.
  • Green plants, algae and a few photosynthetic bacteria are examples of autotrophs.

Question 93

The resistance of a wire of length l and area of cross-section a is × ohm. If the wire is stretched to double its length, its resistance would become

  1. AOption (a)

    2 × ohm

  2. BOption (b)

    0.5 × ohm

  3. COption (c)

    4 × ohm

  4. DOption (d)

    6 × ohm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

4 × ohm

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The property by which an electric conductor opposes the flow of current through it is called the resistance of the conductor.
  • It is denoted by R.
  • The SI unit of resistance is Ohm (Ω).

Resistance;(R);=ρ;lA{\bf{Resistance}};\left( {\bf{R}} \right){\rm{;}} = \frac{{\rho ;l}}{A}

Where ρ is the resistivity of a conductor, l is the length of conductor and A is the cross-sectional area.

EXPLANATION:

  • When we stretch the wire then length increases but cross-sectional are decreases. But the total volume of the wire will remain constant. So we will write the formula of resistance in terms of volume (V).

Volume (V) = area (A) × length (l)

So A = V/l

Resistance;(R)=ρ;lA=ρ;lV/l=;ρ;l2V=x;{\rm{Resistance;}}\left( {\rm{R}} \right) = \frac{{\rho ;l}}{A} = \frac{{\rho ;l}}{{V/l}} = ;\frac{{\rho ;{l^2}}}{V} = x;

Now if length is doubled,

New length (l’) = 2l

New;Resistance;(R′)=ρ(2l)2V=4ρl2V=4;x{\rm{New;Resistance;}}\left( {R'} \right) = \frac{{\rho {{\left( {2l} \right)}^2}}}{V} = \frac{{4\rho {l^2}}}{V} = 4;x                   [As,;R=4ρl2V=x]\left[ {{\rm{As}},{\rm{;R}} = \frac{{4{\rm{\rho }}{{\rm{l}}^2}}}{{\rm{V}}} = {\rm{x}}} \right]

Question 94

Which one of the following describes the Lithosphere?

  1. AOption (a)

    Upper and lower mantle

  2. BOption (b)

    Crust and Upper mantle

  3. COption (c)

    Crust and core

  4. DOption (d)

    Mantle and core

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Crust and Upper mantle

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Crust and Upper mantle.

Lithosphere

  • The lithosphere, that is the rigid outer part of the earth with thickness varying between 10-200 km.
  • It includes the crust and the upper part of the mantle. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • The lithosphere is broken into tectonic plates (lithospheric plates), and therefore the movement of these tectonic plates cause large-scale changes within the earth’s geological structure (folding, faulting).
  • The source of heat that drives plate tectonics is that the primordial heat leftover from the planet’s formation also because the decay of uranium, thorium, and potassium in Earth’s crust and mantle.

Question 95

Which of the following statements regarding heavy water are correct?

  1. It is extensively used as a moderator in nuclear reactors
  2. It cannot be used in an exchange reaction to study the reaction mechanism
  3. The viscosity of heavy water is relatively smaller than of ordinary water
  4. The dielectric constant of heavy water is smaller than that of ordinary water 

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    3 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 4 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1 and 4 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4, i.e 1 and 4

Properties of heavy water

  • Heavy Water is also referred to as deuterium oxide and is denoted by the chemical formula D2O.
  • It is extensively used as a moderator in nuclear reactors. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • It can be used in an exchange reaction to study reaction mechanisms. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The viscosity of heavy water is relatively higher than that of ordinary water. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
  • The dielectric constant of deuterium oxide is smaller than that of ordinary. Hence statement 4 is correct.
  • It can be used as a tracer to study the mechanism of respiration, and photosynthesis.

Question 96

Conservation of momentum in a collision between particles can be understood on the basis of:

  1. AOption (a)

    Newton’s first law of motion

  2. BOption (b)

    Newton’s second law of motion

  3. COption (c)

    Both Newton’s second law of motion and Newton’s third law of motion

  4. DOption (d)

    Conservation of energy

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Both Newton’s second law of motion and Newton’s third law of motion

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Newton’s First law:

  • When a body is in state of rest then it will be in rest and when the body is moving then it will be moving until we apply an external force on it.
  • This property of resisting the change of state is called as the inertia of the body.

Newton’s Second law of motion:

  • The rate of change of momentum of any object is directly proportional to the applied force on the body.

Force;(F)=ΔPΔt{\rm{Force;}}\left( {\rm{F}} \right) = \frac{{{\rm{Δ }}P}}{{{\rm{Δ }}t}}

Where Δ P is Change in momentum and Δ t is the change in time taken

Δ P = P2 – P1

Where P2 is final momentum and P1 is the initial momentum of the system

Newton’s third law of motion:

  • For each action force, there is an equal and opposite force. In the case of collision, there is an equal and opposite force. So it also explains the conservation of momentum.

EXPLANATION:

  • When there is a collision between two particles then each particle applies equal and opposite force on each other. So there is no external force on the system.
  • According to momentum conservation, if there is no external force on the system then the final momentum of any system is equal to the initial momentum of the system.

According to Newton’s Second law of motion:

Force;(F)=ΔPΔt{\rm{Force;}}\left( {\rm{F}} \right) = \frac{{{\rm{Δ }}P}}{{{\rm{Δ }}t}}

Since no external force so F = 0

So, ΔP = F × Δt = 0

⇒ ΔP =0 

Change in momentum (ΔP) = P2 – P1 = 0

So P2 = P1

Hence final momentum is equal to initial momentum.

Question 97

Which one the following statements is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Temperatures decrease from the equator to poles

  2. BOption (b)

    Temperatures in equatorial regions change substantially form January to July

  3. COption (c)

    Large land masses located in the subartic and arctic zones develop center of extremely low temperatures in winter

  4. DOption (d)

    Highlands are always colder than surrounding low lands

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Temperatures in equatorial regions change substantially form January to July

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2.

Key Points

Latitudinal Heat Balance

  • The amount of insolation received varies from latitude to latitude.
  • Regions within the equator and 40° N and S latitudes receive abundant sunlight and hence more heat will be gained than lost. Hence they are energy surplus regions.
  • Regions beyond 40° N and S latitudes lose more heat than that gained from sunlight.
  • Due to the curvature of the earth, the amount of solar energy received varies according to latitude.
  • As a result, air temperature generally decreases from the equator towards the poles. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
  • As one goes from the surface of the earth to higher altitudes, the atmosphere becomes less dense, and temperature decreases. Hence Statement 4 is correct.
  • The Temperatures in equatorial regions change slightly from January to July. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The Large land masses located in the subarctic and arctic zones develop center of extremely low temperatures in winter. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • Thus the tropics mark the limit of the overhead of sun.

Question 98

To weld metals together, high temperature is required. Such a high temperature is obtained by burning:

  1. AOption (a)

    Acetylene in oxygen

  2. BOption (b)

    LPG in oxygen

  3. COption (c)

    Methane in oxygen

  4. DOption (d)

    Acetylene in nitrogen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Acetylene in oxygen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Acetylene in oxygen

Welding of metal

  • Oxy-fuel welding which is commonly called oxyacetylene welding or gas welding is the processes that use fuel gases and oxygen to weld the metals.
  • Acetylene is used to generate the light, to weld the metal.
  • Acetylene with oxygen is used to generate a high-temperature welding flame. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • The flame will only melt the metal.
  • A flux is used during welding to prevent oxidation and to remove impurities.
  • Metal size of 2 mm to 50 mm thick is welded by gas welding.

Question 99

Two forces, one of 3 N and another of 4 N are applied on a standard 1 kg body, placed on a horizontal and frictionless surface, simultaneously along the x-axis and the y-axis respectively as shown below:

The magnitude of the resultant acceleration is;

  1. AOption (a)

    7 m/s2

  2. BOption (b)

    1 m/s2

  3. COption (c)

    5 m/s2

  4. DOption (d)

    √7 m/s2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

5 m/s2

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Force:

  • The interaction which after applying on anybody changes or try to change the position of the body is called as force.
  • It is denoted by F.
  • SI unit of force is Newton (N).
  • The rate of change of velocity is called as acceleration of the body.
  • Acceleration is a vector quantity.

Force (F) = m × a

Where m is mass of the body and a is acceleration of the body.

If we have two vectors A⃗;and;B⃗\vec A;and;\vec B which are at angle θ to each other then the magnitude of the Resultant vector (R) is given by-

R=;A2+;B2+2AB;CosθR= {\rm{;}}\sqrt {{A^2} + ;{B^2} + 2AB;Cos\theta }

Where A is magnitude of vector A⃗\vec A and B is magnitude of B⃗\vec B and θ is angle between two vectors

EXPLANATION:

Given that;

Mass of the body (m) = 1 kg

Force in X-direction (FX) = 3 N

Acceleration in X- direction (aX) = FX/m = 3/1 = 3 m/s2

Force in Y-direction (FY) = 3 N

Acceleration in Y-direction (aY) = FY/m = 4/1 = 4 m/s2

Since both the x and y directions accelerations are perpendicular to each other. So angle between them is 90°.

