Previous Year Paper

NDA General Ability Test 19 April 2015 Official Paper (Previous Year Paper)

Held in 2015

150 questions150 minutes
With answers
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General Ability Test (150 questions)

Question 1

Direction: In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labeled a), b), c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts a), b) or c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, letter ‘d)’ will signify a ‘No error’ response.

a) Unless you stop to make noise at once, b)/ I will have no option but to c)/ bring the matter to the attention of the police. d) No error

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. A.

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the phrases given below:

  • ​Start/stop + V1 + ing + something

  • ​The phrase is used in its original form without any alterations.

  • For example:

  • ​My father has started to go to yoga classes lately. 

  • ​My father has started going to yoga classes lately.

  • ​Hence in the 1st part of the question, 'stop making' will be used instead of 'stop to make'.

Correct Sentence: *"*Unless you stop making noise at once, I will have no option but to bring the matter to the attention of the police."

Question 2

Direction: In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labeled a), b), c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts a), b) or c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, letter ‘d)’ will signify a ‘No error’ response.

a) He couldn't but help b)/ shed tears at the plight of the villagers c)/ rendered homeless by a devastating cyclone. d)/ No error

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. A.

 

Explanation:

  • Let's have a look at the phrases given below:
  • ​Can/could not help + V1 + ing
  • Can/could not help + but + V1
  • ​Both of the phrases mean to have a compulsion to do something that is too strong to ignore or avoid.**
  • For example:
  • ​My mom can't help meddling in my life, even though I'm 26 years old.
  • ​My mom can't help but meddle in my life, even though I'm 26 years old.
  • Hence in the 1st part in the question, 'couldn't help but' will be used instead of 'couldn't but help'.

Correct Sentence: *"*He couldn't help but shed tears at the plight of the villagers rendered homeless by a devastating cyclone."

Question 3

Direction: In this Section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labelled a), b), c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find en error in any one of the underlined parts a), b) or c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case letter ‘d)’ will signify a ‘No error’ response.

a) Since it was his first election campaign, the candidate was confused; b)/ none could clearly understand c)/ either the principles he stood for or the benefits he promised. d)/ No error.

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

c

Why this answer is correct

The part which contains error is C

 

Key Points

  • After reading the sentence we can easily comprehend that the candidate was confused as a result of which none could clearly understand his principles and promises.
  • Here the use of 'either-or' makes the sentence contextually wrong, it is used in a sentence in the affirmative sense when referring to a choice between two possibilities.
  • Thus 'neither-nor should be used in a sentence in the negative sense when you want to say that two or more things are not true.

Correct Sentence: Since it was his first election campaign, the candidate was confused; none could clearly understand neither the principles he stood for nor the benefits he promised.

Question 4

Direction: In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labeled a), b), c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts a), b) or c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, letter ‘d)’ will signify a ‘No error’ response.

a) It is an established fact that the transcendental American poets and philosophers, b)/ who lived in the latter half of the nineteenth century, c)/ were more influenced by Indian philosophy, in particular by Upanishadic Philosophy. d)/ No error.

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. C.

 

Explanation:

  • We use the term 'more' when we compare two or more persons/things.
  • In the 3rd part of the given question, 'more' is used but there is no comparison made with any entity whatsoever.
  • Hence we will omit 'more' from the 3rd part as the given sentence simply states that the American poets and philosophers were influenced by Indian philosophy, in particular by Upanishadic philosophy.

 

Correct Sentence: *"*It is an established fact that the transcendental American poets and philosophers, who lived in the latter half of the nineteenth century, were influenced by Indian philosophy, in particular by Upanishadic Philosophy."

Question 5

Direction: In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labeled a), b), c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts a), b) or c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, letter ‘d)’ will signify a ‘No error’ response.

a) No sooner did I open the door/ b)/ when the rain, heavy and stormy, rushed in/ c)/ making us shiver from head to foot. d)/ No error

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. B.

Key Points 

  • Some conjunctions such as: 'No sooner...than', 'Hardly/scarcely...when', are used in a pair.

  • For example :

  • Hardly had I left the cinema hall than I saw the actor himself.  

  • Hardly had I left the cinema hall when I saw the actor himself.  

​

  • Hence in the 2nd part of the sentence, 'than' will be used instead of 'when'.​

Correct Sentence: "No sooner did I open the door than the rain, heavy and stormy, rushed in making us shiver from head to foot."

Question 6

Direction: In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labeled a), b), c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts a), b) or c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, letter ‘d)’ will signify a ‘No error’ response.

a) After opening the door b)/ we entered into the room c)/ next to the kitchen. d)/ No error

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. B.

 

Explanation:

  • Whenever 'enter' is used in the context of motion, we never use 'into' after 'enter' as it makes the sentence superfluous.​

  • For example:

  • ​Jay entered into the hall with his wife.

  • Jay entered the hall with his wife.

  • Hence in the 2nd part in question, we will remove 'into' used after 'entered'.

​​

 

  • 'Enter into' is used when any agreement/alliance is talked about in a sentence.
  • For example:
  • ​Karan entered into an alliance with a regional party.

​​

Correct Sentence: "After opening the door we entered the room next to the kitchen."

Question 7

Direction: In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labeled a), b), c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts a), b) or c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, letter ‘d)’ will signify a ‘No error’ response.

a) When the dentist came in b)/ my tooth was stopped aching c)/ out of fear that I might lose my tooth. d)/ No error.

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. B.

 

Explanation:

  • The structure 'is/am/are/was/were + V3' is used when a passive form of voice is required.

  • For example:

  • The game was playing between India and Sri Lanka at Adelaide. 

  • The game was played between India and Sri Lanka at Adelaide.

  • Since the given sentence is in an active voice form, we will omit 'was' in the 2nd part of the given sentence.

 

Correct Sentence: *"*When the dentist came in my tooth stopped aching out of fear that I might lose my tooth."

Question 8

Direction: In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labeled a), b), c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts a), b) or c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, letter ‘d)’ will signify a ‘No error’ response.

a) Emphasis on equality of life ensures b)/ for the health and happiness c)/ of every individual. d)/ No error.

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. B.

 

Explanation:

  • The verb 'ensure' is not followed by any preposition.

  • For example:

  • The airline is taking steps to ensure of safety on its aircraft. 

  • The airline is taking steps to ensure safety on its aircraft.

  • We will omit 'for' in the 2nd part of the given sentence to make the sentence error-free.

 

Correct Sentence: *"*Emphasis on equality of life ensures the health and happiness of every individual."

Question 9

Direction: In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labeled a), b), c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts a), b) or c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, letter ‘d)’ will signify a ‘No error’ response.

a) The students were b)/ awaiting for c)/ the arrival of the chief guest. d)/ No error

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

b

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. B.

 

Explanation:

  • Let's understand the difference between the two words given below:

  • ​Wait- stay where one is or delay action until a particular time or event.

  • Await- wait for (an event).

  • ​The verb 'await' is never followed by 'for' as it makes the phrase superfluous.

  • For example:

  • Theresa was awaiting for her lover. 

  • Theresa was awaiting her lover.

  • We will omit 'for' in the 2nd part of the given sentence to make the sentence error-free.

  • Though we may use 'for' with the verb 'wait' as it is grammatically correct.

 

Correct Sentence: "The students were awaiting the arrival of the chief guest."

Question 10

Direction: In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labeled a), b), c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts a), b) or c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, letter ‘d)’ will signify a ‘No error’ response.

a) You will come b)/ to my party tomorrow, c)/ isn't it ? d)/ No error

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. C.

 

Explanation:

  • If the statement is negative, the question tag must be positive and vice versa.

  • We have to use the pronoun, according to the subject, in the question tag.

  • The sentence and the question tag must be in the same tense.

  • For example :

  • They have eaten popcorn, Isn't it?  

  • They have eaten popcorn, haven't they?  

​​​​​

  • ​Hence in the 3rd part of the sentence, 'Won't you?' will be used as per the rule given above.

 

Correct Sentence: "You will come to my party tomorrow, won't you ?"

Question 11

Direction: In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labeled a), b), c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts a), b) or c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, letter ‘d)’ will signify a ‘No error’ response.

a) Having read a number of stories b)/ about space travel c)/ his dream now is about to visit the moon. d)/ No error

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. C.

 

Explanation:

  • The word 'about', mentioned in the 3rd part of the given sentence, is misplaced and alters the intended meaning.
  • The sentence wants to convey that the subject has read some stories about space and now wants to travel the moon.
  • To maintain continuity and desired structure, we will omit 'about' from the 3rd part of the given sentence.

 

Correct Sentence: *"*Having read a number of stories about space travel, his dream now is to visit the moon."

Question 12

Direction: In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labeled a), b), c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts a), b) or c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, letter ‘d)’ will signify a ‘No error’ response.

a) The meeting adjourned abruptly b)/ by the Chairman after c)/ about three hours of deliberation. d)/ No error

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. A.

 

Explanation:

  • The structure 'is/am/are/was/were + V3' is used when a passive form of voice is required.

  • For example:

  • The game was playing between India and Sri Lanka at Adelaide. 

  • The game was played between India and Sri Lanka at Adelaide.

  • Since the given sentence is in a passive voice form, we will insert 'was'  after the word 'meeting' in the 1st part of the given sentence.

 

Correct Sentence: *"*The meeting was adjourned abruptly by the Chairman after about three hours of deliberation."

Question 13

Direction: In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labeled a), b), c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts a), b) or c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, letter ‘d)’ will signify a ‘No error’ response.

a) Not one of the hundreds b)/ of striking workers c)/ were allowed to go near the factory. d)/ No error

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. C.

 

Explanation:

  • 'None/one of' is used when we have to choose between more than two options.

  • 'Neither/either of' is used when we have to choose between the two options.

  • Also if a choice is being made out of many things, the verb will conform to the former subject.

  • For example :

  • Either of the students are not present today.  

  • One of the students is not present today.  

​​​​​

  • Since the first subject i.e 'Not one' is a singular noun, 'was' will be used instead of 'were'.

​

Correct Sentence: "Not one* of the hundreds of striking workers was allowed to go near the factory."*

Question 14

Direction: In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labeled a), b), c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts a), b) or c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, letter ‘d)’ will signify a ‘No error’ response.

a) If I had known b)/ this earlier c)/ I will have helped him. d)/ No error.

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

c

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. C.

 

Explanation:

  • Conditional sentences are statements discussing known factors or hypothetical situations and their consequences.

  • One of the structures is mentioned below:

  • This particular type is followed when something didn't happen as a certain condition wasn't fulfilled.

  • If + Past perfect, Subject + Would have + V3 + Object.

  • For example:

  • If I had noticed you, I would had call you. 

  • If I had noticed you, I would have called you. 

​

  • Hence in the 3rd part of the given sentence, 'would have' will be used instead of 'will have'.

Correct Sentence: " If I had known this earlier I would have helped him."

Question 15

Direction: In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labeled a), b), c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts a), b) or c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, letter ‘d)’ will signify a ‘No error’ response.

a) Mr. Smith was accused for murder b)/ but the court found him not guilty c)/ and acquitted him. d)/ No error.

  1. AOption (a)

    a

  2. BOption (b)

    b

  3. COption (c)

    c

  4. DOption (d)

    d

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. A.

 

Explanation:

  • There are some verbs that are followed by some fixed prepositions. Some of them are given below:

  • Accused of, Afraid of, Conform to, Devoid of, Gaze/look at, Insist on, Versed in, Ward off, etc.

  • For example:

  • ​One should conform with the rules of the game while playing. 

  • One should conform to the rules of the game while playing.

  • Hence the verb 'accused' will be followed by the preposition 'of'.

​​

Correct Sentence: "Mr. Smith was accused of murder but the court found him not guilty and acquitted him."

Question 16

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “No improvement”.

Although India is still by far a poor country, it can become rich if its natural and human resources are fully utilized.

  1. AOption (a)

    few and far between

  2. BOption (b)

    by and large

  3. COption (c)

    by and by

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

by and large

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. B.

 

Explanation: ​

  • Let's have a look at the meanings of the given phrases:
  • By far- by a great amount.
  • Few and far between- not very many or not appearing very frequently
  • By and large- on the whole; everything considered.
  • By and by- after a short period.
  • In the underlined part, we need an expression that takes into account everything, hence 'by and large' is an apt choice here.

 

Correct Sentence: "Although India is still by and large a poor country, it can become rich if its natural and human resources are fully utilized."

Question 17

Direction: Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence is given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them, a), b) or c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter a), b) or c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter d).

The more they earn, more they spend.

  1. AOption (a)

    More they earn, more they spend

  2. BOption (b)

    More they earn, the more they spend

  3. COption (c)

    The more they earn, the more they spend

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The more they earn, the more they spend

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. C.

Explanation:

  • If 'the' is used with a comparative degree and two degrees are shown to be directly/inversely proportional to each other, the other degree will also be comparative. For example:

  • The higher you climb, the most difficult it will be to breathe. 

  • The higher you climb, the more difficult it will be to breathe. 

  • Hence as per the rule given above, 3rd option will be the most appropriate choice here.

Correct Sentence: "The more they earn, the more they spend."

Question 18

In the question below, a part of the sentence has been underlined. Below are given the alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. If the sentence needs no improvement, choose ‘No Improvement’ as your answer.

But in all these cases conversion from one scale to another is easy because scales have well-formulated.

  1. AOption (a)

    can be well-formulated

  2. BOption (b)

    are well-formulated

  3. COption (c)

    well-formulated

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

are well-formulated

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. B.

Key Points

  • The structure 'is/am/are/was/were + V3' is used when a passive form of voice is required.

  • For example:

  • The game was playing between India and Sri Lanka at Adelaide. 

  • The game was played between India and Sri Lanka at Adelaide.

  • Since the given sentence is in a passive voice form, we will use 'are well formulated' in the underlined part of the given sentence.

 

Correct Sentence: "**But in all these cases conversion from one scale to another is easy because scales are well-formulated."

Question 19

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “No improvement”.

Five years ago on this date, I am sitting in a small Japanese car, driving across Poland towards Berlin.

  1. AOption (a)

    was sitting

  2. BOption (b)

    sat

  3. COption (c)

    have been sitting

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

was sitting

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. A.

 

Explanation:

  • The past continuous tense is used to show that an ongoing past action was happening at a specific moment of interruption, or that two ongoing actions were happening at the same time.
  • For example:
  • ​You were playing when she called.
  • Since the given sentence mentions a past event that was in progress, 'was sitting' will be the most appropriate choice in the underlined part.

 

Correct Sentence: *"*Five years ago on this date, I was sitting in a small Japanese car, driving across Poland towards Berlin."

Question 20

In the question below, a part of the sentence has been underlined. Below are given the alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. If the sentence needs no improvement, choose ‘No Improvement’ as your answer.

The old man felled some trees in the garden with hardly no effort at all.

  1. AOption (a)

    hard effort

  2. BOption (b)

    hardly any effort

  3. COption (c)

    a hardly any effort

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

hardly any effort

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. B.

Key Points

  • An adverb is a word or phrase that modifies or qualifies an adjective, verb, or other adverb or a word group.

  • Hardly is an adverb which means scarcely (used to qualify a statement by saying that it is true to an insignificant degree).

  • 'Hardly' is a negative word and doesn't take any negative word after it as it will make the sentence superfluous.

  • **For example:​

  • He hardly does no work. 

  • He hardly does any work.

  • Hence 2nd option will be the most appropriate choice here as per the rule given above.

 

Correct Sentence: "The old man felled some trees in the garden with hardly any effort at all."

Question 21

In the question below, a part of the sentence has been underlined. Below are given the alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. If the sentence needs no improvement, choose ‘No Improvement’ as your answer.

She says she's already paid me back, but I can't remember, so I'll have to take her word.

  1. AOption (a)

    to take her word true

  2. BOption (b)

    to take her at her word

  3. COption (c)

    to take her word for it

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

to take her word for it

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is to take her word for it

Key Points

  • There is an expression which is used in its original form without any alterations:
  • ​Take someone’s word for it- to believe that what someone is saying is true.
  • ​For example:
  • ​If she says she’s sick, you have to take her word for it.
  • ​Hence option 3 will be the most appropriate choice here.

 

Correct Sentence: "She says she's already paid me back, but I can't remember, so I'll have to take her word for it."

Question 22

In the question below, a part of the sentence has been underlined. Below are given the alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. If the sentence needs no improvement, choose ‘No Improvement’ as your answer.

The workers are hell-bent at getting what is due to them.

  1. AOption (a)

    hell bent on getting

  2. BOption (b)

    hell bent for getting

  3. COption (c)

    hell bent to getting

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

hell bent on getting

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. A.

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the phrase given below:
  • ​Hell bent on- to be extremely determined to do something, without considering the risks or possible dangerous results.
  • ​The given phrase is used as the way it is, without any alterations.
  • For example:
  • ​He was hell-bent on taking revenge.
  • Hence in the underlined part, 'hell bent on getting' is the most appropriate choice.

 

Correct Sentence: “The workers are hell-bent on getting what is due to them."

Question 23

Direction: Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence is given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them, a), b) or c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter a), b) or c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter d).

You are warned against committing the same mistake again.

  1. AOption (a)

    to commit

  2. BOption (b)

    for committing

  3. COption (c)

    against to commit

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

No improvement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is No improvement

Key Points

  • Let's have a look at the phrasal verb given below:
  • ​Warn against- to advise someone not to do something because it may have dangerous or unpleasant results.
  • ​The given phrase is used as the way it is, without any alterations.
  • For example:
  • ​Her financial adviser warned her against such a risky investment.
  • Hence in the underlined part, 'against committing' is the most appropriate choice.

 

Correct Sentence: “You are warned against committing the same mistake again."

Question 24

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “No improvement”.

While we would like that all Indian children to go to school, we need to ponder why they do not.

  1. AOption (a)

    that all the Indian children

  2. BOption (b)

    if all the children of India

  3. COption (c)

    all Indian children

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

all Indian children

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. C.

Key Points

  • Since the given sentence talks about 'Indian children' in general and not any specific category, the article 'the' will not be used.
  • Hence options 1 and 2 are eliminated. As 'to' infinitive is used after the underlined part, we cannot use 'that' with 'all Indian children'.
  • This brings us to the correct option i.e 3rd option.

 

Correct Sentence: *"*While we would like all Indian children to go to school, we need to ponder why they do not."

Question 25

In the question below, a part of the sentence has been underlined. Below are given the alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. If the sentence needs no improvement, choose ‘No Improvement’ as your answer.

Due to these reasons we are all in favour of universal compulsory education.

  1. AOption (a)

    Out of these reasons

  2. BOption (b)

    For these reasons

  3. COption (c)

    By these reasons

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

For these reasons

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'For these reasons'.

 

Key Points

  • 'For these reasons' is the suitable phrase to express the cause or basis for a decision or viewpoint, in this case, being in favor of universal compulsory education.
  • It accurately conveys the connection between the reasons previously stated and the conclusion drawn, making the sentence clearer and more appropriate.
  • English sentences generally use the form "For these reasons, [conclusion]" to express reasoned conclusions or actions.

Therefore, the correct answer is 'Option 2'.

 

Additional Information

  • Option 1 'Out of these reasons': This is not a commonly used English phrase to indicate causality or reasoning.
  • Option 3 'By these reasons': Similarly, 'By these reasons' is not used in standard English to express the idea the sentence intends to convey.
  • Option 4 'No improvement': The initial sentence can indeed be improved, making this option incorrect.