θ = 90°

∴ The resultant acceleration is 

a=;ax2+ay2+2axayCosθ;=;32+42+2×3×4;Cos(90∘)a= {\rm{;}}\sqrt {{a_x}^2 + {a_y}^2 + 2{a_x}{a_y}Cos\theta ;} = ;\sqrt {{3^2} + {4^2} + 2 \times 3 \times 4;Cos\left( {90^\circ } \right)}

⇒a=9+16+0=25=5 \Rightarrow a = \sqrt {9 + 16 + 0} = \sqrt {25} = 5       [cos 90° = 0]

Resultant acceleration (a) = 5m/s2

Question 100

Magnetic meridian is an imaginary:

  1. AOption (a)

    line along north-south

  2. BOption (b)

    point

  3. COption (c)

    vertical plane

  4. DOption (d)

    horizontal plane

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

vertical plane

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is vertical plane.

Key Points

Magnetic meridian

  • The magnetic meridian of a place can be defined as the vertical plane which passes through the imaginary line joining the magnetic north and the south poles. Hence option 3 is correct.
  • This plane would intersect the surface of the earth in a longitude-like circle.
  • A magnetic needle, which is free to swing horizontally, would then lie in the magnetic meridian and the north pole of the needle would point towards the magnetic north pole.
  • Since the line joining the magnetic poles is titled with respect to the geographic axis of the earth, the magnetic meridian at a point makes an angle with the geographic meridian.
  • This is the angle between the true geographic north and the north shown by a compass needle. This angle is called the magnetic declination or simply declination.
  • The declination is greater at higher latitudes and smaller near the equator.

Question 101

An up fold in rock is:

  1. AOption (a)

    graben

  2. BOption (b)

    Horst 

  3. COption (c)

    anticline

  4. DOption (d)

    syncline

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

anticline

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Anticline.

Anticline

  • An anticline is an upward, curved fold in the layers of rock in the earth's surface. Hence option 3 is correct.
  • They form when rocks are compressed by plate-tectonic forces.
  • They can be as small as a hill or as large as a mountain range.
  • The top of the arch is called the crest of the anticline.
  • In an anticline, the oldest rocks are at its core or centre.

Question 102

Which one of the following gases is found in highest quantity in exosphere?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hydrogen

  2. BOption (b)

    Helium

  3. COption (c)

    Nitrogen

  4. DOption (d)

    Oxygen

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Hydrogen

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Hydrogen.

Key Points

  • Exosphere
  • The exosphere is the uppermost region of Earth's atmosphere as it gradually fades into the vacuum of space.
  • It starts at an altitude of about 500 km and goes out to about 10,000 km.
  • The most abundantly found gas in the exosphere is Hydrogen with some Helium, Carbon dioxide, and Atomic Oxygen near its base.
  • The temperature gradually increases through the layer.
  • This layer coincides with space.

Question 103

In blood, platelets are required for:

  1. AOption (a)

    transporting oxygen

  2. BOption (b)

    transporting carbon dioxide

  3. COption (c)

    initiating blood clotting

  4. DOption (d)

    initiating degradation of urea

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

initiating blood clotting

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. initiating blood clotting.

Blood Platelets

  • Platelets are tiny cell fragments that circulate through our bloodstream.
  • Their role is to help stop bleeding when there is an injury to our body by initiating blood clotting. Hence option 3 is correct.
  • Any damage within the blood vessels sends signals to the platelets.
  • The platelets rush to the location of the injury and form clots to repair the damage.
  • They are formed in the bone marrow and are neither smooth nor round, but are shaped more like paper that has been ripped into tiny bits.

Question 104

In SI unit of force Newton (N) is given by (where m stands for metre and s stand for second)

  1. AOption (a)

    1 N = 1 kg/ms2

  2. BOption (b)

    1N = 1 kg m/s2

  3. COption (c)

    1 N = 1 kg s2/m

  4. DOption (d)

    1N = 1 kg m s2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1N = 1 kg m/s2

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Force:

  • The interaction which after applying on anybody changes or try to change the position of the body is called as force.
  • It is denoted by F.
  • SI unit of force is Newton (N).

Force (F) = m × a

Where m is mass of the body and a is acceleration of the body.

EXPLANATION:

As force (F) = m a

SI unit of force = SI unit of mass × SI unit of acceleration = kg × m/s2

∴ SI unit of force is kg m/s2 or Newton 

Hence 1 N = 1 kg m/s2

  • Relation between dyne and newton is 1 dyne = 10-5 Newton ⇒ = 10-5 kg m/s2.

Question 105

The acceleration due to gravity g for objects on or near the surface of earth is related to the universal gravitational constant G as (M is mass of earth and R is radius of earth)

  1. AOption (a)

    G = gMR2g\frac{M}{{{R^2}}}

  2. BOption (b)

    g = GMR2G\frac{M}{{{R^2}}}

  3. COption (c)

    M = g;GR2\frac{{g;G}}{{{R^2}}}

  4. DOption (d)

    R = g;GM2\frac{{g;G}}{{{M^2}}}

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

g = GMR2G\frac{M}{{{R^2}}}

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Acceleration due to gravity (g): The force of attraction exerted by the earth on a body is called gravitational pull or gravity. We know that when a force acts on a body, it produces acceleration. Therefore, a body under the effect of gravitational pull must accelerate.
  • For example: When we throw a ball in air then it comes back due to gravitational force of earth on the ball.

EXPLANATION:

Acceleration due to gravity (g):

  • The acceleration achieved by any object due to the gravitational force of attraction by the earth is called acceleration due to gravity by the earth.
  • As each planet has different mass and radius so the acceleration due to gravity will be different for different planet.

Acceleration due to gravity of the Earth having mass M and radius R is given by:

g = GMR2G\frac{M}{{{R^2}}}

Where G is Universal gravitational constant.

Question 106

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Low-Latitude Climate)List I (Characteristic)
A. Wet Equatorial1. Uniform temperatures, mean near 27°C
B. Monsoon and trade wind coastal2. Marked temperature cycle with very high temperature before the rainy season
C. Wet-dry tropical3. Temperatures show an annual cycle with a high temperature in the high-Sun season Strong temperature cycle. with intense temperature during the high-Sun season
D. Dry tropical4. Strong temperature cycle, with intense temperature during the high-Sun season
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 2, B - 3,  C- 4, D - 1

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4

  3. COption (c)

    A - 2, B - 4, C - 3, D - 1

  4. DOption (d)

    A -1, B - 3, C - 2, D - 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4.

Key Points

Wet Equatorial climate

  • The equatorial, hot, wet climate is found between 50 and 100 north and south of the equator.
  • Its greatest extent is found in the lowlands of the Amazon, the Congo, Malaysia, and therefore the East Indies.
  • The most outstanding feature of the equatorial climate is its great uniformity of temperature throughout the year.
  • The mean monthly temperatures are always around 27°C with very little or no variation.
  • There is no winter. Cloudiness and heavy precipitation moderates the daily temperature, so that even at the equator itself, the climate is not unbearable.
  • Precipitation is heavy, between 60 inches and 100 inches, and well distributed throughout the year. There is no month without rain.
  • It supports a luxuriant type of vegetation like the tropical rainforest.

Monsoon and trade wind coastal climate

  • It is found in the zones between 5° and 30° latitudes on either side of the equator.
  • These areas are the tropical monsoon lands with on-shore wet monsoons within the summer and off-shore dry monsoons in the winter.
  • They are best developed in the Indian sub-continent, Burma, Thailand, Laos, Cambodia, parts of Vietnam and south China, and northern Australia.
  • Markedtemperature cycle with very high temperature before the rainy season.
  • The mean temperature of the month is above 180 Celcius, in summer 300-450 Celcius, and in winter 150 - 300 Celcius.
  • The annual mean rainfall is 200- 250 cm.

Wet-dry Tropical climate

  • The Tropical Wet/Dry climate is the driest of the tropical wet climates.
  • Like the monsoon climate, it has a distinct seasonality to its precipitation.
  • However, its wet season is much shorter and receives far less precipitation than the monsoon climate.
  • Temperatures in tropical wet-dry climate regions are high throughout the year but show a greater range than wet equatorial (Af) and Am climates i.e. 190–200 C in winter and 240–270 C in summer.
  • Temperatures show an annual cycle with a high temperature in the high-Sun season Strong temperature cycle, with intense temperature during the high-Sun season.
  • It is also known as the "Savanna" climate, it supports a ground cover of drought-resistant grasses with scattered trees, but not enough rainfall to make agriculture a viable, life-sustaining activity.

Dry Tropical climate

  • Dry Tropical climates (Deserts) are regions of scanty rainfall which may be hot like the hot deserts of the Saharan type or temperate as are the mid-latitude deserts like the Gobi.
  • The major hot deserts of the world are located on the western coasts of continents between latitudes 15º and 30ºN and S.
  • Hot and Dry Deserts temperature ranges from 200 C to 250 C.
  • The extreme maximum temperature for hot desert ranges from 430 C to 490C and cold deserts temperature in winter ranges from -20 C to 40 C and in the summer 210 C to 260 C a year.
  • It has a strong temperature cycle, with intense temperature during the high-Sun season.
  • Hot and Dry Deserts usually have very little rainfall in short periods between long rainless periods.

Question 107

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Element)List II (Use)
A. Li1. Timekeeper in atomic clocks
B. Na2. Batteries
C. K3. Transfer of nerve impulses
D. Cs4. Control of the water content in the blood
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4

  3. COption (c)

    A - 2, B - 4, C - 3, D - 1

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 1, B - 3, C - 2, D - 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A - 2, B - 4, C - 3, D - 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3, i.e A - 2, B - 4, C - 3, D - 1.

Key Points

Some important elements and their use

  • Helium (He2): The primary use of Helium goes in altitude research and meteorological balloons, as a protective gas in autogenous welding, cryogenics, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and superconducting magnets.
  • Lithium (Li3): Lithium is found only in salts and minerals, The lithium-ion battery is a key component that is used in many digital devices.
  • Sodium (Na11): It is used in improving the structure of certain alloys; soaps, purification of molten metals and in sodium vapour lamps, sodium chloride as salt**, it also controls the water content in the blood.**
  • Silicon (Si14): Being a semiconductor, Silicon is widely used in computer chips and solar cells.
  • Potassium (K19): Salts as a constituent of fertilizer, it is one of the essential nutrients that transfer of nerve impulses to the brain in the human body, Potassium chloride is used in injections and Potash can be used to make glass and soap.
  • Caesium (Cs55): extensively used in the extractive oil industry, used in thermionic generators and it is used in the manufacturing of the most accurate atomic clock, called as caesium clock.

Question 108

Which one of the following is NOT a site of action in human body for the malarial parasite Plasmodium?

  1. AOption (a)

    Liver

  2. BOption (b)

    Kidney

  3. COption (c)

    Red blood cell

  4. DOption (d)

    Brain

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Brain

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Brain.

Malarial parasite plasmodium

  • The malarial Plasmodium parasite has a two-host life cycle, first in a vector (mosquito) and other in a human host.
  • The cycle begins when a female mosquito bites a human.
  • The parasite is transferred through the mosquito saliva to the human host.
  • After infecting, the parasites in sporozoites form travel through the bloodstream to the liver and invade liver cells. Hence option 1 and 3 are correct.
  • Later, the sporozoites grow, divide and produce thousands of merozoites per liver cell.
  • The merozoites leave the liver and reenter the bloodstream where they invade red blood cells to feed on haemoglobin.
  • The merozoites multiply inside the red blood cells.
  • The red blood cells eventually break open and merozoites affect more red blood cells.
  • In severe cases, the infected blood travels to the kidney and affect kidneys and may result in renal failure. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • Malaria parasites do not infiltrate and infect the brain parenchyma. Hence option 4 is incorrect.

Question 109

The loudness of sound is related to:

  1. AOption (a)

    Its frequency

  2. BOption (b)

    Its amplitude

  3. COption (c)

    Its speed

  4. DOption (d)

    Its pitch

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Its amplitude

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Sound waves are longitudinal mechanical waves and frequency can be defined as the number of wave cycle happening in one sec.
  • The maximum amount of displacement of medium particles from its mean position is called amplitude of the wave.
  • The response of ear to the frequency of sound is called as the pitch of the sound.
  • The phenomenon of sound waves that depend on the amplitude and energy of the sound wave is called as Loudness.
  • When the amplitude of the sound is large, then the sound wave is considered to be loud

EXPLANATION:

  • As the loudness of the sound depends on amplitude of the sound waves**.** So option 2 is correct**.**

Question 110

The wavelength of X-rays is of the order of

  1. AOption (a)

    1 A

  2. BOption (b)

     1 μm

  3. COption (c)

    1 mm

  4. DOption (d)

    1 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 A

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The wave which is generated due to vibration between electric field and magnetic field and it does not need any medium to travel is called an electromagnetic wave.
  • It can travel through a vacuum.
  • X –rays are a type of electromagnetic wave which can’t be seen with naked eyes.

EXPLANATION:

  • X-rays are a part of an electromagnetic wave whose wavelength is of the order of 1 Angstrom (A).

1 A = 10-10 m

Question 111

Which one of the following pairs of properties of typical air masses is correct?

Air MassSource Region
A. Maritime EquatorialWarm oceans in the equatorial zone
B. Maritime PolarWarm oceans in the tropical zone
C. Continental TropicalLess warm oceans in the tropical zone
D. Continental PolarMoist oceans in the polar zone
  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is: A) Maritime Equatorial – Warm oceans in the equatorial zone

Key Points

  • Maritime Equatorial – Warm oceans in the equatorial zone
  • Correct: Maritime Equatorial air masses originate over warm equatorial oceans.
  • They are characterized by very high temperatures and extremely high humidity.
  • These air masses are responsible for heavy convectional rainfall, thunderstorms, and persistent cloud cover in equatorial regions.
  • Maritime Polar – Warm oceans in the tropical zone
  • Incorrect: Maritime Polar air masses do not form over warm tropical oceans.
  • They originate over cold or cool oceans of high-latitude and polar regions.
  • These air masses are cool and moist, often bringing cloudy, foggy, and rainy weather.
  • Continental Tropical – Less warm oceans in the tropical zone
  • Incorrect: Continental Tropical air masses do not originate over oceans.
  • They develop over hot tropical landmasses, particularly deserts.
  • They are intensely hot and dry, contributing to heat waves and dry weather conditions.
  • Continental Polar – Moist oceans in the polar zone
  • Incorrect: Continental Polar air masses are not associated with moist oceans.
  • They originate over cold continental interiors in high-latitude regions.
  • These air masses are cold and dry, producing clear skies and severe cold conditions.

Additional Information

  • The term maritime indicates moisture-rich air masses formed over oceans, while continental refers to dry air masses formed over land.
  • Temperature characteristics such as equatorial, tropical, and polar depend on the latitude of the source region.
  • Correct identification of air mass–source region pairs is essential for understanding monsoons, cyclones, rainfall patterns, and seasonal weather variations.

Important Points

  • Air masses inherit both temperature and moisture properties from their source regions.
  • Equatorial air masses are always associated with high humidity and heavy rainfall.
  • Errors in air mass–source region matching often arise from confusion between land-based and ocean-based origins.
  • This concept is frequently tested in climatology and physical geography examinations.

Question 112

The symbol of the element 'Tungsten' is:

  1. AOption (a)

    Ta

  2. BOption (b)

    W

  3. COption (c)

    Tl

  4. DOption (d)

    Tc

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

W

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. W.

Tungsten

  • Tungsten is a chemical element with atomic number 74 and symbol W. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • It was discovered by Fausto and Juan Jose de Elhuyar in 1783.
  • It is known as one of the toughest things found in nature.
  • It is super dense and almost impossible to melt.
  • Its two main oxidation states are +4 & +6 and five stable isotopes.
  • Tungsten is an economically important metal, being widely utilized in light-bulb filaments, electron and television tubes, abrasives, and special alloys such as steels tool.

Question 113

In Egypt, ancient mummies can be found to have their arteries intact due to well preserved:

  1. AOption (a)

    mineralized blood

  2. BOption (b)

    fibroblasts fibre

  3. COption (c)

    elastic fibre

  4. DOption (d)

    brown fat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

elastic fibre

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. elastic fibre.

Mummification

  • The earliest ancient Egyptians buried their dead in small pits in the desert.
  • Over many centuries, the ancient Egyptians developed a method of preserving bodies so they would remain lifelike.
  • The process included embalming the bodies and wrapping them in strips of linen, we call this process as Mummification.
  • Linen is a textile made from the elastic fibers of the flax plant. Hence option 3 is correct.
  • Linen is very strong and absorbent, and dries faster than cotton.

Question 114

Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The image formed by a concave mirror for an object lying at infinity is at the principle focus, highly diminished, real and inverted

  2. BOption (b)

    A ray of light parallel to the principle axis after reflection from a concave mirror appears to diverge from the principle focus of the mirror

  3. COption (c)

    The focal length of a spherical mirror is double of its radius of curvature 

  4. DOption (d)

    A ray of light travelling from a rarer medium to a denser medium bends away from the normal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The image formed by a concave mirror for an object lying at infinity is at the principle focus, highly diminished, real and inverted

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to speed of light in a medium is called the refractive index of that medium. It is also called an absolute refractive index.
  • The medium having less refractive index compared to other medium, then this medium of less refractive index is called as rarer medium and another medium is called a denser medium.

Refractive;index;(μ)=;Speed;of;light;in;vaccum(C)Speed;of;light;in;a;medium(v){\rm{Refractive;index;}}\left( \mu \right) = {\rm{;}}\frac{{Speed;of;light;in;vaccum\left( C \right)}}{{Speed;of;light;in;a;medium\left( v \right)}}

  • The spherical mirror having a reflecting surface in inward polished is called a concave mirror.
  • The focal length of the lens is half of the radius of the curvature of the mirror.