Question 26

In the question below, a part of the sentence has been underlined. Below are given the alternatives to the underlined part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. If the sentence needs no improvement, choose ‘No Improvement’ as your answer.

When it was feared that the serfs might go too far and gain their freedom from serfdom, the Protestant leaders joined the princes at crushing them.

  1. AOption (a)

    into crushing

  2. BOption (b)

    in crushing

  3. COption (c)

    without crushing

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

in crushing

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. B.

 

Explanation:

  • Let's have a look at the phrasal verb given below:
  • ​Join in- to take part in something that a group of people is doing or that someone else does.
  • ​The given phrase is used as the way it is, without any alterations.
  • For example:
  • ​He stared at them without joining in the conversation.
  • Hence in the underlined part, 'in crushing' is the most appropriate choice.

 

Correct Sentence: *"*When it was feared that the serfs might go too far and gain their freedom from serfdom, the Protestant leaders joined the princes in crushing them."

Question 27

Direction: Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence is given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them, a), b) or c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter a), b) or c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter d).

In India, today many of our intellectuals still talk in terms of the French Revolution and the Rights of Man, not appreciating that much has happened since then.

  1. AOption (a)

    much has been happening

  2. BOption (b)

    much had happened

  3. COption (c)

    much might happen

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

No improvement

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e. D.

 

Explanation:

  • The present perfect tense is used to show that an action has taken place once or many times before now. It is most frequently used to talk about experiences or changes that have taken place.
  • For example:
  • ​He has achieved so much in his favorite subject.
  • Since the given sentence talks about the happenings that have taken place after the French Revolution, present perfect tense will serve the purpose in the latter part. Hence, 'much has happened' is the most appropriate choice here.

 

Correct Sentence: "**In India, today many of our intellectuals still talk in terms of the French Revolution and the Rights of Man, not appreciating that much has happened since then."

Question 28

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “No improvement”.

Taxpayers are to be conscious of their privileges.

  1. AOption (a)

    have to

  2. BOption (b)

    need

  3. COption (c)

    ought to

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

ought to

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. C.

Key Points

  • 'Ought to' is used to indicate duty or correctness, typically when criticizing someone's actions.
  • For example:
  • ​They ought to respect the law.
  • Whereas ​'have to' is used to express certainty, necessity, and obligation.
  • For example:
  • ​I have to go to Vermont tomorrow.
  • Since the given statement is more similar to a form of advice, 'ought to' is the most appropriate choice here.

 

Correct Sentence: *"*Taxpayers ought to be conscious of their privileges."

Question 29

In the following question, out of the four alternatives, select the alternative which will improve the underlined part of the sentence. In case no improvement is needed, select “No improvement”.

I would have waited for you at the station if I knew that you would come.

  1. AOption (a)

    had known

  2. BOption (b)

    was knowing

  3. COption (c)

    have known

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

had known

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. A.

Key Points

Conditional sentences are statements discussing known factors or hypothetical situations and their consequences.

  • One of the structures is mentioned below:

  • This particular type is followed when something didn't happen as a certain condition wasn't fulfilled.

  • If + Past perfect, Subject + Would have + V3 + Object.**

  • For example:

  • If I had noticed you, I would had call you. 

  • If I had noticed you, I would have called you. 

​

  • Hence in the underlined part of the given sentence, 'had known' will be used instead of 'knew'.

 

Correct Sentence: "I would have waited for you at the station if I had known that you would come."

Question 30

Direction: Look at the underlined part of each sentence. Below each sentence is given three possible substitutions for the underlined part. If one of them, a), b) or c), is better than the underlined part, indicate your response on the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter a), b) or c). If none of the substitutions improve the sentence, indicate d) as your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus a ‘No improvement’ response will be signified by the letter d).

No one could explain how a calm and balanced person like him could penetrate such a mindless act on his friends.

  1. AOption (a)

    perpetuate

  2. BOption (b)

    perpetrate

  3. COption (c)

    precipitate

  4. DOption (d)

    No improvement

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

perpetrate

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. B.

 

Explanation:

  • Let's have a look at the meanings of the given words:
  • Penetrate- go into or through (something), especially with force or effort.
  • Perpetuate- make something continue indefinitely.
  • Perpetrate- carry out or commit (a harmful, illegal, or immoral action).
  • Precipitate- cause (an event or situation, typically one that is undesirable) to happen suddenly, unexpectedly, or prematurely.
  • ​Of the given options, 'perpetrate' i.e 2nd option is the most appropriate as per the context of the sentence.

 

Correct Sentence: "No one could explain how a calm and balanced person like him could perpetrate such a mindless act on his friends."

Question 31

Direction: In the items in this section, each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper order for the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

S1: At the roadside, the driver will be asked to blow through a small glass tube into a plastic bag.

S6: The driver will be asked to go to the police station.

P: And if the colour change does not reach the line the driver cannot be punished under the new law.

Q: Inside the tube are chemically treated crystals which change colour if the driver has alcohol on his breath.

R: But if the colour change does reach the line then the test has proved positive.

S: If the colour change goes beyond a certain line marked on the tube this indicates that the driver is probably over the specified limit.

The proper sequence should be

  1. AOption (a)

    P S Q R

  2. BOption (b)

    S Q R P

  3. COption (c)

    R P S Q

  4. DOption (d)

    Q S P R

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Q S P R

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 4) i.e D.

 

Explanation:

  • Since the introductory part is already there, Q will be the 1st statement as it takes the story forward by providing more information about the glass tube.
  • As we can see there is only one option with Q as the 1st statement i.e 4th option.
  • Hence the correct order will be: Q-S-P-R.

Question 32

Direction: In the items in this section, each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find out the proper order for the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

S1: Hope springs eternally in the heart of man.

S6: This is the central idea of the poem.

P: But hope is everlasting.

Q: Love, friendship, and youth perish.

R: It is nursed by the glorious elements of nature.

S: Man derives hope from nature in his gallant struggle after some noble ideal.

The proper sequence should be

  1. AOption (a)

    Q P R S

  2. BOption (b)

    S R Q P

  3. COption (c)

    R S Q P

  4. DOption (d)

    Q P S R

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Q P R S

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e A.

 

Explanation:

  • Since the introductory part is already there, Q will be the 1st statement as it takes the story forward by talking about other attributes like love and friendship.
  • The next statement will be P as contradicts the last statement and states 'hope' as 'everlasting'.
  • Now the statement P must be followed by S as it tells the source from which man derives 'hope'.
  • And the concluding statement will be S.
  • Hence the correct order will be: Q-P-R-S.

Question 33

Direction: In the items in this section, each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find out the proper order for the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

S1: Mr. Sherlock Holmes and Doctor Watson were spending a weekend in a University town.

S6: It was clear that something very unusual happened.

P: One evening they received a visit from an acquaintance, Mr. Hilton Soames.

Q: On that occasion, he was in a state of great agitation.

R: They were staying in furnished rooms, close to the library.

S: Mr. Soames was a tall, thin man of a nervous and excitable nature.

The proper sequence should be

  1. AOption (a)

    P R S Q

  2. BOption (b)

    R P S Q

  3. COption (c)

    P Q R S

  4. DOption (d)

    R P Q S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

R P S Q

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e B.

 

Explanation:

  • Since the introductory part is already there, R will be the 1st statement as it takes the story forward by talking about the place where Mr. Sherlock Holmes and Doctor Watson were staying.
  • The next statement will be P as tells us about the visit by someone who was known to them.
  • Now the statement P must be followed by S as it narrates how Mr. Soames looked like.
  • And the concluding statement will be Q.
  • Hence the correct order will be: R-P-S-Q.

Question 34

Direction: In the items in this section, each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find out the proper order for the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

S1: The machines that drive modern civilisation derive their power from coal and oil.

S6: Nuclear energy may also be effectively used in this respect.

P: But they are not inexhaustible.

Q: These sources may not be exhausted very soon.

R: A time may come when some other sources have to be tapped and utilised.

S: Power may, of course, be obtained in future from forests, water, wind and withered vegetables.

The proper sequence should be

  1. AOption (a)

    P Q R S

  2. BOption (b)

    Q P R S

  3. COption (c)

    S R Q P

  4. DOption (d)

    S P Q R

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Q P R S

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e B.

 

Explanation:

  • Since the introductory part is already there, Q will be the 1st statement as it tells us more about the idea of exhaustion of sources of power.
  • The next statement will be P as it further states that the sources are exhaustible.
  • Now the statement P must be followed by R as it makes us explore other sources of power as well.
  • And the concluding statement will be S.
  • Hence the correct order will be: Q-P-R-S.

Question 35

Direction: In the items in this section, each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find out the proper order for the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

S1: The body can never stop.

S6: It comes from food.

P: To support this endless activity, the body needs all the fuel for action.

Q: Sometimes it is more active than at other times, but it is always moving.

R: Even in the deepest sleep we must breathe.

S: The fuel must come from somewhere.

The proper sequence should be

  1. AOption (a)

    P Q R S

  2. BOption (b)

    P R Q S

  3. COption (c)

    Q R P S

  4. DOption (d)

    S R Q P

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Q R P S

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e C.

 

Explanation:

  • Since the introductory part is already there, Q will be the 1st statement as it furthers the statement in S1.
  • The next statement will be R as it takes us to another aspect of body movement mentioned as 'breathing'.
  • Now the statement R must be followed by P as it talks about the idea of catalyst needed for an activity.
  • And the concluding statement will be S.
  • Hence the correct order will be: Q-R-P-S.

Question 36

Direction: In the items in this section, each passage consists of six sentences. The first and the sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R, and S. You are required to find out the proper order for the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

S1: American idealism is essentially a belief in the idea of progress.

S6: This sense they have inherited from the English.

P: Therefore, he believes that because of human effort the future will be better than the past.

Q: But if Americans are usually optimistic, they are not wholly unrealistic.

R: The American tends to view history as a record of human achievement.

S: They have some common-sense practicality.

The proper sequence should be

  1. AOption (a)

    P Q R S

  2. BOption (b)

    P Q S R

  3. COption (c)

    R P Q S

  4. DOption (d)

    P R Q S

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

R P Q S

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e C.

 

Explanation:

  • Since the introductory part is already there, R will be the 1st statement as it gives us the idea about how an American thinks of history.
  • The next statement will be P as it states the consequences of human efforts in the future.
  • Now the statement P must be followed by Q as it tells us about the pragmatic aspect of an American.
  • And the concluding statement will be S.
  • Hence the correct order will be: R-P-Q-S.

Direction: In the following passage at certain points you are given a choice of three words marked a), b) and c), one of which fits the meaning of the passage. Choose the best word out of the three. Mark the letter, viz., a), b) or c), relating to this word on your Answer Sheet.

Passage

After having slept for an hour, Bond decided to go out into the city and try to find his contact. After changing his suit, he carefully locked his room and stepped out of the hotel. No one was around. But he had walked only for a few minutes when it suddenly ---(1)--- to him that he was being ----(2)--- by someone. There was no----(3)--- for it except a very slight ----(4)---- of footsteps. He was now walking ----(5)--- the main street, which was crowded ----(6)--- people. He became extremely aware of the danger of people threatening him.

Question 37

What would Come in place of 1?

  1. AOption (a)

    Felt 

  2. BOption (b)

    occurred 

  3. COption (c)

    Happend 

  4. DOption (d)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

occurred 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. B.

 

Explanation:

  • Let's have a look at the meanings of the given words:
  • Felt- be aware of (a person or object) through touching or being touched.
  • Occurred- (of a thought or idea) come into the mind of.
  • Happened- be experienced by (someone).
  • In the given sentence, the subject thinks that he is being followed by someone.
  • Hence the most appropriate of the given options is 'occurred' i.e 2nd option.

Question 38

What would Come in place of 2? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Followed 

  2. BOption (b)

    Shot

  3. COption (c)

    Looked 

  4. DOption (d)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Followed 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. A.

 

Explanation:

  • Let's have a look at the meanings of the given words:
  • Followed- go or come after (a person or thing proceeding ahead); move or travel behind.
  • Shot- kill or wound (a person or animal) with a bullet or arrow.
  • Looked- direct one's gaze in a specified direction.
  • In the given sentence, it is evident from the former blank that the subject has a notion of being pursued by someone.
  • Hence the most appropriate of the given options is 'followed' i.e 1st option.

Question 39

What would Come in place of 3?

  1. AOption (a)

    Reason

  2. BOption (b)

    Cause

  3. COption (c)

    Evidence

  4. DOption (d)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Evidence

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. C.

 

Explanation:

  • Let's have a look at the meanings of the given words:
  • ​Reason- a cause, explanation, or justification for an action or event.
  • Cause-*** a person or thing that gives rise to an action, phenomenon, or condition.*
  • Evidence-*** the available body of facts or information indicating whether a belief or proposition is true or valid.*
  • In the given sentence, the subject wants some sort of corroboration to confirm the fact that he is being pursued by someone.
  • Hence the most appropriate of the given options is 'evidence' i.e 3rd option.

Question 40

What would Come in place of 4?

  1. AOption (a)

    Weight

  2. BOption (b)

    Sound

  3. COption (c)

    Hurting

  4. DOption (d)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Sound

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. B.

 

Explanation:

  • Let's have a look at the meanings of the given words:
  • ​Weight- a measure of the heaviness of an object; the amount anything weighs.
  • Sound- it is a vibration that propagates as an acoustic wave, through a transmission medium such as a gas, liquid or solid.
  • Hurting- cause pain or injury to.
  • In the given sentence, the term 'footsteps' given just after the blank (40), suggests that the subject heard a sound of footsteps.
  • Hence the most appropriate of the given options is 'sound' i.e 2nd option.

Question 41

What would Come in place of 5?

  1. AOption (a)

    From

  2. BOption (b)

    Down

  3. COption (c)

    Over

  4. DOption (d)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Down

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. B.

 

Explanation:

  • Let's have a look at the phrasal verb given below:
  • ​Walk down- to travel by foot along the lane.
  • ​The given phrase is used as the way it is, without any alterations.
  • For example:
  • ​I was walking down the street when came across an old friend.
  • Hence the most appropriate of the given options is 'down' i.e 2nd option.

Question 42

What would Come in place of 6?

  1. AOption (a)

    With

  2. BOption (b)

    By

  3. COption (c)

    In

  4. DOption (d)

    None of these

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

With

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. A.

 

Explanation:

  • Let's have a look at the phrasal verb given below:
  • ​Crowded with- filled with many or too many people or things.
  • ​The given phrase is used as the way it is, without any alterations.
  • 'Crowded by' is used sometimes but 'crowded with' is more appropriate grammatically.
  • For example:
  • ​The restaurant was crowded with people.
  • Hence the most appropriate of the given options is 'with' i.e 1st option.

Question 43

Directions

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.

He was fired for negligence on duty.

  1. AOption (a)

    relieved of his job

  2. BOption (b)

    scolded

  3. COption (c)

    rebuked

  4. DOption (d)

    attacked

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

relieved of his job

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'relieved of his job'.

Key Points

  • The given word 'fired' means to remove an employee from a job. (कर्मचारी को नौकरी से निकाल देना)
  • ​Let's see the meaning of other given options:-
  • 'Relieved of his job' means to release someone from duty. (किसी को कर्तव्य से मुक्त करना)
  • 'Scolded' means to speak angrily to somebody because he or she has done something bad or wrong. (ख़राब या ग़लत काम के लिए किसी को डाँटना; फटकारना)
  • 'Rebuked' means to speak angrily to somebody because he or she has done something wrong. (ग़लती पर डाँटना-फटकारना)
  • 'Attacked' means to damage or harm somebody or something. (हानि पहुँचाना)

Hence, the correct answer is option 1.

<br>

Additional Information

  • The synonyms of the word 'fired' are "relieved, released, removed".
  • The antonyms of the word 'fired' are "employed, hired, retained".
  • Example of 'fired' in a sentence:
  • He got fired because he was lazy.

Question 44

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.

Democracy is not the standardising of everyone so as to obliterate all peculiarity.

  1. AOption (a)

    demolish

  2. BOption (b)

    extinguish

  3. COption (c)

    erase

  4. DOption (d)

    change

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

erase

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. C.

 Key Points

  • The given word 'obliterate' means destroy utterly; wipe out. (पूरी तरह से नष्ट; मिटा दो)
  • Let's have a look at the meanings of the given words:
  • Demolish- pull or knock down (a building). (खींचो या खटखटाओ (एक इमारत))
  • Extinguish- cause (fire or light) to cease to burn or shine. (कारण (आग या प्रकाश) जलना या चमकना बंद करना)
  • Erase- remove all traces of; destroy or obliterate. (के सभी निशान हटा दें; नष्ट करना या मिटा देना)
  • Change- make or become different. (बनाना या अलग होना)
  • The most appropriate synonym of the given options is 'erase' i.e 3rd option.

Question 45

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.

Divine grace is truly ineffable.

  1. AOption (a)

    that which cannot be rubbed out

  2. BOption (b)

    incapable of being understood

  3. COption (c)

    that which is too great to be expressed in words

  4. DOption (d)

    too powerful to be defeated

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

that which is too great to be expressed in words

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. C.

 

Explanation:

  • The given word 'ineffable' means too great or extreme to be expressed or described in words.
  • Let's have a look at the meanings of the given expressions:
  • That which cannot be rubbed out- Indelible.
  • Incapable of being understood- Unitellegible, unfathomable.
  • Too powerful to be defeated- Invincible, insuperable.
  • The most appropriate synonym of the given options is 'too great or extreme to be expressed or described in words.' i.e 3rd option.

Question 46

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the underlined word.

The convocation address was very edifying.

  1. AOption (a)

    tedious

  2. BOption (b)

    in need of editing

  3. COption (c)

    instructive

  4. DOption (d)

    exciting

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

instructive

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. C.

 

Explanation:

  • The given word 'edifying' means p**roviding moral or intellectual instruction.
  • Let's have a look at the meanings of the given words:
  • Tedious- too long, slow, or dull; tiresome or monotonous.
  • Instructive- useful and informative.
  • Exciting- causing great enthusiasm and eagerness.
  • The most appropriate synonym of the given options is 'Instructive' i.e 3rd option.

Question 47

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word, followed by four words. Select the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

John is always shabbily dressed.

  1. AOption (a)

    decently

  2. BOption (b)

    beautifully

  3. COption (c)

    extravagantly

  4. DOption (d)

    scantily

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

decently

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 1) i.e. A.

Key Points:- 

  • The given word 'Shabbily' means wearing worn clothes or having a slovenly or unkempt appearance. (पहने हुए कपड़े पहनना या एक गंदे या बेदाग दिखने वाला)
  • Let's have a look at the meanings of the given words:
  • Decently- in a way that conforms to generally accepted standards of respectable or moral behavior. (एक  तरह से जो सम्मानजनक या नैतिक व्यवहार के आम तौर पर स्वीकृत मानकों के अनुरूप हो)
  • Beautifully- in a way that pleases the senses or mind aesthetically. (एक तरह से जो इंद्रियों या मन को सौंदर्य से प्रसन्न करता है)
  • Extravagantly- with a lack of restraint in spending money or using resources. (पैसे खर्च करने या संसाधनों का उपयोग करने में संयम की कमी के साथ)
  • Scantily- in a way that is small or insufficient in quantity or amount. (एक प्रकार से जो मात्रा या मात्रा में छोटा या अपर्याप्त हो)
  • The most appropriate antonym of the given options is 'Decently' i.e 1st option.