Focal length (f) = R/2

Where R is the radius of curvature of the concave mirror

Explanation:

  • When the object is at infinity then the image formed by the concave mirror is at the focus of the mirror which real, diminished and inverted. So statement 1 is correct.
  • When the parallel rays fall on the concave mirror then it converges to focus of the mirror (not diverge). So statement 2 is wrong.
  • The focal length of the mirror is half of the radius of curvature. So statement 3 is wrong.

Focal length (f) = R/2

  • When a light ray goes from rare medium to denser medium then due to less more refractive index, the light rays bend towards the normal. So statement 4 is wrong.

Question 115

Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment led to the discovery of electron

  2. BOption (b)

    J J Thomson suggested that the nucleus of an atom contains protons

  3. COption (c)

    The atomic number of an electron of an element is the same as the number of protons of its atom

  4. DOption (d)

    The mass number of an atom is equal to the number of electrons in its shells

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The atomic number of an electron of an element is the same as the number of protons of its atom

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Rutherford Alpha –scattering:

  • According to this model; when some alpha particles are bombarded on a gold foil, then some of the alpha particles are deviated by its path. This deviation is due to the nucleolus of the atom.
  • The atom (Rutherford atom) has most of the mass and all of the positive electric charges concentrated at a center or nucleus.

J J Thomson model:

  • According to this model; an atom resembles a sphere of positively charged particles with electrons (negatively charged particles) present inside the sphere.
  • It doesn’t identify the nucleus.

EXPLANATION:

  • The Rutherford model basically led to the discovery of the nucleus. So statement 1 is wrong.
  • J J Thomson suggested that an atom resembles a sphere of positively charged particles with electrons (negatively charged particles) present inside the sphere. So statement 2 is wrong.
  • The atomic number (Z) of an atom is equal to the number of protons (P) in that atom. So statement 3 is correct.
  • Mass number is equal to the sum of the number of protons and the number of neutron. So statement 4 is wrong.
  • Mass number (A) = number of protons (p) + number of neutron (n)

Question 116

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Application of lime makes the soil acidic

  2. BOption (b)

    High acidity in soil is typical of humid climate

  3. COption (c)

    Increasing soil acidity results in declining soil fertility

  4. DOption (d)

    Arid climate is characterized by alkaline soil

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Application of lime makes the soil acidic

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Application of lime makes the soil acidic.

Arid Soil

  • Arid soils are characteristically developed in western Rajasthan, which exhibits characteristic arid topography.
  • Arid soils range from red to brown in color.
  • They are generally sandy to gravelly (lime ) in texture and have a high percentage of soluble salts (alkaline). Hence option 4 is correct.
  • These are saline in nature. In some areas, the salt content is so high that common salt is obtained by evaporating the saline water.
  • Due to the dry climate, heat or high temperature and accelerated evaporation, they lack moisture and humus.
  • These soils are deficient in nitrogen and humus.
  • The phosphate and iron content is normal.
  • These soils are rich in minerals but the main limitation is the lack of water.
  • Lime increases the pH of the soil and reduced the Acidity of the soil. Hence option 1 is incorrect.

Peaty soil

  • These soils are locally called Kari in Kottayam and Alleppey districts of Kerala.
  • These are marshy soils and are a result of waterlogging and anaerobic conditions which leads to partial decomposition of organic matter.
  • They are found within the areas of heavy rainfall and high humidity, where there is a good growth of vegetation. It occurs widely in the northern part of Bihar, the southern part of Uttaranchal and the coastal areas of West Bengal, Orissa and Tamil Nadu.
  • These soils are normally heavy and black in colour
  • These soils are characterised by rich humus and organic content.
  • these soils are generally acidic in nature.
  • High acidity in the soil is typical of humid climate. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • Increasing soil acidity results in declining soil fertility. Hence option 3 is correct.

Question 117

The alkali metals have relatively low melting point. Which one of the following alkali metals is expected to have the highest melting point?

  1. AOption (a)

    Li

  2. BOption (b)

    Na

  3. COption (c)

    K

  4. DOption (d)

    Rb

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Li

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Li.

Alkali metals

  • Alkali metals belong to the s-block elements occupying the leftmost side of the periodic table.
  • Alkali metals readily lose electrons, making them the most reactive elements on earth.
  • In general ‘alkali’ refers to the basic or alkaline nature of their metal hydroxides.
  • The compounds are called alkali metals because when they react with water they usually form alkalies which are strong bases that can easily neutralize the strong acids.
  • Alkali metals have a Noble gas electronic configuration (ns1).
  • They occupy the first column of the periodic table.
  • Alkali elements are Lithium(Li), Sodium(Na), Potassium (K), Rubidium (Ru), Cesium (Cs), and Francium (Fr).
  • The electronegativities decrease from Lithium to Caesium.
  • Alkali metals are all highly reactive and are never found in elemental forms in nature.
  • They are usually stored immersed in mineral oil or kerosene (paraffin oil) because of their highly reactive nature.
  • They have low melting points and densities.
  • Both the melting and boiling points decrease down the group and therefore the Li has the highest and Fr has the lowest melting point.
  • They react with halogens and make salts, for example, NaCl (table salt).
  • They react with water and make Hydroxides for example NaOH.​

Question 118

Which one of the following is useful in paper manufacturing industry?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fibrous plants

  2. BOption (b)

    Orchids

  3. COption (c)

    Non-flowering plants

  4. DOption (d)

    Plants growing in high altitude 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Fibrous plants

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Fibrous plants.

​Fibrous plants

  • Fibrous plants are also called as the natural fibres as they are obtained naturally and directly from the different sources of the plant.
  • These fibrous plants are very high in its length, width, tenacity, uniformity, spinning pliability and flexibility.
  • The different sources of plant fibres are- cotton, jute, coir, hemp and the flax.
  • The natural fibres obtained from the fibrous plants were used in the manufacturing of cloth, paper and ropes, etc. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • The fibrous plants were the source of these natural fibres in the manufacturing industries.
  • These fibres are very strong due to the presence of cellulose.

Question 119

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    In steady flow of a liquid, the velocity of liquid particles reaching at a particular points is the same path at all points

  2. BOption (b)

    Steady flow is also called streamlined flow

  3. COption (c)

    In steady flow, each particle may not follow the same path as taken by a previous particle passing through that point

  4. DOption (d)

    Two streamlines cannot intersect each other

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

In steady flow, each particle may not follow the same path as taken by a previous particle passing through that point

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Steady flow: The types of fluid flown in which all conditions at any points remain constant with respect to time are called steady flow. It is also called streamline flow. 

  • The types of fluid flown in which all the layer of the fluid flowing at any cross-section flow on a single line is called a streamline flow.

  • The two layers of the streamlines never intersect with each other.

EXPLANATION:

  • In steady flow, the liquid velocity at any particular point is the same. So statement 1 is correct.
  • In steady flow, the two layers can't mix and each particle follows the same path as taken by a previous particle passing through that point. So statement 3 is incorrect.
  • Steady flow is also called streamlined flow. So statement 2 is correct.
  • The two streamline flow can’t cross each other. Statement 4 is correct.

Question 120

According to the Geo-scientists, the shape of the earth is:

  1. Round
  2. Spherical
  3. Close to that of a sphere
  4. An oblate ellipsoid

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    2, 3 and 4

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 2 only

  4. DOption (d)

    3 and 4 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

3 and 4 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 3 and 4.

Shape of the Earth

  • Earth is the third planet from the Sun.
  • It's the only planet known to have an atmosphere containing free oxygen, oceans of water on its surface and, of course, life.
  • The Earth is the fifth largest planet in the Earth Sun’s family.
  • The Earth’s shape is often described by Geo- Scientists as "Geoid", which literally means ‘Earth shaped’, or ‘Oblate spheroid because **its spin causes it to be squashed at its poles and swollen at the equator, **sometimes described as a close to Sphere or Spherical shape.

Question 121

The word 'Secular' was inserted into the Constitution of India by:

  1. AOption (a)

    44th Amendment Act

  2. BOption (b)

    52nd Amendment Act

  3. COption (c)

    42nd Amendment Act

  4. DOption (d)

    34th Amendment Act

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

42nd Amendment Act

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. 42nd Amendment Act.

42nd Amendment Act

  • 42nd constitutional Amendment Act was enacted in the year 1976.
  • It is also referred to as mini constitution as it is the most comprehensive amendment to the Constitution and it  carried out major changes.
  • It amended the Preamble to add the words socialist, secular and integrity. Hence option 3 is correct.
  • It attempted to reduce the power of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
  • It laid down Fundamental Duties for citizens.

Question 122

Which one of the following is NOT correct in the context of balance of payments of India during 2013-2014?

  1. AOption (a)

    India's exports were less than its imports

  2. BOption (b)

    Trade balance was negative

  3. COption (c)

    Net invisibles were positive

  4. DOption (d)

    Capital account balance was negative

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Capital account balance was negative

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Capital account balance was negative.