Question 48

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word, followed by four words. Select the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

The new manager of the Bank is urbane in his manners.

  1. AOption (a)

    civilised

  2. BOption (b)

    slow

  3. COption (c)

    rude

  4. DOption (d)

    foolish

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

rude

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. C.

 

Explanation:

  • The given word 'Urbane' means of a person, especially a man) courteous and refined in manner. (एक व्यक्ति, विशेष रूप से एक आदमी) विनम्र और तरीके से परिष्कृत)
  • Let's have a look at the meanings of the given words:
  • Civilised*-* polite and behave in a calm and reasonable way. (विनम्र और शांत और उचित तरीके से व्यवहार करें।)
  • Slow- 

moving or operating, or designed to do so, only at a low speed; not quick or fast. (चलती या संचालन, या ऐसा करने के लिए डिज़ाइन किया गया, केवल कम गति पर; जल्दी या तेज नहीं)

  • Rude- offensively impolite or bad-mannered. (आक्रामक रूप से अभद्र या बुरे आचरण वाला)
  • Foolish- lacking good sense or judgement; unwise. (अच्छी समझ या निर्णय की कमी; मूर्ख)
  • The most appropriate antonym of the given options is 'Rude' i.e 3rd option.

Question 49

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word, followed by four words. Select the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

It is necessary to develop thrifty habits to be able to lead a comfortable life.

  1. AOption (a)

    expensive

  2. BOption (b)

    extravagant

  3. COption (c)

    economical

  4. DOption (d)

    good

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

extravagant

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 2) i.e. B.

 

Explanation:

  • The given word 'thrifty' means using money and other resources carefully and not wastefully.
  • Let's have a look at the meanings of the given words:
  • Expensive- costing a lot of money.
  • Extravagant- lacking restraint in spending money or using resources.
  • Economical- giving good value or return in relation to the money, time, or effort expended.
  • Good- to be desired or approved of.
  • The most appropriate antonym of the given options is 'Extravagant' i.e 2nd option.

Question 50

Direction: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word, followed by four words. Select the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

Many people suffer because of pride.

  1. AOption (a)

    lowliness

  2. BOption (b)

    submission

  3. COption (c)

    humility

  4. DOption (d)

    obedience

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

humility

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is option 3) i.e. C.

 

Explanation:

  • The given word 'pride' means a feeling or deep pleasure or satisfaction derived from one's own achievements.
  • Let's have a look at the meanings of the given words:
  • Lowliness- low in growth or position.​
  • Submission- the action of accepting or yielding to a superior force or to the will or authority of another person.
  • Humility- the quality of having a modest or low view of one's importance.
  • Obedience- compliance w**ith an order, request, or law or submission to another's authority.
  • The most appropriate antonym of the given options is 'Humility' i.e 3rd option.

Question 51

Directions

The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Statement I: Growth of plants is smooth with a complete fertilizer.

Statement II: A complete fertilizer always contains N, P, K.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of statement I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2.

  • The growth of plants is smooth with a complete fertilizer. Hence statement I is correct
  • Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium, Calcium, Magnesium, etc. are the essential elements for plant growth.
  • Plants cannot absorb these elements directly from the air even though elements like Nitrogen is available in a large amount (some of the plants in association with N2-fixing bacteria, especially roots of legumes, can fix this atmospheric nitrogen into biologically usable forms).
  • Some of these elements will deplete in the soil very quickly and hence plants can absorb it in the form of complete fertilizers.
  • A complete fertilizer always contains N, P, K. Hence statement II is correct.
  • A complete fertilizer is a fertilizer that contains the three main plant nutrients: Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P), and Potassium (K).
  • Potassium helps plants to develop strong stems and growing fast.
  • Nitrogen helps plants for the growth of leaf and green color.
  • Phosphorous helps plants to form new roots, make seeds, fruit, and flowers.
  • There are six essential nutrients namely nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, magnesium, sulfur, and calcium are essential for the growth of plants. Hence Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.

Question 52

Directions

The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Statement I: The granules of modern gunpowder (also called black powder) are typically coated with Graphite.

Statement II: Graphite prevents the build-up of electrostatic charge.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of statement I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of statement I

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

  • The granules of modern gunpowder (also called black powder) are typically coated with Graphite, hence statement I is correct.
  • Modern gun powder consists of Potassium nitrate, Charcoal and Sulfur in 75%, 15%, and 10% respectively.
  • Each of these components plays an important role in the combustion of gunpowder.
  • Use of Graphite in the form of a coating reduces moisture absorption, which could prevent gunpowder from igniting.
  • Gunpowder has been widely used as a propellant in firearms, rockets, and fireworks.
  • Graphite prevents the build-up of electrostatic charge. Hence statement II is correct.
  • Graphite is a crystalline form of the element carbon with hexagonal structure.
  • It is a good conductor of heat and electricity.
  • Graphite lubricates the particles and also confirm the powder electricity is conductive enough to avoid accidental discharges.
  • Used in electronic products such as electrodes, batteries, and solar panels.
  • To minimize the chance of accidental ignition by static electricity, the granules of modern black powder are typically coated with graphite, which prevents the build-up of electrostatic charge. Hence Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

Question 53

Directions

The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Statement I: Colour of Nitrogen dioxide changes to colourless at low temperature.

Statement II: At low temperature Nitrogen tetroxide (N2O4) is formed which is colourless.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of statement I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of statement I

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1.

  • Colour of Nitrogen dioxide changes to colourless at low temperature. Hence statement I is correct.
  • Nitrogen dioxide is one of several nitrogen oxides with chemical formula NO2.
  • At higher temperatures, it is a reddish-brown gas.
  • As the temperature decreases (below -11.2 °C), it converts to the colorless Dinitrogen tetroxide(N2O4).
  • NO2 is used as an intermediate in the manufacturing of nitric acid.
  • NO2 exists in equilibrium with the colourless gas Dinitrogen tetroxide (N2O4).
  • At low temperature Nitrogen tetroxide (N2O4) is formed which is colourless.
  • Dinitrogen tetroxide, commonly referred to as Nitrogen tetroxide.
  • It is a useful reagent in chemical synthesis.
  • As the temperature reduces below -11.2 °C, N2O changes to N2O4, which is colourless in nature.
  • Reddish-brown N2O will change to colourless N2O4 in low temperature. Hence Statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.

Question 54

Directions

The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Statement I: Diamond is very bright.

Statement II: Diamond has very low refractive index

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of statement I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

  • Diamond is very bright, hence statement I is correct.
  • Diamond is a solid form of carbon.
  • Diamond shows the highest hardness and thermal conductivity comparing to other natural material.
  • Due to the high refractive index of diamond (2.417), a greater percentage of the incident light gets internally reflected several times before it emerges from the diamond, this makes the diamond bright.
  • Diamond has a very high refractive index, nearly 2.417, hence the Statement II is false.

Question 55

Directions

The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:

Statement I: Oxygen gas is easily produced at a faster rate by heating a mixture of Potassium Chlorate and Manganese dioxide than heating Potassium chlorate alone.

Statement II: Manganese dioxide acts as a negative catalyst.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of statement I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 3.

  • Oxygen gas is easily produced at a faster rate by heating a mixture of Potassium Chlorate and Manganese dioxide than heating Potassium chlorate alone, hence Statement I is true.
  • When Potassium chlorate (KClO3) is heated in the presence of a Manganese dioxide catalyst, it breaks down and form Potassium chloride and oxygen gas.
  • KClO3→MnO22KCl+3O2KClO_3 \xrightarrow{\text{MnO2}} 2 KCl+3O_2
  • Oxygen gas is easily produced at a faster rate in the above reaction than heating Potassium chlorate alone.
  • Manganese dioxide will act as a positive catalyst here.
  • A catalyst is a substance that causes an increase in the rate of a chemical reaction without being used up in the reaction.
  • If catalyst increases the rate of a reaction then the catalyst is known as the positive catalyst.
  • Manganese dioxide acts as a positive catalyst, hence Statement II is false.

Question 56

Statement I: A body weighs less on a hill top than on earth's surface even though its mass remains unchanged.

Statement II: The acceleration due to gravity of the earth decreases with height.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The acceleration achieved by any object due to the gravitational force of attraction by any planet is called acceleration due to gravity by the earth.
  • As each planet has different mass and radius so the acceleration due to gravity will be different for different planet.

 

Acceleration due to gravity of earth having mass M on the surface of the earth is given by:

g=GMR2g = \frac{{GM}}{{{R^2}}}

Acceleration due to gravity at height (h) above the earth’s surface is given by:

Acceleration;due;to;gravity;at;height;(g′)=g;(1+hR)2Acceleration;due;to;gravity;at;height;\left( {g'} \right) = \frac{{g;}}{{{{\left( {1 + \frac{h}{R}} \right)}^2}}}

Where G is Universal gravitational constant, R is radius of the earth and h is height

Weight (W) = m g

EXPLANATION:

Weight on earth’s surface is given by:

W = m g

Weight on the hill top of height h is given by:

W′=m;g′=m;g;(1+hR)2W' = m;g' = \frac{{m;g;}}{{{{\left( {1 + \frac{h}{R}} \right)}^2}}}

W > W’

  • The acceleration due to gravity above the earth’s surface decreases with height and hence the weight of the body is less at the hill top than at the earth’s surface. Thus statement II is correct explanation for statement I. So option 1 is correct.

Question 57

Statement I: While putting clothes for drying up, we spread them out.

Statement II: The rate of evaporation increases with an increase in surface area.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Heat Transfer: Heat is transferred from one place to another in substance due to temperature difference.

 

Three modes of Transmission of heat
Sl. NoConductionConvectionRadiation
1Heat dissipates from one place to another by molecular vibrationHeat is transfer from one place to another by transfer of moleculesIt transfers heat in the form of electromagnetic wave
2Conduction is relevant to solid only.Convection happens in liquid or gasesIt can heat any form of material.
3Need medium to transfer heatNeed medium to transfer heatNo need of medium
4Good Conductor- The objects which transfer heat easily. Ex- metals, human body etc Bad Conductor- The objects which do not transfer heat easily. Ex- Wood, Air, etc. Thermal Insulator- No heat is transferred by any means. Ex- Abonite, asbestos etc.When molecules are heated they headed upward and upper molecules go downward and this cyclic process continues. Boiling of fluidHeat travels in terms of energy packets or waves The heat absorbed by body gain energy Radiations of Sun

 

  • Evaporation: In this process the liquid form a substance tends to convert in the gaseous phase on the uppermost surface due to heat and pressure.
  • Condensation: In this process the gaseous phase of an object tends to convert into liquid form due to pressure and temperature.

 

EXPLANATION:

  • When we increased the surface area then more liquid will be exposed to air at a given time, and therefore, more water can evaporate in given period of time. So cloths will dry up soon.
  • The statement II is correct explanation for statement I. So option 1 is correct.

Question 58

Statement I: Due to diffused or irregular reflection of light, a closed room gets light even if no direct sunlight falls inside the room.

Statement II: Irregular reflection, where the reflected rays are not parallel, does not follow the laws of reflection.

  1. AOption (a)

    Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

  2. BOption (b)

    Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

  3. COption (c)

    Statement I is true but Statement II is false

  4. DOption (d)

    Statement I is false but Statement II is true

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Laws of reflection: The angle of reflection equals the angle of incidence.
  • The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal lie in the same plane.
  • When light rays strikes on a smooth plane surface then the reflection is called regular reflection.
  • When light reflects at many angles after the incidence on the surface, such a reflection is called as diffuse reflection.
  • Light rays are not parallel to each other after irregular reflection, but they obeys laws of reflection at each point of reflection.

 

EXPLANATION:

  • In case of room, due to diffused reflection, the light gets spread in whole room and the room gets light. So statement I is correct.
  • The laws of reflection are followed by both- regular reflection as well as diffused reflection. So statement II is wrong. Hence option 3 is correct.

Question 59

Ultrasonic waves of frequency 3 × 105 Hz are passed through a medium where speed of sound is 10 times that in air (Speed of sound is 300 m/s). The wavelength of this wave in the medium will be of the order of

  1. AOption (a)

    1 cm

  2. BOption (b)

    10 cm

  3. COption (c)

    100 cm

  4. DOption (d)

    0.1 cm

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 cm

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • The sound waves propagate through air in different frequency, among this human ears can only sense sound of bandwidth 20 Hz-20 kHz.
  • Sound waves with frequency greater than audible waves is known as Ultrasonic waves.
  • The wavelength of this wave can be defined as displacement made when a wave complete its one oscillation
  • And relation between wavelength (λ), frequency (n) and velocity (v) can be given as

v = n × λ

Calculation:

Given that,

Frequency (n) = 3 × 105 Hz

Velocity of sound in air = 300 m/s

Velocity of sound in medium = 10 × 300 m/s

Now Wavelength of ultrasonic wave can be calculated using relation

v;=;n×λ⇒λ=vn=30003×105=0.01;m=1;cmv; = ;n \times \lambda \Rightarrow \lambda = \frac{v}{n} = \frac{{3000}}{{3 \times {{10}^5}}} = 0.01;m = 1;cm

Question 60

If radius of the earth were to shrink by 1%, its mass remains the same, g would increase by nearly

  1. AOption (a)

    1%

  2. BOption (b)

    2%

  3. COption (c)

    3%

  4. DOption (d)

    4%

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2%

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Acceleration Due to Gravity:

  • The force of attraction exerted by the earth on a body is called gravitational pull or gravity.
  • The acceleration produced in the motion of a body under the effect of gravity is called acceleration due to gravity, it is denoted by g.
  • If g is the acceleration due to gravity, then

g=GMR2g = \frac{{GM}}{{{R^2}}}

Where G = universal gravitational constant, M = mass of the earth, and R = radius of the earth.

  • Error in the division of quantities: Suppose x=abx = \frac{a}{b}
  • The maximum fractional error in x is Δxx=Δaa+Δbb\frac{{{\rm{\Delta }}x}}{x} = \frac{{{\rm{\Delta }}a}}{a} + \frac{{{\rm{\Delta }}b}}{b}

CALCULATION:

Given that,

  • Radius of the earth were to shrink by 1% → R1 = R and R2 = (100-1)% of R2 = 0.99×R
  • its mass remains the same → m = m1 = m2​

​

Acceleration due to gravity is before shrinking is

g1=Gm1R12=GmR12{g_1} = \frac{{G{m_1}}}{{R_1^2}} = \frac{{Gm}}{{R_1^2}}        ---------(1)

Acceleration due to gravity is after shrinking is

g2=Gm2R22=GmR22{g_2} = \frac{{G{m_2}}}{{R_2^2}} = \frac{{Gm}}{{R_2^2}}        ---------(2)

Divide equation 1 and 2, we get

g1g2=GmR12GmR22=R22R12\frac{{{g_1}}}{{{g_2}}} = \frac{{\frac{{Gm}}{{R_1^2}}}}{{\frac{{Gm}}{{R_2^2}}}} = \frac{{R_2^2}}{{R_1^2}}

g1g2=R22R12=0.992×R2R2=0.992\frac{{{g_1}}}{{{g_2}}} = \frac{{R_2^2}}{{R_1^2}} = \frac{{{{0.99}^2} \times {R^2}}}{{{R^2}}} = {0.99^2}

g1=;;0.98;g2{g_1} = ;;0.98;{g_2} ⇒ g2 = 1.02 g1

Hence net change is gravitational Δg = g2 - g1 = (1.02 – 1) × g1

Δg = 0.02 × g1

⇒ Δg = 2% of g1

Question 61

The displacement-time graph of a particle acted upon by a constant force is

  1. AOption (a)

    A straight line

  2. BOption (b)

    A circle

  3. COption (c)

    A parabola

  4. DOption (d)

    Any curve depending upon initial conditions

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A parabola

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Force acting on a particle is directly proportional to its mass and the rate at which it is accelerating

Either F = ma

The relation between acceleration, displacement and time can be given using kinetic equation

s = ut +1/2 at2

Explanation:

  • If a force acting on a particle is constant, the rate of its acceleration will be constant too
  • Hence s = ut +1/2 at2
  • Comparing this with parabola equation y = mx2
  • The relation between displacement and time is quadratic when the acceleration is constant and therefore this curve is a parabola.
  • The displacement-time graph consists of a curved-line whose gradient (slope) is increasing in time.

Question 62

Which one of the following is not a result of surface tension?

  1. AOption (a)

    Nearly spherical drop of rain

  2. BOption (b)

    Capillary rise

  3. COption (c)

    Removal of dirt by soap or detergent

  4. DOption (d)

    Flow of a liquid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Flow of a liquid

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The property of a liquid due to which its free surface tries to have the minimum surface area and behaves as if it were under tension somewhat like a stretched elastic membrane is called surface tension.
  • The surface tension of a liquid is measured by the force acting per unit length on either side of an imaginary line drawn on the free surface of the liquid i.e.
  • Surface;tension=ForcelengthSurface;tension = \frac{{Force}}{{length}}

EXPLANATION:

  • Surface tension is the result of the cohesive force among the liquid molecules, which always tries to make the surface area of the liquid droplet minimum.

  • Hence due to exertion of surface tension by the molecules, water droplets always take a round shape whenever they are allowed to move freely and thus because of this we see a nearly spherical drop of rain.

  • The oil and grease spots on clothes cannot be removed by pure water. On the other hand, when detergents (like soap) are added in water, the surface tension of water decreases. As a result of this, the wetting power of soap solution increases. Also the force of adhesion between soap solution and oil or grease on the clothes increases. Thus, oil, grease, and dirt particles get mixed with soap solution easily. Hence clothes are washed easily.

  • The cohesive forces are responsible for surface tension between liquid molecules and wall of container hence along the wall of the surface liquid is more bound and rises above compared to centre this is known as capillary action which cause Capillary rise

  • Hence only option 4 is not a result of surface tension among all.

  • Surface tension of all lubricating oils and paints is kept low so that they spread over a large area.

Question 63

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Compound)List II (Nature)
A.Sodium hydroxide1.Strong acid
B.Calcium oxide2.Alkali
C.Acetic acid3.Weak acid
D.Hydrochloric acid4.Base
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 2, B - 4, C - 3, D - 1

  3. COption (c)

    A - 1, B - 4, C - 3, D - 2

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 1, B - 3, C - 4, D - 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A - 2, B - 4, C - 3, D - 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e A - 2, B - 4, C - 3, D - 1.

CompoundNature
Sodium hydroxideAlkali
Calcium oxideBase
Acetic acidWeak Acid
Hydrochloric acidStrong Acid
  • Sodium hydroxide is also called caustic soda.
  • Formula: NaOH
  • Sodium hydroxide is highly soluble in water.
  • Used in the manufacture of pulp and paper, drinking water, soaps, and detergents.
  • Sodium hydroxide can be used for the detection of carbon monoxide poisoning.
  • Calcium oxide is commonly known as quicklime.
  • Formula: CaO.
  • Calcium oxide is usually made by the thermal decomposition of materials.
  • When quicklime is heated to 2400 °C, it emits an intense glow known as a limelight.
  • ​Acetic acid also called Ethanoic acid.
  • Formula: CH3COOH.
  • It is a weak acid.
  • Vinegar is made up of acetic acid and water.
  • Acetic acid is a chemical reagent for the production of chemical compounds.
  • Hydrochloric acid is also called Muriatic acid.
  • Formula: HCl.
  • Hydrochloric acid was discovered by Jabir ibn Hayyan.
  • It is a strong acidic.
  • Used in the production of polyvinyl chloride for plastic.

Question 64

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kerala is the largest producer of natural rubber in India

  2. BOption (b)

    Neyveli is an important thermal power generating area of Tamil Nadu

  3. COption (c)

    Ratnagiri Bauxite mining area is located in Karnataka

  4. DOption (d)

    Assam is the largest tea producing state in India

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Ratnagiri Bauxite mining area is located in Karnataka

Why this answer is correct

Option 3 is NOT correct.

  • Ratnagiri Bauxite mining area is located in Maharashtra. Hence, Option 3 is NOT correct.
  • Ratnagiri is also famous for Silica sand Sea sand and ilmenite.
  • Odisha is the largest Bauxite producing state in India.
  • Jharkhand is called the mineral state of India.
Kerala- A state known as spice garden of India. - The largest producer of natural rubber in India - Asia's first butterfly safari park is located in Kerala at Thenmala. - Highest gold consumption in the country. - The first state to have 100% primary education. - State with the Highest literacy rate in India. - The first state to have implemented education reform bills.
Tamil Nadu- Pichavaram mangrove forest is located in Tamilnadu. - The first state in India to have passed a law on the Right to Information. - India's first Women Police Commando Unit was formed in Tamil Nadu.
Assam- Kamarupa is the old name of Assam. - Shares International borders Bhutan and Bangladesh. - Largest tea-producing state in India. - Bihu is the major festival of Assam.

Question 65

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Paper industry centre)List II (State)
A.Kamptee1.Karnataka
B.Rajahmundry2.Maharashtra
C.Shahdol3.Andhra Pradesh
D.Belagola4.Madhya Pradesh
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 1, B - 4, C - 3, D - 2

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1

  3. COption (c)

    A - 1, B - 3, C - 4, D - 2

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 2, B - 4, C - 3, D - 1

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2, i.e A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2.

Paper industry centreState
KampteeMaharashtra
RajahmundryAndhra Pradesh
ShahdolMadhya Pradesh
BelagolaKarnataka
  • The first paper mill in the country was set up at Serampore (Bengal) in 1812.
  • Raw materials used in the paper industry are: Bamboo, Salai Wood, Sabai, Bagasse’s, Waste Paper & Rags.
  • Major paper producing centres in Maharashtra: Pune, Nagpur, Balarshah,, Bhiwandi, Nandurbar, Kamptee, Vikroli, Chinchwad, Sangli, Kalyan, and Mumbai.
  • Major paper producing centres in Madhya Pradesh: Rajgarh, Indore, Shahdol, Ratlam, Abdullaganj, Rewa, Vidisha, and Bhopal.
  • Major paper producing centres in Andhra Pradesh: Pallancheru, Kakinada, Apidik, Bodhan, Rajahmundry, Sirpur, Tirupati, Kurnool, Khammam and, Srikakulam.
  • Major paper producing centres in Karnataka: Bangalore, Mandya, Ramnagaram and Krishnarajsagar, Bhadravati, Nandangaud, Belagola, Munirabad and, Harihar.

Question 66

The newly formed state of Telengana is surrounded by

  1. AOption (a)

    5 State

  2. BOption (b)

    4 States

  3. COption (c)

    6 States

  4. DOption (d)

    3 States

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

4 States

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 2 i.e 4 States.

Key Points

  • The state of Telangana was officially formed on 2nd June 2014 as the 29th state of India (Now there are only 28 states in India).
  • Telangana shares its border with four other Indian states namely Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Andhra Pradesh, and Karnataka.
  • A committee headed by former chief justice B. N. Srikrishna studied the formation of Telangana state.
  • Telangana has three National Parks: Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park, Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park, and Mrugavani National Park.
  • Indian tennis player Sania Mirza is the "brand ambassador" of Telangana.
  • Current Governor of Telangana: Tamilisai Soundararajan.
  • Current Chief Minister of Telangana: K. Chandrashekar Rao.

Mistake Points

  • Telangana is surrounded by Maharashtra and Chhattisgarh in the North, Karnataka in the West and Andhra Pradesh in the South and East directions.
  • Telangana Does not share a boundary with Odisha.

Question 67

Energy is required for maintenance of life. It is obtained by a process called.

  1. AOption (a)

    Metabolism

  2. BOption (b)

    Phagocytosis

  3. COption (c)

    Photorespiration

  4. DOption (d)

    Decomposition

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Metabolism

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 1 i.e Metabolism.

  • Metabolism is the chemical reaction in the body's cells that change food into energy.
  • The metabolic processes help for growth and reproduction and allow living organisms to maintain their structures.
  • The three main purposes of metabolism are:
  1. Conversion of food to energy.
  2. Conversion of food to building blocks for proteins, lipids, nucleic acids, and some carbohydrates.
  3. Elimination of nitrogenous wastes.
  • There are two categories of metabolism: Catabolism and Anabolism.
Phagocytosis- Process by which certain living cells called phagocytes ingest or engulf other cells or particles. - Phagocytosis was first noted by Canadian physician William Osler.
Photorespiration- Photorespiration occurs when the concentration of carbon dioxide is low and the concentration of oxygen is high. - Photorespiration does not produce energy-rich molecules such as ATP. - It reduces photosynthetic productivity
Decomposition- Decomposition is the process of breakdown of dead organic substances into simpler organic or inorganic matter. - Bodies of living organisms begin to decompose shortly after death. - Organisms that help in decomposition are known as decomposers.

Question 68

All life forms contain "molecules of life". These are

  1. AOption (a)

    Carbohydrates

  2. BOption (b)

    Proteins

  3. COption (c)

    Nucleic acids

  4. DOption (d)

    All of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All of the above

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Carbohydrates, Proteins, Nucleic acids.

Key Points

  • The four 'molecules of life' are proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids. Each of the four entities is vital for every single organism on Earth.
  • Proteins are the molecules found in cells.
  • Proteins make up more than half of the weight of the cell other than water
  • The protein is made of a long chain called amino acids.
  • A carbohydrate molecule is made up of atoms of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.
  • Nucleic acids consist of DNA and RNA.
  • DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) is a molecule that makes up the genetic material of a cell.
  • RNA (ribonucleic acid) molecules are used to translate the information which is stored in DNA molecules and use the information to help build proteins.

Question 69

If a charged particle (+q) is projected with a certain velocity parallel to the magnetic field, then it will

  1. AOption (a)

    Trace helical path

  2. BOption (b)

    Trace circular path

  3. COption (c)

    Continue its motion without any change

  4. DOption (d)

    Come to rest instantly

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Continue its motion without any change

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Force acting on a charged particle is given by Lorentz hence it is known as Lorentz force and it is expresses F;→=;q[E⃗−v⃗×B⃗];\overrightarrow {F;} = ;q\left[ {\vec E - \vec v \times \vec B} \right];

Net Force acting on charge = F

Force acting on the charge due to electric field = qE

Force acting on the charge due to magnetic field = qv×B or qvBsinθ

Where θ is the angle between the direction of the magnetic field and direction of motion of a particle

Explanation:

Given that if a charged particle (+q) is projected with certain velocity parallel to the magnetic which means that angle between the direction of magnetic field θ and direction of motion of a particle is 0°

And force acting Force acting on charge due to magnetic field = Fmagnetic = +qvBsin(0°)

∴ Fmagnetic = 0°

hence there is no net force acting on the charged particle (+) moving parallel to the magnetic field and because of this it will Continue its motion without any change

Question 70

optical fibers, through bent in any manner, allows light to pass through. What is the inference which can be drawn from it?

  1. AOption (a)

    The concept that light travel in a straight path is wrong

  2. BOption (b)

    Light can flow through the optical fibers

  3. COption (c)

    Light can travel through fibers because of their ductility

  4. DOption (d)

    Light can travel through the fibers due to multiple total internal reflections

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Light can travel through the fibers due to multiple total internal reflections

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Optical fibers are cylindrical solid glass material acting as waveguides made of two concentric layers of very pure glass.

The core (the interior layer) with refractive index n1 serves as the medium for light propagation, while the cladding (the exterior layer) has a lower refractive index n2 where n1 > n2 assuring that light rays are reflected to the core.

Since the cladding does not absorb any light from the core, the light wave can travel great distances.

Explanation:

  • The working principle of optical fibers is Total Internal Reflection.
  • Optical fiber mostly used for communication purposes with negligible loss of energy.
  • The “Total Internal Reflection” of light is the boundary between transparent media of two different refractive indices.
  • At present, Optical fiber cables are used for communication like sending images, voice messages, etc.
  • The designing of this cable is done with Plastic or glass so that data can be transmitted effectively and quickly than other modes of communications.

Question 71

Which one among the following happens when a swing rises to a certain height from its rest position?

  1. AOption (a)

    Its potential energy decreases while kinetic energy increases

  2. BOption (b)

    Its kinetic energy decreases while potential energy increases

  3. COption (c)

    Both potential and kinetic energy decrease

  4. DOption (d)

    Both potential and kinetic energy increase

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Its kinetic energy decreases while potential energy increases

Why this answer is correct

Concept –

Kinetic energy (KE) –

  • The energy possessed by a body by virtue of its motion is called kinetic energy.

 

KE=12mv2KE = \frac{1}{2}m{v^2}

Where, m = mass of the body and v = velocity of the body

Potential energy (PE) –

  • The energy possessed by a body by virtue of its position or configuration is called potential energy.

 

PE=mghPE = mgh

Where, m = mass of the body, g = acceleration due to gravity and h = height of the body

Explanation –

As the swing rises, its kinetic energy is converted to potential energy. And as we know that potential energy is the energy possessed by a body by virtue of its position or configuration. Therefore, as the height increases, PE increases because PE is equal mgh.

According to law of conservation of energy, total energy of the system is always conserved i.e. E = KE + PE = constant. Hence, we can say that KE decreases and PE increases.

Question 72

Which one among the following is used in making gunpowder?

  1. AOption (a)

    Magnesium sulphate

  2. BOption (b)

    Potassium nitrate

  3. COption (c)

    Sodium stearate

  4. DOption (d)

    Calcium sulphate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Potassium nitrate

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 2 i.e. Potassium nitrate.

Key Points

  • The gun powder is made of a mixture of Sulfur, Charcoal and Potassium nitrate.
  • The sulfur and charcoal in the mixture act as fuels while the potassium nitrate is an oxidizer.
  • Potassium nitrate is also known as Chile saltpetre.
  • Magnesium sulfate is used to control low blood levels of Magnesium and to prevent toxaemia during pregnancy.
  • Sodium stearate is a long chain of sodium salts of stearic acid.
  • It is a white solid which is most commonly known as soap.
  • Calcium sulphate is a calcium compound with the formula CaSO4.
  • It’s two common hydrates are Gypsum**(CaSO4.2H2O)** and Plaster of Paris (Caso4**.1/2**H2O).

Question 73

The cleaning action of soap and detergent in water is due to the formation of

  1. AOption (a)

    Micelle

  2. BOption (b)

    Salt

  3. COption (c)

    Base

  4. DOption (d)

    Acid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Micelle

Why this answer is correct

Explanation: 

  • When soap and detergent is added it breaks the cohesive forces between the liquid molecule
  • The soap molecules form structures called micelles
  • Oily dirt gets collected in the center of the micelle.
  • Because of this the surface tension of liquid decreases when detergent or soap is added on a surface of the liquid which leads to the removal of dirt which is accumulated on the surface of the liquid.
  • This is a reason why Soap micelles seem opaque can scatter light.

Question 74

The chemical used as a fixer/developer in photography is

  1. AOption (a)

    Sodium sulphate

  2. BOption (b)

    Sodium sulphide

  3. COption (c)

    Sodium thiosulphate

  4. DOption (d)

    Sodium sulphite

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sodium thiosulphate

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 3 i.e. Sodium thiosulphate.

  • Sodium thiosulphate​ and Ammonium thiosulfate are used as a fixer/developer in photography.
  • Photographic fixation is the final process in developing the film.
  • By fixation, the film or paper is insensitive to further action by light and fixes the image by removing the unexposed silver halides in the film.
  • Sodium sulfate(Na2SO4) is used as a filler in detergents and to dry organic liquids.
  • Sodium sulfide and Bleaching powder are used in the pulp and paper industry.
  • sodium sulphide is also used in water treatment, textile industry.

Question 75

Rain shadow effect is associated with

  1. AOption (a)

    Cyclonic rainfall

  2. BOption (b)

    Orographic rainfall

  3. COption (c)

    Convectional rainfall

  4. DOption (d)

    Frontal rainfall

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Orographic rainfall

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 2 i.e. Orographic rainfall.

  • Rainshadow effect is associated with mountains and this kind of rainfall involving geological structures are known as Orographic rainfalls.
  • Orographic rain is formed wherever moist air is forced to ascend a mountain barriers it is best developed on the windward slope.
  • It is also known as relief rain.
  • The leeward side gets less precipitation and hence remain dry. Ex- Vidarbha region of Maharashtra which is on the leeward side of Western Ghats.
  • Cyclonic rainfall is associated with cyclonic activity in temperate regions or in tropical regions. It is caused due to the convergence of two different air masses with different temperatures.
  • It is also known as frontal rain.
  • Conventional rain is caused by convection currents.
  • When the earth's surface is heated by conduction moisture-laden vapours rises because of heated air expands and becomes lighter this vapour condenses into cumulonimbus clouds. It is mostly associated with cumulonimbus clouds and thunderstorms.

Question 76

Match List I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List-I (Place)List-II (Industry)
A.Jabalpur1.Petrochemical industry
B.Bengaluru2.IT industry
C.Mathura3.Paper industry
D.Ballarpur4.Automobile industry
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 3, B - 2, C - 1, D - 4

  3. COption (c)

    A - 4, B - 2, C - 1, D - 3

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 3, B - 1, C - 2, D - 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A - 4, B - 2, C - 1, D - 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 3 i.e. A - 4, B - 2, C - 1, D - 3

  • Jabalpur is famous for Automobile industry.
  • Indian Army's Vehicle Factory division is at Jabalpur.
  • Bengaluru is known as the Silicon Valley of India because it is well known for its IT industry.
  • ​The Headquarters of ISRO and the Secretariat of the Department of Science is located in Bangalore.
  • Mathura is well known for its petrochemical industries and oil refineries.
  • ​Mathura Refinery of the Indian Oil Corporation is one of the biggest oil refineries of Asia.
  • Ballarpur is located in Maharashtra is famous for the Paper industry.
  • ​Ballarpur Industries Limited (BILT)  is located in Ballarpur is India's largest manufacturer of writing and printing paper.

Question 77

Which one of the following irrigation canals is the most important in terms of area coverage in Haryana?

  1. AOption (a)

    Bhakra canal

  2. BOption (b)

    The Western Yamuna canal

  3. COption (c)

    Jawaharlal Nehru canal

  4. DOption (d)

    Gurgaon canal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

The Western Yamuna canal

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is The Western Yamuna Canal.

  • The Western Yamuna canal is the most important in terms of area coverage in Haryana.

Key Points

  • The Western Yamuna canal has most area coverage in Haryana and Delhi and it is a branch of the Yamuna river
  • The Canal begins at the Hathnikund Barrage and has a total length of 3200 km.
  • Its branches include the Sirsa branch, Hansi branch, Butana Branch, Sunder Branch, Jind branch, Munak Canal, Delhi Branch.
  • Tributaries of Yamuna River:
  • Left bank- Hindon, Tons, Giri, Rishiganga, Hanuman Ganga, Sasur Khaderi.
  • Right bank- Chambal, Betwa, Ken, Sindh.

Additional Information

  • The Bhakra Canal System provides an irrigation facility to 27.41 hectares of land in Haryana, Punjab, and Rajasthan.
  • The BhakraSystem as a whole covers the area of District Kaithal,

Hisar, Sirsa, Fatehabad in Haryana, Ludhiana, Hashinagar, Ferozepur, and Jalandhar in Punjab and Bikaner in Rajasthan.

  • ​Jawaharlal Nehru Canal is located in Haryana.
  • It is situated east of Rasauli Distributary.
  • Gurgan Canal is located in Haryana.
  • It benefits Faridabad, Palwal, Mewat, and Gautam Buddha Nagar.
  • has been drawn at the Okhla Barrage from the Yamuna.

Question 78

Which one of the following is the smallest unit showing the properties of life such as capacity for metabolism, response to the environment, growth and reproduction?

  1. AOption (a)

    Gene

  2. BOption (b)

    Chromosome

  3. COption (c)

    Nucleus

  4. DOption (d)

    Cell

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Cell

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 4 i.e. Cell.

  • Cells are the smallest unit of life showing the properties such as the capacity for metabolism, response to the environment, growth and reproduction.
  • It is also called as 'building blocks of life'.
  • It consists of a nucleus and cytoplasm and is contained within the cell membrane.
  • Chromosomes are bundles of coiled DNA located within the nucleus of a cell.
  • Various disorders are caused due to change in the number or structure of chromosomes.  
  • | Syndrome | Abnormality | | --- | --- | | Down’s | Trisomy 21 | | Edwards’ | Trisomy 18 | | Patau’s | Trisomy 13 | | Turner | Monosomy X | | Klinefelter’s | XXY |

Question 79

In plants, which one of the following gases is released during Photosynthesis?

  1. AOption (a)

    Carbon dioxide

  2. BOption (b)

    Oxygen

  3. COption (c)

    Hydrogen

  4. DOption (d)

    Methane

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Oxygen

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 1 i.e. Oxygen

  • Oxygen is released during the process of photosynthesis.
  • Photosynthesis is the process involving the conversion of carbon dioxide gas, water, and minerals into sugar and oxygen.
  • The release of oxygen is due to the process of photolysis of water.
  • Manganese (Mn) is a metallic mineral nutrient present in leaves, which plays a key role in photosynthesis.
  • Methane is called marsh gas and it is a powerful greenhouse gas
  • It is also a principal component of natural gas.

Question 80

Match List I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:

List IList II
(Physical quantity)(Unit)
ADistance1Mole
BAmount of material2Coulomb
CAmount of electrical charge3Light Year
DEnergy4Watt Hour

Code:

  1. AOption (a)

    A - 3, B - 1, C- 2, D - 4

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 3, B - 2, C- 1, D - 4

  3. COption (c)

    A - 4, B - 2, C- 1, D - 3

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 4, B - 1, C- 2, D - 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A - 3, B - 1, C- 2, D - 4

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Light-year:

  • Light-year is a unit of length used to describe astronomical distances is light-year.
  • The distance that light travels in a vacuum in one Julian year (365,25 days) is a light-year.
<br>

Amount of material:

  • Mole is one of the units for measuring the unit of material
  • 1 mole of any substance contains 6.022 × 1023 atoms.
<br>

Amount of electrical charge:

  • Coulomb is S.I unit for measuring the amount of charge

 

Energy:

  • Power is defined as the rate of work done i.e.