Balance of Payment

  • Balance of Payment is a broader Concept.
  • It includes the sum of both Capital and Current account put together.
  • It includes all international transactions between a domestic country and the rest of the World.
  • It includes items of goods account, services account, unilateral transfers and capital accounts.
  • India’s balance-of-payments (BoP) position improved dramatically in 2013-14.
  • Current account deficit (CAD) declined sharply from a record high of US88.2billionthatis4.7percentofgrossdomesticproduct(GDP)in2012−13toUS 88.2 billion that is 4.7 per cent of gross domestic product (GDP) in 2012-13 to US 32.4 billion that is 1.7 per cent of GDP in 2013-14.
  • The trade deficit (exports were less than its imports) during March 2014 at $10.5 billion was marginally higher than last year.
  • When exports are less than imports, the net exports figure or trade balance is negative.
  • There is a rise in net Invisibles receipts during 2013-14.
  • The capital account balance was declined but not negative in 2013-14. Hence option 4 is incorrect.

Question 123

Which one of the following continents accounts for the maximum share in exports from India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Asia

  2. BOption (b)

    Europe

  3. COption (c)

    Africa

  4. DOption (d)

    North America

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Asia

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Asia.

India's Export share

  • India is a South Asian nation that shares land borders with China, Nepal and Bhutan to its north-east, Burma and Bangladesh to its east, and Pakistan to its west.
  • India exported US$322.8 billion worth of goods around the globe in 2019 that reflects a 22.3% gain from 2018 to 2019.
  • According to the continental share, almost half (47.8%) of India’s exports by value were delivered to fellow Asian countries while 19.3% were sold to European importers. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • India exported another 18.8% worth of goods to North America.
  • A smaller percentage went to Africa (9.1%), Latin America excluding Mexico but including the Caribbean (3%), and Oceania led by Australia (1.1%).

Question 124

The two provisions of the Constitution of India that most clearly express the power of judicial review are:

  1. AOption (a)

    Article 21 and Article 446

  2. BOption (b)

    Article 32 and Article 226

  3. COption (c)

    Article 44 and Article 152

  4. DOption (d)

    Article 17 and Article 143

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Article 32 and Article 226

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Article 32 and Article 226.

Judicial review 

  • Judicial Review refers to the power of the Judiciary to review and determine the validity of a Law or rationality of an Order.
  • It is defined as the doctrine under which executive and legislative actions are reviewed by the judiciary.
  • Article 13(2) of the Constitution of India directed that the Union or the States shall not make any law that takes away or abridges any of the fundamental rights, and any law made in contravention of the aforementioned mandate shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void.
  1. Judicial review is called upon to ensure and protect Fundamental right which is guaranteed in Part III of the Constitution.
  2. The power of the Supreme court of India to enforce these Rights is obtained from Article 32 of the Constitution. This provides citizens with the right to directly approach the SC to seek remedies against the violation of Fundamental Rights.
  3. The power of the High court of India to enforce these Rights is obtained from Article 226 of the Constitution. This provides citizens with the right to directly approach the HC to seek remedies against the violation of Fundamental Rights but limited to it.
  • The Court, therefore, has established the foundational principles for the exercise of its judicial review jurisdiction traceable to Articles 13, 32, 136, 142, 147 and 226 of the Constitution. Hence option 2 is correct.

Question 125

Which one of the following statements about Subsidiary Alliance devised by Lord Wellesley in the year 1798 is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The territories entering into a subsidiary alliance with the British were responsible for own internal and external protection.

  2. BOption (b)

    In the territory of the ally, a British armed contingent would be stationed

  3. COption (c)

    The ally would have to provide the resources for maintaining the British contingent in the territory

  4. DOption (d)

    The permission of the British was needed for the ally to enter into agreements with other rulers.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The territories entering into a subsidiary alliance with the British were responsible for own internal and external protection.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1.

 Key PointsSubsidiary Alliance

  • Subsidiary Alliance was basically a treaty between the British East India Company and therefore the Indian princely states, by virtue of which the Indian kingdoms lost their sovereignty to the English.
  • It was framed by Lord Wellesley, the Governor-General of India.
  • The terms of the subsidiary Alliance as
  1. Indian princely states would disband his armed forces and accept British forces in his territory
  2. In return, the British would protect the Indian state against any foreign attack or internal revolt. Hence option 1 is incorrect.
  3. They would allow the stationing of the British contingent in his Kingdom. Hence option 2 is correct.
  4. The ally would have to provide the resources for maintaining the British contingent in the territory. Hence option 3 is correct.
  5. They would carry on his administration with the advice of the British president.
  6. The British promised non-interference in internal affairs of the Indian state but this was rarely kept.
  7. The permission of the British was needed for the ally to enter into agreements with other rulers or any other foreign power. Hence option 4 is correct.

Sequence of key states that joined the Subsidiary Alliance:

  • Hyderabad (1798 & 1800): The Nizam of Hyderabad was the first to enter the Subsidiary Alliance in 1798. He reaffirmed the alliance in 1800.
  • Mysore (1799): After the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War and the death of Tipu Sultan, Mysore was placed under the Subsidiary Alliance in 1799.
  • Tanjore (1799): The Maratha ruler of Tanjore accepted the Subsidiary Alliance in the same year.
  • Awadh (1801): The Nawab of Awadh joined the Subsidiary Alliance in 1801, after ceding a large part of his territory to the British.
  • Peshwa (Marathas) (1802): The Peshwa of the Maratha Empire, Baji Rao II, signed the Treaty of Bassein in 1802, bringing the Marathas under the Subsidiary Alliance.
  • Scindia (1803): The Scindia rulers of Gwalior were the next to accept the alliance after their defeat in the Second Anglo-Maratha War.
  • Rajput States (1803-1818): Various Rajput states, including Jaipur, Jodhpur, and others, gradually accepted the alliance throughout this period.
  • Bhonsle (Nagpur) (1803): The ruler of Nagpur signed the Subsidiary Alliance in 1803.
  • Holkar (Indore) (1818): After their defeat in the Third Anglo-Maratha War, the Holkars of Indore entered the alliance in 1818.
  • Punjab (1846): Following the First Anglo-Sikh War, the Kingdom of Punjab accepted British suzerainty, which was effectively similar to the Subsidiary Alliance's terms.

Question 126

Who among the following was associated with the Mughal Court as a physician to Prince Dara Shikoh?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hakim Afzal Khan

  2. BOption (b)

    Ibn Batturt

  3. COption (c)

    Francois Bernier

  4. DOption (d)

    Duarte Barbosa

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Francois Bernier

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Francois Bernier.

Key Points

Francois Bernier (1656 A.D. – 1717 A.D.)

  • He was a French physician and traveller.
  • Francois Bernier was briefly personal physician to Mughal prince Dara Shikoh and later on to the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb. Hence option 3 is correct.
  • "Travels in the Mughal Empire" was written by Francois Bernier.
  • The book mainly talks about the rules of Dara Shikoh and Aurangzeb.
  • He wrote in the book that there was no private property in land in Mughal India.

Question 127

During the Eleventh Five Year Plan (FYP), the agriculture sector in India witnessed a growth rate of 3.3 per cent annum which is higher than 2.4 per cent per annum in the previous FYP. This is largely due to better performance of:

  1. AOption (a)

    Crops and Livestock

  2. BOption (b)

    Oilseeds and Fibres

  3. COption (c)

    Fishing and Oilseeds

  4. DOption (d)

    Fibres and Fishing

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Crops and Livestock

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Crops and Livestock.

Five Year Plan (FYP)

  • The Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950.
  • Subsequently, Planning Commis­sion was set up on 15 March 1950 and therefore the plan era started from 1 April 1951 with the launch­ing of the First Five Year Plan (1951-56)
  • Five-year plan (FYP) has focused to encompass 4% growth in agriculture.
  • Eleventh Five Year Plan (2007-2012) has emphasized on agriculture and rural development.
  • Many policy measures have been initiated to address the issues of agrarian distress.
  • During the Eleventh FYP, the agriculture sector in India grew at a rate of 3.3% annum which is higher than 2.4% per annum in the 10th Five Year Plan.
  • This is largely due to the better performance of crops and livestock. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • Special programs like National Food Security Mission and Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) improved the growth rate.

Question 128

An emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India can declared only during:

  1. AOption (a)

    War, external aggression or internal disturbance.

  2. BOption (b)

    War, external aggression or armed rebellion.

  3. COption (c)

    Failure of constitutions Machine in the State.

  4. DOption (d)

    Financial instability in the country.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

War, external aggression or armed rebellion.

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. War, external aggression or armed rebellion.

Key Points

  • Constitutional provision under Article 352-
  • Constitution employs expression 'proclamation of emergency' to denote emergency instead of national emergency.
  • President declare same when security of Indiad threatened by —
  • War and External Aggression = External Emergency
  • Armed Rebellion = Internal Emergency.

National Emergency (Article 352)

  • Part XVIII (Article 352 - Article 360) of the Indian constitution deals with emergency provisions.
  • Article 352 says that if the president is satisfied that a grave emergency exists whereby the safety and security of India or a part of the territory of India are threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion, he may proclaim an emergency. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • The proclamation of a war emergency cannot be made by the president unless the Union cabinet gives him in writing that such proclamation should be made.
  • If a proclamation is NOT revoked subsequently, it should be laid before the parliament. Both the houses of parliament must approve such proclamation within two months. If the parliament does not approve the proclamation, it will become ineffective.