Power=work;donetimePower = \frac{{work;done}}{{time}}

  • Work = power × time
  • As we know that Watt is the S.I unit of power.
  • Work or energy = power × time = watt.hour

 

EXPLANATION:

List IList II
(Physical quantity)(Unit)
ADistance3Light Year
BAmount of material1Mole Coulomb
CAmount of electrical charge2Coulomb
DEnergy4Watt Hour

Question 81

A ray of light when refracted suffers change in velocity. In this context, which one among the following statements is correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    Velocity increases as the ray passes from a rarer to a denser medium

  2. BOption (b)

    Velocity decreases as the ray passes from a denser to a rarer medium

  3. COption (c)

    Velocity decreases as the ray passes from a rarer to a denser medium

  4. DOption (d)

    Change of velocity does not depend on the nature of medium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Velocity decreases as the ray passes from a rarer to a denser medium

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Refraction is the change in the direction of propagation of light (electromagnetic wave) as it travels from one medium to another.
  • This occurs due to a change in the velocity as well as the wavelength of light.
  • As the wave moves from one medium to another, depending upon the particles, state and physical properties of the media, there is a change in the velocity and wavelength of the wave because of which it suffers deflection and change in direction.
  • It can be expressed as

sinisinr=v2v1=λ2λ1\frac{{sini}}{{sinr}} = \frac{{{v_2}}}{{{v_1}}} = \frac{{{\lambda _2}}}{{{\lambda _1}}}

Explanation:

When a light wave travels from rarer medium to denser medium, because of which its velocity decreases this can be seen as given below

sinisinr=v2v1\frac{{sini}}{{sinr}} = \frac{{{v_2}}}{{{v_1}}}

So as light travels from rarer to denser medium light will bend toward normal hence the angle of reflection (r) decreases and hence velocity in denser v2 will decrease compared to v1

Question 82

An object is placed 10 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 15 cm. The image produced will be

  1. AOption (a)

    Real and magnified

  2. BOption (b)

    Virtual and magnified

  3. COption (c)

    Virtual and reduced in size

  4. DOption (d)

    Real and reduced in size

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Virtual and magnified

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • If an object is placed between focal length and optical center the image will be formed on the same side behind the object and the image will be virtual and magnified
<br>

Explanation:

  • If an object is placed between 2F and F real inverted and magnified
  • If an object is placed at 2F image will be of the same size but inverted and real
  • If an object is placed at F no image will be formed
  • And if an object is placed between focal length and optical center the image will be formed on the same side behind the object and the image will be virtual and magnified

This can be seen as shown below

Question 83

Why is Graphite used in electrolytic cells?

  1. AOption (a)

    Graphite is soft and can by easily moulded into electrodes

  2. BOption (b)

    Graphite is made of layers of carbon atoms which can slide

  3. COption (c)

    Graphite is inert to most of the chemical and remains intact in electrolytic cells

  4. DOption (d)

    Graphite is a good conductor of electricity

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Graphite is a good conductor of electricity

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 4 i.e. Graphite is a good conductor of electricity

Key Points

  • Graphite’s structure enables it to be an excellent conductor. It conducts electricity and is resistant to corrosion.
  • The delocalized electrons in graphite are in high number and allow electricity to pass through graphite rapidly.
  • Graphite enables positively charged ions to gain electrons from the negatively charged electrode.
  • Graphite is an allotrope of carbon along with diamond, lonsdaleite, C60 buckminsterfullerene, C540, Fullerite, C70, amorphous carbon, carbon nanotube.

Question 84

Washing Soda is the common name for

  1. AOption (a)

    Calcium Carbonate

  2. BOption (b)

    Magnesium Carbonate

  3. COption (c)

    Sodium Carbonate

  4. DOption (d)

    Potassium Carbonate

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Sodium Carbonate

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 3, i.e. Sodium Carbonate.

  • Washing Soda is the common name for Sodium Carbonate (Na2CO3).
  • It is the sodium salt of carbonic acid.
  • Calcium Carbonate is used as a dietary supplement when the body lacks the required amount of calcium.
  • It is also used as an antacid.
  • Magnesium Carbonate is used to prevent and treat low amounts of Magnesium in the blood.
  • Sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3) is known as Baking soda.

Question 85

Which one of the following Indian states has the highest proportion of area under forest cover? (According to FSI 2022)

  1. AOption (a)

    Madhya Pradesh

  2. BOption (b)

    Sikkim

  3. COption (c)

    Meghalaya

  4. DOption (d)

    Mizoram

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Mizoram

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Mizoram.

  • According to India State of Forest Report 2019, Mizoram has the highest proportion of area under forest cover.
  • India State of Forest Report is a biennial publication of Forest Survey of India, which comes under the aegis of under the Ministry of Environment Forest & Climate Change.
  • Area-wise Forest Cover: Madhya Pradesh> Arunachal Pradesh> Chhattisgarh> Odisha> Maharashtra.

Mistake Points

  • Percentage Forest Cover: Mizoram (85.4%)> Arunachal Pradesh (79.63%)> Meghalaya (76.33%)

Important Points

  • Proportion is "percentage."
  • Tree and forest cover together made up 24.56% of India's area.

Question 86

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (National Park/ Wildlife Sanctuary)List II (State)
A.Chandra Prabha1.Uttarakhand
B.Silent Valley2.Chhattisgarh
C.Valley of flowers3.Uttar Pradesh
D.Indravati4.Kerala
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2

  3. COption (c)

    A - 2, B - 4, C - 1. D - 3

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 2, i.e A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2.

  • The Chandra Prabha Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in Uttar Pradesh.
  • ​Animals like blackbucks, chital, sambhar, nilgai, wild boar, porcupine and Indian gazelle are found here.
  • The reptilian species include gharial and python.
  • Silent Valley National park is in Kerala it is located in the Nilgiri hills.
  • It is home to the largest population of lion-tailed macaques.
  • Dodabetta is the highest peak of the Nilgiri hills.
  • Indravati National Park is located in Chhattisgarh.
  • Valley of flowers national park is located in Uttarakhand.
  • It is famous for plush meadows blossomed with endemic alpine flowers.​​ It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

Question 87

To a perpendicular to the plane of the ecliptic, Earth’s axis of rotation makes an angle of 23 ½ degrees. Had this angle been zero degrees, which one among the following would result?

  1. AOption (a)

    There would have been no season

  2. BOption (b)

    The length of day and night would have been the same throughout the year

  3. COption (c)

    The length of the day and night would have the same all over the earth 

  4. DOption (d)

    All of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

All of the above

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 'All of the above'

Key Points

  • Earth’s Axial Tilt (23½°):
  • The Earth’s axis is tilted at an angle of 23½° to the perpendicular of the plane of the ecliptic.
  • This tilt is responsible for the variation in seasons, length of day and night, and distribution of solar energy on Earth.
  • If the Tilt Were 0° (No Inclination):
  • The Sun would always appear directly over the equator throughout the year.
  • There would be no variation in solar radiation across seasons.
  • No Seasons:
  • Seasons are caused by the tilt of the Earth’s axis as it revolves around the Sun.
  • Without tilt, the intensity and duration of sunlight would remain constant, resulting in absence of seasons.
  • Equal Length of Day and Night Throughout the Year:
  • Due to zero tilt, every location would experience approximately 12 hours of daylight and 12 hours of night every day.
  • There would be no seasonal variation in day length.
  • Uniform Day and Night Across the Earth:
  • Currently, polar regions experience extreme day and night conditions due to tilt.
  • With no tilt, such extremes would not exist, and day and night would be equal at all latitudes.

Additional Information

  • Present-Day Effect of Axial Tilt:
  • The tilt leads to the formation of important latitudes such as Tropic of Cancer (23½°N) and Tropic of Capricorn (23½°S).
  • It also results in phenomena like solstices and equinoxes.
  • Impact on Climate Zones:
  • The tilt contributes to the development of different climatic zones (tropical, temperate, polar).
  • Without tilt, climatic variation across latitudes would be significantly reduced.

Important Points

  • Earth’s rotation causes day and night, while its revolution and axial tilt together cause seasons.
  • If axial tilt were zero, seasonal diversity and polar day-night extremes would disappear.
  • This concept is fundamental in understanding climatology and Earth’s energy balance.

Question 88

Gametophytes of sexually reproducing flowering plants are

  1. AOption (a)

    Haploid

  2. BOption (b)

    Diploid

  3. COption (c)

    Tetraploid

  4. DOption (d)

    Polyploid

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Haploid

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 1 i.e. Haploid.

  • Gametophytes of sexually reproducing flowering plants have a multicellular structure that is haploid.
  • Haploid contains a single set of chromosomes in each cell.
  • Examples- Cells used in sexual reproduction, sperm and ova.
  • The diploid cell has paired chromosomes, one from each parent.
  • Examples- Somatic cells such as skin, blood, muscle cells.
  • The gametophyte produces both male or female gametes by a process of cell mitosis.

Question 89

The seeds of flowering plants are made up of

  1. AOption (a)

    Ovary and ovary wall

  2. BOption (b)

    Embryo, food reserves and coat

  3. COption (c)

    Cotyledons

  4. DOption (d)

    Zygotes

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Embryo, food reserves and coat

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 2 i.e. Embryo, food reserves and coat.

  • The seeds of flowering plants are made up of Embryo, food reserves and coat
  • The seed contain embryo which is also known as a baby plant which grows after germination, food reserves for the baby plant to get the nutrition from it and the seed is also protected by the hard seed coat.
  • Ovary indicates only the main reproductive part of the flower where the fertilization takes place and the ovary walls are being prepared for protecting zygote after fertilization.
  • Cotyledons can be one or two in the seeds which contain food for the baby plant which is nothing but the embryo.
  • The zygote is also known as a fertilized egg which is formed after the fertilization (the fusion of male gamete with the female gamete  in the ovule of the flower).

Question 90

A person stands on his two feet over a surface and experiences a pressure P. Now the person stands on only one foot in this case he would experience a pressure of magnitude

  1. AOption (a)

    4P

  2. BOption (b)

    P

  3. COption (c)

    ½ P

  4. DOption (d)

    2P

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

2P

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

Pressure applied at any surface is proportional to force applied on the surface and inversely proportion to its area on which force is applied

It is expressed as

i.e.,;;P=FAi.e.,;;P = \frac{F}{A}

Calculation:

Given that,

A person is standing on its two feet and later changes its position and now standing on one foot only

Consider the area of it one foot be A, and pressure applied because of it be P2

Similarly area of two feet will twice, and pressure applied because of it be P

Hence the ratio of its pressure can be given as

\(\frac{{{P}{2}}}{{{P}{1}}}=\frac{\frac{Mg}{A}}{\frac{Mg}{2A}}=\frac{2A}{A}\Rightarrow {{P}{2}}=2{{P}{}}\)

The person stands on only one foot will experience a pressure of magnitude twice of that when he was standing on two feet.

Question 91

A solid is melted and allowed to cool and solidify again. The temperature is measured at equal interval of time. The graph below shows the change of temperature with time.

The part of the curve that is practically horizontal is due to

  1. AOption (a)

    Latent heat given away by the liquid

  2. BOption (b)

    Specific heat given away by the liquid

  3. COption (c)

    Thermal capacity changes with time keeping temperature constant

  4. DOption (d)

    Change in density during transformation

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Latent heat given away by the liquid

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

  • Latent heat is an amount of heat absorbed by a unit mass of the substance to change its state without change of temperature.
  • The S.I. unit of Latent heat is joules per kilogram.
  • Latent heat is used up in overcoming the force of attraction between the molecules of the substance.
<br>

Explanation:

  • In our given graph as time changes, we can see a flat curve which shows that for certain time temperature will remain constant this because of property known as latent heat of material
  • This can be easily observed during the melting of ice, although the ice will be melting unit complete ice is melted temperature of the mixture(ice and water) will be at 0°
  • the same phenomenon is applicable in this case horizontal line is due to Latent heat given away by the liquid remains constant

Question 92

A deep-sea diver may hurt his eardrum during diving because of

  1. AOption (a)

    Lack of oxygen

  2. BOption (b)

    High atmospheric pressure

  3. COption (c)

    High water pressure

  4. DOption (d)

    All of the above

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

High water pressure

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • The normal force exerted by liquid at rest on a given surface in contact with it is called the thrust of liquid on that surface.
  • The normal force (or thrust) exerted by liquid at rest per unit area of the surface in contact with it, is called pressure of liquid or hydrostatic pressure.
  • If Po is the atmospheric pressure then for a point at depth h below the surface of a liquid of density ρ,
  • Hydrostatic pressure P is given by

P = Po + ρgh

EXPLANATION:

  • In normal condition or at standard pressure (normal atmospheric pressure in air ) inside eardrum and outside pressure is the same, this means force exerted on both side of eardrums are same.
  • Now if we go underwater, then pressure outside eardrums will be greater than that of inside.
  • And this will create a pressure difference between inside and outside of eardrums, because of this water will exert force on eardrum.
  • Hence as deep-sea diver further goes deep inside, water pressure will keep on increases which will cause permanent damage to its eardrums because of this pressure difference.

Question 93

When you walk on a woolen carpet and bring your finger near the metallic handle of a door an electric shock is produced.

This is because

  1. AOption (a)

    Charge in transferred from your body to the handle

  2. BOption (b)

    A chemical reaction occurs when you touch the handle

  3. COption (c)

    The temperature of the human body is higher than that of the handle

  4. DOption (d)

    The human body and the handle arrive at thermal equilibrium by the process

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Charge in transferred from your body to the handle

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

In this case, as we walk on the woolen carpet we had developed static charges in our body because of friction between the woolen carpet and our body and as we touched the handle of the door these static charges rushed toward it and get neutralized, this is a reason why a person gets shocked

Explanation:

We can classify electricity into two types.

Static electricity

  • If a dry glass rod is rubbed with silk cloth the glass rod gives out negative electrons, and therefore, becomes positively charged.
  • The silk cloth receives negative electrons and therefore it becomes negatively charged. They acquire the property of attracting small pieces of paper etc.
  • The electric charge on the silk cloth is stationary and is called static electricity.
  • This type of electricity cannot be transmitted from one place to another.
<br>

Dynamic electricity

  • The electrons in motion are called current electricity or electric current.
  • This type of electricity is carried through wires and cables.
  • Therefore, this electricity can be transmitted from one place to another.
  • This type of electricity can be produced by cells, batteries, generators alternators, etc.

Question 94

Which one among the following does NOT wet the walls of the glass vessel in which it is kept?

  1. AOption (a)

    Water

  2. BOption (b)

    Alcohol

  3. COption (c)

    Mercury

  4. DOption (d)

    Phenol

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Mercury

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 3 i.e. Mercury.

  • Mercury does not wet the glass surface.
  • The cohesive forces within the drops of mercury are stronger than the adhesive forces between the drops and glass.
  • When liquid mercury is confined in a tube, its surface (meniscus) has a convex shape because the cohesive forces in liquid mercury tend to draw it into a drop.
  • When liquid water is confined in a tube, its surface (meniscus) has a concave shape because water wets the surface and creeps up the side.
  • The attractive force between molecules of the same type is called cohesive force.
  • The attractive force between molecules of different types is called adhesive force.

Question 95

Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of 

  1. AOption (a)

    sulphates of sodium and potassium

  2. BOption (b)

    sulphates of magnesium and calcium

  3. COption (c)

    carbonates of sodium and magnesium

  4. DOption (d)

    bicarbonates of magnesium and calcium

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

sulphates of magnesium and calcium

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 2 i.e. Sulphates of magnesium and calcium.

  • Permanent hardness in water is due to the presence of the Chlorides, Nitrates and Sulphates of Calcium and Magnesium. It is not precipitated by boiling.
  • It is removed by Zeolite process.
  • The presence of Calcium and Magnesium Bicarbonates Ca(HCO3)2 and Mg(HCO3)2 causes temporary hardness in water.
  • This hardness in water can be removed by boiling the water.

Question 96

In the reaction ZnO + C → Zn + CO, 'C' acts as

  1. AOption (a)

    an acid

  2. BOption (b)

    a base

  3. COption (c)

    an oxidising agent

  4. DOption (d)

    a reducing agent

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

a reducing agent

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 4 i.e. a reducing agent.

  • Carbon reduces ZnO to Zn and it gets oxidized to CO.
  • An oxidizing agent gains electrons and removes electrons from other reactants during a redox reaction.
  • A reducing agent loses electrons and gets oxidized in a chemical reaction.

Question 97

Which of the following are the characteristics of organic farming?

  1. Use of chemical fertilizers to improve soil fertility.
  2. Frequent decomposing and fallowing.
  3. Use of herbs to control pests.
  4. Higher productivity per hectare.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 4 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 3 and 4

  3. COption (c)

    2 and 3 only

  4. DOption (d)

    2, 3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Key Points

Organic Farming-

  • ​Organic farming is a method of crop production that involves no use of pesticides, fertilizers, genetically modified organisms, antibiotics and growth hormones.
  • It involves the use of fertilizers such as compost manure, green manure, and bone meal and techniques such as crop rotation and companion planting. Hence, statement 1 is NOT correct.
  • Frequent decomposing and following is done. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Fostering of insect predators are encouraged.
  • The use of herbs to control pests is done instead of chemical pesticides. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Organic Farming has comparatively lower yields which might increase with a hybrid of conventional and organic farming. Hence, statement 4 is NOT correct

Question 98

'Yakuts' are the nomadic herders of

  1. AOption (a)

    Gobi

  2. BOption (b)

    Sahara

  3. COption (c)

    Tundra

  4. DOption (d)

    Kalahari

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Tundra

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 3 i.e. Tundra

Key Points

  • 'Yakuts' are the nomadic herders of the Tundra region. Yakuts along with Evenks, Enets are peasants who migrated to Lena River and Olenyok River of Siberia from the region around Lake Baikal.
  • They are also called as Sakha or Sakhalar.
  • They are engaged in reindeer breeding, hunting, fishing, dairy farming as well as market gardening.
  • Tundra type of climate is spread across the north of arctic circle only.
  • ​Summers are cool and brief here.
  • Not more than four months have temperatures above freezing point.
  • Nomadic Herders of Continents:
HerdersRegion
Hadza, Pygmies, Twa people, MbutiAfrica
Abenaki, Chono, Comanches, EyakAmerica
Adivasi, Andamanese, Papuans, Semang, YakutsAsia
Spinifex People, Tasmanian Aborigines, TiwiOceania
Aurignacian, Gravettian, Magdalenian, Hamburg, SolutreanEurope

Question 99

A farmer in a semi-arid area claims that his farming practice is very environment friendly. Which of the following practices on his farm can justify his claim?

  1. Planning a tree belt.
  2. Practising crop rotation.
  3. Carrying out a large scale irrigation system
  4. Using organic fertilizers.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    3 and 4 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1, 2 and 4

  3. COption (c)

    1, 3 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 2 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

1, 2 and 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 2 i.e statements ​1, 2 and 4 are correct.

  • Semi arid regions are the region which borders the deserts. It is also called as steppes type of climate.
  • The major threats to soils in these regions are soil erosion, salinity, and degradation due to human activities. Hence, tree belt planning and crop rotation is required to prevent erosion and maintain salinity and fertility of soil. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
  • Due to human activities there is decline in soil structure and a resultant loss of soil water storage and quality. So organic fertilizers are used to maintain the soil constituents balanced. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
  • Water is scarce in these regions. Therefore, for watering crops irrigation system is required. But instead of using extensive irrigation system, sustainable agriculture practices like drip irrigation would make it more environment friendly.
  • Use of large scale irrigation may lead to increased salinity of soil, and also more extraction of groundwater. Hence, Statement 3 is NOT correct.

Question 100

The luxuriant growth of natural vegetation in tropical rainforest due to

  1. Fertile soil
  2. Hot and wet climate throughout the year.
  3. Intense sunlight for photosynthesis.
  4. Seasonal change to facilitate nutrient absorption.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 4 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2 and 3 only 

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 2 i.e. statements 2 and 3 are correct.

  • Tropical climate and Vegetation:
  • The hot and wet climate is experienced throughout the year between 5o and 10o north and south of the equator. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The influence of on-shore trade winds gives rise to a modified type of equatorial climate.
  • The soil is NOT fertile over the tropical rainforest region. Hence, statement 1 is NOT correct.
  • Tropics receives high temperature due to intense sunlight thus it helps in photosynthesis. Hence, statement 3 is correct
  • There is no seasonal change because the sun is overhead for the whole year. Hence, statement 4 is NOT correct.
  • Trees found here are hardwood, mahogany, ebony, greenheart, and dyewoods.

Question 101

Which endocrine gland requires Iodine to synthesize a particular hormone whose deficiency may cause goitre disease?

  1. AOption (a)

    Hypothalamus

  2. BOption (b)

    Pancreas

  3. COption (c)

    Thymus

  4. DOption (d)

    Thyroid gland

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Thyroid gland

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 4 i.e. Thyroid gland.

  • The thyroid gland is part of the endocrine system and produces thyroid hormones, which deficiency can cause goitre disease.
  • Cells producing thyroid hormones extracts and absorbs iodine from the blood and incorporate them into the thyroid hormones.
  • The pituitary gland produces a hormone called thyroid-stimulating hormone.
  • The thyroid-stimulating hormone tells the thyroid gland how much hormones to produce and secrete.
  • The pancreatic juice is a secreted by the pancreas, which is important to digestion.
  • Pancreatic juice contains trypsin and chymotrypsin to digest proteins amylase for the digestion of carbohydrates and lipase to break down fats.
  • Thymosin hormone is secreted by the thymus. Its function is to stimulate the production of T cells, which are an important part of the immune system.

Question 102

Which one of the following is NOT a part of nerves?

  1. AOption (a)

    Axons

  2. BOption (b)

    Connective tissues

  3. COption (c)

    Schwann cells

  4. DOption (d)

    Smooth muscles

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Smooth muscles

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 4 i.e. Smooth muscles.

  • Smooth muscle is found in the walls of hollow organs like intestines and stomach and they work automatically without we being aware of them.
  • They are involved in many housekeeping functions of the body.
  • A nerve is an enclosed cable-like bundle of axons (the long slender projections of neurones) in the peripheral nervous system.
  • Nerves include non neuronal Schwann cells that coat the axon in Myelin (a sheath made by fat and protein molecules).
  • Finally, the entire nerve is wrapped in a layer of connective tissue called Epineurium.
  • The three layers of connective tissue surrounding each nerve are Endoneurium.

Question 103

The product of conductivity and resistivity of a conductor

  1. AOption (a)

    Depends on pressure applied

  2. BOption (b)

    Depends on current flowing through conductor

  3. COption (c)

    Is the same for all conductors

  4. DOption (d)

    Varies from conductor to conductor

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Is the same for all conductors

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

Resistivity is an inverse of conductivity i.e.

ρ = 1/σ

Where ρ = resistivity, σ = conductivity

ρ × σ = 1 = constant

EXPLANATION:

  • Conductivity is the measure of the ease at which an electric charge or heat can pass through a material
  • The material which has high conductivity is called conductor and which has very low conductivity is called non-conductor
  • Metal has high conductivity and non-metal has very low conductivity
  • It is also known as specific conductance
  • It is an intrinsic property of a material
  • Resistivity: Resistivity is the resistance per unit length and cross-sectional area
  • It is the property of the material that opposes the flow of charge or the flow of electric current
  • The unit of resistivity is an ohmmeter
  • A material with high resistivity means it has got high resistance and will resist the flow of electrons
  • A material with low resistivity means it has low resistance and thus the electrons flow smoothly through the material
  • The material which has a low value of resistivity is a good conductor

Hence the product of resistivity and conductivity of a metal is always constant (equal to 1). So option 3 is correct.

Question 104

We use CFL to save electrical energy and to provide sufficient light. The full form of CFL is

  1. AOption (a)

    Condensed filament light

  2. BOption (b)

    Compact filament lamp

  3. COption (c)

    Condensed fluorescent lamp

  4. DOption (d)

    Compact fluorescent lamp

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Compact fluorescent lamp

Why this answer is correct

Explanation:

  • C.F.L is one of an electrical device which is been used by us in our daily life
  • And the complete form of C.F.L. is Compact Fluorescent Lamp.
  • Compared to general incandescent lamps it provides the same intensity of light but at 1/5th of its power consumption
  • Hence it was a highly effective alternative of incandescent lamps

Question 105

When the sun is 30° above the horizon, shadow of one tree is 17.3 m long. What is the height of the tree?

  1. AOption (a)

    20 m

  2. BOption (b)

    17.3 m

  3. COption (c)

    10 m

  4. DOption (d)

    1.73 m

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

10 m

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

As given, the sun is 30° above the horizon which means that  the angle between the shadow and tip of the tree will be 30° as shown below

Hence the height of tree = tanθ × height of its shadow

Calculation:

Given that,

Angle of inclination = 30°

height of tree’s shadow = 17.3 m

hence using trigonometric relation

tanθ=opposite;sideadjacent;sidetan\theta = \frac{{opposite;side}}{{adjacent;side}}

height of tree = tanθ × height of its shadow

=13×17.3=9.98≈10;m;= \frac{1}{{\sqrt 3 }} \times 17.3 = 9.98 \approx 10;m;

Question 106

When heat rays are reflected from earth, gases like carbon dioxide, Nitrogen oxide do not allow them to escape back to the space causing our planet to heat up. These gases are known as

  1. AOption (a)

    Noble gas

  2. BOption (b)

    Green-house gases

  3. COption (c)

    Hot gas

  4. DOption (d)

    Blue gas

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Green-house gases

Why this answer is correct

Green House Gases:

Gases that trap heat in the atmosphere are called greenhouse gases.

Major Greenhouse Gases are:

1. Carbon Dioxide: Carbon dioxide enters the atmosphere through burning fossil fuels (coal, natural gas, and oil), solid waste, trees, and wood products, and also as a result of certain chemical reactions (e.g., manufacture of cement). Carbon dioxide is removed from the atmosphere (or "sequestered") when it is absorbed by plants as part of the biological carbon cycle.

2. Methane: Methane is emitted during the production and transport of coal, natural gas, and oil. Methane emissions also result from livestock and other agricultural practices and by the decay of organic waste in municipal solid waste landfills.

3. Nitrous Oxide: Nitrous oxide is emitted during agricultural and industrial activities, as well as during combustion of fossil fuels and solid waste.

4. Fluorinated Gases: Hydrofluorocarbons, perfluorocarbons, sulfur hexafluoride, and nitrogen trifluoride are synthetic, powerful greenhouse gases that are emitted from a variety of industrial processes. Fluorinated gases are sometimes used as substitutes for stratospheric ozone-depleting substances (e.g., chlorofluorocarbons, hydrochlorofluorocarbons, and halons). These gases are typically emitted in smaller quantities, but because they are potent greenhouse gases, they are sometimes referred to as High Global Warming Potential gases ("High GWP gases").

(i) CO2 → 60%

(ii) Chlorofloro-Carbon (CFC) → 14%

(iii) Methane (CH4) → 20%

(iv) Nitrous Oxide (N2O) → 6%

Question 107

A spring can be used to determine the mass m of an object in two ways: (i) by measuring the extension in the spring due to the object; and (ii) by measuring the oscillation period for the given mass.

Which of the methods can be used in a space station orbiting Earth?

  1. AOption (a)

    Both

  2. BOption (b)

    Only the extension method

  3. COption (c)

    Only the oscillation method

  4. DOption (d)

    Neither 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Only the oscillation method

Why this answer is correct

Concept:

On a space station, gravitational acceleration acting on a mass will be zero hence there will be no net force which means the given method 1 will not be able to measure the mass of an object since there will be no extension due to g.

But oscillation method will work since the time period depends on the mass of an object (m) and spring constant (k) only and independent of g T=;2π;(mk)T = ;2\pi ;\sqrt {(\frac{m}{k}} )

Explanation:

Now according to our first case, the extension in the spring due to the object of mass (m) is given by equation

F = -kx

Where k is spring constant and x is the length of the spring, whereas force is exerted on spring because the mass was suspended through it and hence greater the mass higher will be the extension of spring

∴ mg = -kx

This same principle is used in a device known as Spring balance which is used to measure weight.

But this method won’t be possible if used in a space station orbiting Earth.

Similarly, the time period of oscillation of spring can be calculated using

T=;2π;(mk)T = ;2\pi ;\sqrt {(\frac{m}{k}} )

But time period of oscillation of spring only depends on mass and spring constant and spring constant is independent of gravitational acceleration hence

T ∝ m

Hence oscillation method can be used to determine the mass of an object

Question 108

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Region)List II (Vegetation)
A.Selvas1.Conifers
B.Savannas2.Mosses and Lichens
C.Taiga3.Epiphytes
D.Tundra4.Grasses and trees
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 4, B - 1, C - 2, D - 3

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 3. B - 2, C - 1, D - 4

  3. COption (c)

    A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 4, B - 2, C - 1, D - 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2.

  • Tropical rain forests are vegetation found in hot and wet equatorial climate.
  • Selvas is a term given to vegetational extravagance in this region.
  • Epiphytes are usually found in the temperate zone or in the tropics.
  • Savanna type of climate is known a is a transitional type of climate found between the equatorial forest and trade wind hot deserts.
  • It is confined within the tropics.
  • Tall grass and short trees specifically grows here.
  • Taiga type of single band coniferous forests are found in Siberia.
  • Taiga is a Russian word for coniferous forest.
  • The polar type of climate is found mainly north of the Arctic Circle in the Northern hemisphere.
  • ​Environment supports only the lowest form of vegetation mosses lichens and sedges.
  • They are also known as the tundra vegetation.

Question 109

Which of the following statements with regards to the western coastal plain of India are correct?

  1. It is a narrow belt.
  2. It is an example of the submerged coastal plain.
  3. It provides natural conditions for development of ports.
  4. It has well-developed deltas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    1 and 2 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    3 and 4 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1, 2 and 3 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 1 i.e. statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Key Points

  • The Western Coastal Plains is a narrow strip of coastal plain between the west coast of India and the Western Ghats hills. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • The western coastal plains are an example of the submerged coastal plain it is well known as the Coast of Submergence. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • The western coast is more indented than the eastern coast, also the sea is deeper in the west coast than sea on the east coast and it provides natural conditions for the development of ports and harbours.
  • Ports like Kandla, Mazagaon, JLN port, Nhava Sheva, Marmagao, Mangalore, Cochin are located along the west coast.
  • Western Rivers form estuaries and eastern rivers forms the deltas. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect and statement 3 is correct.

Question 110

Which one of the following weather conditions indicates a sudden fall in barometer reading?

  1. AOption (a)

    Stormy weather

  2. BOption (b)

    Calm weather

  3. COption (c)

    Cold and dry weather

  4. DOption (d)

    Hot and sunny weather

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Stormy weather

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 1 i.e. ​Stormy weather.

  • Stormy weather conditions indicate a sudden fall in barometer reading.
  • This is because the decrease in pressure indicates the advent of storms.
  • Falling air pressure indicates a low-pressure system.
  • A barometer is an instrument used to determine the pressure of the atmosphere.
  • It was invented by Evangelista Torricelli.

Question 111

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Island)List II (Location)
A.Continental island1.Mauritius
B.Coral island2.Madagascar
C.Volcanic island3.Andaman and Nicobar islands
D.Mountain island4.Maldives
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 2, B - 4, C - 1, D - 3

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

  3. COption (c)

    A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

A - 2, B - 4, C - 1, D - 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 1, i.e A - 2, B - 4, C - 1, D - 3.

  • Continental island is a special type of island which is created when a continent is rifted.
  • ​Madagascar, Socotra, New Caledonia, New Zealand, and some examples of the continental island.
  • Coral islands are landforms formed entirely of sediments mostly calcium carbonate produced by organisms such as corals, molluscs and gastropods that live on coral reefs in the surrounding waters.
  • The Maldives is an example of it.
  • Volcanic island are large volcanoes erupted on the seafloor and the tops of them have emerged above sea level​ 
  • Volcanic islands occur in ocean basins or near ocean ridges.
  • Examples- Mauritius, Aleutian Islands, the Mariana Islands, and most of Tonga islands.
  • Andaman and Nicobar islands are an example of mountain islands.

Question 112

Consider the following diagram:

In which one among the following lettered areas of the diagram would erosion most likely change the shapes of the riverbed?

  1. AOption (a)

    A

  2. BOption (b)

    B

  3. COption (c)

    C

  4. DOption (d)

    D

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

B

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 2 i.e. B

  • As per shown in the figure the river is meandering.
  • As water flowing under gravity seldom flows straight for any long distance a winding course soon develops which is called meanders.
  • When the river flows of water enter into course to B in the given figure, it will erode the outer bank into a steep cliff at B and deposit eroded material at A and C.
  • This behaviour of the river changes the shape of the riverbed.

Floodplains - 

  • Deposition develops a floodplain and erosion makes the valley.
  • Floodplain is a major landform of river deposition.
  • Large-sized materials are deposited first when the stream channel breaks into a gentle slope.
  • Thus, normally, fine-sized materials like sand, silt, and clay are carried by relatively slow-moving waters in gentler channels usually found in the plains and deposited over the bed when the waters spill over the banks during flooding above the bed.
  • A river bed made of river deposits is the active floodplain.
  • The floodplain above the bank is an inactive floodplain.
  • Inactive floodplain above the banks basically contains two types of deposits
  • flood deposits and
  • channel deposits.
  • In plains, channels shift laterally and change their courses occasionally leaving cut-off courses which get filled up gradually.
  • Such areas over flood plains built up by abandoned or cut-off channels contain coarse deposits.
  • The flood deposits of spilt waters carry relatively finer materials like silt and clay. The floodplains in a delta are called delta plains.

Additional Information

  • Meander loops develop over original gentle surfaces in the initial stages of development of streams and the same loops get entrenched into the rocks normally due to erosion or slow, continued uplift of the land over which they start. Streams meander move freely over vast floodplains showing natural levees, oxbow lakes, etc. Divides are broad and flat with lakes, swamps and marshes Waterfalls and rapids may exist where local hard rock bodies are exposed.

Question 113

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Cloud)List II (Characteristic)
A.Cirrus1.Rain giving
B.Stratus2.Feathery appearance
C.Nimbus3.Vertically growing
D.Cumulus4.Horizontally spreading
  1. AOption (a)

    A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2

  2. BOption (b)

    A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2

  3. COption (c)

    A - 2, B - 4. C - 1, D - 3

  4. DOption (d)

    A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

A - 2, B - 4. C - 1, D - 3

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 3, i.e A - 2, B - 4. C - 1, D - 3.

  • Cirrus are high clouds mainly having feathery appearance.
  • These clouds looks like fibrous and appears like wisps in the blue sky and it is often called as mares tails'.
  • Cirrocumulus- Cirrocumulus clouds appear as a white Global masses forming repulse in a mackerel sky
  • Cirrostratus- Cirrostratus clouds look like a thin white sheet or a veil, the sky looks milky it is also characterized as halo
  • Stratus is very low cloud uniformly grey and thick which appears like a low ceiling or Highland fog.
  • Nimbus is a dark dull cloud, clearly layered and rain-bearing.
  • Cumulus is a vertical growing with a rounded top and horizontal base.

Question 114

The concept of demographic transition provides a model for

  1. AOption (a)

    analyzing government responses to changing pattern of population growth

  2. BOption (b)

    explaining major patterns of global population movement throughout the history

  3. COption (c)

    analyzing spatial variations in the distribution, growth and movement of population over time

  4. DOption (d)

    examining the relationship between economic development and natural population change

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

analyzing spatial variations in the distribution, growth and movement of population over time

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 3 i.e. analyzing spatial variations in the distribution, growth and movement of the population over time.

  • The concept of demographic transition provides a model which is used to represent the movement of high birth and death rates to low birth and death rates when a country develops from a pre-industrial to an industrial economic system.
  • The demographic transition model is based on historical data and trends.
  • It takes place in 4 transition stages:
  • Stage 1: Pre-transition
  • It is characterised by high birth rates and high fluctuating death rates.
  • Stage 2: Early transition
  • During the early stages of the transition, the death rate begins to fall and simultaneously birth rates remain high and the population starts to grow rapidly.
  • Stage 3: Late transition
  • Birth rates start to decline and the rate of population growth starts to decline.
  • Stage 4: Post-transition
  • Population growth is negligible or can enter in a declining stage.

Question 115

Precursor of which one of the following vitamins comes from β-carotene? 

  1. AOption (a)

    Vitamin A

  2. BOption (b)

    Vitamin C

  3. COption (c)

    Vitamin D

  4. DOption (d)

    Vitamin K

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Vitamin A

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 1 i.e. Vitamin A

  • Beta carotene is a precursor of Vitamin A.
  • The human body converts beta carotene into Vitamin A.
  • Vitamin A is also known as retinol because it produces the pigments in the retina of the eye.
  • Deficiency of Vitamin A causes night blindness.
  • Vitamin C is also known as Ascorbic acid.
  • Vitamin D is also known as Calciferol.
  • Vitamin K is also known as phylloquinone.
  • Diseases due to deficiency of Vitamins:
  • | Vitamins | Diseases | | --- | --- | | C | Scurvy | | B1 | Beri-beri | | B12 | Anaemia | | D | Rickets | | K | Excessive bleeding due to injury |

Question 116

'Lub-dub' sound is produced due to action of

  1. AOption (a)

    Large intestine

  2. BOption (b)

    Lungs

  3. COption (c)

    Heart

  4. DOption (d)

    Oesophagus

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Heart

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 3 i.e. Heart.

  • 'Lub-dup' sound is produced due to the action of the heart.
  • The “lub” is the first heart sound which is commonly termed S1.
  • It is caused by the disturbance caused by the closure of mitral and tricuspid valves at the start of systole.
  • The second sound is "dub” which is commonly termed S2.
  • It is caused by the closure of aortic and pulmonic valves which marks the end of systole.

Question 117

The sun is observed to be reddish when it is near the horizon, i.e., in the morning and the evening. This is because

  1. AOption (a)

    Red light is least scattering by atmosphere

  2. BOption (b)

    Red light is most scattering by atmosphere

  3. COption (c)

    It is the colour of the sun in the morning and evening

  4. DOption (d)

    Earth’s atmosphere emits red light

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Red light is least scattering by atmosphere

Why this answer is correct

EXPLANATION:

  • Light is made up of seven colors and each color has its own individual wavelength.
  • During sunrise and sunset, the sun is located near the horizon, light has to travel the farthest than during the other ports of the day to reach the human eye.
  • The particles that are suspended in the air scatter the light of short wavelength more as compared to longer wavelength and thus the light that reaches the earth is of the longer wavelength that is red.
  • Thus, the colors of the light having shorter wavelength fade out leaving only the red wavelength that reaches our eyes.