Question 129

Which of the following statements about the Livestock sector in India is/are correct?

  1. Livestock contributed about 25 per cent of gross value added in agriculture.
  2. It provides self-employment to a large segment of the population
  3. The rapid growth of the livestock sector can be egalitarian inclusive

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4, i.e 1, 2 and 3.

The livestock sector in India

  • Livestock sector includes animal husbandry, dairy and fisheries sector.
  • In India, it provides self-employment to a large segment of the population. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • About 8.8% of the population is into the livestock sector in India because India has vast livestock resources.
  • It contributed about 4% of GDP and about 25% of gross value added in agriculture. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • India is the World’s highest livestock owner.
  • The rapid growth of the livestock sector can be egalitarian and inclusive. Hence option 3 is correct.

Question 130

Which one of the following statements about Khilafat Movement is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Khilafat Movement demanded that the Khalifa must retain control over Muslim holy places

  2. BOption (b)

    The radical trend in the Khilafat Movement was represented by younger leaders like Muhammad Ali, Shaukat Ali, and Maulana Azad

  3. COption (c)

    India Muslim leaders used Khilafat as a symbol that could unite the Indian Muslim community

  4. DOption (d)

    The Delhi conference of the Central Khilafat Committee in 1920 decided to launch a massive Non-Cooperation Movement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The Delhi conference of the Central Khilafat Committee in 1920 decided to launch a massive Non-Cooperation Movement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The Delhi conference of the Central Khilafat Committee in 1920 decided to launch a massive Non-Cooperation Movement.

Key Points

  • Khilafat movement
  • Khilafat movement was launched with the aim of pressurizing the British government to preserve the authority of the Ottoman Sultan as Caliph of Islam following the breakup of the Ottoman Empire at the end of the war.
  • Being a Caliph, the Ottoman emperor was the chief of the religious and political leader of all Sunni Muslims across the world.
  • Muslims were especially worried about the future of the Islamic places of worship after the allied powers had partitioned the Turkish Empire and that they demanded that the Khalifa must retain control over Muslim holy places**.** Hence option 1 is correct.
  • All India Khilafat Committee was created at Lucknow by leaders like Muhammad Ali, Shaukat Ali, Maulana Azad, Hasrat Mohani, and many others. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • It was also a period of Hindu-Muslim unity due to the overlapping of the Non-Cooperation and Khilafat movement. Hence option 3 is correct.
  • The leaders of the Khilafat Movement joined hands with Indian National Congress for the upcoming Non-cooperation Movement.
  • March 19, 1920, was observed as Khilafat Day, and following that there was an all-party conference in June 1920 at Allahabad and the agenda of the Non-cooperation Movement was finalized. Hence option 4 is incorrect.

Question 131

Which one of the following is NOT correct in the current Indian scenario?

  1. AOption (a)

    Life expectancy is on the increase and is about 68 years as of now

  2. BOption (b)

    Infant mortality rate is on the decline and has reached 33 per thousand

  3. COption (c)

    Maternal mortality rate (MMR) is on the rise due to lack of medical facilities

  4. DOption (d)

    Percentage of women giving birth in health institutions is on the rise

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Maternal mortality rate (MMR) is on the rise due to lack of medical facilities

Why this answer is correct

Option 3 is NOT correct.

  • Life Expectancy
  • Life Expectancy in India has increased from 49.7 years in 1970-75 to 68.7 years in 2012-16. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • Life Expectancy of females is 70.2 years and males is 67.4.
  • Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)
  • Infant Mortality Rate is defined as the ‘number of deaths of children under the age of 1 year per 1000 live births for a given year.
  • In India, it declined considerably at the rate of almost 57%.
  • The IMR came down from 80 infant deaths per 1000 live births (in 1995) to 33 deaths per 1,000 live births. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • Maternal mortality rate (MMR)
  • It is the number of maternal deaths per 100,000 live births due to pregnancy or termination of pregnancy.
  • India’s MMR has declined from 130 per 1 lakh live births in 2014-2016 to 122 per 1 lakh live births in 2015-2017. Hence option 3 is incorrect.
  • Institutional Delivery 
  • Institutional delivery means giving birth to a child in a medical institution under the overall supervision of trained and competent health personnel.
  • According to the National Family Health Survey (NFHS-4), institutional deliveries have increased from 39% in 2005-06 to 79% in 2015-16. Hence option 4 is correct.

Question 132

The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution of India deals with:

  1. AOption (a)

    Provisions related to the administration of tribal areas.

  2. BOption (b)

    Allocation of seats for the Council of States (Rajya Sabha)

  3. COption (c)

    the Union List, the State List and the concurrent List.

  4. DOption (d)

    recognized languages of the Union of India.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Allocation of seats for the Council of States (Rajya Sabha)

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. allocation of seats in the Council of States.

Schedule of the Indian Constitution

  • There are 12 Schedules in the Constitution of India.
  • The First Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the name of States and Union Territories.
  • Second Schedule of Indian Constitution contains the provisions in relation to allowances, privileges, emoluments of President of India, Governers of Indian States, Speaker of Lok Sabha & Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, Chairman of Rajya Sabha & Deputy, Chairman of Rajya Sabha, Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Legislative Assemblies of the Indian States, Chairman and Deputy, Chairman of Legislative Councils of the Indian States, Supreme Court Judges, High Court Judges and Comptroller & Auditor General Of India (CAG).
  • The third Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the forms of oath and affirmation for Union Ministers of India, Parliament Election Candidates, Members of Parliament (MPs), Supreme Court Judges, Comptroller and Auditor General, State Ministers, State Legislature Elections’ Candidates, State Legislature Members, and High Court Judges.
  • The fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the provisions in relation to the allocation of seats for States and Union Territories in the Rajya Sabha. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • The fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the provisions in relation to the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
  • The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the provisions in relation to the administration of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
  • The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the three legislative lists i.e. Union, State, and Concurrent.
  • The eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the 22 official languages recognized by the Indian Constitution.
  • The Ninth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the state acts and regulations that deal with land reforms and the abolition of the zamindari system. It also deals with the acts and regulations of the Parliament dealing with other matters.
  • The tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the provisions relating to disqualification of the members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection.
  • The Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the provisions that specify the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats.
  • The Twelfth Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the provisions that specify the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Municipalities.

Question 133

The British Officer who was a representative of the Governor General and who lived in a State which was not under direct British rule was called:

  1. AOption (a)

    Collector

  2. BOption (b)

    Viceroy

  3. COption (c)

    Resident

  4. DOption (d)

    Agent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Resident

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Resident.

Subsidiary alliance and Resident

  • Subsidiary Alliance was basically a treaty between the British East India Company and the Indian princely states, by virtue of which the Indian kingdoms lost their sovereignty to the English.
  • It was framed by Lord Wellesley, the Governor-General of India.
  • The Nizam of Hyderabad was the first ruler to enter into the subsidiary alliance with the British after the Battle of Buxar.
  • He had to accept all the terms of the subsidiary Alliance as
  1. The Nawab would defend his armed forces
  2. He would allow the stationing of the British contingent in his Kingdom
  3. He would carry on his administration with the advice of the British President
  • The representative of governor-general was designated as Resident who lived in a state which was not under direct British rule. Hence option 3 is correct.

Question 134

Which of the following features of the Permanent Settlements of 1793 is/are correct?

1. The Permanent Settlements vested land ownership rights in the peasants 2. The Permanent Settlement vested land ownership rights in the Zamindars 3. The Zamindars had to pay a fixed amount of rent by a particular date 4. The Zamindars benefited hugely from the Permanent Settlement while the peasants suffered

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, i.e 2 and 3 only.

  • Permanent Settlements 
  • The Permanent Settlement was brought into effect by the East India Company headed by the Governor-General Lord Cornwallis in 1793. This system was also called the Zamindari System.
  • This was basically an agreement between the company and the Zamindars to fix the land revenue.
  • It was first enacted in Bengal, Bihar and Odisha, this was later followed in northern Madras Presidency and the district of Varanasi.
  • ​Features of the Permanent Settlement
  • Landlords or Zamindars were referred to as the owners of the land. They got hereditary rights of succession of the lands under them. Hence statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
  • The Zamindars could sell or transfer the land as they wished.
  • The Zamindars’ proprietorship would stay as long as he paid the fixed revenue at the said date to the government. If they did not pay, their rights would cease to exist and therefore the land would be auctioned off. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • The amount to be paid by the landlords was fixed. It was agreed that this would not increase in future (permanent).
  • The fixed amount was 10/11th portion of the revenue for the government and 1/11th was for the Zamindar. This tax rate was way above than the prevailing rates in England. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
  • The revenue rates were so high that a lot of Zamindars became defaulters. In time, this system proved to have disastrous effects.

Question 135

The Vijayanagara Empire received its death blow at the Battle of:

  1. AOption (a)

    Talikota in 1565

  2. BOption (b)

    Panipat in 1661

  3. COption (c)

    Talikota in 1665

  4. DOption (d)

    Raichur in 1510

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Talikota in 1565

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Talikota in 1565.

Battle of Talikota (1565 A.D.)

  • Vijayanagar empire was established in 1336 by Harihara I and his brother Bukka Raya I of Sangama Dynasty.
  • The Battle of Talikota was a Battle within the Deccan region of southern India between the forces of the Hindu raja of Vijayanagar and therefore the four allied Muslim sultans of Bijapur, Bidar, Ahmadnagar, and Golconda fought in 1565. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • The capital city of Vijayanagar was captured, destroyed over a period of five months, and never reoccupied.
  • The betrayal by two Muslim commanders (Gilani Brothers) of Vijayanagara Army at a key point within the battle was the main cause of the defeat.

Question 136

The 'Basic Structure Doctrine' was enunciated by the Supreme Court during the;

  1. AOption (a)

    Golak Nath case

  2. BOption (b)

    Maneka Gandhi case

  3. COption (c)

    Kesavananda Bharati case

  4. DOption (d)

    S R Bommai case

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kesavananda Bharati case

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Kesavananda Bharati case.

Basic Structure Doctrine

  • The concept of ‘basic structure’ came into existence within the landmark judgment in Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala case (1973). Hence option 3 is correct.
  • The Constitutional Bench in Kesavananda Bharati case ruled by a 7-6 verdict that Parliament could amend any a part of the Constitution so long as it didn't alter or amend the basic structure or essential features of the Constitution.
  • The basic features of the Constitution haven't been explicitly defined by the Judiciary.
  • Some of the features of the Constitution that are accepted as "basic" are:
  1. The supremacy of the Constitution
  2. Judicial Review
  3. Secularism
  4. Rule of law
  5. The principle of Separation of Powers

Question 137

Consider the following statements about the travellers who visited India:

1. Abdur Razzaq Samarqandi from Herat visited Delhi and Daulatabad 2. lbn Battuta provides detailed accounts of both Delhi and Daulatabad 3. According to Francois Bernier, there was no private property in land in Mughal India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4, i.e 2 and 3 only.

Some important travellers who visited India:

  • Abdul Razak (1443 A.D. – 1444 A.D.)
  • He was a Persian scholar.
  • He was also an ambassador of Persia.
  • He visited India during the rule of Deva Raya II of Vijayanagar. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
  • lbn Battuta (1333 A.D. – 1347 A.D.)
  • He was a Moroccan traveller.
  • He visited India during the rule of Mohammed Bin Tughlaq.
  • Ibn Battuta arrived in Delhi in the fourteenth century.
  • He provides detailed accounts of both Delhi and Daulatabad. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • Rihla is a book written by Ibn Batuta.
  • Francois Bernier (1656 A.D. – 1717 A.D.)
  • He was a French physician and traveller.
  • Francois Bernier was briefly personal physician to Mughal prince Dara Shikoh and later on to the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb.
  • ‘Travels in the Mughal Empire’ was written by Francois Bernier.
  • The book mainly talks about the rules of Dara Shikoh and Aurangzeb.
  • He wrote in the book that there was no private property in land in Mughal India. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • Alberuni (1024 A.D. – 1030 A.D.)
  • He was a Persian scholar.
  • He accompanied Mahmud of Ghazni and wrote a book titled ‘Tahqiq-i-hind’.
  • He is considered the father of Indology.
  • Fa-Hien (405 A.D.- 411 A.D.)
  • He was a Chinese Buddhist monk.
  • He visited India during the reign of Vikramaditya (Chandragupta II).
  • He is known for his visit to Lumbini.
  • His voyage is described in his travelogue “Record of Buddhist Kingdoms”.
  • He wrote Fo-Kyo-Ki.
  • Huien Tsang (630 A.D.- 645 A.D.)
  • He was a Chinese traveller.
  • He visited India during the supremacy of Harsha Vardhana.
  • Si-yu-ki or ‘The Records of the Western World’ was written by him.
  • Marco Polo (1292 A.D.-1294 A.D.)
  • He was a Venetian Traveller.
  • He visited South India during the reign of Pandya ruler.
  • Megasthenes (302 B.C. – 298 B.C.)
  • He was the ambassador of Bactrian king Seleucus Nicator.
  • He visited India during the supremacy of Chandragupta Maurya.
  • Chandragupta was known to the Greeks as Sandrocottus.
  • He was also the author of the book ‘Indica’.

Question 138

Which of the following statements about hill stations of colonial India is/are correct?

  1. The architecture of hill stations sought to recreate the European style
  2. Hill stations were developed as sanitariums where soldiers were treated for the illness
  3. Shimla became the official residence of the Commander in Chief of the Indian army
  4. In 1864, Shimla had to be evacuated because of a Typhoid epidemic

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    3 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 3 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1, 2 and 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2, i.e 1, 2 and 3.

Hill station during the colonial period

  • In hill stations, the British and other Europeans tried to recreate settlements that were reminiscent of home.
  • The buildings were intentionally built in the European style. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The heavy presence of the army made these hill stations a new kind of cantonment in the hills.
  • These hill stations were also developed as sanatoriums where soldiers could be sent to rest and recover from illnesses. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • In 1864, Viceroy John Lawrence officially transferred his Council to Simla, which sealed the practice of changing capitals during the hot season. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
  • Shimla also became the official residence of the Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army Hence statement 3 is correct.

Question 139

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Dynasty)List II (Architecture)
A. Chalukyas1. Sun Temple, Konark
B. Hoysalas2. Pattadakal Temples
C. Pandyas3. Kesava Temple, Somnathpur
D. Eastern Gangas4. Eastern Gopura of Chidambaram Temple
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 1, B - 3, C - 2, D - 4

  2. BOption (b)

    A -1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4

  3. COption (c)

    A - 2, B - 4, C - 3, D - 1

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4, i.e A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1.

  • Chalukyas - Pattadakal Temples - It is a temple complex of 7th and 8th century CE Hindu and Jain temples in northern Karnataka.
  • Hoysalas - Kesava temple - It is a Vaishnava Hindu temple on the banks of River Kaveri at Somanathpur, Karnataka.
  • Pandyas - Eastern Gopura of Chidambaram Temple - a Hindu temple dedicated to **Nataraja "**Shiva as the lord of dance", Chidambaram, Tamil Nadu.
  • Eastern Gangas - Sun Temple, Konark - a 13th-century CE sun temple at Konark on the coastline of Odisha.

Question 140

The Senia tradition is:

  1. AOption (a)

    musical tradition that emerged from the colonial army (Sena)

  2. BOption (b)

    dance drama written by Keshab Chandra Sen

  3. COption (c)

    textile tradition of eastern UP

  4. DOption (d)

    musical tradition that invoked the name of Tansen, the celebrated musician of Akbar's Court

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

musical tradition that invoked the name of Tansen, the celebrated musician of Akbar's Court

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. musical tradition that invoked the name of Tansen, the celebrated musician of Akbar's Court.

Senia tradition or Senia Gharana

  • The word "Senia" is related to Tansen, the father of Indian Classical Music.
  • The word "Gharana" implies a style of music.
  • The followers of Tansen’s school of music are widely known as the followers of "Senia Gharana or Senia Tradition".
  • The followers of this tradition may either be related with the family of Tansen or by the age-old tradition of "Guru–Shishya parampara" (teacher to student relation).
  • Tansen was a vocalist but this tradition has also produced great Sitar Maestros.
  • The "Senia" style of Sitar playing started with the legendary great master of Sitar, Ustad Museet Sen from the family of Tansen, the originator of "Maseetkhani" style".
  • The Sitar players of "Senia Gharana" were, at a later stage known as the sitarists of "Jaipur-Senia Gharana".
  • One of the greatest Maestro’s of this "Gharana" was Ustad Barkat Ullah Khan of Jaipur, known as "Aftab–e-Sitar".

Question 141

Who among the following founded the Rajahmundry Social Reform Association in 1878 in support of Widow Remarriage?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vishanshastri Pandit

  2. BOption (b)

    Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

  3. COption (c)

    Pandita Ramabai

  4. DOption (d)

    Veersalingam Pantulu

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Veersalingam Pantulu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4 i.e. Veersalingam Pantulu.

Key Points

Rajahmundry Social Reform Association

  • Rajahmundry Social Reform Association was founded by Veeresalingam Pantulu in 1878. Hence option 4 is correct.
  • He was born on 16 April 1848 at Rajahmundry, Andhra Pradesh.
  • He was a social reformer and writer at Madras Presidency, under British rule.
  • Veeresalingam Pantulu was considered as the ‘Father of renaissance movement in Telugu'.
  • Through this association, he fought against hiring nautch girls and spearheaded a campaign for widow remarriage.
  • He organized first widow remarriage in Andhra Pradesh, on December 11th, 1881.