Question 118

Thermal conductivity of aluminum, copper and stainless steel increases in the order

  1. AOption (a)

    Copper < Aluminum < Stainless steel

  2. BOption (b)

    Stainless steel < Aluminum < Copper

  3. COption (c)

    Aluminum < copper < Stainless steel

  4. DOption (d)

    Copper < stainless steel < Aluminum

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Stainless steel < Aluminum < Copper

Why this answer is correct

  • The heat conduction is the transmission of energy by molecular action
  • Thermal conductivity is the property of a particular substance and shows the ease by which the process takes place
  • Higher the thermal conductivity more easily will be the heat conduction through the substance
  • Thermal conductivity is a material property. It will not differ with the dimensions of a material, but it is dependent on the temperature
  • Thermal conductivity depends on the chemical composition of the substance
  • Thermal conductivity of any material is dependent on two things:

I.The motion of free electrons

II.Lattice vibrations

  • Hence copper is mot conductive metal among all three and stainless steel is least conductive which means only Stainless steel< Aluminum < Copper is true

Question 119

Perspiration cools the body because

  1. AOption (a)

    Presence of water on the skin is cooling

  2. BOption (b)

    Evaporation requires latent heat

  3. COption (c)

    Water has a high specific heat

  4. DOption (d)

    Water is a poor conductor of heat

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Evaporation requires latent heat

Why this answer is correct

  • The above figure demonstrates the heat transfer mechanism in the human body
<br>
  • If part of a liquid evaporates, it cools the liquid remaining behind because it must extract the necessary heat of vaporization from that liquid to make the phase change to the gaseous state.
  • It is, therefore, an important means of heat transfer in certain circumstances, such as the cooling of the human body when it is subjected to ambient temperatures above the normal body temperature.
<br>

Conclusion: -

  • Due to the warm weather condition, we sweat.
  • Now as the sweat comes out it spreads over the skin, this sweat evaporates under the action of the blowing the air which results in effective convection thus takes away the heat from the skin resulting in the cooling effect.

Question 120

The radius of the Moon is about one-fourth that of the Earth and acceleration due to gravity on the moon is about one-sixth that on the earth. From this, we can conclude that the ratio of the mass of earth to the mass of the moon is about

  1. AOption (a)

    10

  2. BOption (b)

    100

  3. COption (c)

    1,000

  4. DOption (d)

    10,000

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

100

Why this answer is correct

CONCEPT:

  • Acceleration due to gravity (g): The force of attraction exerted by the earth on a body is called gravitational pull or gravity. We know that when a force acts on a body, it produces acceleration. Therefore, a body under the effect of gravitational pull must accelerate.
  • Acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth is –

g=GMR2g = \frac{{GM}}{{{R^2}}}

Where G = Universal gravitational constant, M = mass of the earth, and R = radius of the earth.

CALCULATION:

Acceleration due to gravity on moon gmoon = 1/6 gearth and radius of moon Rmoon = ¼ Rearth

Acceleration due to gravity on earth is

gearth=GMearthRearth2{g_{earth}} = \frac{{G{M_{earth}}}}{{R_{earth}^2}}

Acceleration due to gravity on the moon is

gmoon=GMmoonRmoon2{g_{moon}} = \frac{{G{M_{moon}}}}{{R_{moon}^2}}

gmoon=GMmoonR2⇒Mmoon∝gmoon×R2{g_{moon}} = \frac{{G{M_{moon}}}}{{{R^2}}} \Rightarrow {M_{moon}} \propto {g_{moon}} \times {R^2}

∴gmoongearth=Mmoon×16R2Mearth×R2=g6g\therefore \frac{{{g_{moon}}}}{{{g_{earth}}}} = \frac{{{M_{moon}} \times 16{R^2}}}{{{M_{earth}} \times {R^2}}} = \frac{g}{{6g}}

Mmoon=Mearth6×16;=Mearth96⇒MearthMmoon;≈100{M_{moon}} = \frac{{{M_{earth}}}}{{6 \times 16;}} = \frac{{{M_{earth}}}}{{96}} \Rightarrow \frac{{{M_{earth}}}}{{{M_{moon;}}}} \approx 100

Question 121

Which of the following country/countries successfully inserted a spacecraft into Mars' orbit by maiden attempt?

  1. AOption (a)

    USA

  2. BOption (b)

    USA and Russia

  3. COption (c)

    India

  4. DOption (d)

    China

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

India

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is India.

  • India successfully inserted a spacecraft into Mars orbit by maiden attempt.

Key Points

  • India successfully inserted a spacecraft into Mars' orbit by the maiden attempt.
  • It inserted the low-cost Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) spacecraft which is also known as Mangalyaan.**
  • The technique used to launch the MOM into the Martian orbit is known as Interplanetary slingshot.
  • Mars is named after the name of the Roman god of war.
  • It is also known as the Red Planet.
  • Mars has two moons named Phobos and Deimos.

Additional Information

  • NASA's Mariner 9 became the first artificial satellite of Mars when it arrived and went into orbit. 
  • It was launched on May 30, 1971.
  • In 1971, the Mars 3 lander became the first Russian spacecraft to achieve a soft landing on the Martian surface.
  • The Tianwen-1 mission was China's first mission to Mars.
  • Indian Space Research Organisation(ISRO):
  • It was founded in 1969 to develop an independent Indian space program.
  • It is headquartered in Bengaluru.
  • It comes under the aegis of the Department of Space.
  • Its current chairman is S Somnath.

Question 122

The European Space Agency (ESA) successfully landed a spacecraft on a speeding comet that lies 310 million miles away from Earth. As a result, the scientists may find out

  1. AOption (a)

    the age of the sun

  2. BOption (b)

    the age of the Universe

  3. COption (c)

    new fundamental atomic particles

  4. DOption (d)

    the role of the comets in bringing organic matter and water to earth.

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

the role of the comets in bringing organic matter and water to earth.

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 4 i.e. the role of the comets in bringing organic matter and water to earth.

  • European Space Agency successfully landed a spacecraft on a speeding comet to find out the role of the comets in bringing organic matter and water to earth.
  • The mission was named as Rosetta.**
  • The name of the probe that landed was Philae.**
  • Comets are frozen asteroids from the formation of the solar system composed of dust when they come close to the Sun, they heat up and spews dust and gases into a giant glowing head.
  • The asteroid belt is located between Mars and Jupiter.
  • The planets of the outer solar system i.e. after the asteroid belt i.e. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are referred to as 'Jovian planets.'

Question 123

Who among the following Nobel laureates has recently announced to put his Nobel Medal under auction?

  1. AOption (a)

    Kailash Satyarthi

  2. BOption (b)

    J D Watson

  3. COption (c)

    Mikhail Gorbachev

  4. DOption (d)

    Jody Williams

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

J D Watson

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is J D Watson.

  • J D Watson has recently announced to put his Nobel Medal under auction.

Key Points

  • James D Watson announced to put his Nobel Medal under auction.
  • He is known as one of the greatest biologists in the history of mankind.
  • James Watson was awarded Nobel Prize in 1962 for the discovery of DNA structure.
  • The Nobel Prize for Physiology or Medicine, 2019 was awarded to William G Kaelin, Jr, Peter J Ratcliffe and Gregg L Semenza.
  • Nobel Prizes were started in 1901.

Additional Information

  • Kailash Satyarthi won the Nobel Peace Prize in the year 2014.
  • Mikhail Gorbachev won the Nobel Peace Prize in the year 1990.
  • Jody Williams won the Nobel Peace Prize in 1997.
  • Nobel Prize:
  • The Nobel Prizes are given under the will of Alfred Bernhard Nobel, who died in 1896.
  • Nobel Prizes are given each year in the six fields.
  • The Nobel Prizes for Peace, Physics, Chemistry, Medicine, and Literature were started in 1901.
  • The Nobel Prize for Economics was started in 1968.
  • The prize-awarding bodies are the
  • Swedish Academy of literature awards the Prize in Literature.
  • The Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences awards the prize in Physics and Chemistry.
  • The Nobel Assembly of Karolinska Chirurgical (Sweden) awards the prize in Medicine (Physiology).
  • The Bank of Sweden awards the Prize in Economics.
  • The Committee of the Norwegian Parliament awards the prize for Peace.

Question 124

Which one among the following statements with regard to a climate deal adopted between USA and China in November 2014 is NOT correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    China committed to cap its output of carbon pollution by the year 2030 or earlier

  2. BOption (b)

    China committed to increase its use of zero emission energy to 20% by the year 2030

  3. COption (c)

    USA agreed to reduce its emissions by 26% - 28% below its year 2005 levels in the years 2025

  4. DOption (d)

    Both the countries agreed to completely phase out coal technologies by the year 2020

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Both the countries agreed to completely phase out coal technologies by the year 2020

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 4 i.e. Both the countries agreed to completely phase out coal technologies by the year 2020.

  • The US and China have created a US-China Clean Energy Research Centre which will facilitate collaboration to work in carbon capture and storage technologies.
  • It also includes energy-efficient buildings clean vehicles and advanced coal technologies.
  • US-China Joint Announcement on Climate Change was done in Beijing, China.
  • Provisions of U.S.-China Joint Announcement on Climate Change:
  • It established the US-China Climate Change Working Group (CCWG)
  • Both the countries agreed to work together towards the global phase-down of hydrofluorocarbons, very potent greenhouse gases.
  • Both the countries agreed on a joint peer review of inefficient fossil fuel subsidies under the G-20.

Question 125

Which one among the following books is centered around 'environment'?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Late, Great Planet Earth

  2. BOption (b)

    Silent Spring

  3. COption (c)

    Here I Stand

  4. DOption (d)

    And Then One Day

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Silent Spring

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 2 i.e. Silent Spring.

  • 'Silent Spring' is a book authored by Rachel Carson which is based on environmental science.
  • Silent Spring book presents a view of nature which is compromised by synthetic pesticides, especially DDT.
  • The Late, Great Planet Earth was written by Hal Lindsey and Carole C. Carlson.
  • ​It was the bestselling nonfiction book of the 1970s according to The New York Times.
  • Here I Stand book was written by Paul Robeson in 1958.
  • And Then One Day is written by the actor Naseeruddin Shah.
  • ​It is a memoir of his early years.

Question 126

Who among the following cricket players has not died while playing a match?

  1. AOption (a)

    Wasim Raja

  2. BOption (b)

    Philip Hughes

  3. COption (c)

    Raman Lamba

  4. DOption (d)

    Vijay Hazare

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

Vijay Hazare

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 4 i.e. Vijay Hazare​.

  • Vijay Hazare died due to colon cancer in 2004. Hence, Option 4 is the correct answer.
  • Vijay Samuel Hazare was the captain of Indian Cricket Team during 1951 and 1953.
  • Wasim Raja - He died of a heart attack in Marlow, Buckinghamshire, England in August 2006 while playing cricket for the Surrey over-50s side.
  • Australian cricketer Phillip Hughes died on November 27, 2014 after being struck on the neck by a short-pitched delivery.
  • Raman Lamba died on 23 February 1998 in the Post Graduate Hospital in Dhaka in Bangladesh after he was hit on the temple by a cricket ball hit by Mehrab Hossain off left arm spinner Saifullah Khan while fielding at forward short leg.

Question 127

Which one among the following films was conferred the 'Golden Peacock' award in the 45th International Film Festival of India (2014)?

  1. AOption (a)

    Ek Hazarachi Note

  2. BOption (b)

    A Short Story

  3. COption (c)

    Leviathan

  4. DOption (d)

    Ajeyo

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Leviathan

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Leviathan.

  • Leviathan was conferred the 'Golden Peacock' award in the 45th International Film Festival of India (2014).

Key Points

  • The Golden Peacock Award in the 45th International Film Festival of India was given to "Leviathan".
  • The movie was directed by Andrey Zvyagintsev.
  • The award for the Best Director was given to Nadav Lapid for the movie "The Kindergarten Teacher".
  • The 45th International Film Festival of India was held in Goa.

Additional Information

  • The Silver Peacock Award in the 45th International Film Festival of India was given to "Ek Hazarachi Note" which was directed by Shrihari Sathe.

Question 128

Which one among the following films was awarded the best motion picture (Drama) in the 72nd Golden Globe Awards?

  1. AOption (a)

    The Theory of Everything

  2. BOption (b)

    Boyhood

  3. COption (c)

    Still Alice

  4. DOption (d)

    Birdman

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Boyhood

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Boyhood.

  • Boyhood was awarded the best motion picture (Drama) in the 72nd Golden Globe Awards.

Key Points

  • Boyhood was awarded the best motion picture (Drama) in the 72nd Golden Globe Awards.
  • The movie was written and directed by Richard Linklater.
  • The best motion picture (Musical or Comedy) in the 72nd Golden Globe Awards was given to The Grand Budapest Hotel.
  • Boyhood was the movie which bagged most number of awards.

Additional Information

  • The Birdman was the movie that received the most number of nominations.
  • Eddie Redmayne won the award for the  Best Actor in a Motion Picture for the movie The Theory of Everything.
  • Julianne Moore won the award for the  Best Actress in a Motion Picture for the movie Still Alice.

Question 129

East Zone won the prestigious Deodhar Trophy cricket tournament 2014-15 by defeating

  1. AOption (a)

    South Zone

  2. BOption (b)

    Central Zone

  3. COption (c)

    West Zone

  4. DOption (d)

    North Zone

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

West Zone

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 3 i.e. West Zone.

  • East Zone won the prestigious Deodhar Trophy cricket tournament 2014-15 by defeating West Zone.
  • The final match was held at the Wankhede Stadium in Mumbai.
  • Deodhar Trophy is a cricket competition of Indian domestic cricket.
  • The tournament is named after Prof. D. B. Deodhar who is also known as the Grand Old Man of Indian cricket.
  • The competition was first introduced in 1973-74.
  • The North Zone has won the Deodhar trophy with a record of 13 times.

Question 130

Which one of the following books won the Man Booker Prize 2014?

  1. AOption (a)

    History of the Rain

  2. BOption (b)

    The Lives of Others

  3. COption (c)

    The Narrow Road to the Deep North

  4. DOption (d)

    How to the Both

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

The Narrow Road to the Deep North

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is  The Narrow Road to the Deep North.

  • The Narrow Road to the Deep North won the Man Booker Prize 2014.

Key Points

  • The book The Narrow Road to the Deep North won the Man Booker Prize 2014.

  • It is authored by Richard Flanagan who is an Australian author.

  • The book revolves around the themes of love and war.

  • The Lives of Others is a novel written by Neel Mukherjee.

  • The book was shortlisted for the 2014 Man Booker Prize.

  • History of the Rain book is written by Niall Williams.

  • The Man Booker Prize was first awarded in 1969.

Additional Information

  • The Lives of Others is a novel written by Neel Mukherjee.
  • The book was shortlisted for the 2014 Man Booker Prize.
  • History of the Rain book is written by Niall Williams.
  • The Man Booker Prize was first awarded in 1969.

Question 131

The Second Five Year Plan that called for the establishment of Socialist pattern of Society was commonly referred to as the

  1. AOption (a)

    Harrod-Domar Plan

  2. BOption (b)

    Mahalanobis Plan

  3. COption (c)

    Nehru Plan

  4. DOption (d)

    Peoples Plan

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Mahalanobis Plan

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 2 i.e. Mahalanobis Plan.

  • The second five-year plan focused on industries, especially heavy industry.
  • The second five-year plan was based on the Mahalanobis model.
  • A target of 25% Increase in the national income was set through the rapid industrialization.
  • Its provisions were:
  • ​Enhanced coal production and more railway lines were introduced.
  • The Atomic Energy Commission was formed in August 1948 and Dr Homi J. Bhabha was the first chairman.
  • Tata Institute of Fundamental Research was established as one of the premier research institutes.

Question 132

Harappan crafts display an amazing degree of standardization. According to Kenoyer, what was the possible reason for such an achievement?

  1. AOption (a)

    Availability of raw material at local level

  2. BOption (b)

    Centralized markets for crafts

  3. COption (c)

    Specialized training centres for craftsman

  4. DOption (d)

    State control

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Availability of raw material at local level

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is the Availability of raw material at local level.

Key Points

  • According to Jonathan Mark Kenoyer, the remarkable standardization in Harappan crafts was likely due to strong Availability of raw material at the local level over production and distribution.
  • The Harappan civilization exhibited a well-organized manufacturing system with strict adherence to uniform weights, measures, and production techniques.
  • Excavations at sites like Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro reveal specialized craft areas, indicating centralized control over production.
  • The presence of standardized pottery, beads, seals, and tools across a vast geographical area supports the idea of a regulated economy.

Additional Information

  • The Harappan Civilization (2600-1900 BCE) was one of the earliest urban cultures, known for its advanced city planning and trade networks.
  • Harappan craft specialization included industries such as bead-making, pottery, shell work, and metallurgy.
  • Artifacts found across Harappan sites indicate long-distance trade with Mesopotamia, Persia, and Central Asia.
  • Standardized weights and measures suggest an organized economic system with regulatory oversight.
  • The uniformity in Harappan artifacts implies a centralized administrative mechanism that controls the quality and distribution of goods.
  • Unlike later civilizations, the Harappans did not leave behind written records that can be fully deciphered, but archaeological evidence strongly suggests a highly structured and planned economic system.

Question 133

Consider the following statements about Ashokan rock edicts : 

  1. Major Rock Edict XIll records Ashoka's remorse at the sufferings caused by his Kalinga campaign. 
  2. Major Rock Edict X records Ashoka's visit to Lumbini. 
  3. Major Rock Edict XII refers to Dhamma Mahamattas as a new category of officers instituted by Ashoka. 
  4. Major Rock Edict XII speaks about showing tolerance towards all sects.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 4 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    3 and 4 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 3 and 4 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

1 and 4 only

Why this answer is correct

The correct is 1 and 4 only.

Key Points

  • ​Asoka’s Edicts & Inscriptions refer to a collection of 33 inscriptions on the Pillars and cave walls.
  • In these inscriptions, Ashoka referred to himself as “Beloved of the Gods” and “King Priya-darshi.”
  • The inscriptions found in the eastern part of India were written in the Magadhi language with mild use of the Brahmi script.
  • The inscriptions found in the western part of India have a language closer to Sanskrit, using the Kharoshthi script.
  • These edicts were decoded by British archaeologist James Prinsep.
  • Major Rock Edict X condemns the desire for fame and glory. Hence, Statement 2 is NOT correct.
  • Major Rock Edict XIII records Asoka’s victory over Kalinga and the remorse at the sufferings caused by his Kalinga campaign. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • Major Rock Edict XII records directed and determined the request for tolerance among different religious sects. Hence, Statement 3 is NOT correct while Statement 4 is correct.

Additional Information

Major Rock Edict 1st: In these rock edicts, King prohibited animal slaughter, especially during festive gatherings.

Major Rock Edict 2nd: In this rock edict, there are descriptions of Kingdoms of South India like Chola, Pandyas, Satyapura, and Keralputra.  It also provides care for men and animals.

Major Rock Edict 3rd: It was made after 12 years of Asoka’s coronation. It says that the Yuktas (subordinate officers and Pradesikas (district Heads) along with Rajukas (Rural officers) shall go to all areas of the kingdom every five years and spread the Dhamma Policy of Asoka. It also decoded the practical instructions for generosity to Brahmins.

4th: Dhammaghosa is ideal to mankind and not the Bherighosa. Impact of Dhamma on Society.

5th: It states the concerns about the policy towards slaves and mentioned the appointment of Dhammamahamatras. And also in this rock edict, Ashoka mentions that” Every Human is my child”.

6th: It describes King’s desire to get informed about the conditions of the people constantly. In other words, talks about welfare measures.

7th: It decoded the practical instructions of King to tolerance for all religions - “To foster one’s own sect, depreciating the others out of affection for one’s own, to exalt its merit, is to do the worst harm to one’s own sect.”

8th: It describes Asoka’s first Dhamma Yatra to Bodhgaya & Bodhi Tree.

9th: It condemns the popular ceremonies like ceremonies after birth, illness, marriage, and before setting out on the journey. It also stresses the practice of dhamma.

10th: It condemns the fame and glory and reasserts the merits of the dhamma policy.

11th: It explained the policy of dhamma and also emphasizes the act of individuals towards elders and also abstaining from killing animals and liberality towards friends.

12th: It directed and determined the request for tolerance among different religious sects.

13th: It is the paramount importance in understanding Ashok’s Policy of dhamma. This rock edict pleads the way of conquest which is dhamma instead of war. This is the logical culmination of the thorough processes which began from the 1st rock edict.

14th: It describes the engraving of inscriptions in different parts of the country.

Question 134

Which one of the following is the common element among Rajagriha, Vaishali and Pataliputra?

  1. AOption (a)

    Pali canon of the Sthaviravadins was compiled there 

  2. BOption (b)

    Ashokan Major Rock Edicts were found there 

  3. COption (c)

    Places where Buddhist Councils were held 

  4. DOption (d)

    Places associated with the compilation of Buddhist canons of the Mahasanghikas 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

Places where Buddhist Councils were held 

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Places where Buddhist Councils were held.

  • Rajagriha, Vaishali and Pataliputra are the places where Buddhist Councils were held.
  • First Buddhist Council was held soon after the mahaparinirvana of the Buddha.

Additional Information

Buddhist CouncilLocationPatronagePresidencyImportant Remarks
1st councilRajgrihaAjatshatruMahakasappaAbhidhamma Pitaka was also included.
2nd councilVaishaliKalasokaSabakamiRejection of Mahasanghikas
3rd CouncilPatliputraAshokaMogaliputta TissaReconciliation of Schools of Buddhism
4th CouncilKashmirKanishkaVasumitraDivision into Hinyana and Mahayan

Important Points

  • Trick to remember Location: Raj aur Vaishali ka Putra Kashmir me hua.
  • Trick to remember Patronage: AKAK
  • Trick to remember Presidency: Kasappa aur Saba ke Tis mitra hai

Question 135

Which one among the following sects was associated with Gosala Maskariputra?

  1. AOption (a)

    Vajrayana

  2. BOption (b)

    Ajivikas

  3. COption (c)

    Sthaviravadins

  4. DOption (d)

    Mahasanghikas

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Ajivikas

Why this answer is correct

The correct option is 2 i.e. Ajivikas

  • Ajivikas were associated with Gosala Makhaliputra.
  • The basic theme of ajivikism is the Doctrine of Niyati.
  • Gosala Makhaliputra was a contemporary of Buddha and Mahavira.
  • Manthaliputra Goshala was an ascetic teacher of Ancient India.
  • Bhagwati Sutra is the main source of information on Ajivikism.

Question 136

Consider the following statements about the early modern technology in India:

  1. The Portuguese brought European movable metal types to Goa in 1550.
  2. The first Indian script of which types were prepared was Tamil.
  3. The English Company's first experiment with printed press was at Calcutta
  4. The English Company imported printing press to India in 1674-75 at the request of Bhimji Parak.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2 only

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 3

  3. COption (c)

    3 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 2 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1, 2 and 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e 1, 2 and 4.

Key Points

  • European movable metal types were brought to Goa around 1550 AD by the Portuguese. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • The latter started printing books on Christian saints, Sermons, grammars and vocabularies in the Marathi and Konkani languages and dialects, but in Roman script rather than in the Devanagari script.
  • Tamil Script - It is the script used to write the Tamil language in India and Sri Lanka.
  • It evolved from Grantha, the Southern form of Brahmi.
  • It is a syllabic language and not alphabetic.
  • It is written from left to right.
  • It is the first Indian script of which types were prepared. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Mistake Points 

  • The English Company's first experiment with printed press was at Surat. Hence, Statement 3 is NOT correct.
  • In A.D. 1670s, Bhimji Parak, the chief broker of the English Company at Surat, took a keen interest in this technology.
  • A printer was sent to India in A.D. 1674 at Bhimji's request, along with a press at the latter's expense. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.

Question 137

Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for Olympe de Gouges? 

  1. She was one of the most important politically active woman in revolutionary France. 
  2. She was one of the members of the Committee that drafted the Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizen. 
  3. She wrote the Declaration of the Rights of Woman and Citizen. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 only 

  2. BOption (b)

    3 only

  3. COption (c)

    1 and 2

  4. DOption (d)

    1 and 3 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

1 and 3 

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is option 4 i.e. 1 and 3.

  • Olympe de gouges is best known for early women's rights advocates who demanded that French women be given the same rights as French men.
  • In 1791, as the French Revolution continued, she published the pamphlet “Declaration of the Rights of Woman and of the Female Citizen as a reply to the Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the [Male] Citizen, which had been adopted two years earlier by the National Assembly. Hence, Statement 2 is NOT correct.
  • In her pamphlet she asserted not only that women have the same rights as men but also that children born outside of marriage should be treated as fairly as “legitimate” children in matters of inheritance.
  • The French Revolution of 1789 inaugurated a new era and the ideas of “liberty, equality and fraternity” spread to other parts of the world.
  • France was divided into three social classes or Estates, with different jobs and privileges: the clergy was the First Estate, the Nobles were the Second Estate, and the peasants were the Third Estate .
  • Only daughters of the noblewomen and richer sections of societies had access to any education.
  • Napoleon Bonaparte, Marie Antoinette. Robespierre, Jacques-Pierre Brissot, Louis XVI, are some important person in revolution.

Question 138

Arrange the following inventions in the field of cotton industry in chronological order (starting with the earliest): 

  1. James Hargreaves's Spinning Jenny
  2. John Kay's Flying Shuttle
  3. Samuel Crompton's Mule
  4. Richard Arkwright's Water Frame

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 3, 4, 2

  2. BOption (b)

    2, 1, 4, 3

  3. COption (c)

    4, 1, 3, 2

  4. DOption (d)

    2, 4, 1, 3

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

2, 1, 4, 3

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is option 2 i.e, 2,1,4,3.

  • The Spinning jenny was invented by James Hargreaves in 1764.
  • The Flying shuttle was invented by John Kay's in 1733.
  • The Mule was invented by Samuel Cromptons in 1779.
  • Richard Awkwart's Water Frame was patented in 1769.

Question 139

While opposing the Public Safety Bill, 1928 who among the following said that it was 'a direct attack on Indian nationalism on the Indian National Congress' and as 'the Slavery of India, Bill No.1'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Motilal Nehru

  2. BOption (b)

    Lala Lajpat Rai

  3. COption (c)

    T Prakasham

  4. DOption (d)

    Diwan Chaman Lal

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

Motilal Nehru

Why this answer is correct

The Correct answer is Motilal Nehru.

Key Points

  • Public Safety Bill of 1928 allowed to detain suspects without any trial.
  • Motilal Nehru said that it was ‘a direct attack on Indian nationalism, on the Indian National Congress’ and as ‘the Slavery of India, Bill No. 1’.
  • Motilal Nehru gave a very famous report known as Nehru report.
  • The Report includes: 
  • India should be given Dominion Status with the Parliamentary form of Government with the bi-cameral legislature.
  • There should be a federal form of Government in India with Residuary powers to be vested in the Centre.

Additional Information

  • Lala Lajpat Rai is remembered for his role during the Swadeshi movement.
  • He was popularly known as Punjab Kesari.
  • He founded the Indian Home Rule League of America in New York in 1917.
  • Tanguturi Prakasam Pantulu was also known as Andhra Kesari (Lion of Andhra).

Question 140

Soon after the formation of Indian National Congress, the British became suspicious of nationalists. Who among the following called Congress representing only the elite --'a microscopic minority'?

  1. AOption (a)

    Lord Napier

  2. BOption (b)

    Lord Dufferin

  3. COption (c)

    Lord Ripon

  4. DOption (d)

    Lord Lytton

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

Lord Dufferin

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is option 2 i.e, Lord Dufferin.

  • Lord Dufferin said that the Indian National Congress represents only microscopic minorities.
  • Lord Dufferin served as Governor-General of India and Viceroy from 1884 to 1888.
  • In 1885, AO Hume laid the foundation of the Indian National Congress.
  • Lord Napier was then appointed Governor of Madras in 1866 and served from 27 March 1866 to 19 February 1872.
  • Lord Ripon was India’s Viceroy from 1880-84  and he is known for many reforms in the internal administration of India.
  • The Vernacular Press Act was repealed in 1882 during his term.
  • Lord Lytton was the Viceroy of India from 1876-1880 and the age for eligibility in civil services was brought down from 21 to 18 years during his tenure.

Question 141

What is the common element among Ram Prasad Bismill, Roshan Singh, and Rajendra Lahiri?

  1. AOption (a)

    They threw a bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly on 8 April, 1929

  2. BOption (b)

    They were the founder members of Swaraj Party

  3. COption (c)

    They were the founders of Hindustan Republican Association

  4. DOption (d)

    They were associated with Kakori Train Action (Kakori Conspiracy case)

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

They were associated with Kakori Train Action (Kakori Conspiracy case)

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is They were associated with Kakori Train Action (Kakori Conspiracy case).

  • Kakori Robbery was a train robbery that took place on 9 August 1925 against the British Indian Government.
  • It was organized by the Hindustan Republican Association.
  • The idea behind the Kakori conspiracy was to secure money belonging to the government.
  • The train was carrying money-bags belonging to the British Government.
  • The people included here were Swaran Singh, Ram Prasad Bismil, Ashfaqulla Khan, Rajendra Lahiri, Durga Bhagavati Charan Vohra, Roshan Singh, Sachindra Bakshi, Chandrasekhar Azad, Vishnu Sharan Dublish, Keshab Chakravarthy, Banwari Lal, Mukundi Lal, Sachindra Nath Sanyal, and Manmathnath Gupta.
  • Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das were the founding members of the Swaraj Party.
  • Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw bombs at the Central Legislative Assembly in Delhi.

Question 142

Which of the following is/are NOT fundamental right(s) under the Constitution of India?

  1. Right to education.
  2. Right to work
  3. Right to form associations
  4. Right to practice any profession

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AOption (a)

    1 and 2

  2. BOption (b)

    2 and 4

  3. COption (c)

    2 only

  4. DOption (d)

    1, 3 and 4

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

2 only

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is option is 3 i.e. 2 only.

  • Eighty-sixth Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right.
  • The right to work is placed in Part IV Directive Principles of State Policy of the Constitution under Article 41, which hence makes it unenforceable in the court of law.  Hence 3 is the correct answer.
  • The right to form an association is a fundamental Right given in the Constitution of India under Article 19(1)(c). It says that all citizens shall have the freedom to form associations or unions for a lawful purpose.
  • The Right to practice any profession is a fundamental Right given in the Constitution of India under Article 19(1)(g). It helps to carry on any occupation, trade, or business to all citizens subject to Art.

Question 143

Mahatma Gandhi's Hind Swaraj is essentially

  1. AOption (a)

    a critique of Western modernity

  2. BOption (b)

    an outline of his philosophy of Satyagraha

  3. COption (c)

    an invocation to Indians to free themselves from the British

  4. DOption (d)

    A blueprint of Gram Swaraj

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

a critique of Western modernity

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is option 1 i.e. a critique of Western modernity

Key Points

  • Hind Swaraj is a book written by Mahatma Gandhi in 1909.
  • It is a critique of Western Modernity.
  • Mahatma Gandhi adopted and developed Gandhian ideology which is the set of religious and social ideas.
  • Hind Swaraj is also known as the Indian Home Rule.
  • Gandhiji's Hind Swaraj is the dialogue between reader and editor.
  • Truth, Sarvodaya, nonviolence, and Satyagraha, and their significance constitute Gandhian philosophy.
  • Trusteeship is a socio-economic philosophy that was propounded by Gandhiji.
  • Gandhiji called his method of nonviolent action Satyagraha.

Question 144

The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India contains

  1. AOption (a)

    provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas 

  2. BOption (b)

    the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List 

  3. COption (c)

    a list of recognized languages

  4. DOption (d)

    provisions about the disqualification of Members of Legislatures on grounds of defection 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (b)B.

the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List 

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List.

Key Points

  • The Seventh Schedule contains three lists – the Union, State, and Concurrent.
  • The Union List has a range of subjects under which the Parliament may make laws. This includes foreign affairs, defence, railways, banking, economy, citizenship.
  • The State List lists subjects under which the legislature of a State may make laws in Public order, public health, police and sanitation, hospitals, and dispensaries are some of the subjects that come under the state.
  • The Concurrent List includes subjects that give powers to both the Centre and state governments.
  • Subjects like Education, medical education and universities, criminal law, prevention of cruelty to animals, protection of wildlife, population control and family planning and animals, forests, ports other than major ports etc.

Question 145

Pochampally in Nalgonda district of Telengana became famous in April, 1951 because

  1. AOption (a)

    the Bhoodan movement was launched there by Vinoba Bhave 

  2. BOption (b)

    the landless peasants rose up in arms against the landlords 

  3. COption (c)

    it witnessed violent .anti-Hindi agitation 

  4. DOption (d)

    Silk weavers' cooperative was formed for the first time in India 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

the Bhoodan movement was launched there by Vinoba Bhave 

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is option 1 i.e. the Bhoodan movement was launched there by Vinoba Bhave.

  • The Bhoodan Movement was launched there by Vinoba Bhave. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The Bhoodan was started in 1951 by  Vinoba Bhave in Pochampalli, Telangana.
  • The rich landowners voluntarily gift a percentage of their lands to the landless. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The Bhoodan and Gramdan movements led by Vinoba Bhave attempted to bring about in India’s land reforms program.
  • The first village to come under Gramdan, was Magroth, Haripur, Uttar Pradesh.
  • There was no compulsion in donating land, it was voluntary in nature.

Question 146

Who among the following was NOT associated with the Sarvodaya movement?

  1. AOption (a)

    Jaya Prakash Narayan

  2. BOption (b)

    Acharya Vinoba Bhave

  3. COption (c)

    Dhirendra Mazumdar

  4. DOption (d)

    G V Apparao

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

G V Apparao

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is option 4, i.e. G V Apparao.

  • Sarvodaya means “the welfare of all.”
  • Truth and non-violence are the two fundamental principles of the Sarvodaya Samaj.
  • Ideals of the Sarvodaya movement include Inequalities in Income and wealth should be reduced.
  • A Sarvodaya society believes in individual freedom.
  • Sarvodaya society opposed to child marriage.
  • Jayaprakash Narayan was popularly known as the Lok Nayak.
  • Acharya Vinoba Bhave was the first Indian to get Ramon Magsaysay award.

Question 147

Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with _______________.

  1. AOption (a)

    The powers of the Parliament of India to amend the Constitution 

  2. BOption (b)

    Financial emergency 

  3. COption (c)

    Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha 

  4. DOption (d)

    Official Language of the Union of India 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (a)A.

The powers of the Parliament of India to amend the Constitution 

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is the powers of the Parliament of India to amend the Constitution.

  • Article 368 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and procedure.
  • An amendment of this Constitution may be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament.
  • Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles are the two provisions that can be amended by the special majority.
  • Article 368 provides for two types of amendments:
  • by a special majority of Parliament.
  • The special majority of parliament along with the ratification of half of the states legislatures by a simple majority.
  • Certain provisions of the constitution require amendment by a simple majority of each house present and voting.
  • These amendments are not deemed to be amendments under Article 368.

Question 148

Which among the following is NOT a basic feature of the Constitution of India?

  1. AOption (a)

    Fundamental rights

  2. BOption (b)

    Independence of judiciary

  3. COption (c)

    Federalism 

  4. DOption (d)

    The unquestioned right of the Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

The unquestioned right of the Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution 

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is option 4 i.e. The unquestioned right of the Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution.

Key Points

  • The power of the Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution is not prone from the Judicial Review of the Supreme Court. Hence, Option 4 is NOT correct.
  • The Indian constitution is a combination of rigidity and flexibility.
  • The Indian constitution provides for a parliamentary system of government, i.e., the real executive power lies with the council of ministers and the President is only a nominal head (Article 74).
  • The Indian constitution described India as a 'Union of States' (Article 1).
  • The Indian constitution provides an elaborate list of Fundamental Rights to the citizens of India under article ( 12-35).
  • The constitution also provides a list of duties of the citizens known as the Fundamental Duties (Article 51A).

Question 149

Which one among the following is NOT a fundamental duty?

  1. AOption (a)

    To abide by the Constitution of India and respect the national flag and national anthem

  2. BOption (b)

    To safeguard public property

  3. COption (c)

    To protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India

  4. DOption (d)

    To render compulsory military service 

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (d)D.

To render compulsory military service 

Why this answer is correct

The Correct Answer is option 4 i.e. To render compulsory military service.

  • Fundamental Duties is taken from the Constitution of Russia.
  • It was incorporated in Part IV-A of the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on the recommendations of Swaran Singh Committee.
  • All the eleven duties are listed in Article 51-A of the Constitution.
  • The duties are also non-justiciable in nature.
  • Some of the duties are:
  • To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture
  • To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
  • To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
  • To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem

Question 150

Which of the following are the basic features of the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act ? 

  1. Provides for a three-tier structure of panchayats in the village, intermediary and district levels. 
  2. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and women in all the tiers of panchayats. 
  3. Election to panchayats under the supervision of the State Election Commissions. 
  4. Introduction of the 11th Schedule to the Constitution. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  1. AOption (a)

    1, 2 and 3 only

  2. BOption (b)

    3 and 4 only

  3. COption (c)

    1, 2, 3 and 4

  4. DOption (d)

    2 and 4 only

View answer & explanation

Correct answer

Answer: (c)C.

1, 2, 3 and 4

Why this answer is correct

The correct answer is 1, 2, 3 and 4.

Key Points

  • Panchayati Raj:
  • Article 40 of DPSP notifies about the Organisation of village panchayats.
  • 73rd Amendment Act of 1992:
  • The Act gives constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj institutions.
  • The Act has added new parts IX and 11th schedules to the constitution.
  • 11th Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the Power, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats, 29 subjects over which the Panchayats have jurisdiction.
  • It is entitled “The Panchayats” and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 (O).
  • It contains 29 functional items of the Panchayats and deals with Article 243 (G).
  • The main objective behind the establishment of Panchayati Raj Institutions is Social Justice, Economic Empowerment.
  • Establishment of a three-tier structure: Village Panchayat i.e, Gram Panchayat; intermediate panchayat i.e, Panchayat Samiti; and the district panchayat i.e, Zila Parishad. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Reservation of seats for the SC and ST in proportion to their population and not less than the one-third reservation of seats for women at three different levels. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Setting up of State Election Commissions to conduct an election. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Setting up of District Planning Committees to prepare development plans for the districts.
  • It introduced a new Part IX to the constitution with the title “The Panchayats” having provisions from Article 243 to 243(O), and a new Eleventh Schedule covering 29 subjects. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

150 questions in the full paper