Question 142

The SAARC Secretariat is located at:

  1. AOption (a)

    New Delhi

  2. BOption (b)

    Colombo

  3. COption (c)

    Kathmandu

  4. DOption (d)

    Karachi

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Kathmandu

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Kathmandu.

SAARC 

  • The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established under the SAARC Charter in Dhaka on 8 December 1985.
  • The Secretariat of the Association is at Kathmandu, Nepal. Hence option 3 is correct.
  • Initially, SAARC was founded by seven states in 1985. In 2005, Afghanistan became the 8th member of the association.
  • Eight-member of SAARC comprises Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka.
  • The basic framework of SAARC is to respect for the principles of sovereign equality, territorial integrity, political independence, non-interference in the internal affairs of other States and mutual benefit.

Question 143

The 19th century Faraizi Movement in eastern Bengal developed under the leadership of:

  1. AOption (a)

    Titu Rai

  2. BOption (b)

    Haji Shariatullah

  3. COption (c)

    Shah Sayyid Ahmad

  4. DOption (d)

    Dudu Miyan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Haji Shariatullah

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Haji Shariatullah.

Faraizi Movement

  • Haji Shariatullah founded the Faraizi movement in 1818. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • It was a religious reform movement in the 19th century for Bengali Muslims.
  • The objective was to revive Islam and to improve the condition of Muslim peasants who were opposed by Hindu and British landlords.
  • Shariatullah felt that Islam got degraded under British influence and hence he proposed this movement for radical social, cultural and religious changes in the Islam.
  • Haji Shariatullah tried to establish a parallel government to the British through this movement.

Question 144

The Indian States Committee was formed in 1928 under:

  1. AOption (a)

    The Raja of Junagadh

  2. BOption (b)

    Ian Copland

  3. COption (c)

    Sir Harcourt Butler

  4. DOption (d)

    Motilal Nehru

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sir Harcourt Butler

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Sir Harcourt Butler.

Indian States Committee

  • Sir Harcourt Butler was the chairman of The Indian states committee. Hence option 3 is correct.
  • It was popularly referred to as 'the Butler Committee' to investigate and clarify the relationship between the paramount power "British Government of India" and the Princes of Princely States in AD 1927.
  • The committee consisting of Sir Harcourt Butler, Prof. W.S. Holdsworth and S.C. Peel, was called the Indian States Committee.
  • They visited sixteen Princely States and submitted their report in February 1929.
  • The recommendations given by the Butler committee are as follow.
  1. Paramountcy must remain supreme and must fulfil its obligations, adopting and defining itself consistent with the shifting necessities of time amid progressive development of states.
  2. The states were bound by treaties with the Crown and the states shouldn't be handed over without the ruler’s prior consent to an Indian Government in British India responsible to an Indian Legislature.
  3. The Viceroy, not the Governor-General in Council, was to be the British Crown agent in dealing with the states.

Question 145

The Panchyati Raj System under Part-IX of the Constitution of India does not apply to the States of:

  1. AOption (a)

    Asssam, Mizoram and Nagaland

  2. BOption (b)

    Nagaland, Meghalaya and Tripura

  3. COption (c)

    Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram

  4. DOption (d)

    Sikkim, Tripura and Meghalaya

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram.

Key PointsPanchyati Raj System

  • Panchayati Raj System is a system of rural local self-government in India.
  • Panchayati Raj Institution was constitutionalized through the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 to build democracy at the grassroots level and was entrusted with the task of rural development in the country.
  • Part-IX of the Constitution of India deals with the Panchayati Raj system for the rural areas.
  • It consists of definitions of various terms, composition, duration, reservation, powers, etc. of a Panchayat.
  • The following areas have been exempted from the operation of the Act because of the socio-cultural and administrative considerations:
  1. Scheduled areas listed under the Schedule V in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Orissa and Rajasthan.
  2. The states of Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram. Hence option 3 is correct.
  3. The hill areas of the district of Darjeeling in the state of West Bengal for which Darjeeling Gorkha Hill Council exists.

Question 146

The First Five Year Plan (1951-1956) was drafted by:

  1. AOption (a)

    P C Mahalanobis

  2. BOption (b)

    K N Raj

  3. COption (c)

    J C Kumarappa

  4. DOption (d)

    Jawaharlal Nehru

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

K N Raj

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. K N Raj.

First Five Year Plan (1951 - 1956)

  • The Constitution came into force on 26 January 1950.
  • The Planning Commis­sion was set up on 15 March 1950 and the plan era started from 1 April 1951 with the launch­ing of the First Five Year Plan (1951-56).
  • This five-year plan was based on Harrod- Domer model of USSR.
  • The first plan stressed more on Agriculture in the view of large scale import of food grain and other areas of emphasis were power and Transport
  • The annual average growth rate during the first five-year plan was estimated as 3.61% as against a target of 2.1%.
  • The renowned economist K N Raj who died in 2010 was one of the main architects of India's first five-year plan. Hence option 2 is correct.

Question 147

Who among the following is the author of the book, "Pakistan Paradox: Instability and Resilience"?

  1. AOption (a)

    Christophe Jaffrelot

  2. BOption (b)

    G Parthasarthy

  3. COption (c)

    Imran Khan

  4. DOption (d)

    Mamnoon Hussain

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Christophe Jaffrelot

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Christophe Jaffrelot.

Christophe Jaffrelot

  • Christophe Jaffrelot is a French political scientist.
  • He is a specialist in the politics of South Asia, particularly India and Pakistan.
  • Pakistan Paradox: Instability and Resilience, is written by Christophe Jaffrelot. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • In this book, he seeks to separate the causes of instability in Pakistan by exploring the contradictions in its foundations.
  • He presents the historical and political sociology of Pakistan, from the end of the rebellion of 1857 to the aftermath of the killing of Osama bin Laden.
  • Saffron 'Modernity' in India: Narendra Modi and His Experiment with Gujarat is written by him and published in the year 2020.

Additional Information

  • Pakistan:
  • President: Arif Alvi
  • ​Prime Minister: Shehbaz Sharif (2022)
  • Capital: Islamabad
  • Currency: Pakistani rupee

Question 148

Which one of the following was the theme of the "International Day of United Nations Peacekeepers" for the year 2015?

  1. AOption (a)

    Peacekeeping is a Global Partnership

  2. BOption (b)

    UN 70 and UN Peacekeeping: Past, Present, and Future

  3. COption (c)

    Women in Peacekeeping

  4. DOption (d)

    A Force for the Future

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

UN 70 and UN Peacekeeping: Past, Present, and Future

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. UN 70 and UN Peacekeeping: Past, Present, and Future.

International Day of United Nations Peacekeepers

  • The International Day of United Nations Peacekeepers, commemorated each year on the 29th of May.
  • It is an occasion to salute the peacekeepers of today who serve in some of the world’s most volatile and dangerous environments.
  • In 2015, the theme was “UN70 and UN Peacekeeping: Past, Present, and Future", which marked the 70th anniversary of the United Nations. Hence option 2 is correct.
  • In 2020, the theme is “Women in Peacekeeping – A Key to Peace.” which marked the 20th anniversary of the adoption of UN Security Council resolution 1325 on Women, Peace and Security.

Question 149

Indian athlete Vikas Gowda is associated with:

  1. AOption (a)

    Wrestling

  2. BOption (b)

    Sprint

  3. COption (c)

    Discus throw

  4. DOption (d)

    Arcdhery

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Discus throw

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3 i.e. Discus Throw.

Vikas Gowda

  • Vikas Gowda is an Indian discus thrower and Shot putter. Hence option 3 is correct.
  • He is the national record-holder for discus throw and is probably one of the most consistent Indian athletes.
  • He was born in Mysore in 1983 and raised in the USA.
  • He received the Padma Shri award in 2017.
  • He is the second Indian man who won a Commonwealth gold medal after Milkha Singh.

Question 150

The 19th Federation Cup National Senior Athletic Championships (2015) was held in:

  1. AOption (a)

    Karnataka

  2. BOption (b)

    Haryana

  3. COption (c)

    Uttar Pradesh

  4. DOption (d)

    Kerala

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Karnataka

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1 i.e. Karnataka.

19th Federation Cup National Senior Athletics Championships (2015)

  • The Athletics Federation of India is the apex body for running and managing athletics in India and affiliated to the International Association of Athletics Federations (IAAF), Amateur Athletic Association (AAA) and Indian Olympic Association.
  • The 19th Federation Cup National Senior Athletic Championship (2015) was held at Mangala Stadium, Mangalore City, Karnataka. Hence option 1 is correct.
  • This will be the first time that Karnataka will be staging this championship.
  • The event is being organised by the Karnataka Amateur Athletic Association, Dakshina Kannada Athletic Association and the district administration.
  • The Indian Army team on 3 May 2015 emerged as champions in the 19th Federation Cup National Senior Athletic Championships.
  • The competition committee of Athletics Federation of India decided to postpone the 24th Federation Cup National Senior Athletics Championships 2020 due to the outbreak of coronavirus (COVID-19) pandemic. It was scheduled to be held from 10-13 April 2020 at SAI NS-NIS Patiala, Punjab.

150 questions in the full paper